CDC 2AX7X: Air Force EOC Test! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/96 Questions

    Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • ACC
    • ATC
    • AFRC
    • AETC
    • AFMC
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About This Quiz

This trivia quiz is designed for Air Force personnel preparing for the CDC 2AX7X EOC, covering topics like MAJCOM assignments, training types, and record keeping.

CDC 2AX7X: Air Force EOC Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and the supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC course?

    • Operation officer

    • Group Commander

    • UTM

    • MTF/CC or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. UTM
    Explanation
    The UTM (Unit Training Manager) is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and the supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC (Career Development Course) course. The UTM ensures that both the trainee and the supervisor are prepared for the course and have a clear understanding of the expectations and requirements. They also address any questions or concerns that the trainee or supervisor may have before the course begins.

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  • 3. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a red x an individual must be approved by the MXG/CC and hold the minimum grade of

    • CMSgt

    • SMSgt

    • MSgt

    • TSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a red x, an individual must be approved by the MXG/CC and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MXG/CC have the authority to downgrade a red x.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations?

    • Telephone

    • Signed letter

    • Organizational e-mail

    • Defense Massage System

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the communication method that is not approved for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations. The options include telephone, signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Massage System. The correct answer is telephone because it is not an approved method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations.

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  • 5. 

    Who is responsible for the immediate security of clasified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

    • Nearest military installation

    • Local law enforcement

    • Aircraft commander

    • Local fire chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes taking necessary measures to safeguard classified equipment until further assistance or instructions are received from appropriate authorities. The aircraft commander's role in maintaining security is crucial in emergency situations to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with classified equipment.

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  • 6. 

    Which expendability, recoverability,and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3 because the XB3 ERRC code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed in the normal course of operations and does not require repair or recovery. This code is typically assigned to assets that are easily replaceable and do not require extensive maintenance or repair.

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  • 7. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

    • QA

    • Engine Management

    • MOC

    • MDSA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the QA (Quality Assurance) section. This role involves overseeing and implementing processes to ensure the quality and reliability of products. The Product Improvement Manager works closely with the development team to identify areas for improvement, conduct testing, and ensure compliance with industry standards. They also collaborate with other departments to address customer feedback and enhance product performance.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • Specialty Training Standard

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • AF Form 623, Individual Training Plan

    • AF IMT 623a, On the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 623, Individual Training Plan
    Explanation
    The AF Form 623, Individual Training Plan, is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form is used to document an individual's training and career development, including their goals, objectives, and training requirements. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training history and accomplishments, and is used to track their progress and ensure that they are meeting all necessary training requirements. The other options listed are not specifically used as cover folders for training records, making AF Form 623 the correct answer.

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  • 9. 

    A unit manpower document does not

    • Show the AFSC required for a particular position

    • Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    A. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document is a document that provides information about the manpower requirements within a unit. It includes details such as the positions needed, the required grade for each position, and the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) required for a particular position. However, it does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position. This information is typically not included in the document as it can change frequently due to personnel assignments and rotations.

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  • 10. 

    Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

    • Manuals

    • Instructions

    • Policy Directives

    • Technical Orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Orders
    Explanation
    Technical Orders cannot be locally modified by units. Technical Orders are standardized documents that provide detailed instructions for the operation, maintenance, and repair of specific equipment or systems. These orders are developed and maintained at a higher level and are typically not subject to local modifications by units. Manuals, instructions, and policy directives, on the other hand, may be adapted or modified to meet the specific needs or requirements of a particular unit or location.

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  • 11. 

    During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a QRL available in order to

    • Verify time change parts

    • Check supply delivery priorities

    • Reduced the time needed to research parts

    • Provide contact information for key personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced the time needed to research parts
    Explanation
    During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a QRL (Quick Reference List) available helps expediters to reduce the time needed to research parts. This means that they can quickly access the necessary information about the parts they need, such as their specifications, availability, and sources. By having this information readily available, expediters can save time and efficiently locate the required parts, ensuring a smoother maintenance process.

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  • 12. 

    The maximum total initial duty time that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of interrupted rest is

    • 14 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 18 hours

    • 20 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours
    Explanation
    A maintenance recovery team member can work for a maximum of 16 hours before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest. This is important to ensure that the team member is well-rested and able to perform their duties effectively. Working beyond this limit can lead to fatigue and reduced performance, which can compromise safety and efficiency. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to this maximum duty time to prioritize the well-being and effectiveness of the maintenance recovery team member.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment, minerals, or organic matter. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive sign as it can also occur in pristine environments. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to indicate pollution as they are direct and visible effects of contamination.

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  • 14. 

    "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

    • Priority actions

    • A sense of urgency

    • Specific local procedures

    • An approved MXG TO compliance waiver

    Correct Answer
    A. An approved MXG TO compliance waiver
    Explanation
    "Red Ball" maintenance refers to a critical situation that requires immediate attention and priority actions. It also requires a sense of urgency to address the issue promptly. Additionally, specific local procedures need to be followed to ensure the maintenance is carried out correctly. However, an approved MXG TO (Maintenance Group Technical Order) compliance waiver is not required for "Red Ball" maintenance.

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  • 15. 

    The Wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance Flight

    • QA section

    • Engine Management section

    • MOC

    Correct Answer
    A. QA section
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QA section. The Wing FOD monitor is usually located within the QA section. This is because the QA (Quality Assurance) section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are carried out according to the required standards and procedures. The FOD (Foreign Object Debris) monitor is responsible for monitoring and preventing the presence of any foreign objects that could potentially cause damage to aircraft or equipment. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the QA section, as they play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

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  • 16. 

    AETC training detachments normally do not provide what type of training?

    • Cross utilization training

    • Continuation training

    • Ancillary training

    • Formal training

    Correct Answer
    A. Ancillary training
    Explanation
    AETC training detachments typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the primary training objective. AETC focuses on formal training, which is the structured and organized training provided to achieve specific learning outcomes. Cross utilization training involves training individuals in multiple job roles to enhance their versatility. Continuation training is ongoing training to maintain proficiency in previously acquired skills. Therefore, ancillary training is the correct answer as it is not typically provided by AETC training detachments.

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  • 17. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which MTF course?

    • Any 7 Level Course

    • Weight and Balance

    • Maintenance Operation

    • General TO system

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Operation course in the MTF (Military Training Facility). This method involves grouping related training topics into blocks or modules, allowing for a more focused and comprehensive approach to learning. It is particularly beneficial for courses that require hands-on practical training and a thorough understanding of maintenance operations.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metal Recovery Program?

    • Silver

    • Cooper

    • Iridium

    • Rhodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Cooper
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cooper. The Precious Metal Recovery Program covers silver, iridium, and rhodium, but not copper.

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  • 19. 

    When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation? 

    • Compass rose

    • Hot cargo pad

    • Radiographic inspection

    • Radar operational testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass rose
    Explanation
    When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during a compass rose operation. This is because a compass rose is a designated area on an airport where magnetic compasses are calibrated. By towing the aircraft with an external power unit attached, the compass can be accurately calibrated to ensure accurate navigation readings.

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  • 20. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9. This means that an EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 21. 

    How often does the MTF provide a status of training briefing to the MXG/CC?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) provides a status of training briefing to the MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing is conducted once every month to update the MXG/CC on the current status of training within the MTF. This regular monthly briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and up to date on the training progress and any issues or concerns that may arise.

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  • 22. 

    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous material or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what TO change priority?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous material or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as an "Urgent" change priority because it involves addressing a potential threat to human health or the environment. Hazardous materials and ozone depleting substances can have harmful effects on both human health and the ozone layer, so it is important to prioritize finding alternatives and implementing changes as quickly as possible to mitigate these risks.

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  • 23. 

    What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Management inspection

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed to ensure that the work meets the required standards and specifications. This inspection is conducted to confirm that the task has been completed correctly and that the desired level of quality has been achieved. It helps to identify any potential errors or deficiencies and ensures that the work meets the necessary criteria before it is considered complete.

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  • 24. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

    • Sq Operation Officer

    • MAJCOM functional manager

    • SQ/CC

    • MXG/CC

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR (Skill Code Roster) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade.

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  • 25. 

    In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model allows what percentage of overhead manning?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model allows for 10% of overhead manning in order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This percentage helps to ensure that there is enough manpower allocated for these additional needs and tasks, while still maintaining efficiency and effectiveness in logistics operations.

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  • 26. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monotoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintanence Supply Liason

    • Maintenace Supply Support

    • MOC

    • MDSA

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintanence Supply Liason
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Supply Liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a liaison between maintenance units and supply units, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or problems that arise in the supply chain, working to resolve them and ensure a smooth flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?

    • US Army

    • US Air Force

    • Federal Aviation Administration

    • National Transportation Safety Board

    Correct Answer
    A. National Transportation Safety Board
    Explanation
    The Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA) is a council that focuses on the maintenance and safety of aging aircraft. It consists of various organizations involved in aviation. The US Army, US Air Force, and Federal Aviation Administration are all members of the JCAA, as they play significant roles in aircraft operations and maintenance. However, the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) is not a member of the JCAA. The NTSB is an independent federal agency that investigates transportation accidents and makes recommendations to improve safety, but it is not specifically focused on aging aircraft.

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  • 28. 

    What training phase has the these four sub phases; multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The explanation for this answer is that the four sub phases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are all part of the training phase II. This phase includes various stages of training that are necessary for the individual to acquire the required skills and qualifications.

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  • 29. 

    Which element of a LCOM study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • Support facilities

    • Support equipment

    • Operations requirements

    • Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a LCOM study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This involves analyzing the specific requirements and conditions needed for the successful operation of a system or facility, including any considerations related to weather modeling. Support facilities and equipment may play a role in meeting these requirements, but operations requirements encompass a broader scope of factors that need to be considered. Maintenance requirements, on the other hand, focus on the upkeep and repair of the system or facility rather than the specific conditions needed for its operation.

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  • 30. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of personnel resources within an organization. When these authorizations are "funded," it means that the organization has allocated the necessary financial resources to support the hiring and employment of the authorized personnel. This indicates that the organization has the necessary budget and resources to cover the salaries, benefits, and other associated costs of the authorized positions. Therefore, "funded" manpower authorizations are those that have the financial backing to be implemented and sustained.

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  • 31. 

    Which PMIC  indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    PMIC stands for Precious Metal Indicator Code. The correct answer, C, indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify and track items that contain valuable metals such as gold, silver, platinum, or palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier to manage and account for items that have a higher intrinsic value due to the presence of multiple precious metals.

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  • 32. 

    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for fault isolation spares?

    • F

    • D

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for fault isolation spares is F.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for establishing a MXG TO custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?

    • MXS CC

    • MXG/CD

    • MXG/SUPT

    • MXG/CC

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) is responsible for establishing a MXG (Maintenance Group) TO (Technical Order) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities. The MXG/CC is in charge of overseeing the maintenance operations within the group and ensuring that all technical orders are properly managed and implemented.

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  • 34. 

    Who is the final approval authority for waivers of TO system policies and procedures?

    • HQ ACC/A4MT

    • HQ AFMC/A4YE

    • HQ USAF/A4MM

    • HQ AFMC/A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ USAF/A4MM
    Explanation
    HQ USAF/A4MM is the final approval authority for waivers of TO system policies and procedures. This means that any requests for waivers must be submitted to HQ USAF/A4MM for their review and approval. They have the ultimate authority to grant or deny these waivers based on their knowledge and understanding of the TO system policies and procedures.

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  • 35. 

    What AMU section is required to ensure ASIP equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?

    • Aircraft

    • Specialist

    • Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation. This section is responsible for ensuring that ASIP equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules. They are in charge of planning and scheduling the aircraft maintenance activities and documenting the necessary information. This helps in tracking and managing the ASIP equipped aircraft effectively. The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section plays a crucial role in ensuring the proper identification and management of ASIP equipped aircraft in the weekly schedules.

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  • 36. 

    What MSET individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?

    • Minor

    • Major

    • Category I

    • Category II

    Correct Answer
    A. Major
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Major because it is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment. This implies that it is a significant and serious issue that needs immediate attention and resolution.

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  • 37. 

    What time frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?

    • Take-off to landing

    • Taxi-out to taxi-in for final park

    • Engine start to engine shut down

    • Crew-show until aircraft released to maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine start to engine shut down
    Explanation
    The time frame used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object is from engine start to engine shut down. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this time period must be reported.

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  • 38. 

    Each A&P course must be completed within how many months?

    • 11

    • 12

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 13
    Explanation
    Each A&P course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to adequately cover the required material and complete all necessary assignments and assessments. It provides a reasonable amount of time for students to grasp the concepts and skills taught in the course, ensuring a thorough understanding of the subject matter. Additionally, completing the course within 13 months allows for efficient progress and timely completion of the program.

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  • 39. 

    All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a particular work center except

    • MAJCOMs

    • Supervisors

    • Commanders

    • UTMs

    Correct Answer
    A. UTMs
    Explanation
    UTMs (Unit Training Managers) can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a particular work center. This is because UTMs are responsible for managing and coordinating training programs within their unit, including identifying critical tasks and ensuring that personnel are trained to perform them. MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders also have the authority to designate critical tasks, making them all potential correct answers.

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  • 40. 

    An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor?

    • I

    • III

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    An individual must receive IIB block of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor.

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  • 41. 

    When items are placed in an aircraft's TNB, which entry is not normally needed?

    • Security classification

    • Date recieved

    • Status

    • Noun

    Correct Answer
    A. Security classification
    Explanation
    When items are placed in an aircraft's TNB (Tactical Notebook), the entry for security classification is not normally needed. The security classification refers to the level of sensitivity or confidentiality of the information contained in the items. In the context of an aircraft's TNB, it is unlikely that sensitive or classified information would be stored, as the TNB is typically used for operational or tactical purposes rather than for classified materials. Therefore, the entry for security classification is not necessary in this case.

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  • 42. 

    After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members recieve additional academic and hands-on training?

    • Annually

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Biennially

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members must receive additional academic and hands-on training on an annual basis. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques, procedures, and equipment related to their role in recovering crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft. Regular training helps them maintain their skills and knowledge, enabling them to effectively carry out their responsibilities and handle any emergency situations that may arise.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the folowing is not normally a Maintenace Supply Liason duty?

    • Monitoring status of back ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to indicate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable. excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable. excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liason duty. This duty involves the process of gathering and submitting assets that are no longer needed or in excess. However, the other options mentioned in the question, such as monitoring back ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liason would typically perform.

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  • 44. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personel notifies the

    • Operations Officer

    • Aircraft Section flight chief

    • MOC

    • AMU's PS&D section

    Correct Answer
    A. MOC
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the TNB, the MOC (Maintenance Operations Center) is notified. The MOC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all maintenance activities within an organization. They act as a central hub for communication between supply personnel, aircraft section flight chiefs, and other relevant parties. Therefore, it is logical that the MOC would be the one to receive notification when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB.

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  • 45. 

    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance

    • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing

    • AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication specifically focuses on the management of aircraft and equipment maintenance, which includes the processes and procedures for recovering and repairing damaged or non-operational equipment. It outlines the necessary steps and responsibilities for maintenance personnel to ensure a successful recovery operation.

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  • 46. 

    Which MXS flight is the office of primary responsibility for the MXG's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery Program operating instruction?

    • Fabrication Flight

    • Accesories Flight

    • Maintenance Flight

    • Aerospace Ground Equipment flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Flight
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Flight is the office of primary responsibility for the MXG's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery Program operating instruction. This suggests that the Maintenance Flight is responsible for overseeing and implementing the procedures and guidelines for recovering and repairing aircraft that have been crashed, damaged, or disabled.

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  • 47. 

    Which Af Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air and Space Journal?

    • AF e-Publishing

    • ADLS

    • AF IT E-Learning

    • AFKM

    Correct Answer
    A. AF e-Publishing
    Explanation
    AF e-Publishing is the correct answer because it is the portal link that provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air and Space Journal. This platform allows users to access and download various publications related to the Air Force, including magazines and journals. It serves as a central repository for official Air Force documents and publications, making it the go-to source for accessing periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air and Space Journal.

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  • 48. 

    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

    • Evaluate training

    • Select training strategies

    • Determine training needs

    • Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves identifying the specific knowledge, skills, and competencies that employees need to acquire in order to perform their job effectively. By assessing the current capabilities and performance gaps of employees, organizations can identify the areas where training is required. This step is crucial in developing targeted and effective training programs that address the specific needs of employees and improve their performance.

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  • 49. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with the aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with the aircraft, it is necessary for them to ensure that security checks are conducted regularly to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft. These security checks should be carried out every 3 hours to ensure that any potential threats or issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner. Conducting security checks at this frequency allows for effective monitoring and maintenance of the aircraft's security protocols, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or tampering.

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  • May 04, 2009
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    Sotorr
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