Volume 3 CDC 3C051

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1. 26. What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes?
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This quiz covers the URE's of volume three of 3C051

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2. 74. What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the internet?
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3. 30. An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining what type of files?
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4. 86. What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?
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5. 21. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?
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6. 8. What are the two functional categories of performance management?
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7. 10. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
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8. 15. What SNMP operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?
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9. 28. When a volume is formatted with NTFS what group is automatically assigned full control permission to a volume?
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10. 48. What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?
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11. 22. For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?
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12. 55. What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node?
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13. 27. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?
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14. 72. How is a personal identification number categorized?
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15. 92. What standard is utilized by the Defense messaging system for directory services?
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16. 2. What are the three most common network management architectures?
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17. 17. In the event that a domain conroller is no longer functioning, what action is taken to make another DC take over the responsibility?
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18. 40. What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?
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19. 9. Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
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20. 56. What diagnostics test is usually run on a NIC to ensure its functional?
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21. 4. What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
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22. 33. What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?
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23. 35. What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious netowrk problem?
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24. 37. What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?
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25. 39. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?
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26. 44. What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?
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27. 49. What is the maximum packet size (in bytes) for the internet protocol?
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28. 57. What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?
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29. 58. What Internet protocol address is used to packet internetwork groper a computer's own NIC?
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30. 3. What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for NM duties?
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31. 32. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?
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32. 38. Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?
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33. 53. Ideally the average network utilization value should be less than
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34. 91. What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging services?
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35. 1. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
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36. 24. What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
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37. 34. What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems on which the higher-level functions are based?
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38. 43. What is an indication that a noteworthy event occured on the network?
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39. 77. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?
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40. 68. What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?
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41. 80. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulationg a message inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
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42. 16. What type of SNMP protocol node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?
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43. 63. What color on the system management automated reprot tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?
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44. 71. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility  of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
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45. 29. When a new folder or file is created on a NTFS partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?
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46. 14. Which category of SMNP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
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47. 62. What componet of the system management automated report tracking system application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
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48. 25. What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has to the resource
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49. 31. What is one way to increase file server efficiency?
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50. 47. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?
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51. 52. What type of network problems is caused by collisions on the domain?
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52. 59. What is one of the most types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?
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53. 89. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "Vulnerability Hierarchy" for notifications, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate potentially severe threat to DOD systems?
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54. 93. What is one of the most important parts of security in the defense messaging system?
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55. 23. Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?
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56. 73. What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the internet?
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57. 84. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
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58. 90. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "vulnerablility hierarchy" for notifications, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat DOD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?
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59. 6. At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?
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60. 7. Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network, management area?
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61. 70. What is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?
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62. 88. Who is the IAVA process manager?
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63. 11. What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
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64. 60. What are the three main componets of the system management automated report tracking system?
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65. 64. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
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66. 20. What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?
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67. 45. When bits are missing in one or more octects in a frame, what type of error occurs?
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68. 69. In which phase of the Department of Defense information technology security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?
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69. 13. What is a hierarchial, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
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70. 19. What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?
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71. 51. Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of teh OSI model?
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72. 66. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
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73. 67. What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and teh nmber of connections that are related to specific nodes?
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74. 76. What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?
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75. 87. What web-based process incorporates indentification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within Department of Defense community?
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76. 36. What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?
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77. 50. What is the minimum packet size in bytes for the Internet Protocol
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78. 82. What type of firewall is used to serperate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
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79. 85. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable?
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80. 5. At what level of network management activity are you working when you, as the network manager, are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
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81. 41. What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults?
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82. 54. What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?
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83. 78. In what step of teh barrier reef process do you start a base network steering group to address base-wide network management and security issues?
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84. 61. What is the centerpiece of the SMARTS console?
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85. 65. What menu in the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
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86. 81. WHat is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inapporpriate network address?
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87. 79. What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?
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88. 18. What type of network server is dedicated to an intensive application or database?
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89. 46. What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cyclic redundancy check value of the recieved frame and comparing it to the recieved 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?
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90. 83. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
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91. 42. What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected predicted faults?
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92. 75. What is uniquely generated to encrypt a specific message to the user?
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93. 12. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI?
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26. What file permission provides a user with the ability to change...
74. What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor...
30. An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users...
86. What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?
21. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto...
8. What are the two functional categories of performance management?
10. What network management area is concerned with controlling access...
15. What SNMP operational message retrieves the value of one instance...
28. When a volume is formatted with NTFS what group is automatically...
48. What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that...
22. For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client...
55. What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a...
27. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to...
72. How is a personal identification number categorized?
92. What standard is utilized by the Defense messaging system for...
2. What are the three most common network management architectures?
17. In the event that a domain conroller is no longer functioning,...
40. What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?
9. Which functional category of performance management tracks...
56. What diagnostics test is usually run on a NIC to ensure its...
4. What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with...
33. What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run...
35. What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to...
37. What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network...
39. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work...
44. What network management system alarm browser information item...
49. What is the maximum packet size (in bytes) for the internet...
57. What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based...
58. What Internet protocol address is used to packet internetwork...
3. What network management architecture has an NM platform on one...
32. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount...
38. Why should only one possibility of a network problem be...
53. Ideally the average network utilization value should be less than
91. What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for...
1. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to...
24. What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a...
34. What is the name for the core set of software instructions...
43. What is an indication that a noteworthy event occured on the...
77. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the...
68. What is the process of analyzing threats against and the...
80. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulationg a message inside...
16. What type of SNMP protocol node is responsible to authenticate...
63. What color on the system management automated reprot tracking...
71. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility  of a...
29. When a new folder or file is created on a NTFS partition, what...
14. Which category of SMNP node is responsible for monitoring,...
62. What componet of the system management automated report tracking...
25. What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has...
31. What is one way to increase file server efficiency?
47. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface...
52. What type of network problems is caused by collisions on the...
59. What is one of the most types of hardware devices used for network...
89. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "Vulnerability Hierarchy" for...
93. What is one of the most important parts of security in the defense...
23. Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any...
73. What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate...
84. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to...
90. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "vulnerablility hierarchy" for...
6. At what level of network management activity are you working when...
7. Gathering information about current network device settings is a...
70. What is the maximum number of years an automated information...
88. Who is the IAVA process manager?
11. What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within...
60. What are the three main componets of the system management...
64. How many different categories of information does the performance...
20. What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett...
45. When bits are missing in one or more octects in a frame, what type...
69. In which phase of the Department of Defense information technology...
13. What is a hierarchial, structured format that defines the network...
19. What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the...
51. Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of...
66. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol...
67. What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning...
76. What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?
87. What web-based process incorporates indentification and evaluation...
36. What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a...
50. What is the minimum packet size in bytes for the Internet Protocol
82. What type of firewall is used to serperate secure sites, networks,...
85. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from...
5. At what level of network management activity are you working when...
41. What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types...
54. What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?
78. In what step of teh barrier reef process do you start a base...
61. What is the centerpiece of the SMARTS console?
65. What menu in the protocol analyzer provides information concerning...
81. WHat is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop...
79. What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?
18. What type of network server is dedicated to an intensive...
46. What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the...
83. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all...
42. What function of fault management identifies options for...
75. What is uniquely generated to encrypt a specific message to the...
12. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to...
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