Pathophysiology Ch 19 Reproductive System
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- 1.
All of the following women would be considered at high risk of developing breast cancer except...
- A.
Whose grandmother had breast cancer
- B.
Who has 7 children
- C.
Who started her period at 9 years of age
- D.
Whose first pregnancy was at 42 years old
Correct Answer
B. Who has 7 childrenExplanation
Having 7 children does not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. Factors such as a family history of breast cancer, early onset of menstruation, and late age at first pregnancy are known to be associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. However, the number of children a woman has does not have a direct impact on her risk of developing breast cancer.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases have been linked to the development of cervical cancer?
- A.
Syphillis
- B.
Human papillomavirus
- C.
Herpes simplex 2
- D.
Chlamydia
- E.
Gonorrhea
Correct Answer
B. Human papillomavirusExplanation
Human papillomavirus (HPV) has been linked to the development of cervical cancer. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause changes in the cells of the cervix, leading to the development of cervical cancer over time. It is important for individuals to get vaccinated against HPV and to undergo regular cervical cancer screenings to detect any abnormalities early on. Syphilis, herpes simplex 2, chlamydia, and gonorrhea are not directly linked to the development of cervical cancer.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following factors predispose a woman to the development of endometrial cancer?
- A.
Fibroids
- B.
Irregular menstral periods
- C.
Increased estrogen levels
- D.
Exposure to sexually transmitted infections
Correct Answer
C. Increased estrogen levelsExplanation
Increased estrogen levels can predispose a woman to the development of endometrial cancer. Estrogen is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the growth and development of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus. When estrogen levels are elevated, it can lead to excessive growth of the endometrium, increasing the risk of cancerous changes. Factors that can contribute to increased estrogen levels include obesity, hormone replacement therapy, certain medications, and conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome. Regular monitoring and management of estrogen levels are important in reducing the risk of endometrial cancer.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following apply to benign prostatic hyperplasia?
- A.
Positive psa (prostatic specific antigen) test
- B.
It is a benign growth that might become malignant
- C.
The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm.
- D.
Complaints of hesitancy and decreased urinary stream
Correct Answer
A. Positive psa (prostatic specific antigen) testExplanation
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a condition characterized by the enlargement of the prostate gland. One of the features of BPH is a positive PSA (prostatic specific antigen) test result. PSA is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and an elevated level of PSA in the blood can indicate the presence of BPH. However, it is important to note that a positive PSA test does not necessarily mean that BPH will become malignant (cancerous). BPH itself is a benign growth, but it can cause symptoms such as hesitancy and decreased urinary stream. The gland also becomes small, nodular, and firm in BPH.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which statement about the testes is TRUE?
- A.
Each testis contains the ductus deferens.
- B.
The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.
- C.
Each testis has its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle.
- D.
The testes must be kept at a temperature slightly above body temperature.
Correct Answer
B. The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.Explanation
The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord, which is a structure that contains the vas deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics. This cord helps to support and position the testes within the scrotum. The other statements are incorrect. The ductus deferens is a separate structure that carries sperm from the testes to the urethra. Each testis does not have its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle. The scrotal sac contains both testes, and the seminal vesicle is a gland that produces seminal fluid. While the testes do need to be kept at a temperature slightly below body temperature for optimal sperm production, the statement in question is asking for the true statement, which is that the testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
- A.
The complete process takes about 28 days.
- B.
Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
- C.
It is controlled by FSH and testosterone.
- D.
The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
Correct Answer
C. It is controlled by FSH and testosterone.Explanation
Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production in the testes. It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone. FSH stimulates the production of sperm cells, while testosterone is responsible for the maturation of these cells. Therefore, the statement that spermatogenesis is controlled by FSH and testosterone is true. The other statements are incorrect as the complete process of spermatogenesis takes about 64 days, not 28 days, and the maturation of sperm occurs in the epididymis, not the seminal vesicles. Additionally, spermatogenesis is a continuous process and is not initiated after each ejaculation.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
- A.
A. Infertility
- B.
B. Testicular cancer
- C.
Both A and B
- D.
Neither A or B
Correct Answer
C. Both A and BExplanation
Cryptorchidism is a condition where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. This can result in infertility because the testicles need to be in the scrotum for proper sperm production and function. Additionally, cryptorchidism increases the risk of testicular cancer. The undescended testicle is more prone to developing cancerous cells. Therefore, both infertility and testicular cancer can result from cryptorchidism.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
- A.
Varicocele
- B.
Hypospadias
- C.
Spermatocele
- D.
Hydrocele
Correct Answer
D. HydroceleExplanation
A hydrocele refers to the accumulation of excessive fluid between the layers of the tunica vaginalis, which is a sac-like structure that surrounds the testes. This condition can cause swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Varicocele, hypospadias, and spermatocele are all different conditions that are unrelated to the excessive fluid collection seen in a hydrocele.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis?
- A.
A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain
- B.
Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria
- C.
Hesitancy and increased urinary output
- D.
Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia
Correct Answer
B. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuriaExplanation
Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis. Acute prostatitis is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland, which leads to swelling and tenderness. The gland may feel soft and enlarged upon examination. Dysuria, or painful urination, is also a common symptom of this condition. These signs indicate the presence of an infection in the prostate gland, which requires prompt medical attention and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?
- A.
The tumor usually becomes malignant in time
- B.
The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm
- C.
Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency
- D.
Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops
Correct Answer
C. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequencyExplanation
Benign prostatic hypertrophy refers to the enlargement of the prostate gland in males. It is a non-cancerous condition and does not usually progress to malignancy. The gland becomes enlarged, causing various symptoms such as hesitancy (difficulty starting urination), dribbling (leaking urine after urination), and frequency (increased need to urinate). Lower abdominal or pelvic pain is not typically associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Why does frequency occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?
- A.
Increased volume of dilute urine
- B.
Irritation of the bladder and urethra
- C.
Impaired micturitaion reflex
- D.
Incomplete emptying of the bladder
Correct Answer
D. Incomplete emptying of the bladderExplanation
Incomplete emptying of the bladder can lead to frequency in benign prostatic hypertrophy. When the bladder does not completely empty, urine can accumulate, causing increased pressure and irritation in the bladder. This can result in the sensation of needing to urinate more frequently. Additionally, the presence of an enlarged prostate can obstruct the flow of urine, further contributing to incomplete emptying and increased frequency of urination.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
- A.
Bone
- B.
Lungs
- C.
Liver
- D.
Testes
Correct Answer
A. BoneExplanation
Bone is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer because prostate cancer cells have a tendency to spread to the bones. This is because the bones provide a favorable environment for the growth and survival of these cancer cells. Additionally, the bones are rich in blood supply, which allows the cancer cells to easily travel and establish new tumors. The metastasis to the bones can cause symptoms such as bone pain, fractures, and spinal cord compression.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
- A.
It is clear or whiteish
- B.
It has a pH of 4 to 5
- C.
It does not contain any cells
- D.
It contains mucus
Correct Answer
C. It does not contain any cellsExplanation
Leukorrhea is a normal vaginal discharge that occurs during the reproductive years. It is typically clear or whiteish in color and has a pH of 4 to 5. It is also characterized by the presence of cells, such as epithelial cells and white blood cells. Therefore, the statement "It does not contain any cells" is not a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?
- A.
It forms a mature ovarian follicle
- B.
It secretes hCG
- C.
It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the last half of the menstrual cycle.
- D.
It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle.
Correct Answer
C. It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the last half of the menstrual cycle.Explanation
The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that forms in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible for secreting hormones, especially estrogen and progesterone, during the last half of the menstrual cycle. These hormones play a crucial role in preparing the uterus for possible implantation of a fertilized egg and maintaining the uterine lining. The corpus luteum regresses if pregnancy does not occur, leading to a decrease in hormone production and the start of a new menstrual cycle.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
- A.
Obstruction in the fallopian tubes
- B.
Inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
- C.
Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions
- D.
Fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes
Correct Answer
B. Inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissueExplanation
Severe pain occurs with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis due to inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue. Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of it, leading to the formation of endometrial implants. During the menstrual cycle, these implants also respond to hormonal changes, causing inflammation and irritation. This inflammation triggers the release of pain-inducing substances, resulting in severe pain.Rate this question:
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- 16.
With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into the peritoneal cavity?
- A.
The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the uterus.
- B.
The uterus is perforated because of infection, allowing bacteria to leak out.
- C.
Most of the primary infections do not respond to antimicrobial drugs.
- D.
Microbes are highly virulent
Correct Answer
A. The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the uterus.Explanation
In pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), the fallopian tubes become obstructed due to inflammation and swelling. This obstruction prevents the purulent exudate (pus) that accumulates from draining into the uterus. As a result, the infection can easily spread into the peritoneal cavity, which is the space surrounding the abdominal organs. This can lead to further complications and the spread of infection to other areas of the abdomen.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
- A.
Development of malignancy
- B.
Irregular menstral cycles
- C.
Interference with ovulation
- D.
Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
Correct Answer
D. Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagiaExplanation
Leiomyomas, also known as uterine fibroids, are benign tumors that commonly occur in the uterus. One of the most common complications associated with leiomyomas is abnormal bleeding, specifically menorrhagia, which refers to heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding. This occurs because the presence of fibroids can disrupt the normal architecture of the uterus, leading to increased blood flow and irregular shedding of the uterine lining. While leiomyomas can cause other symptoms such as pain and pressure, abnormal bleeding is a particularly common and significant complication.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease?
- A.
Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue
- B.
Proliferation of atypical cells with high risk of malignancy
- C.
Benign tumors that develop after menopause
- D.
Any tissue changes other than the normal response to hormonal changes
Correct Answer
A. Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissueExplanation
Fibrocystic breast disease refers to the progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue in the breasts. This condition is characterized by the formation of lumps or areas of thickened tissue in the breasts, which can cause discomfort and pain. It is a benign condition and not associated with an increased risk of malignancy. The hormonal changes that occur during the menstrual cycle can contribute to the development of fibrocystic breast changes.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast?
- A.
It presents as a tender, painful, firm nodule.
- B.
Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.
- C.
Occasionally, a genetic factor may have a small role in tumor development.
- D.
The tumor is invasive but does not metastasize until very late.
Correct Answer
B. Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.Explanation
Carcinoma of the breast can present as a tender, painful, firm nodule, but this is not always the case. The presence of estrogen receptors on the membrane of tumor cells is a characteristic feature of breast carcinoma. This is important because it allows for targeted hormonal therapy, such as the use of anti-estrogen drugs like tamoxifen. While genetic factors can play a role in tumor development, it is not the main cause of breast carcinoma. Breast carcinoma is invasive and has the potential to metastasize to other parts of the body, although the timing of metastasis can vary.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?
- A.
The invasive stage
- B.
The stage of mild dysplasia
- C.
The time before it can be detected by a Pap test
- D.
Noninvasive severe dysplaisa
Correct Answer
D. Noninvasive severe dysplaisaExplanation
Noninvasive severe dysplasia is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer. Dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth, and severe dysplasia indicates a higher level of abnormality. Noninvasive means that the abnormal cells are confined to the surface layer of the cervix and have not spread deeper into the tissues. Carcinoma in situ refers to the presence of abnormal cells that have not invaded surrounding tissues. Therefore, noninvasive severe dysplasia is the stage at which abnormal cells are present but have not yet invaded the surrounding tissues.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?
- A.
High estrogen levels
- B.
Familial incidence
- C.
Infection with HPV
- D.
Early age of onset for menstral cycles
Correct Answer
C. Infection with HPVExplanation
Infection with HPV is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer. HPV, or the human papillomavirus, is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to the development of cervical cancer. HPV infection is very common and most people will contract it at some point in their lives. However, certain strains of HPV are considered high-risk and can cause changes in the cells of the cervix, potentially leading to cancer. Regular screenings and HPV vaccinations are important in preventing and detecting cervical cancer at an early stage.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?
- A.
A positive Pap test
- B.
Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting
- C.
Infection resistance to treatment
- D.
Painful intercourse
Correct Answer
B. Minor vaginal bleeding or spottingExplanation
Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma. Endometrial carcinoma is a type of cancer that begins in the lining of the uterus. This type of cancer often causes abnormal vaginal bleeding, including spotting or bleeding between periods. It is important to note that while minor vaginal bleeding or spotting can be a sign of endometrial carcinoma, it can also be caused by other factors such as hormonal changes or infections. Therefore, it is crucial to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which is/are sexually transmitted infection(s) usually considered asymptomatic in women?
- A.
Chlamydia
- B.
Gonorrhea
- C.
Syphilis
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis are sexually transmitted infections that are usually considered asymptomatic in women. This means that infected women may not experience any noticeable symptoms, making it difficult to detect and diagnose these infections. However, even though they may not show symptoms, these infections can still cause serious complications if left untreated. Regular testing and practicing safe sex are important to prevent the spread of these infections and ensure early detection and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following frequently causes PID and subsequent infertility?
- A.
Chlamydia
- B.
Genital warts
- C.
Trichomoniasis
- D.
Herpes simplex
Correct Answer
A. ChlamydiaExplanation
Chlamydia frequently causes PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) and subsequent infertility. PID is an infection of the reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. If left untreated, it can ascend to the upper reproductive tract and cause inflammation, scarring, and damage to the reproductive organs. This can lead to complications such as PID, which can result in infertility or increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is known to cause PID and subsequent infertility.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious yellow discharge and foul odor?
- A.
Candidiasis
- B.
Trichomoniasis
- C.
Syphilis
- D.
Gonorrhea
Correct Answer
B. TrichomoniasisExplanation
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. It commonly causes inflammation of the vagina, resulting in a copious yellow discharge and a foul odor. Candidiasis is a fungal infection that typically causes a white, cottage cheese-like discharge. Syphilis and gonorrhea are also sexually transmitted infections, but they do not typically cause the specific symptoms described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the cause of syphilis?
- A.
A gram negative diplococcus
- B.
An anaerobic protozoa
- C.
A virus
- D.
An anaerobic spirochete
Correct Answer
D. An anaerobic spirocheteExplanation
Syphilis is caused by an anaerobic spirochete. Spirochetes are a type of bacteria characterized by their spiral shape. They are anaerobic, meaning they can survive and thrive in environments without oxygen. The bacterium responsible for syphilis is Treponema pallidum, which is a spirochete. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can cause a wide range of symptoms if left untreated.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
- A.
Gonorrhea
- B.
Chalmydia
- C.
Herpes simplex
- D.
Syphilis
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
During delivery, the mother can transmit various infections to the fetus, including gonorrhea, chlamydia, herpes simplex, and syphilis. These infections can be passed from the mother to the baby through the birth canal or during contact with infected fluids. It is important to diagnose and treat these infections in pregnant women to prevent complications and protect the health of both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following STDs is considered to be a systemic infection?
- A.
Gonorrhea
- B.
Chlamydia
- C.
Syphilis
- D.
Condylomata acuminate
Correct Answer
C. SyphilisExplanation
Syphilis is considered to be a systemic infection because it can spread throughout the body and affect various organs and systems. It is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which can enter the bloodstream and travel to different parts of the body, including the nervous system, cardiovascular system, and organs such as the liver and kidneys. This ability to spread and cause widespread damage distinguishes syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections like Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and Condylomata acuminate, which primarily affect specific areas of the body.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?
- A.
N. gonorrhoeae
- B.
Pseudomonas
- C.
S. aureus
- D.
E. coli
Correct Answer
D. E. coliExplanation
E. coli is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis. The prostate gland can become infected when bacteria from the urinary tract or rectum enter the prostate through the urethra. E. coli is a type of bacteria that commonly resides in the intestines and can easily travel to the prostate. This infection can cause symptoms such as pain in the lower abdomen or pelvic area, frequent urination, and difficulty urinating. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent complications and relieve symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, while prostate cancer is the development of malignant cells in the prostate gland. Although BPH and prostate cancer can have similar symptoms, they are distinct conditions. BPH does not necessarily progress to prostate cancer, as they have different causes and risk factors. While both conditions can occur in the same individual, having BPH does not increase the likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Therefore, the statement that BPH usually progresses to prostatic cancer is false.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:
- A.
A malignant tumor
- B.
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
- C.
Acute prostatis
- D.
Chronic prostatis
Correct Answer
A. A malignant tumorExplanation
A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of a malignant tumor because malignant tumors are characterized by the growth of abnormal cells that can form a mass or nodule. Benign prostatic hypertrophy, on the other hand, is a non-cancerous condition that causes enlargement of the prostate gland, but it does not typically result in the formation of hard nodules. Acute and chronic prostatitis are both inflammatory conditions of the prostate gland and do not typically manifest as hard nodules.Rate this question:
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- 32.
How do testicular tumors usually present?
- A.
Soft, tender mass
- B.
Multiple firm nodules
- C.
Hard, painless unilateral mass
- D.
Small, fluid-filled cysts
Correct Answer
C. Hard, painless unilateral massExplanation
Testicular tumors usually present as a hard, painless unilateral mass. This is because testicular tumors typically grow and develop within the testicle, causing a solid mass to form. The mass is usually painless, which can be a concerning feature as it may delay detection and diagnosis. The term "unilateral" indicates that the mass is present in only one testicle, rather than both. It is important to note that the presence of a hard, painless unilateral mass in the testicle should always be evaluated by a healthcare professional to rule out the possibility of testicular cancer.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods?
- A.
Amenorrhea
- B.
Dysmenorrhea
- C.
Oligomenorrhea
- D.
Metrorhagia
Correct Answer
D. MetrorhagiaExplanation
Metrorhagia refers to bleeding between menstrual periods. This condition is characterized by abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs outside of the regular menstrual cycle. It can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, uterine fibroids, polyps, or certain medications. Metrorhagia can be accompanied by other symptoms like pelvic pain or cramping. It is important to consult a healthcare professional if experiencing metrorhagia to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which statement does NOT apply to vaginal candidiasis?
- A.
It is classified as an STD
- B.
The cause is an opportunistic yeast
- C.
It causes dysuria and dyspareunia.
- D.
The mucosa becomes red and pruritic
Correct Answer
A. It is classified as an STDExplanation
Vaginal candidiasis is not classified as a sexually transmitted disease (STD). It is caused by an opportunistic yeast called Candida albicans. Symptoms include dysuria (painful urination) and dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse). The mucosa of the vagina becomes red and itchy (pruritic).Rate this question:
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- 35.
Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
- A.
Lungs
- B.
Bone
- C.
Pelvic lymph nodes
- D.
Brain
Correct Answer
C. Pelvic lymph nodesExplanation
Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the pelvic lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are an important part of the body's immune system and are responsible for filtering and trapping cancer cells. The proximity of the pelvic lymph nodes to the testicles makes them a common site for the spread of testicular cancer. Once the cancer cells have spread to the lymph nodes, they can then potentially spread to other parts of the body, such as the lungs, bones, or brain. However, the pelvic lymph nodes are typically the first location of metastasis in testicular cancer.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When the uterus is located in the vagina with the cervix at the opening to the vagina, this is called:
- A.
First degree prolapse
- B.
Second degree prolapse
- C.
Third degree prolapse
- D.
Procidentia
- E.
Cystocele
Correct Answer
B. Second degree prolapseExplanation
Second degree prolapse refers to a condition where the uterus is located in the vagina with the cervix at the opening to the vagina. This means that the uterus has descended further into the vagina compared to first degree prolapse. In first degree prolapse, the cervix is still located within the vagina but not at the opening. Third degree prolapse, also known as procidentia, refers to a complete prolapse where the uterus protrudes outside the vagina. Cystocele, on the other hand, is a condition where the bladder protrudes into the vagina.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Painful menstruation is called:
- A.
Polymenorrhea
- B.
Premenstral syndrome
- C.
Dysmenorrhea
- D.
Endometriosis
- E.
Dyspareunia
Correct Answer
C. DysmenorrheaExplanation
Dysmenorrhea is the correct answer because it refers to painful menstruation. It is a common condition experienced by many women during their menstrual cycle. Symptoms may include cramping, lower abdominal pain, back pain, and sometimes nausea or vomiting. Dysmenorrhea can be primary, which is normal and not caused by any underlying medical condition, or secondary, which is caused by conditions such as endometriosis or uterine fibroids.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Vaginal candidiasis is frequently predisposed by:
- A.
Systemic antibacterial therapy
- B.
Insertion of an intrauterine device
- C.
Sexual intercourse with an infected partner
- D.
Previous viral infection
Correct Answer
A. Systemic antibacterial therapyExplanation
Systemic antibacterial therapy can predispose to vaginal candidiasis. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the body, including the beneficial bacteria that help keep yeast growth in check. This disruption can lead to an overgrowth of the fungus Candida, causing vaginal candidiasis. The other options, such as insertion of an intrauterine device, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or previous viral infection, do not directly contribute to the development of vaginal candidiasis.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A chancre is best described as:
- A.
A vesicel surrounded by a red inflammed area
- B.
A pustule filled with purulent exudate
- C.
An area of necrosis and fibrosis
- D.
A firm painless ulcerated nodule
Correct Answer
D. A firm painless ulcerated noduleExplanation
A chancre is a firm painless ulcerated nodule. This means that it is a raised, hardened area on the skin or mucous membrane that is painless and has a central ulcer or open sore. It is typically caused by a sexually transmitted infection, such as syphilis. The firmness and lack of pain are characteristic features of a chancre, distinguishing it from other types of skin lesions.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:
- A.
Slow the growth of the primary tumor
- B.
Destroy any micrometastases
- C.
Prevent the removal of any lymph nodes
- D.
Reduce the need for a mastectomy
Correct Answer
B. Destroy any micrometastasesExplanation
Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation are used in cases of breast cancer to destroy any micrometastases. Micrometastases are small cancer cells that have spread from the primary tumor to other parts of the body but are not yet detectable. By using chemotherapy and radiation, these micrometastases can be targeted and destroyed, preventing further spread of the cancer. This treatment approach is important in reducing the risk of recurrence and improving the overall survival rate for breast cancer patients.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which one do Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
- A.
It does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation
- B.
Vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis
- C.
Premenopausal women are not likely to notice changes
- D.
Hormone therapy is ineffective
Correct Answer
B. Vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosisExplanation
Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because of vague signs and a hidden location that often lead to late diagnosis. Unlike other cancers, ovarian cancer does not present clear symptoms in its early stages, making it difficult to detect. This delayed diagnosis means that the cancer has often spread beyond the ovaries by the time it is discovered, reducing the chances of successful treatment. Additionally, the ovaries are located deep within the body, making it harder to detect any abnormalities through physical examinations. Overall, the combination of these factors contributes to the poor prognosis associated with ovarian cancer.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Specific genetic links have been shown for:
- A.
1. cervical cancer
- B.
2. testicular cancer
- C.
3. breast cancer
- D.
4. prostatic cancer
- E.
1, 2
- F.
3, 4
- G.
1, 3, 4
- H.
2, 3, 4
Correct Answer
H. 2, 3, 4Explanation
The correct answer is 2, 3, 4. This is because specific genetic links have been shown for testicular cancer, breast cancer, and prostatic cancer. Cervical cancer is not included in the genetic links mentioned.Rate this question:
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- 43.
In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence?
- A.
Uterine cancer
- B.
Breast cancer
- C.
Ovarian cancer
- D.
Cervical cancer in situ
Correct Answer
D. Cervical cancer in situExplanation
Cervical cancer in situ refers to the early stage of cervical cancer where abnormal cells are found only in the surface layer of the cervix. The question asks about cancers that have seen a recent significant increase in incidence. The correct answer, cervical cancer in situ, suggests that there has been a notable rise in the number of cases of this early stage of cervical cancer. This increase in incidence could be due to various factors such as improved screening methods, increased awareness, or changes in risk factors.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Adenocarcinomas make up the most common cancers found in the:
- A.
Prostate
- B.
Testes
- C.
Ovary
- D.
Cervix
Correct Answer
A. ProstateExplanation
Adenocarcinomas are the most common type of cancer found in the prostate. The prostate is a small gland located in the male reproductive system, responsible for producing seminal fluid. Adenocarcinomas are cancers that originate in the glandular cells of an organ, and in the case of the prostate, they can lead to the development of prostate cancer. This type of cancer is more commonly found in older men and can cause symptoms such as difficulty urinating, blood in the urine, and erectile dysfunction. Regular screenings and early detection are crucial for managing prostate cancer.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Infertility in women may result from:
- A.
A. endometriosis
- B.
B. hormonal imbalances
- C.
A and b
- D.
Neither a or b
Correct Answer
C. A and bExplanation
Infertility in women can be caused by both endometriosis and hormonal imbalances. Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of it, leading to fertility issues. Hormonal imbalances can disrupt the normal functioning of the reproductive system, affecting ovulation and the ability to conceive. Therefore, both factors can contribute to infertility in women.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Viable sperm may not be able to access an ovum when:
- A.
A. cervical mucus is highly viscous
- B.
B. vaginal pH is abnormal
- C.
C. structural abnormalities are present
- D.
B, c
- E.
A, b, c
Correct Answer
E. A, b, cExplanation
When cervical mucus is highly viscous, it can create a barrier that prevents sperm from reaching the ovum. Abnormal vaginal pH can also hinder the movement and survival of sperm. Additionally, structural abnormalities in either the male or female reproductive system can interfere with the successful fertilization of an ovum. Therefore, all of these factors together can contribute to the inability of viable sperm to access an ovum.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Dyspareunia is:
- A.
Painful intercourse
- B.
Obstructed urination
- C.
A form of infertility
- D.
Fungal infection of the uterus
Correct Answer
A. Painful intercourseExplanation
Dyspareunia refers to the condition of experiencing pain during sexual intercourse. It can be caused by various factors such as vaginal dryness, infections, hormonal imbalances, or psychological issues. This condition can significantly affect a person's sexual and emotional well-being, leading to discomfort and a decreased desire for sexual activity. Therefore, the correct answer is "painful intercourse."Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 30, 2019Quiz Created by
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