Volume 3 CDC 3C051

1. 26. What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes?

Full control

Change

Write

Read

2. 74. What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the internet?

Token

Smart Card

Private Key

Session

3. 30. An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining what type of files?

Databases

Spreadsheet

Word processing templates

PowerPoint slideshow files

4. 86. What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?

Degaussing

Overwriting

Formating

Deleting

5. 8. What are the two functional categories of performance management?

Monitoring and analyzing

Monitoring and replacing

Monitoring and tuning

Analyzing and tuning

6. 10. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Configuration Management

Performance management

Accounting management

Security management

7. 21. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?

To ensure users don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place

To ensure users understand how to create passwords

To ensure the integrity of each user's unique password

To ensure users remember their unique password

8. 48. What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?

Jabbers

Dribbles

Collisions

Network storm

9. 28. When a volume is formatted with NTFS what group is automatically assigned full control permission to a volume?

Local group

Global group

Built-In group

Everyone group

10. 15. What SNMP operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?

Get

Set

Trap

GetNext

11. 55. What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node?

Send and echo

Ping and echo

Tracert

Ping and tracert

12. 22. For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?

Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters and numbers

Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lower case letters, numbers, and special characters

Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters and two special characters

Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, tow numbers, and two special characters

13. 2. What are the three most common network management architectures?

Centralized, hierarchial, and distributed

Centralized, hierarchial, and hybrid

Hybrid, hierarchial and distributed

Centralized, hybrid and distributed

14. 27. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?

Full control

No Access

Change

Write

15. 72. How is a personal identification number categorized?

Something you know

Something you have

Something you need

Something you read

16. 92. What standard is utilized by the Defense messaging system for directory services?

TCP/IP

SMTP

X.400

X.500

17. 17. In the event that a domain conroller is no longer functioning, what action is taken to make another DC take over the responsibility?

No action is required

The spare is promoted to the DC position

The logical name of the backup DC is changed to the logical name of the primary DC.

The Internet protocol address of the backup DC is changed to the IP address of the primary DC

18. 40. What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?

Automatically and proactively

Manually and automatically

Reactively and proactively

Reactively and manually

19. 9. Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

Tuning

Analyzing

Gathering

Monitoring

20. 56. What diagnostics test is usually run on a NIC to ensure its functional?

Loopback

CTS/RTS

Transmission trace

Self-test diagnostic

21. 4. What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

Centralized

Distributed

Hierarchial

Hybrid

22. 37. What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?

Create a plan of action

Define the main problems

Consider all possible causes

Implement the plan of action

23. 3. What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for NM duties?

Centralized

Distributed

Hierarchial

Hybrid

24. 35. What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious netowrk problem?

What is the size of the network?

Where is the network map?

Who are the critical users?

What services are down?

25. 39. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?

Failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts.

Lack of communication during the troubleshooting process

Troubleshooting multiple possibilities at one time

Failure to interview the users

26. 33. What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?

NTBOOTDD.SYS and BOOTSECT.DOS

BOOTSECT.DOS and NTDETECT.COM

BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM

BOOT.INI and NTBOOTDD.SYS

27. 58. What Internet protocol address is used to packet internetwork groper a computer's own NIC?

126.0.0.1

127.0.0.1

128.0.0.1

129.0.0.1

28. 44. What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?

Ack

Cor

Source

Severity

29. 57. What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?

TCPCONFIG

WINIPCFG

IPCONFIG

TRACERT

30. 49. What is the maximum packet size (in bytes) for the internet protocol?

42,293

48,800

56,498

65,535

31. 1. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Fault management server

Security management server

Network management server

Performance management server

32. 53. Ideally the average network utilization value should be less than

20%

25%

30%

40%

33. 91. What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging services?

TCP/IP

SMNP

X.400

X.500

34. 32. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?

Rank

Duty hours

Job position

Time on station

35. 38. Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?

For better documentation

To effectively eliminate ideas not the problem

To ensure all personnel are informed of the results

Isolate a definite cause if teh action fixes the problem

36. 34. What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems on which the higher-level functions are based?

BOOT.IOS

ROOT.SYS

Boot Kernel

System Kernel

37. 43. What is an indication that a noteworthy event occured on the network?

Poll

Push

Alarm

Notification

38. 24. What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?

Rights

Permissions

Access control lists

Hardware configuration

39. 77. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?

Know thyself

Determine requirements

Policy information

Network monitoring

40. 68. What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?

Authentication

Accreditation

Risk analysis

Certification

41. 80. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulationg a message inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Tunneling

Identification spoofing

Application-based attacks

Second message encryption

42. 16. What type of SNMP protocol node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?

Network management controllers

Stand-alone servers

Domain controllers

Member servers

43. 63. What color on the system management automated reprot tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?

Blue

Purple

Orange

Yellow

44. 71. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

Authentication

Recertification

Accreditaiton

Identification

45. 29. When a new folder or file is created on a NTFS partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?

Global group permissions

Everyone group permissions

No permissions are automatically assigned

Inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in

46. 14. Which category of SMNP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

Primary domain controller

Backup domain controlller

Manager

Agent

47. 62. What componet of the system management automated report tracking system application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

Broker

Client

Probe

Console

48. 59. What is one of the most types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?

Loopback plug

Network sniffer

Protocol analyzer

Bit error rate tester

49. 89. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "Vulnerability Hierarchy" for notifications, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate potentially severe threat to DOD systems?

DoD CERT technical advisory

TCNO

IA vulnerability alert

IA vulnerability bulletin

50. 93. What is one of the most important parts of security in the defense messaging system?

Private Keys

Fortezza cards

User ID passwords

Specific Algorithm encryption

51. 52. What type of network problems is caused by collisions on the domain?

Jabbers

Inability to transmit

High utiliztion only

High utilization or jabbers

52. 25. What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has to the resource

Rights

Permissions

Access control lists

Hardware configuration

53. 47. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?

24

48

64

128

54. 31. What is one way to increase file server efficiency?

Reducing file space to user

Reducing the available hours of use

Limiting the access times of typical users

Routinely running defrag software

55. 6. At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

Inactive

Reactive

Proactive

Interactive

56. 7. Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network, management area?

Configuration management

Performance management

Accounting management

Security management

57. 23. Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?

Local

Global

Universal

Domain Local

58. 90. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "vulnerablility hierarchy" for notifications, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat DOD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?

DoD CERT technical advisory

TCNO

IA vulnerability bulletin

IA vulnerability alert

59. 73. What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the internet?

Token

Public Key

Private key

Session key

60. 84. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

NM software

Intrusion detection devices

Vulnerability scanners

Proxy firewalls

61. 11. What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Fault parameters

Tolerence parameters

Low-level software alarms

Low-level hardware alarms

62. 88. Who is the IAVA process manager?

DOD CERT

AFCERT

HQ AIA

DISA

63. 70. What is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?

Two

Three

Four

Five

64. 60. What are the three main componets of the system management automated report tracking system?

Domain managers, consoles, and clients

Domain managers, consoles, and probes

Domain managers, broker, and probes

Domain managers, broker and clients

65. 64. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

7

14

19

21

66. 69. In which phase of the Department of Defense information technology security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?

Phase 1: Definition

Phase 2: Verification

Phase 3: Validation

Phase 4: Post accreditation

67. 13. What is a hierarchial, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

Network devive map

Network protocol list

Object identifier

Management information base

68. 20. What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?

Data link control protocol

Network basic input/output system extended user interface

TCP/IP

Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange

69. 45. When bits are missing in one or more octects in a frame, what type of error occurs?

Frame check sequence

Retransmission

Collisions

Alignment

70. 19. What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?

Data link control protocol

Network basic input/output system extended user interface

TCP/IP

Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange

71. 76. What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?

Access control lists

Firewall configuration

Base network security policy

Network security training and education

72. 51. Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of teh OSI model?

Data link and session

Data link and physical

Physical and transport

Session and media access control

73. 67. What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and teh nmber of connections that are related to specific nodes?

Connection statistics

MAC node statistics

Protocol statistics

Node discovery

74. 66. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Connection statistics

MAC node statistics

Protocol statistics

Node discovery

75. 87. What web-based process incorporates indentification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within Department of Defense community?

DOD CERT

AFCERT

IAVA

TCNO

76. 85. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable?

Deletedata

Deleteinfo

Wipedata

Wipeinfo

77. 82. What type of firewall is used to serperate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Proxy

Bastion host

Packet filtering

Intrusion detection

78. 5. At what level of network management activity are you working when you, as the network manager, are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

Inactive

Reactive

Proactive

Interactive

79. 36. What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?

Consider all possible causes

Define the main problems

Create a plan of action

Gather facts

80. 50. What is the minimum packet size in bytes for the Internet Protocol

28

64

128

256

81. 41. What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults?

Devices that have broken network connections and used up bandwidth

Devices that have lost power and have broken network connections

Devices with failed services and have broken network connections

Devices that have lost power and used up bandwidth

82. 78. In what step of teh barrier reef process do you start a base network steering group to address base-wide network management and security issues?

Know thyself

Determine requirements

Policy information

Network monitoring

83. 54. What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?

High utilization and collisions

Collisions and inability to transmit

High utiliztion and inability to transmit

Repeat transmissions and inability to transmit

84. 61. What is the centerpiece of the SMARTS console?

Broker

Clients

Map Console

Domain manager

85. 81. WHat is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inapporpriate network address?

Proxy

Bastion Host

Packet Filtering

Intrusion detection

86. 65. What menu in the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

Connecton statistics

MAC node statistics

Protocol statistics

Node discovery

87. 79. What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?

Identification spoofing and tunneling

Tunneling and application-based attacks

Second message encryption and identification spoofing

Application-based attacks and second message encryption

88. 18. What type of network server is dedicated to an intensive application or database?

Network management controller

Domain controller

Stand-alone server

Member server

89. 83. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?

Intrusion detection

Packet filtering

Bastion Host

Proxy

90. 46. What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cyclic redundancy check value of the recieved frame and comparing it to the recieved 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?

Network Interface Card

MAC Frame

OSI

Transport layer of OSI

91. 42. What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected predicted faults?

Fault diagnosis

Fault correction

Documentation

Fault detection

92. 75. What is uniquely generated to encrypt a specific message to the user?

Token

Smart Card

Private Key

Session Key

93. 12. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI?

Session

Transport

Presentation

Application

Volume 3 CDC 3C051

1. 26. What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. 74. What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the internet?

3. 30. An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining what type of files?

4. 86. What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?

5. 8. What are the two functional categories of performance management?

6. 10. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

7. 21. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?

8. 48. What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?

9. 28. When a volume is formatted with NTFS what group is automatically assigned full control permission to a volume?

10. 15. What SNMP operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?

11. 55. What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node?

12. 22. For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?

13. 2. What are the three most common network management architectures?

14. 27. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?

15. 72. How is a personal identification number categorized?

16. 92. What standard is utilized by the Defense messaging system for directory services?

17. 17. In the event that a domain conroller is no longer functioning, what action is taken to make another DC take over the responsibility?

18. 40. What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?

19. 9. Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

20. 56. What diagnostics test is usually run on a NIC to ensure its functional?

21. 4. What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

22. 37. What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?

23. 3. What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for NM duties?

24. 35. What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious netowrk problem?

25. 39. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?

26. 33. What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?

27. 58. What Internet protocol address is used to packet internetwork groper a computer's own NIC?

28. 44. What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?

29. 57. What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?

30. 49. What is the maximum packet size (in bytes) for the internet protocol?

31. 1. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

32. 53. Ideally the average network utilization value should be less than

33. 91. What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging services?

34. 32. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?

35. 38. Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?

36. 34. What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems on which the higher-level functions are based?

37. 43. What is an indication that a noteworthy event occured on the network?

38. 24. What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?

39. 77. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?

40. 68. What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?

41. 80. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulationg a message inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

42. 16. What type of SNMP protocol node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?

43. 63. What color on the system management automated reprot tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?

44. 71. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

45. 29. When a new folder or file is created on a NTFS partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?

46. 14. Which category of SMNP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

47. 62. What componet of the system management automated report tracking system application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

48. 59. What is one of the most types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?

49. 89. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "Vulnerability Hierarchy" for notifications, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate potentially severe threat to DOD systems?

50. 93. What is one of the most important parts of security in the defense messaging system?

51. 52. What type of network problems is caused by collisions on the domain?

52. 25. What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has to the resource

53. 47. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?

54. 31. What is one way to increase file server efficiency?

55. 6. At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

56. 7. Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network, management area?

57. 23. Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?

58. 90. Within the DOD CERT three tiered "vulnerablility hierarchy" for notifications, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat DOD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?

59. 73. What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the internet?

60. 84. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

61. 11. What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

62. 88. Who is the IAVA process manager?

63. 70. What is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?

64. 60. What are the three main componets of the system management automated report tracking system?

65. 64. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

66. 69. In which phase of the Department of Defense information technology security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?

67. 13. What is a hierarchial, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

68. 20. What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?

69. 45. When bits are missing in one or more octects in a frame, what type of error occurs?

70. 19. What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?

71. 76. What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?

72. 51. Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of teh OSI model?

73. 67. What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and teh nmber of connections that are related to specific nodes?

74. 66. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

75. 87. What web-based process incorporates indentification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within Department of Defense community?

76. 85. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable?

77. 82. What type of firewall is used to serperate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?