Copy Of Quiz CVS,Dm.GI And Respiratory.Pathophysiology Final , #abo5atib

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Pharmacgy
P
Pharmacgy
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 48 | Total Attempts: 45,330
Questions: 30 | Attempts: 171

SettingsSettingsSettings
Copy Of Quiz CVS,Dm.GI And Respiratory.Pathophysiology Final , #abo5atib - Quiz

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    About the coronary arteries that ascend from the ascending aorta, left coronary branches to :

    • A.

      Posterior interventicular and cicumflex

    • B.

      Posterior interventicular and marginal 

    • C.

      Anterior interventicular and marginal

    • D.

      Anterior interventicular and circumflex

    Correct Answer
    D. Anterior interventicular and circumflex
    Explanation
    The left coronary artery branches into two main arteries: the anterior interventricular artery (also known as the left anterior descending artery) and the circumflex artery. The anterior interventricular artery supplies blood to the anterior part of the interventricular septum and the anterior walls of both ventricles. The circumflex artery supplies blood to the left atrium and the lateral walls of the left ventricle. Therefore, the correct answer is "Anterior interventricular and circumflex."

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    One of the following is not related to Type 2 in DM :

    • A.

      Relative deficiency of insulin 

    • B.

      Nonketonic hyperglycemia with stress 

    • C.

      Obese represents 80% in this type

    • D.

      Most common in juvenile onest 

    Correct Answer
    D. Most common in juvenile onest 
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Most common in juvenile onset," is not related to Type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) because Type 2 DM is typically associated with adult-onset diabetes rather than juvenile-onset. Type 2 DM is characterized by a relative deficiency of insulin, nonketonic hyperglycemia with stress, and is more prevalent in individuals who are obese.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    In the Diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease , one of the following is correct :

    • A.

      In barium meal study , gastric ulcer biopsy advise r/o malignancy 

    • B.

      In OGD , duodenal ulcer shows trifolite 

    • C.

      In OGD , duodenal ulcer biopsy done to r/o H.pylori

    • D.

      In barium meal study , duodenal ulcer appears as niche in lesser curvature due to ulcer crater 

    Correct Answer
    C. In OGD , duodenal ulcer biopsy done to r/o H.pylori
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In OGD, duodenal ulcer biopsy done to r/o H.pylori." In the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease, a biopsy of a duodenal ulcer is done during an OGD (esophagogastroduodenoscopy) procedure to rule out the presence of H. pylori bacteria. H. pylori infection is a common cause of duodenal ulcers, and a biopsy can help confirm the presence of the bacteria. This information is important for determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    One of the following disease represents a reduced intestinal surface with regard to  causes of Malabsorption disease   :

    • A.

      Tropical sprue 

    • B.

      Lactose intolerance 

    • C.

      Croh'n disease 

    • D.

      Pancreatic insufficiency 

    Correct Answer
    C. Croh'n disease 
    Explanation
    Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by inflammation, which can lead to the thickening and narrowing of the intestinal walls. This can result in a reduced intestinal surface area, leading to malabsorption of nutrients. Symptoms of Crohn's disease include abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and malnutrition.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    In laboratory assessment in the Cirrhosis , one of the following is incorrect :

    • A.

      Alkaline phosphotase increase 

    • B.

      Serum protein decrease 

    • C.

      Hematocrit decrease 

    • D.

      Serum creatinine decrease 

    Correct Answer
    D. Serum creatinine decrease 
    Explanation
    In cirrhosis, the liver is damaged and its function is impaired. This can lead to a decrease in the production of certain proteins, resulting in a decrease in serum protein levels. Additionally, cirrhosis can cause congestion in the liver, leading to an increase in pressure in the portal vein and subsequent fluid accumulation in the abdomen. This can cause a decrease in hematocrit levels. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme found in the liver, and its levels can increase in cirrhosis due to liver damage. However, serum creatinine levels are typically increased in cirrhosis due to impaired kidney function, so a decrease in serum creatinine would be incorrect.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Physical symptoms of psychotogical origins is :

    • A.

      Arrhythmia

    • B.

      Hypochondriasis

    • C.

      Thyroid disease

    • D.

      Hyperlipedimia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypochondriasis
    Explanation
    Hypochondriasis refers to a psychological disorder in which individuals excessively worry about having a serious medical condition despite having no or minimal medical evidence to support their concerns. This disorder is characterized by the presence of physical symptoms that are primarily caused by psychological factors rather than any actual underlying medical condition. Therefore, hypochondriasis is the correct answer as it specifically relates to physical symptoms of psychological origins. Arrhythmia, thyroid disease, and hyperlipidemia, on the other hand, are medical conditions that have physiological causes rather than psychological origins.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    One of the following is incorrect about Metabolic syndrome :

    • A.

      Hypotension

    • B.

      Low HDL

    • C.

      Elevated triglyceride levels

    • D.

      Impaired fasting glucose 

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypotension
    Explanation
    Hypotension is not a characteristic of metabolic syndrome. Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of conditions that includes elevated blood pressure, high blood sugar levels, abnormal cholesterol levels (low HDL and elevated triglycerides), and excess abdominal fat. Hypotension, on the other hand, refers to low blood pressure. Therefore, hypotension is incorrect in relation to metabolic syndrome.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    About the drugs that used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease , one of the following drugs considered a prostaglandin analogue :

    • A.

      Tums

    • B.

      Cimetioline

    • C.

      Lansoprazole

    • D.

      Misoprostol 

    Correct Answer
    D. Misoprostol 
    Explanation
    Misoprostol is considered a prostaglandin analogue used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. Prostaglandins are natural substances produced in the body that help protect the stomach lining. Misoprostol works by replacing these natural prostaglandins, reducing the production of stomach acid and promoting the healing of ulcers. Tums, Cimetidine, and Lansoprazole are not prostaglandin analogues and have different mechanisms of action in treating peptic ulcer disease.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Which of the following bacteria causes a thyroid fever : 

    • A.

      Y entrocolitis 

    • B.

      Salmonella

    • C.

      C-jejuni 

    • D.

      Shigella 

    Correct Answer
    B. Salmonella
    Explanation
    Salmonella is the correct answer because it is a type of bacteria that can cause a condition known as typhoid fever. Typhoid fever is characterized by symptoms such as high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. It is typically contracted by consuming contaminated food or water.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Elevated Jugular Venous pressure is :

    • A.

      Ankle edema

    • B.

      Pleural effusion 

    • C.

      Kussmauls's sign

    • D.

      Ascites 

    Correct Answer
    C. Kussmauls's sign
    Explanation
    Kussmaul's sign refers to an abnormal increase in jugular venous pressure during inspiration, instead of the normal decrease. It is commonly seen in conditions such as constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade, and severe right-sided heart failure. This sign is characterized by a paradoxical rise in the jugular venous pressure with inspiration, indicating impaired filling of the right ventricle. Ankle edema, pleural effusion, and ascites are not associated with elevated jugular venous pressure.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    In DKA-treatment ( diabetic keto acidosis ) , we need :

    • A.

      Volume replacement

    • B.

      Insulin

    • C.

      Magnesium 

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    In the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), all of the mentioned options are necessary. Volume replacement is required to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Insulin is essential to lower blood glucose levels and promote the utilization of glucose for energy. Magnesium supplementation is needed because DKA can cause magnesium depletion. Therefore, all three components are crucial for effective DKA treatment.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    One of the following is not true about H.pylori :

    • A.

      Found most commonly in deeper portions of the mucus gel coating gastric mucusa 

    • B.

      Its genes products causing epithelial cell injury 

    • C.

      Inhibits gastric acid and increase PH 

    • D.

      Several H.pylori are immunogenic 

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhibits gastric acid and increase PH 
    Explanation
    H.pylori does not inhibit gastric acid and increase pH. In fact, it produces an enzyme called urease that converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in gastric pH. This increase in pH helps the bacteria survive in the acidic environment of the stomach.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    One of the following drugs is not Antivirals regard to Hepatits drugs :

    • A.

      Oral ribavirin

    • B.

      Lamivundine 

    • C.

      Adefovir dipivoxil 

    • D.

      Epivir-HBV

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral ribavirin
    Explanation
    Oral ribavirin is not considered an antiviral drug for Hepatitis.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    A weakening of an artery wall , that creates a bulge or distention of the artery :

    • A.

      Aneurysm

    • B.

      Eclampsia toxemia

    • C.

      Pheochromocytoma

    • D.

      Adrenal gland abnormalities 

    Correct Answer
    A. Aneurysm
    Explanation
    Aneurysm refers to a weakening of an artery wall that causes a bulge or distention of the artery. This condition can be dangerous as the weakened artery may rupture, leading to internal bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications. Aneurysms can occur in different parts of the body, including the brain, aorta, and other arteries. Prompt medical intervention is often necessary to prevent complications and treat the aneurysm.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    One of the most potent vasoconstrictors known and it is an octapeptides ( 8 amino acids ) :

    • A.

      Aldosteron

    • B.

      Renin

    • C.

      ADH

    • D.

      Angiotemsin ||

    Correct Answer
    D. Angiotemsin ||
    Explanation
    Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and is an octapeptide composed of 8 amino acids. It is produced in the body through a cascade of reactions involving renin, angiotensinogen, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II acts on blood vessels to constrict them, leading to an increase in blood pressure. It also stimulates the release of aldosterone and ADH, which further contribute to fluid retention and vasoconstriction. Therefore, Angiotensin II is the correct answer as it fits the description of being a potent vasoconstrictor and an octapeptide.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Regard to principals mechanisms of diarrhea , the Exudative mechanism include :

    • A.

      Excessive osmotic forces 

    • B.

      Output of purulent and bloody stool

    • C.

      Voluminous stool and defective absorption 

    • D.

      Isotonic tp plazma 

    Correct Answer
    B. Output of purulent and bloody stool
    Explanation
    The exudative mechanism of diarrhea involves the output of purulent and bloody stool. This means that the stool contains pus and blood, indicating inflammation and infection in the gastrointestinal tract. This type of diarrhea is often associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease, infection, or certain medications. The presence of purulent and bloody stool suggests that there is damage to the lining of the intestines, leading to the release of inflammatory cells and blood into the stool.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    Regard to Portal Systemic Encephalopathy (hepatic coma) , the incorrect one is :

    • A.

      Acute disease 

    • B.

      Reversible with early intervention 

    • C.

      Causes impaired thinking 

    • D.

      Caused by Decrease ammonia levels 

    Correct Answer
    D. Caused by Decrease ammonia levels 
    Explanation
    Portal systemic encephalopathy, also known as hepatic coma, is a condition that occurs due to liver dysfunction. It is characterized by impaired cognitive function and mental confusion. The correct answer is "Caused by Decrease ammonia levels" is incorrect because portal systemic encephalopathy is actually caused by an increase in ammonia levels in the blood, which occurs as a result of liver dysfunction.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    In compensented shock , one of the following is peripheral effects :

    • A.

      Increase cardiac output 

    • B.

      Shunting of blood to main core organs 

    • C.

      Decrease blood flow to the hypothalamus 

    • D.

      ACTH

    Correct Answer
    B. Shunting of blood to main core organs 
    Explanation
    In compensated shock, the body tries to maintain blood flow to vital organs by shunting blood away from less essential areas. This is known as shunting of blood to main core organs. This mechanism ensures that organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs receive adequate blood supply to continue functioning properly, even in a state of shock.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Main explanatory reasons for Berserk movement in fibrillation :

    • A.

      Decrease velocity and increase refractory period

    • B.

      Decrease velocity and decrease refractory period

    • C.

      Increase velocity and decrease refractory period 

    • D.

      Increase velocity and increase refractory period 

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease velocity and increase refractory period
    Explanation
    The main explanatory reasons for the Berserk movement in fibrillation are a decrease in velocity and an increase in the refractory period. This means that the electrical signals in the heart are slowing down and taking longer to recover, leading to irregular and chaotic contractions. This can result in a rapid and uncoordinated heartbeat, which is characteristic of fibrillation.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Regard to alpha stimulatory in G protein coupled receptor , the correct one is :

    • A.

      Alpha work on protein kinase A 

    • B.

      Protein kinase A converts ATP to CAMP

    • C.

      Enzyme adenine cyclise converts ATP to CAMP 

    • D.

      No adenine cyclise

    Correct Answer
    C. Enzyme adenine cyclise converts ATP to CAMP 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Enzyme adenine cyclase converts ATP to cAMP." Adenylate cyclase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP) in response to the activation of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). This conversion is an important step in many signaling pathways, as cAMP acts as a second messenger to regulate various cellular processes. Protein kinase A (PKA) is then activated by cAMP and plays a role in downstream signaling events.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    One of the following is incorrect about trans pulmonary pressure :

    • A.

      More trans pulmonary pressure , less volume of air inside the lungs 

    • B.

      Becomes a zero at death

    • C.

      Difference between a intra alveolar and intra pleural pressure 

    • D.

      Becomes zero in Pneumothorax 

    Correct Answer
    A. More trans pulmonary pressure , less volume of air inside the lungs 
    Explanation
    An increase in trans pulmonary pressure leads to a decrease in the volume of air inside the lungs. This is because trans pulmonary pressure is the difference between intra alveolar pressure (pressure inside the alveoli) and intra pleural pressure (pressure in the pleural cavity). When the trans pulmonary pressure is higher, it means that the alveolar pressure is greater than the pleural pressure, causing the lungs to expand and the volume of air inside them to decrease. Therefore, the statement "More trans pulmonary pressure, less volume of air inside the lungs" is correct.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    One of the following is like coffee ground vomit :

    • A.

      Chronic cough 

    • B.

      Hematemesis

    • C.

      Acute cough

    • D.

      Hemoptysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Hematemesis
    Explanation
    Hematemesis refers to the vomiting of blood, which can appear similar to coffee grounds due to the interaction between stomach acid and blood. This can occur as a result of various conditions, such as peptic ulcers, gastritis, or esophageal varices. The other options, chronic cough, acute cough, and hemoptysis, do not involve the presence of blood in the vomit. Chronic cough refers to a persistent cough lasting for more than 8 weeks, while acute cough is a sudden, short-term cough. Hemoptysis, on the other hand, refers to coughing up blood from the respiratory tract.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    One of the following diseases  usually represents a high V/Q ratio in pulmonary test :

    • A.

      Acute pulmonary edema

    • B.

      Asthma

    • C.

      COPD

    • D.

      Chronic bronchitis 

    Correct Answer
    C. COPD
    Explanation
    COPD, or Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, usually represents a high V/Q (ventilation/perfusion) ratio in pulmonary tests. This is because in COPD, there is a decrease in airflow through the airways, leading to inadequate ventilation. However, perfusion (blood flow) to the lungs remains relatively normal. As a result, the V/Q ratio becomes imbalanced, with a higher ratio indicating a higher ventilation compared to perfusion. This imbalance is typically seen in COPD patients, making it the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    In acute asthma attack  , One of the following is not major event :

    • A.

      Bronchiolar constriction 

    • B.

      Inflammatory swelling 

    • C.

      Mucus hepersecretion 

    • D.

      Hyperinflation of alveoli 

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyperinflation of alveoli 
    Explanation
    During an acute asthma attack, the major events that occur include bronchiolar constriction, inflammatory swelling, and mucus hypersecretion. These events lead to the obstruction of the airways and difficulty in breathing. However, hyperinflation of alveoli is not a major event in an acute asthma attack. Hyperinflation of alveoli refers to the increased volume of air in the alveoli, which is typically seen in conditions like emphysema. In asthma, the focus is on the constriction of the bronchioles and the inflammation of the airways, rather than the hyperinflation of alveoli.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Acts as a bronchodilator,  and cause relaxation of smooth muscle by acts as Ca antagonist :

    • A.

      SABA

    • B.

      Ventilation 

    • C.

      MgSO4

    • D.

      LABA

    Correct Answer
    C. MgSO4
    Explanation
    MgSO4, also known as magnesium sulfate, acts as a bronchodilator and causes relaxation of smooth muscle by acting as a calcium antagonist. This means that it blocks the entry of calcium into smooth muscle cells, leading to muscle relaxation and widening of the airways in the bronchial tubes. As a result, MgSO4 can be used to treat bronchospasm and improve airflow in conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    Patients with a predominant emphysema usually have :

    • A.

      Hepercapnia

    • B.

      Edema

    • C.

      Normal PaCO2 

    • D.

      Polycythemia 

    Correct Answer
    C. Normal PaCO2 
    Explanation
    Patients with a predominant emphysema usually have normal PaCO2 levels. Emphysema is a lung condition characterized by the destruction of the alveoli, which are responsible for gas exchange. This leads to impaired oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide elimination. However, in emphysema, the loss of lung tissue also results in increased dead space, allowing for more efficient carbon dioxide elimination. As a result, the PaCO2 levels remain within the normal range.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    The first line of treatment of high blood pressure :

    • A.

      Beta blockers

    • B.

      Calcium antagonist

    • C.

      Diuretics 

    • D.

      Angiotensin || receptor blockers 

    Correct Answer
    C. Diuretics 
    Explanation
    Diuretics are the first line of treatment for high blood pressure because they help to reduce the volume of fluid in the blood vessels, thereby lowering blood pressure. They work by increasing the excretion of sodium and water from the body through the kidneys. This helps to decrease the amount of fluid in the bloodstream, which in turn reduces the pressure on the blood vessel walls. Diuretics are considered effective and safe for most people with high blood pressure, making them a commonly prescribed medication for initial treatment.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Digitalis (digoxin) are example of : 

    • A.

      ACE inhibitors 

    • B.

      Beta blockers 

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    B. Beta blockers 
    Explanation
    Digitalis (digoxin) is not an example of ACE inhibitors or Spironolactone. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat heart failure and certain heart rhythm problems. Beta blockers, on the other hand, are a different class of medications that are used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, angina, and arrhythmias. Therefore, the correct answer is Beta blockers.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Happens in athletes because cardiomegaly :

    • A.

      Bradycardia physiology 

    • B.

      Bradycardia pathophysiology 

    • C.

      Tachycardia physiology 

    • D.

      Tachycardia Pathophysiology 

    Correct Answer
    A. Bradycardia physiology 
    Explanation
    Bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate, which can occur in athletes due to cardiomegaly, or an enlarged heart. In athletes, the heart muscle becomes stronger and more efficient, allowing it to pump blood more effectively with each beat. This increased efficiency leads to a lower resting heart rate, resulting in bradycardia. This physiological adaptation is a normal response to regular exercise and is not typically associated with any negative health effects.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Example of sympathetic postganglionic  neurotransmitter :

    • A.

      Nicotinic 

    • B.

      Acetylcholine

    • C.

      Epinephrine and norepinephrine 

    • D.

      A1,A2,B1,B2

    Correct Answer
    C. Epinephrine and norepinephrine 
    Explanation
    Epinephrine and norepinephrine are examples of sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitters. These neurotransmitters are released by the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system and are responsible for activating the fight-or-flight response in the body. Epinephrine and norepinephrine bind to adrenergic receptors, specifically the A1, A2, B1, and B2 receptors, to elicit various physiological responses such as increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and dilation of bronchioles.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 29, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Pharmacgy
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.