Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 Full

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

    • Mass
    • Offensive
    • Manuever
    • Economy of force
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About This Quiz

The 'Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4' quiz assesses knowledge on principles of war, tactics for force protection, and integrated defense operations. It focuses on strategic military objectives, key defensive tactics, and roles of security forces in achieving decisive results.

Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 Full - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

    • Simplicity

    • Surprise

    • Security

    • Safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The measures taken by commanders to protect their forces result in security. Security refers to the state of being free from danger or threat. When commanders implement various measures such as fortifications, defenses, and intelligence gathering, they aim to ensure the safety and protection of their forces. This includes measures like establishing perimeters, setting up checkpoints, implementing strict access control, and conducting regular patrols. By prioritizing security, commanders can minimize the risks and vulnerabilities that their forces may face in combat or other hazardous situations.

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  • 3. 

    What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?

    • Key terrain

    • Defense in depth

    • All around defense

    • Aggressive defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Aggressive defense
    Explanation
    The balanced employment of firepower and patrolling achieves aggressive defense. Aggressive defense involves actively engaging the enemy and taking the fight to them, rather than waiting for them to attack. By combining the use of firepower to suppress the enemy and patrolling to gather intelligence and maintain situational awareness, aggressive defense aims to disrupt enemy plans and maintain control over the battlefield. This approach is proactive and seeks to dominate the enemy, rather than simply reacting to their actions.

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  • 4. 

    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?

    • Key terrain

    • High grounds

    • Avenues of approach

    • Pockets of resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Key terrain
    Explanation
    Key terrain refers to geographic features or locations that have strategic importance in military operations. By capturing key terrain, a force can establish control over an area and gain a tactical advantage. This allows them to place direct or indirect fire on critical resources, such as supply routes or enemy positions, and potentially dominate the area. Key terrain can include high grounds, which provide a vantage point for observation and engagement, as well as avenues of approach, which are routes that facilitate movement and maneuver. Pockets of resistance are not directly related to key terrain, as they refer to areas where enemy forces are concentrated and offering resistance.

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  • 5. 

    After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?

    • Warn

    • Assess

    • Recovery

    • Anticipate

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of Recovery is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves recovering any lost ground, equipment, or personnel, and ensuring that the forces are ready to continue their missions effectively. Recovery may also involve medical treatment, repair of damaged equipment, and restoring communication and logistical support. It is a crucial step in the post-threat phase to regain control and restore operational capability.

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  • 6. 

    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

    • Special force

    • Security forces

    • Joint forces

    • Air and Space forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Security forces. In the Air Force, the Security forces are responsible for integrated defense operations. They are in charge of protecting personnel, assets, and resources. They ensure the safety and security of Air Force installations and are trained in various areas such as law enforcement, combat arms, and physical security. They play a crucial role in maintaining the overall security and readiness of the Air Force enterprise.

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  • 7. 

    Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel covered wagon reportable incidents through?

    • Site security control

    • Security forces

    • Higher headquarters

    • Installation command post

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher headquarters
    Explanation
    The base defense operations center will reportable incidents through higher headquarters. Higher headquarters is the level of command above the base defense operations center and is responsible for overseeing and coordinating operations across multiple bases or installations. They have the authority and resources to handle and address any incidents that are reported to them.

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  • 8. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?

    • Accident

    • Incident

    • Mistake

    • Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it refers to an unintended and unplanned event involving the release or disposal of a nuclear weapon. Accidents can occur due to human error, mechanical failure, or other unforeseen circumstances, leading to the unintentional release or mishandling of nuclear materials. In this case, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon would be an accidental occurrence rather than an intentional act or deliberate incident.

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  • 9. 

    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 12

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that individuals in this category require medical care or treatment within a day but their condition is not life-threatening. Therefore, they should be evacuated within 24 hours to ensure they receive the necessary medical attention in a timely manner.

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  • 10. 

    What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?

    • Static

    • Roadside

    • Vehicle-borne

    • Romote detonated

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle-borne
    Explanation
    A vehicle-borne explosive device refers to a bomb that is concealed or hidden within a vehicle and detonated remotely. This type of explosive device is considered the most dangerous because it can cause significant damage and casualties due to the large amount of explosives that can be carried in a vehicle. Additionally, the use of a vehicle provides the advantage of mobility, allowing the attacker to target specific locations and evade security measures.

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  • 11. 

    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

    • President only

    • Secretary of defense only

    • President or secretary of defense

    • President or defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    A. President or secretary of defense
    Explanation
    The president or secretary of defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. As the highest-ranking officials in the US government, they have the authority to make decisions regarding military actions and deployments. The president, as the commander-in-chief, holds ultimate responsibility for the military, while the secretary of defense is responsible for the overall defense policy and strategy. Together, they have the power to determine and direct the response of US forces in crisis situations.

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  • 12. 

    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens

    • Recovery

    • Peace

    • Peace enforcement

    • Noncompatant evacuation

    Correct Answer
    A. Noncompatant evacuation
    Explanation
    Noncombatant evacuation is the operation principally conducted to evacuate US citizens. During times of crisis or conflict, when the safety and security of US citizens abroad are at risk, noncombatant evacuation operations are carried out to safely remove these individuals from the affected area and bring them back to the United States. This operation focuses on the evacuation of civilians, including American citizens, who are not directly involved in combat or military activities. It is aimed at ensuring the well-being and protection of US citizens in volatile situations.

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  • 13. 

    Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?

    • Foreign humanitarian assistance

    • Consequence management

    • Homeland defense

    • Recovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    The operation of recovery may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on the operational environment being hostile, uncertain, or permissive. In a hostile environment, where there is a high level of threat or opposition, recovery operations may need to be conducted clandestinely or covertly to avoid detection and minimize risks. In an uncertain environment, where the situation is unpredictable or unstable, recovery operations may also be conducted covertly to maintain a level of surprise and flexibility. In a permissive environment, where there is minimal threat or opposition, recovery operations can be conducted overtly, without the need for secrecy or concealment.

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  • 14. 

    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information

    • OSINT

    • COMINT

    • HUMINT

    • INFOMINT

    Correct Answer
    A. HUMINT
    Explanation
    HUMINT, or Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information in intelligence collection. This is because HUMINT involves gathering information directly from human sources, such as spies, informants, or individuals with access to sensitive information. Human sources can provide unique insights, firsthand knowledge, and specific details that may not be available through other means of intelligence collection. HUMINT allows for a deeper understanding of human behavior, motivations, and intentions, making it a valuable source for intelligence analysis and decision-making.

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  • 15. 

    Force protection measures will be planned according with

    • Determination of the force

    • The risk to the force

    • Location of the force

    • Size of the force

    Correct Answer
    A. The risk to the force
    Explanation
    Force protection measures are planned based on the risk to the force. This means that the level of protection and the specific measures taken will depend on the potential threats and dangers that the force may face. By assessing the risk to the force, such as the likelihood of encountering enemy forces or being exposed to hazardous environments, appropriate measures can be implemented to mitigate these risks and ensure the safety and security of the force. The determination of the force, location, and size are important factors to consider, but ultimately, it is the risk to the force that drives the planning of force protection measures.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • Standoff attack

    • Penetration attack

    • Information operation

    • Chemical, biological attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Penetration attack
    Explanation
    A penetration attack is a type of attack that involves an insider threat. In this scenario, an individual with authorized access to a system or network intentionally exploits their privileges to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. This can include actions such as stealing sensitive information, manipulating data, or disrupting the system's functionality. The insider's knowledge and access make them a significant threat as they can bypass security measures and potentially cause extensive damage without raising suspicion.

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  • 17. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • Department of state

    • Department of justice

    • Department of defense

    • Federal bureau of investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of state
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. As the primary diplomatic agency of the US government, the Department of State is responsible for handling international relations and promoting national security interests abroad. In the context of terrorist incidents, the Department of State coordinates with foreign governments, provides assistance and support to affected US citizens, and works towards preventing and countering terrorism globally. The other options, such as the Department of Justice, Department of Defense, and Federal Bureau of Investigation, have different roles and responsibilities within the US and primarily focus on domestic security and law enforcement.

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  • 18. 

    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?

    • Arson

    • Bombing

    • Highjacking

    • Kidnapping and hostage taking

    Correct Answer
    A. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups most commonly use bombing as a tactic. This involves the deliberate use of explosives to cause destruction, casualties, and instill fear among the targeted population. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, vehicle bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic allows terrorists to inflict significant damage, cause mass casualties, and attract media attention, thereby achieving their objectives of spreading fear, destabilizing societies, and gaining publicity for their cause.

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  • 19. 

    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?

    • 5-10

    • 10-15

    • 25-30

    • 35-40

    Correct Answer
    A. 25-30
    Explanation
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30. This means that terrorist organizations often operate in small, secretive units known as cells, which allows them to maintain security and carry out their activities without detection. These cells typically consist of a small number of individuals who work closely together, sharing information, resources, and responsibilities. By organizing themselves into cells, terrorist groups can effectively plan and execute their operations while minimizing the risk of exposure and infiltration by authorities.

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  • 20. 

    Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?

    • Crimanals or professionals

    • Emotionally disturbed

    • Passive soldiers

    • Crusaders

    Correct Answer
    A. Crusaders
    Explanation
    Crusaders are individuals or groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are driven by a strong belief in their cause and are willing to take action to achieve their goals. This term is often associated with religious or political movements that engage in active advocacy or even military intervention to advance their beliefs. Unlike criminals or professionals who may have different motivations, crusaders are motivated by their ideological convictions and actively work towards promoting their cause.

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  • 21. 

    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

    • Moderate

    • Significant

    • High

    • Low

    Correct Answer
    A. Significant
    Explanation
    The threat level assessment of "significant" indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This means that there is a notable and concerning threat from these terrorists, as they are actively planning and executing attacks that have the potential to cause significant harm and casualties.

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  • 22. 

    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?

    • Violence to achieve political goals

    • Violence to achieve religious goals

    • Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • Use violence to achieve ideological goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Violence to achieve political goals
    Explanation
    Insurgency is characterized by the use of violence to achieve political goals. This means that individuals or groups involved in an insurgency engage in armed conflict and use tactics such as bombings, assassinations, and guerrilla warfare to challenge and overthrow a government or establish their own political system. The other options, such as using violence to achieve religious goals or non-violence to achieve political goals, do not accurately capture the defining characteristic of an insurgency.

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  • 23. 

    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?

    • Fairness, firmness and fight

    • Logic, lotalty, and leadership

    • Patience, persistence, and presence

    • Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Patience, persistence, and presence
    Explanation
    COIN operations, which refer to counterinsurgency operations, require leaders to exhibit patience, persistence, and presence. Patience is necessary as these operations often involve long-term efforts and require leaders to navigate complex situations. Persistence is important to continue working towards the objectives despite challenges and setbacks. Presence refers to being physically and mentally present in the operational environment, actively engaging with the local population, and building relationships. These qualities are crucial for leaders to effectively lead and succeed in COIN operations.

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  • 24. 

    To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?

    • Underground

    • In disguise

    • In small bands

    • During the hours of darkness

    Correct Answer
    A. In small bands
    Explanation
    Insurgents may choose to operate in small bands in order to avoid detection by the government. By operating in smaller groups, they can minimize their visibility and reduce the chances of being detected or tracked by authorities. This strategy allows them to maintain a lower profile and makes it more difficult for the government to identify and target them. Additionally, operating in small bands can enhance their agility and flexibility, enabling them to carry out covert operations and quickly adapt to changing circumstances.

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  • 25. 

    Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

    • Multinational corporation

    • Governmental organization

    • Host nation security council

    • Intergovernmental organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Intergovernmental organization
    Explanation
    An intergovernmental organization is a type of agency that is created through a formal agreement between two or more governments. It is a platform for governments to collaborate and work together on common issues, such as international security, economic development, or environmental protection. These organizations provide a framework for member states to discuss and negotiate policies, share information, and coordinate actions. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, European Union, and World Health Organization.

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  • 26. 

    Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?

    • The united nations

    • The world hunger league

    • United nations children fund

    • The american federation of labor and congress of industrial organizations

    Correct Answer
    A. The united nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it is a global organization that aims to maintain international peace and security, promote social progress and better living standards, and coordinate efforts to address global issues such as poverty, hunger, and human rights. It has a broad membership and plays a significant role in international diplomacy and cooperation. The other options mentioned, such as the World Hunger League, United Nations Children's Fund, and the American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations, are not as widely recognized or influential on a global scale.

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  • 27. 

    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af debarkation are all examples of key

    • Terrain issues

    • Logistical issues

    • Sovereignty issues

    • Transportation issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Sovereignty issues
    Explanation
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation all involve the movement of goods and people across national borders. These locations are under the jurisdiction of the respective countries and their governments have the authority to control and regulate the flow of goods and people through these ports. Therefore, these examples are related to sovereignty issues, as they pertain to the exercise of a country's authority and control over its territory.

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  • 28. 

    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?

    • Bare base

    • Limited base

    • Main operating base

    • Forward operating base

    Correct Answer
    A. Limited base
    Explanation
    A limited base is a base that is minimally staffed but has the capability to expand into a full-scale air base operations when needed. This means that it can accommodate more personnel and equipment, and can support a wider range of operations. It provides a flexible and adaptable solution, allowing for rapid deployment and expansion as required.

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  • 29. 

    What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?

    • Time

    • Money

    • Manning

    • Flexibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexibility
    Explanation
    Peacetime or contingency operations require flexibility when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC. This is because these operations often involve unpredictable and rapidly changing situations, and the ability to adapt and adjust plans accordingly is crucial. Flexibility allows security forces to respond effectively to emerging threats, adjust deployment strategies based on changing circumstances, and allocate resources in the most efficient and strategic manner. It enables them to be agile and responsive, ensuring the success of the operations.

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  • 30. 

    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

    • Control the traffic flow plan

    • Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan
    Explanation
    The DFC (Director of Base Defense Operations) uses staff control tools to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. These tools help the DFC effectively communicate and coordinate with staff members, ensuring that everyone is aware of their responsibilities and tasks. By using staff control tools, the DFC can efficiently manage the base defense operations and ensure that the plan is executed smoothly.

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  • 31. 

    An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?

    • Charts and forms

    • Base sectorization

    • Staff control tools

    • Military symbology

    Correct Answer
    A. Base sectorization
    Explanation
    Base sectorization is an effective tool to control integrated defense operations. It involves dividing the operational area into sectors, each assigned to specific units or elements. This allows for better coordination and control of resources, as well as efficient allocation of tasks and responsibilities. By implementing base sectorization, commanders can ensure that all areas are adequately covered and that there is a clear understanding of the operational plan among all units involved. This helps to enhance situational awareness, decision-making, and overall effectiveness of the defense operation.

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  • 32. 

    What should a flight sector sketch show?

    • Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them

    • Flight and squadron identifications

    • Squad leader positions

    • True south

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight and squadron identifications
    Explanation
    A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identifications. This is important for identifying and tracking the different flights and squadrons operating within a specific sector. It helps in maintaining organization and coordination during flight operations.

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  • 33. 

    In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?

    • 1955

    • 1956

    • 1957

    • 1958

    Correct Answer
    A. 1956
    Explanation
    The Geneva Conventions became effective in 1956. These conventions are a set of international treaties that establish the standards for humanitarian treatment during armed conflicts. They were initially adopted in 1864 and have since been updated and expanded. The 1956 date refers to the entry into force of the Geneva Conventions of 1949, which are the most widely recognized and accepted version of the treaties. These conventions have played a crucial role in protecting the rights of prisoners of war, civilians, and wounded or sick individuals during times of war.

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  • 34. 

    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

    • Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive

    • CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

    Correct Answer
    A. The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive
    Explanation
    Processing captives, detainees, and prisoners requires speed because the intelligence they provide is time-sensitive. This means that the information they possess may become outdated or lose its value if not acted upon quickly. By processing them swiftly, authorities can gather crucial intelligence that can be used for various purposes such as ensuring the safety of defectors and deserters, identifying potential threats, or gathering strategic information. Delaying the processing could result in missing out on valuable intelligence and compromising the effectiveness of operations.

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  • 35. 

    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?

    • 20 meters

    • 30 meters

    • 40 meters

    • 50 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 meters
    Explanation
    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is 50 meters. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential interference with the fueling process, as radio frequency transmitters can generate sparks or electromagnetic waves that could ignite fuel vapors. By maintaining a distance of 50 meters, the risk of accidents or fires caused by radio frequency transmitters is minimized, ensuring the safety of both personnel and the refueling operation.

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  • 36. 

    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?

    • Remove the negative lead first

    • Remove the positive lead first

    • It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the positive lead first
    Explanation
    Removing the positive lead first when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system (ESS) is the correct answer because it reduces the risk of electrical shock. By removing the positive lead first, it breaks the circuit and eliminates the flow of current. This reduces the chances of accidentally creating a short circuit or causing sparks that could lead to injury or damage. Removing the negative lead first could still leave the positive lead connected to the system, creating a potential risk.

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  • 37. 

    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?

    • Power

    • Annunciation

    • Communications

    • Response frequenct

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "communications" because this function is responsible for transmitting data between the TASS sensors and annunciators. It involves the exchange of information and signals between these two components, allowing for effective communication and coordination. Without proper communication, the sensors would not be able to transmit their data to the annunciators, resulting in a lack of information and potentially compromising the overall functionality and effectiveness of the system.

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  • 38. 

    What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand held display monitor?

    • MILES

    • TMS

    • ESS

    • BISS

    Correct Answer
    A. TMS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TMS. TMS stands for Training Management System, which is a security system that consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a handheld display monitor. This system is commonly used in military training exercises to track and monitor the movements and actions of soldiers in a simulated combat environment. The sensors detect and record hits and misses, while the repeaters transmit this information to the handheld display monitor for real-time feedback and analysis.

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  • 39. 

    A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?

    • 90Sec

    • 60 Sec

    • 45 Sec

    • 30 Sec

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 Sec
    Explanation
    The self preservation method of search is a scanning method that aims to minimize the risk of detection or compromise. It involves scanning the network or system at a slower pace to avoid triggering any alerts or alarms that could potentially expose the attacker. By taking more time to scan, the attacker reduces the chances of being detected and increases the likelihood of remaining undetected. Therefore, the self preservation method of search lasts approximately 30 seconds, allowing the attacker to perform a thorough scan while minimizing the risk of being detected.

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  • 40. 

    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?

    • Spacing

    • Aining point

    • Reference point

    • Range determination

    Correct Answer
    A. Aining point
    Explanation
    The more effective means of delivering accurate fire is using an aiming point. This is because an aiming point is a specific target or area that the shooter focuses on to ensure their shots are precise and hit the intended target. By using an aiming point, the shooter can align their sights or scope with the target, improving their accuracy and increasing the chances of hitting the target successfully.

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  • 41. 

    What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination?

    • Observer proficiency requires constant practice

    • SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct

    • Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance

    • Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor

    Correct Answer
    A. Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor
    Explanation
    The greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination is that accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer. This means that if the observer has a limited view of the terrain, it can be difficult for them to accurately estimate the range. The more terrain that is visible, the easier it is for the observer to gauge the distance accurately.

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  • 42. 

    How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

    • Look 5 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • Look 15 degrees above, below rather then directily at it

    • Look 20 degrees to either side rather then directily at it

    Correct Answer
    A. Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it
    Explanation
    During limited visibility, the observer uses off center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object instead of directly at it. This allows the observer to utilize their peripheral vision and maximize their field of view, increasing the chances of detecting the object even in low visibility conditions. By looking slightly off center, the observer can gather more visual information and enhance their situational awareness.

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  • 43. 

    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

    • 8

    • 5

    • 4

    • 2

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    If you already adapted to the dark before putting on the goggles, it means that your eyes have already adjusted to the low light conditions. Therefore, when you remove the goggles, your eyes will quickly readjust to the darkness, and you will achieve full dark adaptation within 2 minutes.

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  • 44. 

    When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

    • 2 to 4 inches

    • 4 to 6 inches

    • 6 to 8 inches

    • 8 to 10 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 to 8 inches
    Explanation
    The TMS magnetic sensor is used to detect the presence of vehicles on the road. Burying the magnetic sensor head too shallow may result in damage or inaccurate readings, while burying it too deep may reduce its sensitivity. Therefore, burying the magnetic sensor head at a depth of 6 to 8 inches perpendicular to the avenue of approach ensures optimal performance and accurate detection of vehicles passing over it.

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  • 45. 

    The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?

    • Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • A transformer head, infrared sensor head and transmitter

    • An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    Correct Answer
    A. Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
  • 46. 

    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?

    • In snowy conditions

    • Dense fog

    • Rainy weather

    • Bright sunlight

    Correct Answer
    A. Dense fog
    Explanation
    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors can have their detection capability degraded in dense fog. This is because the fog can scatter the infrared signals, making it difficult for the sensors to accurately detect objects or movements.

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  • 47. 

    What is the WSTI used for?

    • Alarm annunciation and visual inspection

    • Sensor identification and recognition

    • To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

    • Boundary protection

    Correct Answer
    A. To assess the alarms of a sensor activation
    Explanation
    The WSTI (Wireless Sensor Test Instrument) is used to assess the alarms of a sensor activation. This means that it is used to evaluate and analyze the alarms that are triggered when a sensor detects a certain condition or event. It helps in determining the accuracy and reliability of the sensor's alarm system, ensuring that it is functioning properly and providing accurate information.

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  • 48. 

    How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Three people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod. This suggests that the setup process is complex and requires multiple individuals to handle different tasks simultaneously. Having three people ensures that the tripod is properly assembled and positioned for effective surveillance.

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  • 49. 

    From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?

    • DCU

    • DCS

    • JCU

    • BDOC

    Correct Answer
    A. JCU
    Explanation
    The correct answer is JCU. JCU stands for Joint Command Unit, which is responsible for performing all operational command and control functions. This unit coordinates and directs military operations, ensuring effective communication and coordination between different branches and units. JCU plays a crucial role in strategic decision-making and executing missions efficiently.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 30, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Don

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