Quiz CVS,Dm.GI And Respiratory.Pathophysiology Final , #abo5atib
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
About the coronary arteries that ascend from the ascending aorta, left coronary branches to :
- A.
Posterior interventicular and cicumflex
- B.
Posterior interventicular and marginal
- C.
Anterior interventicular and marginal
- D.
Anterior interventicular and circumflex
Correct Answer
D. Anterior interventicular and circumflexExplanation
The left coronary artery branches into two main arteries: the anterior interventricular artery (also known as the left anterior descending artery) and the circumflex artery. The anterior interventricular artery supplies blood to the anterior part of the interventricular septum and the anterior walls of both ventricles. The circumflex artery supplies blood to the left atrium and the lateral walls of the left ventricle. Therefore, the correct answer is "Anterior interventricular and circumflex."Rate this question:
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- 2.
One of the following is not related to Type 2 in DM :
- A.
Relative deficiency of insulinÂ
- B.
Nonketonic hyperglycemia with stressÂ
- C.
Obese represents 80% in this type
- D.
Most common in juvenile onestÂ
Correct Answer
D. Most common in juvenile onestÂExplanation
The given answer, "Most common in juvenile onset," is not related to Type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Type 2 DM is typically characterized by insulin resistance and relative deficiency of insulin, which is the first option. Nonketonic hyperglycemia with stress can also be seen in Type 2 DM. However, the fact that it is most common in juvenile onset is not applicable to Type 2 DM, as it is more commonly associated with adult onset.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In the Diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease , one of the following is correct :
- A.
In barium meal study , gastric ulcer biopsy advise r/o malignancyÂ
- B.
In OGD , duodenal ulcer shows trifoliteÂ
- C.
In OGD , duodenal ulcer biopsy done to r/o H.pylori
- D.
In barium meal study , duodenal ulcer appears as niche in lesser curvature due to ulcer craterÂ
Correct Answer
C. In OGD , duodenal ulcer biopsy done to r/o H.pyloriExplanation
In the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease, performing a duodenal ulcer biopsy during an OGD (oesophagogastroduodenoscopy) is correct to rule out the presence of H. pylori bacteria. H. pylori infection is a common cause of peptic ulcers, and obtaining a biopsy sample allows for testing to determine if the bacteria is present. This information is important for guiding treatment decisions, as eradicating H. pylori is necessary for successful management of peptic ulcers.Rate this question:
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- 4.
One of the following disease represents a reduced intestinal surface with regard to causes of Malabsorption disease :
- A.
Tropical sprueÂ
- B.
Lactose intoleranceÂ
- C.
Croh'n diseaseÂ
- D.
Pancreatic insufficiencyÂ
Correct Answer
C. Croh'n diseaseÂExplanation
Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. It causes inflammation and damage to the lining of the intestines, leading to a reduced intestinal surface area. This can result in malabsorption of nutrients, as the damaged intestines are unable to effectively absorb them. Symptoms of Crohn's disease include abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and fatigue. Treatment usually involves medication to reduce inflammation and manage symptoms, as well as dietary changes to ensure proper nutrition.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In laboratory assessment in the Cirrhosis , one of the following is incorrect :
- A.
Alkaline phosphotase increaseÂ
- B.
Serum protein decreaseÂ
- C.
Hematocrit decreaseÂ
- D.
Serum creatinine decreaseÂ
Correct Answer
D. Serum creatinine decreaseÂExplanation
In cirrhosis, the liver is damaged and its function is impaired. This can lead to a decrease in the filtration rate of the kidneys, resulting in an increase in serum creatinine levels. Therefore, the statement that serum creatinine decreases in cirrhosis is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Physical symptoms of psychotogical origins is :
- A.
Arrhythmia
- B.
Hypochondriasis
- C.
Thyroid disease
- D.
Hyperlipedimia
Correct Answer
B. HypochondriasisExplanation
Hypochondriasis is the correct answer because it refers to a psychological disorder where individuals have excessive worry and fear about having a serious medical condition, despite having no or only minor physical symptoms. It is characterized by a preoccupation with one's health and a tendency to interpret normal bodily sensations as signs of illness. This disorder does not have a physical origin but rather stems from psychological factors.Rate this question:
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- 7.
One of the following is incorrect about Metabolic syndrome :
- A.
Hypotension
- B.
Low HDL
- C.
Elevated triglyceride levels
- D.
Impaired fasting glucose
Correct Answer
A. HypotensionExplanation
Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a characteristic of metabolic syndrome. Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of conditions that includes elevated triglyceride levels, low HDL cholesterol, and impaired fasting glucose. These conditions increase the risk of developing cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. However, hypotension is not typically associated with metabolic syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 8.
About the drugs that used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease , one of the following drugs considered a prostaglandin analogue :
- A.
Tums
- B.
Cimetioline
- C.
Lansoprazole
- D.
Misoprostol
Correct Answer
D. MisoprostolExplanation
Misoprostol is considered a prostaglandin analogue used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. Prostaglandins are naturally occurring substances that help protect the lining of the stomach and intestines. Misoprostol works by increasing the production of these protective prostaglandins, thereby reducing the risk of ulcers and promoting healing. Tums, Cimetidine, and Lansoprazole are not prostaglandin analogues and have different mechanisms of action in treating peptic ulcer disease.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following bacteria causes a thyroid fever :
- A.
Y entrocolitis
- B.
Salmonella
- C.
C-jejuni
- D.
Shigella
Correct Answer
B. SalmonellaExplanation
Salmonella is the correct answer because it is a type of bacteria that can cause a condition called typhoid fever. Typhoid fever is characterized by high fever, weakness, stomach pain, and sometimes a rash. It is usually contracted by consuming contaminated food or water.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Elevated Jugular Venous pressure is :
- A.
Ankle edema
- B.
Pleural effusion
- C.
Kussmauls's sign
- D.
Ascites
Correct Answer
C. Kussmauls's signExplanation
Kussmaul's sign is the correct answer because it refers to an abnormal increase in jugular venous pressure during inspiration. This can be observed by the jugular vein bulging or not collapsing during inhalation. It is often associated with conditions such as constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade, or right-sided heart failure. Ankle edema, pleural effusion, and ascites are not specifically related to elevated jugular venous pressure.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In DKA-treatment ( diabetic keto acidosis ) , we need :
- A.
Volume replacement
- B.
Insulin
- C.
Magnesium
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
In the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), all of the mentioned options are necessary. Volume replacement is required to correct dehydration and restore fluid balance. Insulin is needed to lower blood glucose levels and promote the metabolism of ketones. Magnesium supplementation is necessary as DKA can lead to magnesium depletion. Therefore, all three components are essential for effective DKA treatment.Rate this question:
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- 12.
One of the following is not true about H.pylori :
- A.
Found most commonly in deeper portions of the mucus gel coating gastric mucusa
- B.
Its genes products causing epithelial cell injury
- C.
Inhibits gastric acid and increase PH
- D.
Several H.pylori are immunogenic
Correct Answer
C. Inhibits gastric acid and increase PHExplanation
H.pylori does not inhibit gastric acid and increase pH. In fact, it produces an enzyme called urease which converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in gastric pH. This allows H.pylori to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 13.
One of the following drugs is not Antivirals regard to Hepatits drugs :
- A.
Oral ribavirin
- B.
Lamivundine
- C.
Adefovir dipivoxil
- D.
Epivir-HBV
Correct Answer
A. Oral ribavirinExplanation
Oral ribavirin is not considered an antiviral drug for Hepatitis. While Lamivudine, Adefovir dipivoxil, and Epivir-HBV are all antiviral drugs used in the treatment of Hepatitis, ribavirin is primarily used in the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections and not specifically for Hepatitis.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A weakening of an artery wall , that creates a bulge or distention of the artery :
- A.
Aneurysm
- B.
Eclampsia toxemia
- C.
Pheochromocytoma
- D.
Adrenal gland abnormalities
Correct Answer
A. AneurysmExplanation
An aneurysm is the correct answer because it refers to a weakening of an artery wall that causes a bulge or distention of the artery. This bulge can be dangerous as it can rupture and lead to severe bleeding or other complications. Aneurysms can occur in various parts of the body, but are most commonly found in the brain, aorta, and other major blood vessels.Rate this question:
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- 15.
One of the most potent vasoconstrictors known and it is an octapeptides ( 8 amino acids ) :
- A.
Aldosteron
- B.
Renin
- C.
ADH
- D.
Angiotemsin ||
Correct Answer
D. Angiotemsin ||Explanation
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. It is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the enzyme ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme). Angiotensin II acts on blood vessels, causing them to constrict, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. This vasoconstriction helps to maintain blood flow to vital organs, especially in situations where blood volume is low or blood pressure is reduced. Additionally, angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys, further contributing to an increase in blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Regard to principals mechanisms of diarrhea , the Exudative mechanism include :
- A.
Excessive osmotic forcesÂ
- B.
Output of purulent and bloody stool
- C.
Voluminous stool and defective absorptionÂ
- D.
Isotonic tp plazmaÂ
Correct Answer
B. Output of purulent and bloody stoolExplanation
The correct answer is "Output of purulent and bloody stool." In the context of the question, the exudative mechanism of diarrhea refers to the presence of purulent (pus-filled) and bloody stool. This suggests an inflammatory process in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to the release of inflammatory exudate into the stool. This mechanism is different from excessive osmotic forces, voluminous stool, and defective absorption, which are associated with other types of diarrhea. The presence of purulent and bloody stool indicates an underlying infection or inflammation in the intestines.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Regard to Portal Systemic Encephalopathy (hepatic coma) , the incorrect one is :
- A.
Acute diseaseÂ
- B.
Reversible with early interventionÂ
- C.
Causes impaired thinkingÂ
- D.
Caused by Decrease ammonia levelsÂ
Correct Answer
D. Caused by Decrease ammonia levelsÂExplanation
Portal Systemic Encephalopathy (hepatic coma) is a condition that occurs due to liver dysfunction, specifically in cases of advanced liver disease. It is characterized by impaired brain function and mental changes. The correct answer states that it is caused by a decrease in ammonia levels, which is incorrect. In fact, Portal Systemic Encephalopathy is caused by an increase in ammonia levels in the blood, as the liver is unable to properly process and eliminate ammonia. This leads to toxic levels of ammonia in the brain, resulting in the symptoms associated with the condition.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In compensented shock , one of the following is peripheral effects :
- A.
Increase cardiac output
- B.
Shunting of blood to main core organs
- C.
Decrease blood flow to the hypothalamus
- D.
ACTH
Correct Answer
B. Shunting of blood to main core organsExplanation
In compensated shock, the body tries to maintain blood flow to vital organs by shunting blood away from less essential areas. This is known as shunting of blood to main core organs. This mechanism helps to ensure that organs like the heart, brain, and kidneys receive an adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients, despite the decreased overall blood flow. This peripheral effect is an important adaptive response in the body's attempt to compensate for the reduced cardiac output and maintain organ function.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Main explanatory reasons for Berserk movement in fibrillation :
- A.
Decrease velocity and increase refractory period
- B.
Decrease velocity and decrease refractory period
- C.
Increase velocity and decrease refractory period
- D.
Increase velocity and increase refractory period
Correct Answer
A. Decrease velocity and increase refractory periodExplanation
The correct answer is "Decrease velocity and increase refractory period." In fibrillation, the heart muscle contracts in an uncoordinated manner, leading to a rapid and irregular heartbeat. Decreasing the velocity of the electrical signals in the heart can help to prevent the abnormal contractions from spreading too quickly. Additionally, increasing the refractory period, which is the time during which the heart muscle cannot be stimulated again, can help to regulate the heartbeat and prevent further chaotic contractions. Therefore, decreasing velocity and increasing refractory period are the main explanatory reasons for the Berserk movement in fibrillation.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Regard to alpha stimulatory in G protein coupled receptor , the correct one is :
- A.
Alpha work on protein kinase A
- B.
Protein kinase A converts ATP to CAMP
- C.
Enzyme adenine cyclise converts ATP to CAMP
- D.
No adenine cyclise
Correct Answer
C. Enzyme adenine cyclise converts ATP to CAMPExplanation
The correct answer is "Enzyme adenine cyclise converts ATP to CAMP". This is because adenylate cyclase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) to cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate). cAMP is an important secondary messenger molecule that regulates various cellular processes, including signal transduction pathways mediated by G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). Therefore, in the context of alpha stimulation in GPCRs, adenylate cyclase plays a crucial role in converting ATP to cAMP, which then activates downstream signaling pathways.Rate this question:
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- 21.
One of the following is incorrect about trans pulmonary pressure :
- A.
More trans pulmonary pressure , less volume of air inside the lungsÂ
- B.
Becomes a zero at death
- C.
Difference between a intra alveolar and intra pleural pressureÂ
- D.
Becomes zero in PneumothoraxÂ
Correct Answer
A. More trans pulmonary pressure , less volume of air inside the lungsÂExplanation
Trans pulmonary pressure refers to the difference between intra-alveolar and intra-pleural pressure. When the trans pulmonary pressure increases, it causes the expansion of the lungs, resulting in an increase in the volume of air inside the lungs. Therefore, the statement "More trans pulmonary pressure, less volume of air inside the lungs" is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 22.
One of the following is like coffee ground vomit :
- A.
Chronic cough
- B.
Hematemesis
- C.
Acute cough
- D.
Hemoptysis
Correct Answer
B. HematemesisExplanation
Hematemesis refers to the vomiting of blood, which can appear similar to coffee grounds due to the digestion of blood in the stomach. This condition is often associated with gastrointestinal bleeding and can be caused by various factors such as ulcers, liver disease, or esophageal varices. Chronic cough, acute cough, and hemoptysis are not related to the appearance of coffee ground vomit.Rate this question:
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- 23.
One of the following diseases usually represents a high V/Q ratio in pulmonary test :
- A.
Acute pulmonary edema
- B.
Asthma
- C.
COPD
- D.
Chronic bronchitis
Correct Answer
C. COPDExplanation
COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) usually represents a high V/Q (ventilation/perfusion) ratio in pulmonary tests. This is because COPD is characterized by airflow limitation and obstruction in the lungs, which leads to decreased ventilation in relation to perfusion. In other words, there is inadequate airflow to match the blood flow in the lungs, resulting in a high V/Q ratio. This imbalance can cause impaired gas exchange and difficulty breathing in individuals with COPD.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In acute asthma attack , One of the following is not major event :
- A.
Bronchiolar constriction
- B.
Inflammatory swelling
- C.
Mucus hepersecretion
- D.
Hyperinflation of alveoli
Correct Answer
D. Hyperinflation of alveoliExplanation
During an acute asthma attack, bronchiolar constriction, inflammatory swelling, and mucus hypersecretion are major events that contribute to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing. However, hyperinflation of alveoli is not a major event in acute asthma attacks. Hyperinflation refers to the excessive expansion of the alveoli, which is not typically observed in asthma attacks. Instead, the focus is on the constriction and inflammation of the airways, as well as the increased production of mucus, leading to airway obstruction.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Acts as a bronchodilator, and cause relaxation of smooth muscle by acts as Ca antagonist :
- A.
SABA
- B.
Ventilation
- C.
MgSO4
- D.
LABA
Correct Answer
C. MgSO4Explanation
MgSO4 refers to magnesium sulfate, which acts as a bronchodilator and causes relaxation of smooth muscle by acting as a calcium antagonist. This means that it helps to open up the airways and relieve symptoms of bronchospasm. SABA and LABA are also bronchodilators, but they work through different mechanisms. Ventilation, on the other hand, refers to the process of breathing and is not directly related to bronchodilation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Patients with a predominant emphysema usually have :
- A.
Hepercapnia
- B.
Edema
- C.
Normal PaCO2
- D.
Polycythemia
Correct Answer
C. Normal PaCO2Explanation
Patients with a predominant emphysema usually have normal PaCO2 levels. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by the destruction of the alveoli, leading to decreased lung function. In emphysema, the ability to exhale fully is impaired, resulting in air trapping and increased residual volume. However, the PaCO2 levels remain normal because the patient can still effectively eliminate carbon dioxide. This is in contrast to conditions such as chronic bronchitis, where the PaCO2 levels are elevated due to impaired carbon dioxide elimination.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The first line of treatment of high blood pressure :
- A.
Beta blockers
- B.
Calcium antagonist
- C.
Diuretics
- D.
Angiotensin || receptor blockers
Correct Answer
C. DiureticsExplanation
Diuretics are the first line of treatment for high blood pressure because they help the body get rid of excess salt and water, reducing the volume of blood and thus lowering blood pressure. They are effective in treating hypertension and are often prescribed as initial therapy due to their proven efficacy and safety profile. Diuretics work by increasing urine production, which helps to decrease the amount of fluid in the blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. They are commonly used in combination with other antihypertensive medications to achieve optimal blood pressure control.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Digitalis (digoxin) are example of :
- A.
ACE inhibitors
- B.
Beta blockers
- C.
Spironolactone
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Beta blockersExplanation
Digitalis (digoxin) is not an example of ACE inhibitors or spironolactone. Digoxin is a medication that belongs to the class of cardiac glycosides, not beta blockers. Beta blockers are a different class of medication that work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the body, while digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart muscle contractions. Therefore, the correct answer is beta blockers.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Happens in athletes because cardiomegaly :
- A.
Bradycardia physiology
- B.
Bradycardia pathophysiology
- C.
Tachycardia physiology
- D.
Tachycardia Pathophysiology
Correct Answer
A. Bradycardia physiologyExplanation
Bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate, which is often observed in athletes due to their high level of physical fitness. Regular exercise and training can lead to an increase in the size and strength of the heart muscle, known as cardiomegaly. This allows the heart to pump a larger volume of blood with each beat, resulting in a lower resting heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is "Bradycardia physiology."Rate this question:
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- 30.
Example of sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitter :
- A.
Nicotinic
- B.
Acetylcholine
- C.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
- D.
A1,A2,B1,B2
Correct Answer
C. Epinephrine and norepinephrineExplanation
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are examples of sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitters. These neurotransmitters are released by the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system and play a crucial role in the "fight or flight" response. Epinephrine and norepinephrine bind to adrenergic receptors, specifically the A1, A2, B1, and B2 receptors, to elicit various physiological responses such as increased heart rate, blood pressure, and bronchodilation.Rate this question:
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May 28, 2020Quiz Created by
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Copy of Quiz CVS,DM.GI and Respiratory.PATHOPHYSIOLOGY Final , #Abo5atib
Copy of Quiz CVS,DM.GI and Respiratory.PATHOPHYSIOLOGY Final , #Abo5atib
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