CDC 3S071 Volume 1. Personnel Career Field, Edit Code 02

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  • 1/92 Questions

    (007) The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and

    • State mission.
    • Overseas mission.
    • Local government mission.
    • District of Columbia mission.
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force personnel management, focusing on roles and responsibilities within the Secretary of the Air Force office. It evaluates understanding of various directorates and their functions, crucial for career development in personnel management.


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  • 2. 

    (007) Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?

    • Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.

    • Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).

    • Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • Headquarters Air Force Reserve Command (HQ AFRC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau was activated to help with the natural disaster caused by Hurricane Katrina. The ANG is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and is responsible for providing support during emergencies and disasters. Given the magnitude of the hurricane and the need for immediate assistance, activating the ANG Bureau would have been a logical choice to provide resources and aid to the affected areas.

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  • 3. 

    (007) When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the

    • Vice president.

    • President.

    • Governor.

    • Mayor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Governor.
    Explanation
    When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the Governor. This is because the Air National Guard is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and is primarily under the control of state governments. The Governor is the highest-ranking official in the state and has the authority to activate and deploy the ANG units for state emergencies or other missions within the state. The Vice President, President, and Mayor do not have direct authority over the ANG units unless they are mobilized or under federal control.

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  • 4. 

    (009) Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that

    • Training is key to the success of the Air Force.

    • Advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience.

    • Completing a career development course is the most important form of training.

    • On-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job.

    Correct Answer
    A. Training is key to the success of the Air Force.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "training is key to the success of the Air Force." This statement emphasizes the importance of training in the Air Force and highlights that it is a crucial factor in achieving success. It suggests that without proper training, the Air Force may not be able to fulfill its objectives effectively. By prioritizing training, a superintendent can ensure that Airmen are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their duties efficiently, contributing to the overall success of the Air Force.

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  • 5. 

    (013) When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

    • Password protect laptops.

    • Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting.

    • Wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible.

    • Mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program.

    Correct Answer
    A. Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting.
    Explanation
    Couriers must do all of the mentioned actions except erasing laptops and disks completely before transporting. Erasing the laptops and disks completely before transportation can result in the loss of important data. Instead, couriers should password protect the laptops, wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible, and mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program. These measures ensure the security and protection of sensitive information during transportation.

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  • 6. 

    (005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the requirements of

    • Combatant commanders.

    • Squadron commanders.

    • Group commanders.

    • Wing commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Combatant commanders.
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the requirements of combatant commanders. This means that the AEFC is in charge of coordinating and deploying forces to support combatant commanders' missions and operations. The AEFC ensures that the right forces are available at the right time and place to meet the needs of combatant commanders in various regions around the world.

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  • 7. 

    (006) The Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) vision is to have citizen

    • Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

    • Officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

    • Enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

    • Airmen partially engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power." This answer aligns with the vision of the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC), which aims to have its Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. This suggests that the AFRC wants its Airmen to be actively involved and committed to maintaining awareness, extending their capabilities, and exerting military power on a global scale.

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  • 8. 

    (016) How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced on a daily basis. This means that the TRs are managed and generated automatically every day. This frequency allows for accurate and up-to-date tracking of transactions, ensuring that all financial activities are recorded on a daily basis.

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  • 9. 

    (005) Why did the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) move from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas?

    • There were no longer facilities available to support the AEFC at Langley AFB.

    • The Air Combat Command Commander (COMACC) requested the move.

    • The Air Force Personnel Center Commander (AFPC/CC) requested the move.

    • To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander.
    Explanation
    The reason for the move of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas is to merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander. This suggests that the move was a strategic decision aimed at improving efficiency and coordination within the organization.

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  • 10. 

    (008) The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a

    • Skill level.

    • Career field.

    • Career group.

    • Career field subdivision.

    Correct Answer
    A. Skill level.
    Explanation
    The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a skill level. This means that the fourth digit in the code represents the level of expertise or proficiency in a particular career field. The skill level can range from entry-level positions to advanced or supervisory roles within a specific career field. By identifying the skill level, the AFSC helps to classify and differentiate individuals based on their qualifications and experience in their respective career fields.

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  • 11. 

    (012) Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?

    • So you know where the classified information is kept.

    • To keep track of the people dealing with the classified material.

    • So security forces knows where the classified information is kept.

    • To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands.

    Correct Answer
    A. To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands.
    Explanation
    Developing and implementing control measures when dealing with classified material is important to decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. By having control measures in place, such as secure storage and restricted access, it becomes more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access to classified information. This helps to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the information, ensuring that it is only accessed and used by authorized personnel.

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  • 12. 

    (013) Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

    • Sender.

    • Shipper.

    • Receiver.

    • Supplier.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sender.
    Explanation
    The sender is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address. The sender is the one who initiates the shipment and arranges for the package to be delivered to the receiver. They are responsible for ensuring that the package reaches the intended recipient and that the correct address is provided. The sender is also responsible for coordinating with the receiver to ensure that someone is available to receive the package, especially on holidays when there may be limited availability.

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  • 13. 

    (017) What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member’s name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?

    • 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.

    • 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

    • 13A, RELOC-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE.

    • 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.

    Correct Answer
    A. 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer, 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR, reflects a management assessment product (MAP) that is used when an inbound member contacts customer service stating that a sponsor has not been assigned. This MAP is specifically designed to address and resolve issues related to missing sponsors for members.

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  • 14. 

    (003) What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 ?

    • Programs.

    • Manpower.

    • Equipment.

    • Additional duties.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manpower.
    Explanation
    During Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720, the authorizations that were reduced to save money were related to manpower. This means that there were likely cuts in the number of personnel or positions within the organization in order to reduce costs.

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  • 15. 

    (009) What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?

    • Technical sergeants.

    • Master sergeants.

    • Senior master sergeants.

    • Chief master sergeants

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief master sergeants
    Explanation
    Chief master sergeants must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders. They are the highest enlisted rank in the Air Force and are expected to demonstrate exceptional leadership skills, professionalism, and expertise in their field. As senior enlisted advisors, they play a critical role in mentoring and shaping the careers of junior enlisted personnel, ensuring their development and success. Chief master sergeants are responsible for setting the standard and serving as role models for all enlisted members, making them the ideal rank to embody the qualities of a military leader and cultivate future leaders.

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  • 16. 

    (011) The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

    • Trainee.

    • Trainer.

    • Supervisor.

    • Unit training manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainee.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is trainee because the focal point of the Air Force training program is the individual who is being trained, referred to as the trainee. The training program is designed to provide the trainee with the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to perform their duties effectively and efficiently. The trainee is the primary focus of the training program, and the program is tailored to meet their specific needs and objectives. The trainee's success and development are the main goals of the training program.

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  • 17. 

    (012) It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the

    • Refusal may initiate removal from the squadron

    • Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.

    • Commander may be required to interview the member a second time.

    • Commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.
    Explanation
    If an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA), it may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior. This could suggest that the individual has something to hide or is not trustworthy. Therefore, it is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against the individual, which may include further investigation or disciplinary actions.

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  • 18. 

    (014) Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except

    • Assign a deadline.

    • Determine what is known.

    • Review the purpose and scope of the overall project.

    • Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present.

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present.
    Explanation
    When researching a topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals, it is important to use all of the following approaches: assign a deadline, determine what is known, and review the purpose and scope of the overall project. These approaches help in organizing and structuring the research process effectively. However, avoiding asking your supervisor until you have all information to present is not a recommended approach. It is important to involve your supervisor throughout the research process to ensure that you are on the right track and to seek guidance or clarification when needed.

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  • 19. 

    (014) What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?

    • Be selective about the message you send.

    • Keep your e-mail under control.

    • Be clear and concise.

    • Watch your tone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Be clear and concise.
    Explanation
    To ensure that the subject line effectively communicates your purpose in an email, it is important to be clear and concise. This means using concise and specific language that accurately reflects the content of the email. A clear and concise subject line helps the recipient quickly understand the purpose of the email and allows them to prioritize and respond accordingly.

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  • 20. 

    (017) What management assessment product (MAP) would a member’s name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?

    • MAP 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

    • MAP 10, RELOC-AAC.

    • MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.

    • MAP 15, EMPLOYMENTS-FUNCTCAT.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP. This is because the member's name would be reflected on this management assessment product (MAP) if they require administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and are projected to Minot AFB, ND. MAP 13B specifically deals with relocations related to PRP, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.

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  • 21. 

    (001) Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office?

    • Air Staff

    • Air National Guard Bureau

    • Air Force Personnel Center

    • Air Force Reserve Command

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Staff
    Explanation
    The Air Staff is the correct answer because it is the agency that assists the Secretary of the Air Force in carrying out their responsibilities. The Air Staff is responsible for providing advice and support to the Secretary on matters related to the Air Force's operations, organization, and personnel. They help the Secretary make informed decisions and ensure the effective implementation of Air Force policies and programs.

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  • 22. 

    (004) The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the

    • Wing.

    • Numbered air force (NAF).

    • Commander’s support staff (CSS).

    • Military personnel section (MPS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Numbered air force (NAF).
    Explanation
    The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the numbered air force (NAF). This means that the NAF is the next level of command below the MAJCOM. The commander's support staff (CSS) and military personnel section (MPS) are support units within the command structure, but they are not at the same level as the NAF. Therefore, the correct answer is numbered air force (NAF).

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  • 23. 

    (008) The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except

    • Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs.

    • Create, maintain, and audit personnel records.

    • Provide casualty assistance.

    • Perform personnel actions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs.
    Explanation
    The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, providing casualty assistance, and performing personnel actions. However, advising civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs is not listed as one of their responsibilities.

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  • 24. 

    (010) The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except job

    • Satisfaction.

    • Proficiency.

    • Knowledge.

    • Experience.

    Correct Answer
    A. Satisfaction.
    Explanation
    The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program includes components such as proficiency, knowledge, and experience. These components are essential for developing the skills and expertise required for a job. However, job satisfaction is not specifically mentioned as a component of the OJT program. While job satisfaction is important for overall job performance and employee well-being, it is not directly included in the program's components.

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  • 25. 

    (011) As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training?

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • Career Development Course (CDC).

    • Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    To develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training, a supervisor requires a Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). CFETP provides a comprehensive overview of training requirements and career progression within a specific career field. It outlines the knowledge and skills needed for each level of proficiency and serves as a roadmap for training and development. By referencing the CFETP, supervisors can ensure that work center and individual training align with the career field's standards and objectives. The other options, Career Development Course (CDC), Specialty Training Standard (STS), and Job Qualification Standard (JQS), may provide specific training materials or requirements, but they do not offer the comprehensive guidance provided by the CFETP.

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  • 26. 

    (011) Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

    • So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates.

    • So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates.

    • In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material.

    • In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.

    Correct Answer
    A. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.
    Explanation
    It is important to document interruptions to upgrade training on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet so that in case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, the documentation can be referenced. This allows for a clear record of any interruptions or breaks in training, which can help identify any potential issues or challenges the trainee may be facing. By referencing the documentation, trainers and supervisors can better understand the trainee's training history and provide appropriate support or additional resources if needed.

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  • 27. 

    (011) All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

    • Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.

    • Budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks.

    • Comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path.

    • Acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.
    Explanation
    The trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process include budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path, and acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training. However, documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet is not one of the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process.

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  • 28. 

    (013) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

    • The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.

    • The material may not be important enough to hand carry.

    • The foreign government may want to take it from you.

    • To avoid bringing unwanted attention to yourself.

    Correct Answer
    A. The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.
    Explanation
    It is important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material because there is a risk that unauthorized personnel may confiscate the material. This could potentially compromise the security and confidentiality of the sensitive information contained in the material. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risks and take necessary precautions to protect the sensitive material from being accessed or taken by individuals who are not authorized to do so.

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  • 29. 

    (001) This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values and expectations.

    • Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).

    • Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).

    • Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).

    • Issues Team (AF/A1I).

    Correct Answer
    A. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).
    Explanation
    The Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D) is responsible for defining the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values, and expectations. This office plays a crucial role in shaping the overall culture within the Air Force by establishing and promoting the principles that guide the behavior and professionalism of Airmen. They are responsible for developing and implementing programs and initiatives that support the personal and professional development of Airmen, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to excel in their roles.

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  • 30. 

    (003) What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs?

    • Military personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • Personnel service delivery model (PSDM).

    • Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

    • Automated records management system (ARMS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
    Explanation
    The base-level service delivery model (BLSDM) is a component of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs. This model is specifically designed to deliver personnel services at the base level, ensuring that commanders have access to the necessary resources and information to effectively manage their personnel. The BLSDM streamlines processes and provides a centralized platform for commanders to access and manage personnel data, making it an essential component of an IT solution for supporting personnel needs.

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  • 31. 

    (009) What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?

    • Career progression.

    • Maintain readiness.

    • Mission accomplishment.

    • Review evaluation reports.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission accomplishment.
    Explanation
    A senior noncommissioned officer's primary purpose is to ensure the successful completion of missions. They are responsible for overseeing and coordinating the efforts of their subordinates to achieve the objectives set by their unit or organization. This involves providing guidance, direction, and support to their team members, as well as making critical decisions and taking necessary actions to ensure mission success. By prioritizing mission accomplishment, SNCOs contribute to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the military or any other organization they serve in.

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  • 32. 

    (012) When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

    • Initiates a security incident report.

    • Denies the individual access to classified information.

    • Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

    • Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.
    Explanation
    When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief takes several actions. They initiate a security incident report to document the refusal and address any potential security concerns. They deny the individual access to classified information as they have not agreed to the terms of the NdA. They also initiate action to establish a Security Information File (SIF) to keep track of the incident and any further actions taken. However, they do not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed, as this would go against the purpose of the NdA and compromise security.

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  • 33. 

    (004) How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs?

    • Test analysis.

    • Periodic staff assistance visits.

    • Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI).

    • Unit Compliance Inspections (UCI).

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodic staff assistance visits.
    Explanation
    Major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs through periodic staff assistance visits. These visits allow the MAJCOM to assess the performance and compliance of the MPS and CSS programs, identify any areas of improvement or deficiencies, and provide guidance and support to ensure the programs are meeting the required standards. It is a proactive approach to ensure that the MPS and CSS programs are functioning effectively and efficiently.

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  • 34. 

    (010) What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

    • Apprentice.

    • Journeyman.

    • Craftsman.

    • Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Journeyman.
    Explanation
    After completing a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks, personnel are awarded the training title of Journeyman.

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  • 35. 

    (012) Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person’s level of access to classified information?

    • Because each step is an intricate part of the “go, no-go” process.

    • Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.

    • You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access.

    • You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.
    Explanation
    Each step of the four-step authorization process plays a crucial role in ensuring a thorough and balanced evaluation of a person's level of access to classified information. The process serves as a "checks and balance" system, where each step verifies and cross-checks the information provided, minimizing the risk of granting access to unauthorized individuals. By completing all four steps, the process ensures that only those with the appropriate level of clearance and trustworthiness are granted access to classified information.

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  • 36. 

    (011) Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

    • Supervisors.

    • Unit training managers.

    • Career Assistance Advisors.

    • Air Force Career Field Managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training managers.
    Explanation
    Unit training managers are responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training. They are in charge of coordinating and managing the training programs within their unit, ensuring that trainees are properly accounted for and their personnel actions are processed accordingly. Supervisors may provide input and guidance, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the unit training managers. Career Assistance Advisors provide career guidance and support, while Air Force Career Field Managers oversee the career field as a whole and may not be directly involved in individual trainee personnel actions.

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  • 37. 

    (008) Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?

    • Duty.

    • Control.

    • Primary.

    • Secondary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Control. The Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training. Control refers to the initial classification of the member's AFSC, which determines their career field and job responsibilities within the Air Force.

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  • 38. 

    (014) Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?

    • Focus.

    • Justification.

    • Organization.

    • Understanding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Justification.
    Explanation
    The question asks for a principle of good communication that is not considered among the five principles. The options provided are "Focus," "Justification," "Organization," and "Understanding." Among these options, "Justification" stands out as it does not directly relate to the principles of good communication. The other options, such as "Focus," "Organization," and "Understanding," are commonly recognized as essential principles for effective communication. Therefore, "Justification" is the correct answer as it does not align with the given principles.

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  • 39. 

    (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?

    • E63.

    • E64.

    • E6D.

    • E6F.

    Correct Answer
    A. E64.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E64. In the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS), an E64 update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action. This update allows for adjustments to be made to the projected rank and pay grade of a service member before their reenlistment takes effect.

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  • 40. 

    (006) Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)?

    • 380.

    • 400.

    • 420.

    • 440.

    Correct Answer
    A. 440.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 440. This indicates that approximately 440 aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC).

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  • 41. 

    (007) What percentage of the Air Force’s tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard (ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations?

    • 25.

    • 50.

    • 75.

    • 100.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) provides 50% of the Air Force's tactical airlift support for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations.

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  • 42. 

    (012) Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?

    • 90.

    • 120.

    • 150.

    • 180.

    Correct Answer
    A. 90.
    Explanation
    Supervisors must ensure that their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation within 90 days of assignment to the unit before they can access classified information. This orientation is crucial to educate personnel about the proper handling and safeguarding of classified information, as well as the potential consequences of mishandling such information. By providing this education within the first 90 days, supervisors can ensure that personnel are well-informed and prepared to handle classified information securely.

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  • 43. 

    (002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel?

    • Assignments.

    • Personnel Data Systems.

    • Civilian Force Integration.

    • Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assignments.
    Explanation
    The directorate that assists HQ AFPC with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel is Assignments.

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  • 44. 

    (009) What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

    • Staff sergeants.

    • Technical sergeants.

    • Master sergeants.

    • Senior master sergeants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeants.
    Explanation
    Master sergeants transition from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence. As they advance in rank, they gain more experience and knowledge in their field, allowing them to take on more leadership responsibilities. They are expected to have a deep understanding of their job and be able to effectively lead and mentor others. Master sergeants are often responsible for managing teams and making critical decisions, making their operational competence crucial in their role as leaders.

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  • 45. 

    (013) Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport

    • Through secret internet protocol router networks.

    • From one storage unit to an available storage unit.

    • Through or within countries hostile to the United States.

    • Through or within a military installation in the United States.

    Correct Answer
    A. Through or within countries hostile to the United States.
    Explanation
    Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport through or within countries hostile to the United States. This is because the Department of State courier system is specifically designed for the transportation of classified material, and it ensures the security and protection of the material even in hostile environments.

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  • 46. 

    (014) In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except

    • Being inclusive.

    • Being original.

    • Extending courtesy.

    • Making it personal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Being original.
    Explanation
    When communicating with your audience, it is important to be inclusive, extending courtesy, and making it personal. However, being original is not necessary for successful communication. While originality can be beneficial in some cases, it is not a requirement for effective communication. It is more important to focus on being inclusive, extending courtesy, and making a personal connection with your audience to ensure successful communication.

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  • 47. 

    (015) What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated service?

    • BDE.

    • DJM.

    • RDJ.

    • VAM.

    Correct Answer
    A. RDJ.
    Explanation
    The Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code RDJ appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension but fails to include the obligated service.

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  • 48. 

    (002) For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the Directorate of

    • Assignments.

    • Personnel Data Systems.

    • Civilian Force Integration.

    • Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian Force Integration.
    Explanation
    HQ AFPC contacts the Civilian Force Integration for assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders.

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  • 49. 

    (017) What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing?

    • MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK.

    • MAP 8, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME

    • MAP 10, RELOC-AAC

    • MAP 13A, RELOCATION-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK.
    Explanation
    The career development section can use MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing. This MAP is specifically designed to enhance the quality of data in the database, ensuring that all necessary information is accurate and up to date. By running this assessment, the career development section can identify any discrepancies or errors in the member's information and take appropriate action to correct them before the PCS.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 05, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Jcrown
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