CDC 2AX7X: Air Force EOC Test! Trivia Quiz

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1. Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

Explanation

Training detachments are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including basic military training, technical training, and professional military education. As such, it makes sense that training detachments would be assigned to AETC, as this command is specifically focused on training and preparing individuals for their roles within the Air Force.

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About This Quiz
CDC 2AX7X: Air Force EOC Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

This trivia quiz is designed for Air Force personnel preparing for the CDC 2AX7X EOC, covering topics like MAJCOM assignments, training types, and record keeping.

2. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and the supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC course?

Explanation

The UTM (Unit Training Manager) is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and the supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC (Career Development Course) course. The UTM ensures that both the trainee and the supervisor are prepared for the course and have a clear understanding of the expectations and requirements. They also address any questions or concerns that the trainee or supervisor may have before the course begins.

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3. In order to be given authority to downgrade a red x an individual must be approved by the MXG/CC and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be given authority to downgrade a red x, an individual must be approved by the MXG/CC and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MXG/CC have the authority to downgrade a red x.

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4. Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations?

Explanation

The question is asking for the communication method that is not approved for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations. The options include telephone, signed letter, organizational email, and Defense Massage System. The correct answer is telephone because it is not an approved method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations.

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5. Who is responsible for the immediate security of clasified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

Explanation

The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes taking necessary measures to safeguard classified equipment until further assistance or instructions are received from appropriate authorities. The aircraft commander's role in maintaining security is crucial in emergency situations to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with classified equipment.

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6. Which expendability, recoverability,and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

Explanation

The correct answer is XB3 because the XB3 ERRC code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed in the normal course of operations and does not require repair or recovery. This code is typically assigned to assets that are easily replaceable and do not require extensive maintenance or repair.

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7. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the QA (Quality Assurance) section. This role involves overseeing and implementing processes to ensure the quality and reliability of products. The Product Improvement Manager works closely with the development team to identify areas for improvement, conduct testing, and ensure compliance with industry standards. They also collaborate with other departments to address customer feedback and enhance product performance.

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8. Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

Explanation

The AF Form 623, Individual Training Plan, is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form is used to document an individual's training and career development, including their goals, objectives, and training requirements. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training history and accomplishments, and is used to track their progress and ensure that they are meeting all necessary training requirements. The other options listed are not specifically used as cover folders for training records, making AF Form 623 the correct answer.

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9. A unit manpower document does not

Explanation

A unit manpower document is a document that provides information about the manpower requirements within a unit. It includes details such as the positions needed, the required grade for each position, and the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) required for a particular position. However, it does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position. This information is typically not included in the document as it can change frequently due to personnel assignments and rotations.

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10. Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

Explanation

Technical Orders cannot be locally modified by units. Technical Orders are standardized documents that provide detailed instructions for the operation, maintenance, and repair of specific equipment or systems. These orders are developed and maintained at a higher level and are typically not subject to local modifications by units. Manuals, instructions, and policy directives, on the other hand, may be adapted or modified to meet the specific needs or requirements of a particular unit or location.

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11. During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a QRL available in order to

Explanation

During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a QRL (Quick Reference List) available helps expediters to reduce the time needed to research parts. This means that they can quickly access the necessary information about the parts they need, such as their specifications, availability, and sources. By having this information readily available, expediters can save time and efficiently locate the required parts, ensuring a smoother maintenance process.

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12. The maximum total initial duty time that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of interrupted rest is

Explanation

A maintenance recovery team member can work for a maximum of 16 hours before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest. This is important to ensure that the team member is well-rested and able to perform their duties effectively. Working beyond this limit can lead to fatigue and reduced performance, which can compromise safety and efficiency. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to this maximum duty time to prioritize the well-being and effectiveness of the maintenance recovery team member.

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13. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment, minerals, or organic matter. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive sign as it can also occur in pristine environments. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to indicate pollution as they are direct and visible effects of contamination.

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14. "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

Explanation

"Red Ball" maintenance refers to a critical situation that requires immediate attention and priority actions. It also requires a sense of urgency to address the issue promptly. Additionally, specific local procedures need to be followed to ensure the maintenance is carried out correctly. However, an approved MXG TO (Maintenance Group Technical Order) compliance waiver is not required for "Red Ball" maintenance.

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15. The Wing FOD monitor is normally located within the

Explanation

The correct answer is QA section. The Wing FOD monitor is usually located within the QA section. This is because the QA (Quality Assurance) section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are carried out according to the required standards and procedures. The FOD (Foreign Object Debris) monitor is responsible for monitoring and preventing the presence of any foreign objects that could potentially cause damage to aircraft or equipment. Therefore, it makes sense for the FOD monitor to be located within the QA section, as they play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

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16. AETC training detachments normally do not provide what type of training?

Explanation

AETC training detachments typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the primary training objective. AETC focuses on formal training, which is the structured and organized training provided to achieve specific learning outcomes. Cross utilization training involves training individuals in multiple job roles to enhance their versatility. Continuation training is ongoing training to maintain proficiency in previously acquired skills. Therefore, ancillary training is the correct answer as it is not typically provided by AETC training detachments.

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17. The block training method is normally used to teach which MTF course?

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Operation course in the MTF (Military Training Facility). This method involves grouping related training topics into blocks or modules, allowing for a more focused and comprehensive approach to learning. It is particularly beneficial for courses that require hands-on practical training and a thorough understanding of maintenance operations.

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18. Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metal Recovery Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cooper. The Precious Metal Recovery Program covers silver, iridium, and rhodium, but not copper.

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19. When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation? 

Explanation

When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during a compass rose operation. This is because a compass rose is a designated area on an airport where magnetic compasses are calibrated. By towing the aircraft with an external power unit attached, the compass can be accurately calibrated to ensure accurate navigation readings.

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20. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

Explanation

An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up an EID code. The correct answer is 9. This means that an EID code consists of 9 digits.

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21. How often does the MTF provide a status of training briefing to the MXG/CC?

Explanation

The MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) provides a status of training briefing to the MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing is conducted once every month to update the MXG/CC on the current status of training within the MTF. This regular monthly briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and up to date on the training progress and any issues or concerns that may arise.

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22. An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous material or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what TO change priority?

Explanation

An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous material or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as an "Urgent" change priority because it involves addressing a potential threat to human health or the environment. Hazardous materials and ozone depleting substances can have harmful effects on both human health and the ozone layer, so it is important to prioritize finding alternatives and implementing changes as quickly as possible to mitigate these risks.

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23. What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed to ensure that the work meets the required standards and specifications. This inspection is conducted to confirm that the task has been completed correctly and that the desired level of quality has been achieved. It helps to identify any potential errors or deficiencies and ensures that the work meets the necessary criteria before it is considered complete.

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24. Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

Explanation

The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR (Skill Code Roster) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade.

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25. In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model allows what percentage of overhead manning?

Explanation

The logistics composite model allows for 10% of overhead manning in order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This percentage helps to ensure that there is enough manpower allocated for these additional needs and tasks, while still maintaining efficiency and effectiveness in logistics operations.

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26. Which agency is normally responsible for monotoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Explanation

The Maintenance Supply Liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a liaison between maintenance units and supply units, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or problems that arise in the supply chain, working to resolve them and ensure a smooth flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

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27. Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?

Explanation

The Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA) is a council that focuses on the maintenance and safety of aging aircraft. It consists of various organizations involved in aviation. The US Army, US Air Force, and Federal Aviation Administration are all members of the JCAA, as they play significant roles in aircraft operations and maintenance. However, the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) is not a member of the JCAA. The NTSB is an independent federal agency that investigates transportation accidents and makes recommendations to improve safety, but it is not specifically focused on aging aircraft.

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28. What training phase has the these four sub phases; multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is II. The explanation for this answer is that the four sub phases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are all part of the training phase II. This phase includes various stages of training that are necessary for the individual to acquire the required skills and qualifications.

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29. Which element of a LCOM study considers weather modeling conditions?

Explanation

The element of a LCOM study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This involves analyzing the specific requirements and conditions needed for the successful operation of a system or facility, including any considerations related to weather modeling. Support facilities and equipment may play a role in meeting these requirements, but operations requirements encompass a broader scope of factors that need to be considered. Maintenance requirements, on the other hand, focus on the upkeep and repair of the system or facility rather than the specific conditions needed for its operation.

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30. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of personnel resources within an organization. When these authorizations are "funded," it means that the organization has allocated the necessary financial resources to support the hiring and employment of the authorized personnel. This indicates that the organization has the necessary budget and resources to cover the salaries, benefits, and other associated costs of the authorized positions. Therefore, "funded" manpower authorizations are those that have the financial backing to be implemented and sustained.

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31. Which PMIC  indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Explanation

PMIC stands for Precious Metal Indicator Code. The correct answer, C, indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify and track items that contain valuable metals such as gold, silver, platinum, or palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier to manage and account for items that have a higher intrinsic value due to the presence of multiple precious metals.

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32. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for fault isolation spares?

Explanation

The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for fault isolation spares is F.

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33. Who is responsible for establishing a MXG TO custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?

Explanation

The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) is responsible for establishing a MXG (Maintenance Group) TO (Technical Order) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities. The MXG/CC is in charge of overseeing the maintenance operations within the group and ensuring that all technical orders are properly managed and implemented.

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34. Who is the final approval authority for waivers of TO system policies and procedures?

Explanation

HQ USAF/A4MM is the final approval authority for waivers of TO system policies and procedures. This means that any requests for waivers must be submitted to HQ USAF/A4MM for their review and approval. They have the ultimate authority to grant or deny these waivers based on their knowledge and understanding of the TO system policies and procedures.

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35. What AMU section is required to ensure ASIP equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?

Explanation

The correct answer is Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation. This section is responsible for ensuring that ASIP equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules. They are in charge of planning and scheduling the aircraft maintenance activities and documenting the necessary information. This helps in tracking and managing the ASIP equipped aircraft effectively. The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section plays a crucial role in ensuring the proper identification and management of ASIP equipped aircraft in the weekly schedules.

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36. What MSET individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Major because it is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment. This implies that it is a significant and serious issue that needs immediate attention and resolution.

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37. What time frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?

Explanation

The time frame used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object is from engine start to engine shut down. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this time period must be reported.

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38. Each A&P course must be completed within how many months?

Explanation

Each A&P course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to adequately cover the required material and complete all necessary assignments and assessments. It provides a reasonable amount of time for students to grasp the concepts and skills taught in the course, ensuring a thorough understanding of the subject matter. Additionally, completing the course within 13 months allows for efficient progress and timely completion of the program.

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39. All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a particular work center except

Explanation

UTMs (Unit Training Managers) can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a particular work center. This is because UTMs are responsible for managing and coordinating training programs within their unit, including identifying critical tasks and ensuring that personnel are trained to perform them. MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders also have the authority to designate critical tasks, making them all potential correct answers.

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40. An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor?

Explanation

An individual must receive IIB block of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor.

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41. When items are placed in an aircraft's TNB, which entry is not normally needed?

Explanation

When items are placed in an aircraft's TNB (Tactical Notebook), the entry for security classification is not normally needed. The security classification refers to the level of sensitivity or confidentiality of the information contained in the items. In the context of an aircraft's TNB, it is unlikely that sensitive or classified information would be stored, as the TNB is typically used for operational or tactical purposes rather than for classified materials. Therefore, the entry for security classification is not necessary in this case.

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42. After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members recieve additional academic and hands-on training?

Explanation

Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members must receive additional academic and hands-on training on an annual basis. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques, procedures, and equipment related to their role in recovering crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft. Regular training helps them maintain their skills and knowledge, enabling them to effectively carry out their responsibilities and handle any emergency situations that may arise.

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43. Which of the folowing is not normally a Maintenace Supply Liason duty?

Explanation

The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liason duty. This duty involves the process of gathering and submitting assets that are no longer needed or in excess. However, the other options mentioned in the question, such as monitoring back ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liason would typically perform.

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44. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personel notifies the

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the TNB, the MOC (Maintenance Operations Center) is notified. The MOC is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all maintenance activities within an organization. They act as a central hub for communication between supply personnel, aircraft section flight chiefs, and other relevant parties. Therefore, it is logical that the MOC would be the one to receive notification when a MICAP part is issued and placed in the TNB.

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45. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication specifically focuses on the management of aircraft and equipment maintenance, which includes the processes and procedures for recovering and repairing damaged or non-operational equipment. It outlines the necessary steps and responsibilities for maintenance personnel to ensure a successful recovery operation.

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46. Which MXS flight is the office of primary responsibility for the MXG's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery Program operating instruction?

Explanation

The Maintenance Flight is the office of primary responsibility for the MXG's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery Program operating instruction. This suggests that the Maintenance Flight is responsible for overseeing and implementing the procedures and guidelines for recovering and repairing aircraft that have been crashed, damaged, or disabled.

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47. Which Af Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air and Space Journal?

Explanation

AF e-Publishing is the correct answer because it is the portal link that provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air and Space Journal. This platform allows users to access and download various publications related to the Air Force, including magazines and journals. It serves as a central repository for official Air Force documents and publications, making it the go-to source for accessing periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air and Space Journal.

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48. Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

Explanation

After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves identifying the specific knowledge, skills, and competencies that employees need to acquire in order to perform their job effectively. By assessing the current capabilities and performance gaps of employees, organizations can identify the areas where training is required. This step is crucial in developing targeted and effective training programs that address the specific needs of employees and improve their performance.

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49. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with the aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with the aircraft, it is necessary for them to ensure that security checks are conducted regularly to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft. These security checks should be carried out every 3 hours to ensure that any potential threats or issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner. Conducting security checks at this frequency allows for effective monitoring and maintenance of the aircraft's security protocols, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or tampering.

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50. How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory classified?

Explanation

Radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory are classified as unshielded. This means that there is no protective shielding in place to prevent radiation exposure to individuals in the surrounding area. Unshielded radiographic inspections are considered unsafe and unacceptable as they pose a risk to the health and safety of personnel nearby.

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51. Who is the QA Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

Explanation

The QA Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the QA OIC/SUPT for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to and is accountable to the QA Officer in Charge (OIC) or the Superintendent (SUPT) of the Quality Assurance (QA) department. They work closely with the QA OIC/SUPT to oversee and enforce the MSEP, which includes conducting inspections, audits, and evaluations to ensure compliance with maintenance standards.

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52. Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as QA inspectors?

Explanation

Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for 6 months before being selected as QA inspectors. This duration allows individuals to gain sufficient experience and knowledge about the unit's operations, processes, and standards. It ensures that they have a comprehensive understanding of the unit's quality assurance requirements and can effectively assess and improve the unit's performance. A shorter duration may not provide enough exposure and familiarity with the unit's operations, while a longer duration may delay the selection of qualified QA inspectors. Therefore, 6 months is considered an appropriate timeframe for personnel to be assigned before assuming the role of QA inspectors.

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53. What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a FOD incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?

Explanation

The dollar amount of damage that must be exceeded for a FOD incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit is $20,000. This means that any FOD incident that causes damage equal to or greater than $20,000 will be considered in the calculation of the FOD rate.

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54. How often must the Team Chief for the CDDAR program conduct a CDDAR axercise?

Explanation

The Team Chief for the CDDAR program must conduct a CDDAR exercise once a year. This exercise is conducted annually to ensure that the team is prepared and capable of responding effectively to any potential emergency or disaster situations. It allows the team to practice their response procedures, test their equipment, and identify any areas that may need improvement. Conducting the exercise on an annual basis ensures that the team's skills and readiness are regularly evaluated and maintained.

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55. Which factor is not modeled in a LCOM manpower study?

Explanation

A LCOM manpower study is a study that models and analyzes the manpower requirements for a specific system or organization. It aims to determine the number of personnel needed to operate and maintain the system effectively. The factors that are typically considered in a LCOM manpower study include spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment. However, training deployments are not typically modeled in this study. Training deployments refer to the temporary assignments of personnel for training purposes, which are not directly related to the day-to-day operations and maintenance of the system.

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56. Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adecuate for clasified assets installed on an aircraft?

Explanation

The aircraft commander ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft. This is because the aircraft commander is responsible for the safety and security of the aircraft and its contents, including any classified assets. They have the authority to make decisions regarding security measures and ensure that the appropriate level of security is in place to protect classified information.

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57. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replacable unit (LRU) or shop replacable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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58. Who appoints an officer or NCO as the MXG Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?

Explanation

The MXG/CC, or the Maintenance Group Commander, appoints an officer or NCO as the MXG Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the ASIP project within the MXG, ensuring the structural integrity of the aircraft is maintained and any necessary repairs or modifications are carried out. They work closely with other personnel and stakeholders to ensure compliance with safety regulations and standards.

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59. Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?

Explanation

Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.

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60. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center. As the supervisor of the section, they have direct oversight and knowledge of the specific hazards present in their area of responsibility. They are in the best position to identify and communicate these hazards to the personnel under their supervision, ensuring their safety and compliance with HAZCOM regulations. The operations officer, SQ/CC, and squadron safety monitor may have other responsibilities related to safety, but the section supervisor is specifically tasked with developing the HAZCOM training plan.

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61. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

Explanation

The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the squadron commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the squadron, including the equipment and resources. Appointing an individual as an equipment account custodian ensures that there is someone specifically designated to handle and be accountable for the equipment within the squadron.

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62. Which PMIC indicates that an item of supply does not contain a precious metal?

Explanation

PMIC stands for Precious Metal Indicator Code, which is used to indicate whether an item of supply contains a precious metal or not. In this case, the correct answer is A, which indicates that the item of supply does not contain a precious metal.

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63. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?

Explanation

The appropriate supply delivery priority for bench stock requirements is 5. This means that bench stock requirements should be prioritized as "Routine." This suggests that the delivery of supplies for bench stock is not urgent or time-sensitive, but rather falls within the normal timeframe for delivery.

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64. Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?

Explanation

The given question asks for a category that is not a TO (Task Order) change priority category. The options "Urgent," "Routine," and "Emergency" are all commonly used categories to prioritize task order changes based on their urgency. However, "Standard" is not typically used as a TO change priority category, making it the correct answer.

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65. The assets in high priority mission support kits (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in high priority mission support kits (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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66. In the (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?

Explanation

The MXG/CC, or Maintenance Group Commander, is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance. This individual holds a leadership position within the Maintenance Group and is tasked with overseeing and managing all maintenance operations. They have the authority to establish and enforce policies and procedures related to the manufacture of tools, parts, and other items, ensuring compliance with technical guidance and maintaining the highest standards of quality and safety.

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67. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the MXG is normally held

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly because a meeting to discuss manning issues in the MXG is typically held once every month. This frequency allows for regular updates and discussions on personnel matters within the MXG, ensuring that any staffing issues or concerns can be addressed in a timely manner. Holding the meeting monthly also provides sufficient time to gather relevant information and data before each meeting, allowing for more productive and informed discussions.

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68. Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?

Explanation

The shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage. This means that the amount of stock available should be enough to cover the shop's needs for a maximum of 90 days. Having stock beyond this limit can lead to issues such as increased storage costs, risk of spoilage or obsolescence, and tying up valuable resources. Therefore, it is important for the shop to manage its stock levels efficiently and ensure they do not exceed 90 days of usage.

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69. Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in used detail records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in used detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the tracking and maintenance of these assets, ensuring they are properly accounted for and managed. The Flight Service Center (FSC) is not responsible for this task, and the Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) and DRMO are also not the correct offices to handle SPRAM assets.

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70. In the equipment identification designator code U6JG00001, what does the third character "J" identify?

Explanation

The third character "J" in the equipment identification designator code U6JG00001 identifies the unit.

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71. Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew members in support of aircraft generation planning?

Explanation

The Wing Weapons Manager is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew members in support of aircraft generation planning. This role involves ensuring that there are enough qualified personnel available to handle the loading and unloading of munitions on aircraft. The Wing Weapons Manager works closely with the MXS Operations Officer, MXS pro sup, and Munitions leadership to ensure that the necessary manpower is available to meet operational requirements.

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72. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized, who is the CANN authority required to notify?

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority required to be notified is PS&D. PS&D stands for Property, Supply, and Distribution, which is responsible for managing and controlling the distribution of items within an organization. They need to be informed about the cannibalization of the serially controlled item to ensure proper documentation and tracking of the inventory.

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73. Who is the office of primary responsability (OPR) for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is MXG/CC. MXG/CC stands for Maintenance Group Commander, who is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas.

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74. Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?

Explanation

The correct answer is Operations Officer or MX SUPT. This means that in order to clear a red X for a lost tool that has not been found, an individual must hold the position of Operations Officer or MX SUPT. This suggests that these positions have the authority and responsibility to clear such red Xs.

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75. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses?

Explanation

Continuation training refers to the ongoing education and skills development that builds upon the initial training received in AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses. Maintenance qualification courses provide both academic and practical hands-on training to enhance and complement the skills acquired during initial training. These courses focus on specific maintenance tasks and help maintain and improve the proficiency of maintenance personnel. Therefore, the answer "Maintenance Qualification" is the most suitable option for continuation training that complements the initial skills training.

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76. Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. The MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations of the entire maintenance group and is not directly involved in the review process for supply assets. The other options, such as the Operations Officer/MX SUPT, LRS Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/chief, are more likely to be involved in the review chain for these items.

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77. What is the accountability document used for supply pints that show that quantity authorized, on hand, and due out?

Explanation

A supply point listing is an accountability document used to track the quantity authorized, on hand, and due out for supply points. It provides a comprehensive record of the supplies available and their distribution, ensuring that there is transparency and accountability in the supply chain management process.

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78. How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?

Explanation

Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) annually. This means that they need to assess and evaluate the contents of the RSPs once every year. This review ensures that the RSPs are up to date and contain the necessary equipment and supplies for maintaining operational readiness. Regular reviews help identify any deficiencies or gaps in the RSPs and allow for necessary adjustments or replenishments to be made. By conducting annual reviews, operating commands can ensure that they are adequately prepared for any potential contingencies or emergencies.

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79. When a back ordered item issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personel notifies the

Explanation

When a back-ordered item is issued and placed in the TNB (Turn Not Built), the supply personnel notifies the AMU's PS&D (Production Support and Distribution) section. This section is responsible for managing the production support and distribution of materials within the AMU (Aircraft Maintenance Unit). They ensure that the back-ordered item is properly received, processed, and distributed to the appropriate personnel or departments within the AMU.

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80. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programing?

Explanation

The LRS Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet the necessary standards for functionality and safety. They have the authority to review and make decisions regarding the list of assets that require these checks and programming, ensuring that all necessary actions are taken to maintain the unit's supply assets.

Submit
81. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. This is because the LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. They have the knowledge and resources to ensure that the supply point is properly set up and stocked with the required items.

Submit
82. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of dificiency report is submitted?

Explanation

A Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or discrepancies in the supply chain, such as incorrect or damaged items received. It helps to identify and resolve issues related to the supply of goods or services, ensuring that the correct items are delivered and any discrepancies are addressed.

Submit
83. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?

Explanation

Supply delivery priority 3 is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing because it indicates that the supplies are needed within 24 hours. This priority level ensures that the necessary supplies are delivered in a timely manner to support the primary mission without causing any delays or disruptions.

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84. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for stand alone spares?

Explanation

The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for stand alone spares is A.

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85. A dropped object that resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Explanation

When a dropped object causes casualties or property damage, it is necessary to report the incident in accordance with AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting. This regulation likely outlines the specific procedures and requirements for reporting such incidents, ensuring that they are properly documented and investigated. By following this AFI, the military can maintain a comprehensive record of safety incidents and take appropriate actions to prevent future accidents.

Submit
86. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: what steps need to be taken? during which aircraft generation planning area?

Explanation

The question is asking about the primary concern when it comes to answering the question of what steps need to be taken in aircraft generation planning. The correct answer is "Aircraft generation actions" because it implies that the focus is on the specific actions that need to be taken in order to generate aircraft, rather than the timing or sequence of these actions.

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87. Which is not normally a MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Explanation

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88. In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and document a MXG/CC standarized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?

Explanation

Support personnel must conduct and document a MXG/CC standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment annually. This ensures that the tools and equipment are in proper working condition and meet the required standards. Conducting these inspections regularly helps to identify any issues or maintenance needs, ensuring the tools and equipment are safe and effective for use.

Submit
89. Which MXG office acts as the office of primary responsibility for maintenance analysis referrals?

Explanation

The MXG office that acts as the office of primary responsibility for maintenance analysis referrals is MDSA.

Submit
90. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply report?

Explanation

The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it is a supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply report. This report helps in assessing the effectiveness of the organization's supply management and identifies any issues or gaps in the supply chain. It allows management to track and monitor the availability and usage of supplies, ensuring that the organization has an efficient and effective supply system in place.

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91. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: how long does each step or group of steps take? during which aircraft generation planning area?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Aircraft generation action timing." This option specifically refers to the timing of the actions involved in aircraft generation. It focuses on the duration of each step or group of steps in the process. The other options, such as "Aircraft generation timing" and "Aircraft generation actions," do not specifically mention the element of time and may not address the question of how long each step takes. "Aircraft generation flow sequence" is also not directly related to the timing aspect of the process.

Submit
92. Who in the MXG is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The MXS Operations officer/MX SUPT is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the MXG. They oversee the operations and maintenance of the MXS, which includes coordinating with local manufacturers to ensure that the necessary resources and capabilities are available to meet the requirements. This role involves managing logistics, coordinating with suppliers, and ensuring that the MXG has the necessary equipment, materials, and personnel to meet local manufacture requirements.

Submit
93. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Explanation

The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. This means that the Action Point is responsible for receiving and coordinating the Deficiency Reports from the support point and forwarding them to the submitting organization. They serve as a central point of contact and ensure that the necessary actions are taken to address the reported deficiencies.

Submit
94. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The correct answer is D18, Priority monitor report. This document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It tracks the supply and prioritizes them based on urgency.

Submit
95. Who has the responsability for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Action Point." The Action Point is responsible for the overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. They are in charge of coordinating and overseeing the process of identifying, reporting, and addressing deficiencies within the organization. This role ensures that all necessary actions are taken to address and resolve any reported deficiencies effectively.

Submit
96. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Explanation

The correct answer is D04, Daily Document Register. The Daily Document Register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. The Priority Monitor Report (D18) may provide information on high-priority documents, but it does not necessarily include all document numbers processed. The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) and the Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23) are not specifically supply tracking documents.

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Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
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"Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the...
The Wing FOD monitor is normally located within the
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Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold...
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands on...
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How often are operating commands required to review permanent...
When a back ordered item issues and is placed in the TNB, supply...
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply...
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance...
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type...
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission...
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag...
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