Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 Full

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

    • Special force
    • Security forces
    • Joint forces
    • Air and Space forces
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About This Quiz

The 'Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4' quiz assesses knowledge on principles of war, tactics for force protection, and integrated defense operations. It focuses on strategic military objectives, key defensive tactics, and roles of security forces in achieving decisive results.

Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 Full - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?

    • The united nations

    • The world hunger league

    • United nations children fund

    • The american federation of labor and congress of industrial organizations

    Correct Answer
    A. The united nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it is a global organization that aims to maintain international peace and security, promote social progress and better living standards, and coordinate efforts to address global issues such as poverty, hunger, and human rights. It has a broad membership and plays a significant role in international diplomacy and cooperation. The other options mentioned, such as the World Hunger League, United Nations Children's Fund, and the American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations, are not as widely recognized or influential on a global scale.

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  • 3. 

    Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called

    • Marking

    • Stabbing

    • Flagging

    • Posting

    Correct Answer
    A. Flagging
    Explanation
    Flagging refers to the act of allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner. This technique is commonly used in tactical situations to gain an advantage by being able to engage targets before they have a clear line of sight. By flagging, the user is able to maintain a position of cover while still being able to engage potential threats. It is an important tactical maneuver in certain scenarios and requires careful execution to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the user.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

    • Simplicity

    • Surprise

    • Security

    • Safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The measures taken by commanders to protect their forces result in security. Security refers to the state of being free from danger or threat. When commanders implement various measures such as fortifications, defenses, and intelligence gathering, they aim to ensure the safety and protection of their forces. This includes measures like establishing perimeters, setting up checkpoints, implementing strict access control, and conducting regular patrols. By prioritizing security, commanders can minimize the risks and vulnerabilities that their forces may face in combat or other hazardous situations.

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  • 5. 

    After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

    • Warn

    • Assess

    • Recovery

    • Anticipate

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of Recovery is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves recovering any lost ground, equipment, or personnel, and ensuring that the forces are ready to continue their missions effectively. Recovery may also involve medical treatment, repair of damaged equipment, and restoring communication and logistical support. It is a crucial step in the post-threat phase to regain control and restore operational capability.

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  • 6. 

    What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?

    • Static

    • Roadside

    • Vehicle-borne

    • Romote detonated

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle-borne
    Explanation
    A vehicle-borne explosive device refers to a bomb that is concealed or hidden within a vehicle and detonated remotely. This type of explosive device is considered the most dangerous because it can cause significant damage and casualties due to the large amount of explosives that can be carried in a vehicle. Additionally, the use of a vehicle provides the advantage of mobility, allowing the attacker to target specific locations and evade security measures.

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  • 7. 

    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?

    • Arson

    • Bombing

    • Highjacking

    • Kidnapping and hostage taking

    Correct Answer
    A. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups most commonly use bombing as a tactic. This involves the deliberate use of explosives to cause destruction, casualties, and instill fear among the targeted population. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, vehicle bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic allows terrorists to inflict significant damage, cause mass casualties, and attract media attention, thereby achieving their objectives of spreading fear, destabilizing societies, and gaining publicity for their cause.

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  • 8. 

    Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?

    • Crimanals or professionals

    • Emotionally disturbed

    • Passive soldiers

    • Crusaders

    Correct Answer
    A. Crusaders
    Explanation
    Crusaders are individuals or groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are driven by a strong belief in their cause and are willing to take action to achieve their goals. This term is often associated with religious or political movements that engage in active advocacy or even military intervention to advance their beliefs. Unlike criminals or professionals who may have different motivations, crusaders are motivated by their ideological convictions and actively work towards promoting their cause.

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  • 9. 

    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of?

    • Atmosphere pressure

    • Terrain

    • Light

    • Air

    Correct Answer
    A. Light
    Explanation
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and functionality are directly influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision monocular used by the military and law enforcement, and its ability to enhance vision in low light conditions relies on the presence of sufficient light. Therefore, the level of light plays a crucial role in determining the performance of the AN/PVS-14.

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  • 10. 

    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

    • President only

    • Secretary of defense only

    • President or secretary of defense

    • President or defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    A. President or secretary of defense
    Explanation
    The president or secretary of defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. As the highest-ranking officials in the US government, they have the authority to make decisions regarding military actions and deployments. The president, as the commander-in-chief, holds ultimate responsibility for the military, while the secretary of defense is responsible for the overall defense policy and strategy. Together, they have the power to determine and direct the response of US forces in crisis situations.

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  • 11. 

    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?

    • In snowy conditions

    • Dense fog

    • Rainy weather

    • Bright sunlight

    Correct Answer
    A. Dense fog
    Explanation
    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors can have their detection capability degraded in dense fog. This is because the fog can scatter the infrared signals, making it difficult for the sensors to accurately detect objects or movements.

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  • 12. 

    Why does comoufage discipline become more important at night?

    • Noises seem amplified and revealing at night

    • Darkness is a disadvantage to the enemy

    • Map reading during the darkness is easier

    • Its not easy to detect troop movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Noises seem amplified and revealing at night
    Explanation
    At night, the lack of visual stimuli makes noises more noticeable and easier to locate. This heightened sensitivity to sound means that any noise made by a person or a group can potentially give away their position. Therefore, camouflage discipline becomes more important as it helps to minimize any unnecessary noise or movement that could reveal the presence and location of troops.

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  • 13. 

    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

    • Mass

    • Offensive

    • Manuever

    • Economy of force

    Correct Answer
    A. Offensive
    Explanation
    The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, and achieve decisive results is the Offensive. The offensive strategy involves actively attacking and taking the fight to the enemy, rather than waiting for them to attack. By maintaining the initiative and freedom of action, a military force can control the battlefield and dictate the terms of engagement. This principle is crucial in achieving success in warfare by keeping the enemy off-balance and on the defensive.

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  • 14. 

    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 12

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that individuals in this category require medical care or treatment within a day but their condition is not life-threatening. Therefore, they should be evacuated within 24 hours to ensure they receive the necessary medical attention in a timely manner.

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  • 15. 

    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information

    • OSINT

    • COMINT

    • HUMINT

    • INFOMINT

    Correct Answer
    A. HUMINT
    Explanation
    HUMINT, or Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information in intelligence collection. This is because HUMINT involves gathering information directly from human sources, such as spies, informants, or individuals with access to sensitive information. Human sources can provide unique insights, firsthand knowledge, and specific details that may not be available through other means of intelligence collection. HUMINT allows for a deeper understanding of human behavior, motivations, and intentions, making it a valuable source for intelligence analysis and decision-making.

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  • 16. 

    Force protection measures will be planned according with

    • Determination of the force

    • The risk to the force

    • Location of the force

    • Size of the force

    Correct Answer
    A. The risk to the force
    Explanation
    Force protection measures are planned based on the risk to the force. This means that the level of protection and the specific measures taken will depend on the potential threats and dangers that the force may face. By assessing the risk to the force, such as the likelihood of encountering enemy forces or being exposed to hazardous environments, appropriate measures can be implemented to mitigate these risks and ensure the safety and security of the force. The determination of the force, location, and size are important factors to consider, but ultimately, it is the risk to the force that drives the planning of force protection measures.

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  • 17. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • Standoff attack

    • Penetration attack

    • Information operation

    • Chemical, biological attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Penetration attack
    Explanation
    A penetration attack is a type of attack that involves an insider threat. In this scenario, an individual with authorized access to a system or network intentionally exploits their privileges to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. This can include actions such as stealing sensitive information, manipulating data, or disrupting the system's functionality. The insider's knowledge and access make them a significant threat as they can bypass security measures and potentially cause extensive damage without raising suspicion.

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  • 18. 

    What movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cant use the rush technique?

    • Spider crawl

    • High crawl

    • Low crawl

    • Roll

    Correct Answer
    A. High crawl
    Explanation
    The high crawl is the movement technique used when speed is required and the rush technique cannot be used. This technique involves moving forward by crawling on your hands and knees, with your body elevated off the ground. It allows for a faster movement compared to the low crawl, where the body is kept close to the ground. The high crawl is often used in military or tactical situations where speed is necessary but the terrain or circumstances prevent the use of the rush technique.

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  • 19. 

    When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does  the squad leader position key weapons?

    • On high ground to avoid weapons fire

    • Along likely avenues of approach

    • Along resupply lines

    • Along rally points

    Correct Answer
    A. Along likely avenues of approach
    Explanation
    The squad leader positions key weapons along likely avenues of approach when using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks. This is done to ensure that the squad can effectively engage and neutralize any enemy forces approaching from those directions. By placing the weapons along likely avenues of approach, the squad leader maximizes the defensive capabilities of the squad and increases their chances of successfully repelling counterattacks.

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  • 20. 

    What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?

    • Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map

    • Location in relation to the water

    • Location anyplace on a map

    • Location on a ridge

    Correct Answer
    A. Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
    Explanation
    Contour lines on a map indicate relief and elevation. They provide valuable information about the shape and steepness of the terrain. By closely examining the contour lines, one can identify hills, valleys, and other landforms. The spacing between the lines indicates the slope of the land, with closely spaced lines representing steep slopes and widely spaced lines indicating gentle slopes. Therefore, contour lines are essential for understanding the topography of an area and are commonly used in topographic maps for navigation, planning outdoor activities, and conducting geological surveys.

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  • 21. 

    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?

    • 5-10

    • 10-15

    • 25-30

    • 35-40

    Correct Answer
    A. 25-30
    Explanation
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30. This means that terrorist organizations often operate in small, secretive units known as cells, which allows them to maintain security and carry out their activities without detection. These cells typically consist of a small number of individuals who work closely together, sharing information, resources, and responsibilities. By organizing themselves into cells, terrorist groups can effectively plan and execute their operations while minimizing the risk of exposure and infiltration by authorities.

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  • 22. 

    An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?

    • Charts and forms

    • Base sectorization

    • Staff control tools

    • Military symbology

    Correct Answer
    A. Base sectorization
    Explanation
    Base sectorization is an effective tool to control integrated defense operations. It involves dividing the operational area into sectors, each assigned to specific units or elements. This allows for better coordination and control of resources, as well as efficient allocation of tasks and responsibilities. By implementing base sectorization, commanders can ensure that all areas are adequately covered and that there is a clear understanding of the operational plan among all units involved. This helps to enhance situational awareness, decision-making, and overall effectiveness of the defense operation.

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  • 23. 

    Where is the best position for a defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection?

    • A lone building

    • The side of a hill

    • In an open valley

    • At a road junction

    Correct Answer
    A. The side of a hill
    Explanation
    A defensive fighting position is best located on the side of a hill because it provides natural cover and concealment. The slope of the hill can be used to create a more effective defensive position, offering better visibility and fields of fire for the defenders. Being on the side of a hill also allows for a tactical advantage, as it provides a higher ground position, making it easier to observe and engage the enemy while minimizing the risk of being detected.

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  • 24. 

    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?

    • Key terrain

    • High grounds

    • Avenues of approach

    • Pockets of resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Key terrain
    Explanation
    Key terrain refers to geographic features or locations that have strategic importance in military operations. By capturing key terrain, a force can establish control over an area and gain a tactical advantage. This allows them to place direct or indirect fire on critical resources, such as supply routes or enemy positions, and potentially dominate the area. Key terrain can include high grounds, which provide a vantage point for observation and engagement, as well as avenues of approach, which are routes that facilitate movement and maneuver. Pockets of resistance are not directly related to key terrain, as they refer to areas where enemy forces are concentrated and offering resistance.

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  • 25. 

    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

    • Recovery

    • Peace

    • Peace enforcement

    • Noncompatant evacuation

    Correct Answer
    A. Noncompatant evacuation
    Explanation
    Noncombatant evacuation is the operation principally conducted to evacuate US citizens. During times of crisis or conflict, when the safety and security of US citizens abroad are at risk, noncombatant evacuation operations are carried out to safely remove these individuals from the affected area and bring them back to the United States. This operation focuses on the evacuation of civilians, including American citizens, who are not directly involved in combat or military activities. It is aimed at ensuring the well-being and protection of US citizens in volatile situations.

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  • 26. 

    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

    • Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive

    • CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

    Correct Answer
    A. The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive
    Explanation
    Processing captives, detainees, and prisoners requires speed because the intelligence they provide is time-sensitive. This means that the information they possess may become outdated or lose its value if not acted upon quickly. By processing them swiftly, authorities can gather crucial intelligence that can be used for various purposes such as ensuring the safety of defectors and deserters, identifying potential threats, or gathering strategic information. Delaying the processing could result in missing out on valuable intelligence and compromising the effectiveness of operations.

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  • 27. 

    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?

    • Remove the negative lead first

    • Remove the positive lead first

    • It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the positive lead first
    Explanation
    Removing the positive lead first when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system (ESS) is the correct answer because it reduces the risk of electrical shock. By removing the positive lead first, it breaks the circuit and eliminates the flow of current. This reduces the chances of accidentally creating a short circuit or causing sparks that could lead to injury or damage. Removing the negative lead first could still leave the positive lead connected to the system, creating a potential risk.

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  • 28. 

    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect

    • Battery compartment

    • Rubber eye cups

    • Glass lens

    • Sight lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Glass lens
    Explanation
    The sacrificial window on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle is designed to protect the glass lens. The glass lens is a crucial component of the goggle that allows for clear vision in low-light conditions. The sacrificial window acts as a shield, preventing any damage or scratches to the glass lens, which could impair the effectiveness of the night vision capabilities.

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  • 29. 

    The hand held thermal imager powers on in what mode?

    • Manuel override

    • Manual

    • Auto

    • Sleep

    Correct Answer
    A. Auto
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "auto" because when the hand-held thermal imager powers on, it automatically starts in the auto mode. This mode allows the imager to adjust the settings and parameters based on the surrounding conditions and the user's preferences. It ensures that the imager is ready for immediate use without requiring any manual adjustments or interventions.

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  • 30. 

    One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is

    • Put mud on it

    • Pattern painting

    • Place foliage on and in the barrel

    • Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth
    Explanation
    Wrapping a weapon with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth can distort its outline effectively. This method helps to break up the shape and silhouette of the weapon, making it harder to identify from a distance. The texture and color of the burlap or cloth can blend with the surrounding environment, providing camouflage and making it difficult for an observer to recognize the weapon. This technique is commonly used in military or hunting scenarios to conceal firearms and increase stealth.

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  • 31. 

    You use the bounding overwatch formation when

    • The heavy left formation cannot be used

    • The wedge formation is not practical

    • Enemy contact is not likely

    • Enemy contact is expected

    Correct Answer
    A. Enemy contact is expected
    Explanation
    The bounding overwatch formation is used when enemy contact is expected. This formation involves one element providing cover and suppressing fire while the other element advances and takes position. It allows for a coordinated and tactical movement, ensuring that one element is always ready to engage the enemy if contact is made. This formation is chosen when there is a higher likelihood of encountering the enemy and the situation demands a cautious approach.

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  • 32. 

    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

    • Hill

    • Saddle

    • Valley

    • Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Valley
    Explanation
    A valley is a stretched out groove in the land that is usually formed by streams and rivers. It is a low-lying area between hills or mountains, often with a river flowing through it. Valleys are created through erosion, as the flowing water gradually wears away the surrounding land over time. They can vary in size and shape, and are often characterized by their fertile soil and suitability for agriculture.

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  • 33. 

    The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use

    • A ruler

    • A compass

    • A protractor

    • The tick marks

    Correct Answer
    A. A ruler
    Explanation
    A ruler is the easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line because it provides a straight edge that allows for accurate and precise measurements. It has clearly marked units, such as inches or centimeters, which make it easy to measure distances in a straight line. A compass is used for drawing circles, a protractor is used for measuring angles, and tick marks are not typically used for measuring distances. Therefore, a ruler is the most appropriate tool for measuring distance in a straight line.

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  • 34. 

    To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?

    • Underground

    • In disguise

    • In small bands

    • During the hours of darkness

    Correct Answer
    A. In small bands
    Explanation
    Insurgents may choose to operate in small bands in order to avoid detection by the government. By operating in smaller groups, they can minimize their visibility and reduce the chances of being detected or tracked by authorities. This strategy allows them to maintain a lower profile and makes it more difficult for the government to identify and target them. Additionally, operating in small bands can enhance their agility and flexibility, enabling them to carry out covert operations and quickly adapt to changing circumstances.

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  • 35. 

    How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

    • Look 5 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • Look 15 degrees above, below rather then directily at it

    • Look 20 degrees to either side rather then directily at it

    Correct Answer
    A. Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it
    Explanation
    During limited visibility, the observer uses off center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object instead of directly at it. This allows the observer to utilize their peripheral vision and maximize their field of view, increasing the chances of detecting the object even in low visibility conditions. By looking slightly off center, the observer can gather more visual information and enhance their situational awareness.

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  • 36. 

    What is the proper method of firing from a window?

    • Kneeling and close to the window

    • Kneeling and far back from the window

    • Standing and close to the window

    • Standing and away from the window

    Correct Answer
    A. Kneeling and far back from the window
    Explanation
    The proper method of firing from a window is to kneel and be far back from the window. This position provides stability and reduces the risk of being hit by return fire or debris. Being close to the window increases the chances of being seen and targeted by the enemy. Standing also makes the shooter a more visible target and decreases stability. Therefore, kneeling and being far back from the window is the safest and most effective method of firing.

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  • 37. 

    What are the two types of ambushes?

    • Point and distant

    • Distant and near

    • Area and far

    • Near and far

    Correct Answer
    A. Near and far
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "near and far". This is because in military tactics, ambushes are categorized based on the proximity of the attacking force to the target. A "near" ambush refers to an attack that occurs in close proximity to the target, usually within a short distance. On the other hand, a "far" ambush refers to an attack that takes place from a distance, typically using long-range weapons. These two types of ambushes offer different advantages and require different strategies to execute successfully.

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  • 38. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?

    • Accident

    • Incident

    • Mistake

    • Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it refers to an unintended and unplanned event involving the release or disposal of a nuclear weapon. Accidents can occur due to human error, mechanical failure, or other unforeseen circumstances, leading to the unintentional release or mishandling of nuclear materials. In this case, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon would be an accidental occurrence rather than an intentional act or deliberate incident.

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  • 39. 

    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?

    • Fairness, firmness and fight

    • Logic, lotalty, and leadership

    • Patience, persistence, and presence

    • Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Patience, persistence, and presence
    Explanation
    COIN operations, which refer to counterinsurgency operations, require leaders to exhibit patience, persistence, and presence. Patience is necessary as these operations often involve long-term efforts and require leaders to navigate complex situations. Persistence is important to continue working towards the objectives despite challenges and setbacks. Presence refers to being physically and mentally present in the operational environment, actively engaging with the local population, and building relationships. These qualities are crucial for leaders to effectively lead and succeed in COIN operations.

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  • 40. 

    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?

    • Bare base

    • Limited base

    • Main operating base

    • Forward operating base

    Correct Answer
    A. Limited base
    Explanation
    A limited base is a base that is minimally staffed but has the capability to expand into a full-scale air base operations when needed. This means that it can accommodate more personnel and equipment, and can support a wider range of operations. It provides a flexible and adaptable solution, allowing for rapid deployment and expansion as required.

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  • 41. 

    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

    • Control the traffic flow plan

    • Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan
    Explanation
    The DFC (Director of Base Defense Operations) uses staff control tools to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. These tools help the DFC effectively communicate and coordinate with staff members, ensuring that everyone is aware of their responsibilities and tasks. By using staff control tools, the DFC can efficiently manage the base defense operations and ensure that the plan is executed smoothly.

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  • 42. 

    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

    • 8

    • 5

    • 4

    • 2

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    If you already adapted to the dark before putting on the goggles, it means that your eyes have already adjusted to the low light conditions. Therefore, when you remove the goggles, your eyes will quickly readjust to the darkness, and you will achieve full dark adaptation within 2 minutes.

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  • 43. 

    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

    • Compass

    • De-mist shield

    • Tethering cord

    • Sacrigicial window

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass
    Explanation
    The correct answer is compass. The compass on the AN/PVS-14 night vision device allows the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This feature helps the operator determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or dark environments. The compass provides a crucial tool for situational awareness and effective decision-making during night operations.

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  • 44. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • Department of state

    • Department of justice

    • Department of defense

    • Federal bureau of investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of state
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. As the primary diplomatic agency of the US government, the Department of State is responsible for handling international relations and promoting national security interests abroad. In the context of terrorist incidents, the Department of State coordinates with foreign governments, provides assistance and support to affected US citizens, and works towards preventing and countering terrorism globally. The other options, such as the Department of Justice, Department of Defense, and Federal Bureau of Investigation, have different roles and responsibilities within the US and primarily focus on domestic security and law enforcement.

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  • 45. 

    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?

    • Violence to achieve political goals

    • Violence to achieve religious goals

    • Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • Use violence to achieve ideological goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Violence to achieve political goals
    Explanation
    Insurgency is characterized by the use of violence to achieve political goals. This means that individuals or groups involved in an insurgency engage in armed conflict and use tactics such as bombings, assassinations, and guerrilla warfare to challenge and overthrow a government or establish their own political system. The other options, such as using violence to achieve religious goals or non-violence to achieve political goals, do not accurately capture the defining characteristic of an insurgency.

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  • 46. 

    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?

    • Power

    • Annunciation

    • Communications

    • Response frequenct

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "communications" because this function is responsible for transmitting data between the TASS sensors and annunciators. It involves the exchange of information and signals between these two components, allowing for effective communication and coordination. Without proper communication, the sensors would not be able to transmit their data to the annunciators, resulting in a lack of information and potentially compromising the overall functionality and effectiveness of the system.

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  • 47. 

    when recovering the m49a1 trip flare, what is the first step using the pull pin method?

    • Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip

    • Loosen lower wing nut and remove bracket

    • Clean and dry flare and bracket

    • Tighten the wing nut

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip
    Explanation
    The first step when recovering the m49a1 trip flare using the pull pin method is to remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip.

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  • 48. 

    The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and

    • Not moving 12 inches away from the wall

    • Not being aware of basement windows

    • Not crouching while moving

    • Moving to slowly

    Correct Answer
    A. Not being aware of basement windows
    Explanation
    The most common mistake when moving past windows is not being aware of basement windows. This means that individuals may not take into account the presence of windows in the basement area and may not adjust their movements accordingly. This lack of awareness can lead to accidents or injuries if one accidentally collides with a basement window while moving past it.

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  • 49. 

    Which DAGR mode uses the most power and tracks satllites to produce continuous PVT solution?

    • Continuous

    • Standby

    • Average

    • Fix

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous
    Explanation
    Continuous mode uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous Position, Velocity, and Time (PVT) solution. In this mode, the DAGR device continuously receives and processes satellite signals to provide real-time and uninterrupted navigation information. This mode is ideal when precise and continuous positioning is required, but it consumes more power compared to other modes.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 30, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Don

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