7 Level CDC 2t2 Vol 1

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?

    • A.

      Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.

    • B.

      Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed

    • C.

      Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule

    • D.

      Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in

    Correct Answer
    A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
    Explanation
    When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, if you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission, you should find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command. This ensures that the appropriate actions can be taken to address the issue and make necessary adjustments to the work assignments and priorities. It also allows for effective communication within the chain of command to keep everyone informed about the situation.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Before you can prioritize work assignments, you must review the shift

    • A.

      Schedule to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive

    • B.

      Logs to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive

    • C.

      Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties

    • D.

      Logs to determine who is available to perform duties

    Correct Answer
    C. Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties
    Explanation
    To prioritize work assignments effectively, it is important to review the schedule to determine who is available to perform duties. This allows for proper allocation of tasks based on the availability of personnel. By knowing the availability of the team, one can assign tasks to individuals who are free during specific time slots, ensuring that work is efficiently distributed and completed on time. Reviewing the shift schedule helps in coordinating the workload and making informed decisions regarding task prioritization.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?

    • A.

      Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties

    • B.

      Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned

    • C.

      Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day’s activities

    • D.

      Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals

    Correct Answer
    B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned
    Explanation
    While giving a shift briefing, sending a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned would not be an activity that you would do. The purpose of a shift briefing is to provide necessary information and instructions to the personnel for the day's activities. Sending a runner to request augmentation support is a task that should be done prior to the shift briefing, as it involves addressing staffing issues and ensuring adequate manpower for the day.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?

    • A.

      Knowing your people and the work center's current and future needs

    • B.

      Communicating your expectations to the work crews.

    • C.

      Assigning them to the same duties every day.

    • D.

      Considering their safety and security.

    Correct Answer
    C. Assigning them to the same duties every day.
    Explanation
    Assigning subordinates to the same duties every day is not a consideration when seeking to develop them. Developing subordinates involves providing them with opportunities to learn and grow, which can be achieved by exposing them to different tasks and responsibilities. By assigning them to the same duties every day, they may not have the chance to develop new skills or expand their knowledge. It is important to consider their individual strengths, weaknesses, and aspirations, and provide them with diverse experiences that contribute to their professional growth.

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  • 5. 

    (002) Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
    Explanation
    The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, must reach AMC within 20 days from the last day of the month. This means that the report should be submitted by the 20th day of the following month.

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  • 6. 

    (002) When you have had several aircraft in the month of July that are classified as “other” on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, how do you report those aircraft?

    • A.

      List the number in the block provided only.

    • B.

      Prepare a memo for record with each type of aircraft listed.

    • C.

      Provide a complete listing of those aircraft in section VIII, Authentications.

    • D.

      Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in Section X

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in Section X
    Explanation
    When you have several aircraft classified as "other" on the AMC Form 82, you should identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in Section X. This means that you need to specify the type of each aircraft and list all of them in Section X of the form.

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  • 7. 

    (002) What is the source document used to gather aircraft handled by type information for section IV of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82?

    • A.

      AMC Form 108, Passenger Rehandled Workload

    • B.

      AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type.

    • C.

      AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record.

    • D.

      AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.

    Correct Answer
    B. AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type.
    Explanation
    The source document used to gather aircraft handled by type information for section IV of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82 is AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type. This form specifically collects data on the types of aircraft that have been handled, providing important information for section IV of the AMC Form 82.

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  • 8. 

    (003) Which organization establishes policy and administration of the Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) program?

    • A.

      USAF EC/MOS.

    • B.

      HQ AMC/A4TR.

    • C.

      515/521 AMOW.

    • D.

      ATSEV unit program manager

    Correct Answer
    B. HQ AMC/A4TR.
    Explanation
    HQ AMC/A4TR is the correct answer because the question is asking which organization establishes policy and administration of the Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) program. HQ AMC/A4TR refers to the Headquarters Air Mobility Command, Directorate of Operations, and Air Transportation Division. This division is responsible for setting the policies and overseeing the administration of the ATSEV program.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Who designates, in writing, a full-time Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) manager and evaluators?

    • A.

      HQ AMC/A4TR.

    • B.

      AP/AMS TRO.

    • C.

      AP/AMS commander.

    • D.

      ATSEV unit program manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. AP/AMS commander.
    Explanation
    The AP/AMS commander designates, in writing, a full-time Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) manager and evaluators.

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  • 10. 

    (004) Which is not a principle of joint operations

    • A.

      Mass

    • B.

      Strategy

    • C.

      Maneuver

    • D.

      Offensive

    Correct Answer
    B. Strategy
    Explanation
    Strategy is not a principle of joint operations. The principles of joint operations include mass, maneuver, and offensive. Strategy refers to the overall plan or approach to achieve a specific objective, while the principles of joint operations focus on the fundamental concepts and guidelines that guide the execution of military operations.

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  • 11. 

    (004) Which is not a level of war?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Strategic

    • C.

      Offensive

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    C. Offensive
    Explanation
    The question asks for a level of war that is not included in the options provided. The options listed are Tactical, Strategic, and Operational. The correct answer, Offensive, is not a level of war. Offensive refers to a type of military operation or action, rather than a specific level of war. It is a term used to describe aggressive actions taken by a military force against an enemy.

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  • 12. 

    (004) Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?

    • A.

      Tactical only

    • B.

      Tactical and strategic only

    • C.

      Strategic, offensive, and tactical

    • D.

      Strategic, operational and tactical

    Correct Answer
    D. Strategic, operational and tactical
    Explanation
    The joint logistics environment exists within the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war. This means that logistics operations are necessary and present at all three levels. At the strategic level, logistics support is provided for overall campaign planning and resource allocation. At the operational level, logistics support is provided for the coordination and execution of major operations and campaigns. At the tactical level, logistics support is provided for the execution of specific missions and tasks on the ground.

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  • 13. 

    (004) The key organizations of joint logistics consist of Services, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), Joint Staff, and

    • A.

      Maintenance

    • B.

      Health Service

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    • D.

      Operational Contract Support

    Correct Answer
    C. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). The key organizations of joint logistics include the Services, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), Joint Staff, and the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). The DLA is responsible for providing logistics support to the military services and other federal agencies. It manages the global supply chain, including the procurement, storage, distribution, and disposal of materiel. The DLA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the military has the necessary resources and equipment to carry out its missions effectively.

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  • 14. 

    (004) Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?

    • A.

      Supply

    • B.

      Health Service Support

    • C.

      Deployment and distribution

    • D.

      Operational contract support

    Correct Answer
    C. Deployment and distribution
    Explanation
    Deployment and distribution is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics because it involves the movement of forces and equipment during deployment. This core capability ensures that the necessary resources are efficiently and effectively transported to the required locations, enabling successful operations. Without deployment and distribution, the timely and coordinated movement of forces and equipment would be compromised, hindering the overall effectiveness of joint logistics operations.

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  • 15. 

    (004) Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental United States (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Theater

    • C.

      Strategic

    • D.

      Civil Support

    Correct Answer
    C. Strategic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Strategic. Strategic airlift refers to the category of airlift that provides continuous air movement from and to the continental United States (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns. This type of airlift is typically used for long-range, high-capacity transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies to support large-scale military operations.

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  • 16. 

    (004) How far in advance does Air Mobility Command (AMC) publish the monthly passenger and cargo schedules, respectively?

    • A.

      90 days and 30 days before the beginning of the operating month

    • B.

      75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month

    • C.

      45 days and 10 days before the beginning of the operating month

    • D.

      30 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month

    Correct Answer
    B. 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month
    Explanation
    Air Mobility Command (AMC) publishes the monthly passenger and cargo schedules 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.

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  • 17. 

    (005) If a natural or man-made disaster develops, which type of planning process is used for these types of situations?

    • A.

      Crisis

    • B.

      Long Term

    • C.

      Diplomatic

    • D.

      Contingency

    Correct Answer
    D. Contingency
    Explanation
    Contingency planning is the process used for natural or man-made disasters. It involves developing strategies and actions to be taken in response to unforeseen events or emergencies. This type of planning helps organizations or individuals prepare for and respond effectively to crises, ensuring minimal disruption and damage. It involves identifying potential risks, creating backup plans, and establishing protocols for emergency response. Contingency planning is essential for managing and mitigating the impact of disasters, enabling quick and efficient decision-making in high-pressure situations.

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  • 18. 

    (005) If the United States is significantly threatened, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses which type of planning processes in response to these types of situations?

    • A.

      Crisis and contingency

    • B.

      Diplomatic and long term

    • C.

      Deliberate and diplomatic

    • D.

      Short-range mobility and long term

    Correct Answer
    A. Crisis and contingency
    Explanation
    In response to significant threats to the United States, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses crisis and contingency planning processes. This type of planning is specifically designed to address urgent and unexpected situations that require immediate action. Crisis and contingency planning involves developing strategies and procedures to respond effectively to emergencies, mitigate risks, and ensure the continuity of operations. It allows for quick decision-making and coordination among various agencies and stakeholders to protect national security and address the threat efficiently.

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  • 19. 

    (005) If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?

    • A.

      Operation order (OPORD).

    • B.

      Operational Plan (OPLAN)

    • C.

      Concept Plan (CONPLAN

    • D.

      Deployment Plan (DEPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Operational Plan (OPLAN)
    Explanation
    When a combatant commander perceives a threat, they create an Operational Plan (OPLAN) to counter that perceived threat. An OPLAN is a detailed plan that outlines the commander's intent, objectives, and tasks to be accomplished in order to effectively respond to the threat. It includes the allocation of resources, coordination with other units or agencies, and a timeline for execution. The OPLAN ensures that all necessary actions are taken to counter the threat in a strategic and organized manner.

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  • 20. 

    (005) Which type of plan’s extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?

    • A.

      Operational plan (OPLAN).

    • B.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN).

    • C.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN).

    • D.

      Joint operations plan (JOPLAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational plan (OPLAN).
    Explanation
    An operational plan (OPLAN) is a type of plan that contains extensive information about how to execute an operation. This means that when there is a need to quickly develop an operation order (OPORD) to execute an operation, the information from an OPLAN can be easily used to create the OPORD. Therefore, an OPLAN is the correct answer to this question.

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  • 21. 

    (005) What is the objective of concept planning?

    • A.

      Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation.

    • B.

      Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare time phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • C.

      Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.

    • D.

      Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
    Explanation
    The objective of concept planning is to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary. This means that concept planning involves creating a well-thought-out plan for how an operation will be conducted, including the strategies, tactics, and support needed. This plan should be flexible and able to be quickly expanded into a detailed OPORD if the situation requires it.

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  • 22. 

    (005) Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it’s necessary for an operation?

    • A.

      Operation order (OPORD).

    • B.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN).

    • C.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN).

    • D.

      Joint operations plan (JOPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Concept plan (CONPLAN).
    Explanation
    A concept plan (CONPLAN) is an abbreviated format that provides a high-level overview of the objectives, goals, and strategies for a future operation. It requires extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it becomes necessary to execute the operation. Unlike an OPLAN, a CONPLAN does not include detailed logistical, tactical, or implementation information. Instead, it focuses on the conceptual framework and initial planning considerations. Therefore, a CONPLAN is the correct answer as it aligns with the description given in the question.

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  • 23. 

    (005) How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?

    • A.

      Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.

    • B.

      They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.

    • C.

      Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.

    • D.

      Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.

    Correct Answer
    B. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.
    Explanation
    Base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning by extracting them from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans. This process ensures that the necessary logistics requirements are incorporated into the overall planning and execution of contingency operations.

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  • 24. 

    (005) What is the primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense?

    • A.

      Joint strategic capabilities plan

    • B.

      Joint strategic planning system

    • C.

      Joint operations planning and execution system

    • D.

      Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint strategic planning system
    Explanation
    The primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense is the joint strategic planning system. This system allows for the coordination and integration of military plans and resources across different branches of the armed forces. It helps in developing strategies and plans to achieve national security objectives and supports decision-making at the highest levels of command.

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  • 25. 

    (005) What is the relationship between the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) and an operational plan (OPLAN)?

    • A.

      OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN

    • B.

      TPFDD outlines mission details; OPLAN prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the TPFDD.

    • C.

      OPLAN is an appendix of the TPFDD that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities.

    • D.

      TPFDD is an appendix of the OPLAN that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities.

    Correct Answer
    A. OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the OPLAN outlines mission details while the TPFDD prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN. This means that the OPLAN provides the overall plan and objectives for a mission, while the TPFDD focuses on the specific resources and capabilities required to execute that plan. The TPFDD helps leaders determine the personnel and equipment needed to successfully carry out the mission outlined in the OPLAN.

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  • 26. 

    (005) What is the Air Force’s war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?

    • A.

      Geographic location file (GEOFILE).

    • B.

      Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • C.

      Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).

    • D.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)

    Correct Answer
    D. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)
    Explanation
    The Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP) is Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES). This system allows for the planning and execution of both deliberate and crisis actions, providing a comprehensive tool for coordinating and managing military operations. It integrates various data and resources to support decision-making and operational planning at different levels within the Air Force. The other options mentioned (Geographic location file, Time-phased force deployment data, and Global Status of Resources and Training System) are not specifically designed for interfacing with JOPES ADP.

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  • 27. 

    (006) If you are assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC) as an air transportation function representative, you will be responsible for

    • A.

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.

    • B.

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.

    • C.

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system

    • D.

      Supervising the loading of deployment cargo aboard aircraft chalk

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
    Explanation
    As an air transportation function representative in the Deployment Control Center (DCC), your responsibility is to monitor and report delays in passenger and cargo processing. This is done using the Logistics Module System, which allows you to track and keep record of the progress of passenger and cargo handling. By monitoring and reporting delays, you can help ensure that the transportation process runs smoothly and efficiently.

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  • 28. 

    (006) If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for

    • A.

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system

    • B.

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.

    • C.

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.

    • D.

      Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews

    Correct Answer
    B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers. This means that you are in charge of keeping track of the passengers on the flight, organizing their luggage onto pallets, and ensuring their safety and comfort during transport. This includes providing them with necessary information and instructions for their journey.

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  • 29. 

    (006) If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?

    • A.

      Initial

    • B.

      Refresher

    • C.

      Weak Area

    • D.

      New Procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, you should receive initial training. Initial training is necessary to provide you with the basic knowledge and skills required for the new role. It will help you understand the fundamentals, processes, and procedures related to the deployment function, allowing you to perform your duties effectively. Refresher training is for individuals who already have experience in the role but need to update their knowledge. Weak area training is focused on improving specific areas where an individual may be lacking. New procedure training is for learning about any changes or updates in the procedures related to the deployment function.

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  • 30. 

    (007) Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

    • A.

      Provide data critical to crisis planning

    • B.

      Provide for contingency or peacetime planning processe

    • C.

      Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data

    • D.

      Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is to provide data critical to crisis planning, provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes, and to be used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war. Ensuring timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data is not a purpose of SORTS.

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  • 31. 

    (007) If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every

    • A.

      30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation.

    • B.

      30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level)

    • C.

      90 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall C-level.

    • D.

      90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation.

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level). This means that if there are any changes that impact the unit's overall category level, the SORTS report must be submitted within 30 days. Additionally, regardless of any changes, the report must be submitted every 30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation. This ensures that the unit's status and resources are regularly updated and reported.

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  • 32. 

    (007) Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?

    • A.

      AF Form 732

    • B.

      AF Form 723

    • C.

      AF Form 632

    • D.

      AF Form 623

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 723
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 723. This form is used to accomplish the unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report. It is the appropriate form to document the unit's readiness and capability.

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  • 33. 

    (007) If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, which category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?

    • A.

      C-1

    • B.

      C-2

    • C.

      C-3

    • D.

      C-4

    Correct Answer
    C. C-3
    Explanation
    If a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C-3 during SORTS reporting. This means that the unit is partially capable of performing its wartime missions, but there are still some gaps in its resources and training.

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  • 34. 

    (007) If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to

    • A.

      Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.

    • B.

      Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings

    • C.

      Smooth AEF execution

    • D.

      Ensure a solid C-level

    Correct Answer
    C. Smooth AEF execution
    Explanation
    As the ART monitor for your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), it is your responsibility to report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status. This information is crucial for keeping your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed. By providing this information, you contribute to the smooth execution of AEF operations. This ensures that taskings are properly assigned to valid unit line numbers and helps maintain a solid C-level, which refers to the overall readiness and capability of the unit.

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  • 35. 

    (007) If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, which action is not your responsibility?

    • A.

      Processing ART role requests from subordinate units.

    • B.

      Updating ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system.

    • C.

      Completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTCs.

    • D.

      Resolving UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units.
    Explanation
    As the unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, your responsibilities include updating ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system, completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTCs, and resolving UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers. However, processing ART role requests from subordinate units is not your responsibility. This task would typically be handled by the subordinate units themselves or by a different individual or team within the unit.

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  • 36. 

    (007) If you are performing duties as a unit deployment manager (UDM), who must you notify when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and wing manpower office only

    • B.

      MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only

    • C.

      MAJCOM FAM and manpower offices and wing commander only

    • D.

      Wing and MAJCOM manpower office only

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only
    Explanation
    As a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must notify the Major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and both the wing and MAJCOM manpower offices when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations. This ensures that the appropriate personnel are aware of any discrepancies and can take the necessary actions to resolve them. The wing commander is not included in the notification process, as their role is not directly related to UTC and UMD authorizations.

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  • 37. 

    (007) If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to

    • A.

      Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support

    • B.

      Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statemen

    • C.

      Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected

    • D.

      Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies

    Correct Answer
    B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statemen
    Explanation
    As a unit deployment manager (UDM), if your unit has deployment deficiencies that cannot be corrected by your unit alone, you should report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM). In this situation, you would request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement. This means that you are seeking assistance from the MAJCOM to provide the necessary resources or make changes to the unit's capabilities in order to address the deficiencies.

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  • 38. 

    (008) What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?

    • A.

      ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP

    • B.

      IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP

    • C.

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages

    • D.

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls

    Correct Answer
    A. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP
    Explanation
    The ESSP provides a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data, which is essential for making decisions about the IGESP/ESP. This means that the ESSP serves as a foundation for the planning committees to gather necessary information and data that will be used in the development of the IGESP/ESP. By having a standardized process in place, the planning committees can ensure that they have accurate and reliable data to inform their decisions regarding the IGESP/ESP.

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  • 39. 

    (008) Which is not one of the three specific objectives within Part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?

    • A.

      Assesses the ability to support the operation

    • B.

      Allocates resources previously identified in Part 1

    • C.

      Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages

    • D.

      Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators

    Correct Answer
    D. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators," is not one of the three specific objectives within Part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP). The three specific objectives within Part 2 are assessing the ability to support the operation, allocating resources previously identified in Part 1, and identifying limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages. The answer choice of appointing required changes with second-party functional area coordinators is not mentioned as one of the objectives in Part 2.

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  • 40. 

    (009) What is the relationship between starter stocks and swing stocks?

    • A.

      Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.

    • B.

      Swing stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; starter stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.

    • C.

      The amount of swing stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized starter stock

    • D.

      The amount of starter stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized swing stock

    Correct Answer
    A. Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.
    Explanation
    Starter stocks are stocks that are positioned at or near the point of intended use. They are meant to be readily available for immediate use. On the other hand, swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency and for more than one theater of operation. They are meant to be used for multiple purposes and in multiple locations.

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  • 41. 

    (009) What is the primary purpose of support agreements?

    • A.

      Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.

    • B.

      Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy.

    • C.

      Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation

    • D.

      Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
    Explanation
    Support agreements are primarily intended to identify the specific support functions that one party will perform for another. These agreements establish clear expectations and responsibilities, ensuring that both parties understand their roles in providing support. By explicitly outlining the support functions, the agreement helps to avoid confusion and ensures that the support process runs smoothly and efficiently. It also helps in coordinating efforts and resources effectively, enabling the parties involved to work together seamlessly.

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  • 42. 

    (009) If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?

    • A.

      Intragovernmental

    • B.

      Intergovernmental

    • C.

      Intraservice

    • D.

      Interservice

    Correct Answer
    D. Interservice
    Explanation
    When an Air Force unit is tasked with providing a service to an Army unit, the type of support agreement required is an "Interservice" agreement. This agreement establishes the terms and conditions under which the Air Force unit will provide support to the Army unit, ensuring coordination and cooperation between the two branches of the military. This type of agreement is necessary to ensure effective collaboration and the successful execution of the assigned task.

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  • 43. 

    (009) When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which document?

    • A.

      Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA)

    • B.

      Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).

    • C.

      Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA

    • D.

      ISP or MOU

    Correct Answer
    B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
    Explanation
    When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is translated into guidelines for the support required, resulting in a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) or a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). These documents outline the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved and serve as a written record of their agreement. The other options mentioned, such as Memorandum of Support (MOS), Memorandum of Functional Agreement (MOFA), and Installation Support Plan (ISP), do not accurately describe the document that is developed when creating agreements.

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  • 44. 

    (010) Augmentation support is usually not provided for

    • A.

      Installation-level exercises

    • B.

      Contingencies and wartime

    • C.

      Normal manpower shortfalls

    • D.

      Emergency situations/scenarios

    Correct Answer
    C. Normal manpower shortfalls
    Explanation
    Augmentation support is usually not provided for normal manpower shortfalls because these shortfalls are considered part of the regular operations and staffing of an organization. Normal manpower shortfalls refer to situations where there is a temporary shortage of personnel due to factors such as vacations, illness, or resignations. Organizations typically have contingency plans in place to address these shortfalls without the need for external support. Augmentation support is more commonly provided for contingencies and wartime situations, as well as emergency scenarios where additional personnel are needed to handle unexpected events or crises.

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  • 45. 

    (010) If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?

    • A.

      The installation will fund these requirements

    • B.

      The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee

    • C.

      The unit SrA Williams is normally assigned

    • D.

      SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee

    Correct Answer
    B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee." When an Airman is identified as an augmentation support member, the unit that is utilizing their services is responsible for funding their training and providing the required gear for them to perform their augmentation duties.

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  • 46. 

    (010) A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because

    • A.

      Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around

    • B.

      If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.

    • C.

      Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.

    • D.

      Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual’s contract before performing augmentation duties

    Correct Answer
    C. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
    Explanation
    Members who are assigned to a unit type code (UTC) are normally not assigned augmentation duties because they may be required to deploy in support of an operations plan. This deployment takes priority over local augmentation requirements, meaning that they may not be available to fulfill augmentation duties when needed.

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  • 47. 

    (011) Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission

    • A.

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • B.

      Work center rotation schedule (WCRS)

    • C.

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • D.

      AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the specific positions and manpower requirements for a unit, including the authorized number of personnel and their job responsibilities. It serves as a reference for unit leaders to ensure that they have the necessary personnel to effectively carry out their mission. The Work center rotation schedule (WCRS) is a schedule that outlines the rotation of personnel within a work center and is not specifically focused on authorized positions. The Unit personnel management roster (UPMR) is a roster of unit personnel but does not specifically reflect authorized positions. The AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107 is a report related to traffic handling and is not focused on authorized positions.

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  • 48. 

    011) Manpower authorizations are also known as

    • A.

      Validations

    • B.

      Deferments

    • C.

      Funded manpower requirements

    • D.

      Unfunded manpower requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Funded manpower requirements
    Explanation
    Funded manpower requirements refer to the authorized number of personnel that an organization has the financial resources to support. This means that the organization has allocated the necessary funds to cover the salaries, benefits, and other costs associated with the required manpower. It implies that these positions have been approved and are fully funded, ensuring that there are adequate resources to support the personnel needed for the organization's operations.

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  • 49. 

    (011) A “1” under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates the

    • A.

      Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC)

    • B.

      Number of positions that exist for the specified grade

    • C.

      Specified position is unfunded for that quarter

    • D.

      Specified position is funded for that quarter

    Correct Answer
    D. Specified position is funded for that quarter
    Explanation
    A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates that the specified position is funded for that quarter. This means that the necessary resources and budget have been allocated for the position to be filled and operational during that specific time period.

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  • 50. 

    (012) The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to save lives, minimize the loss of resources, and

    • A.

      Train

    • B.

      Prevent

    • C.

      Respond

    • D.

      Sustain

    Correct Answer
    D. Sustain
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to sustain. This means that their main goal is to maintain and support the operations and capabilities of the Air Force during emergencies. This includes ensuring the continuity of essential functions, resources, and services, as well as providing assistance and support to those affected by the emergency. By sustaining operations and resources, the program aims to minimize the impact of emergencies and effectively respond to them.

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