CDC 2AX7X: Air Force EOC Test! Trivia Quiz

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CDC 2AX7X: Air Force EOC Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Air Force 7 Level Upgrade CDC EOC Test


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • A.

      ACC

    • B.

      ATC

    • C.

      AFRC

    • D.

      AETC

    • E.

      AFMC

    Correct Answer
    D. AETC
    Explanation
    Training detachments are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including basic military training, technical training, and professional military education. As such, it makes sense that training detachments would be assigned to AETC, as this command is specifically focused on training and preparing individuals for their roles within the Air Force.

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  • 2. 

    AETC training detachments normally do not provide what type of training?

    • A.

      Cross utilization training

    • B.

      Continuation training

    • C.

      Ancillary training

    • D.

      Formal training

    Correct Answer
    C. Ancillary training
    Explanation
    AETC training detachments typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the primary training objective. AETC focuses on formal training, which is the structured and organized training provided to achieve specific learning outcomes. Cross utilization training involves training individuals in multiple job roles to enhance their versatility. Continuation training is ongoing training to maintain proficiency in previously acquired skills. Therefore, ancillary training is the correct answer as it is not typically provided by AETC training detachments.

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  • 3. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which MTF course?

    • A.

      Any 7 Level Course

    • B.

      Weight and Balance

    • C.

      Maintenance Operation

    • D.

      General TO system

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Operation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Operation course in the MTF (Military Training Facility). This method involves grouping related training topics into blocks or modules, allowing for a more focused and comprehensive approach to learning. It is particularly beneficial for courses that require hands-on practical training and a thorough understanding of maintenance operations.

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  • 4. 

    Each A&P course must be completed within how many months?

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      13

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    C. 13
    Explanation
    Each A&P course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to adequately cover the required material and complete all necessary assignments and assessments. It provides a reasonable amount of time for students to grasp the concepts and skills taught in the course, ensuring a thorough understanding of the subject matter. Additionally, completing the course within 13 months allows for efficient progress and timely completion of the program.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • A.

      Specialty Training Standard

    • B.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • C.

      AF Form 623, Individual Training Plan

    • D.

      AF IMT 623a, On the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 623, Individual Training Plan
    Explanation
    The AF Form 623, Individual Training Plan, is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form is used to document an individual's training and career development, including their goals, objectives, and training requirements. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training history and accomplishments, and is used to track their progress and ensure that they are meeting all necessary training requirements. The other options listed are not specifically used as cover folders for training records, making AF Form 623 the correct answer.

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  • 6. 

    All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a particular work center except

    • A.

      MAJCOMs

    • B.

      Supervisors

    • C.

      Commanders

    • D.

      UTMs

    Correct Answer
    D. UTMs
    Explanation
    UTMs (Unit Training Managers) can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a particular work center. This is because UTMs are responsible for managing and coordinating training programs within their unit, including identifying critical tasks and ensuring that personnel are trained to perform them. MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders also have the authority to designate critical tasks, making them all potential correct answers.

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  • 7. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

    • A.

      Sq Operation Officer

    • B.

      MAJCOM functional manager

    • C.

      SQ/CC

    • D.

      MXG/CC

    Correct Answer
    D. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR (Skill Code Roster) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade.

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  • 8. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a red x an individual must be approved by the MXG/CC and hold the minimum grade of

    • A.

      CMSgt

    • B.

      SMSgt

    • C.

      MSgt

    • D.

      TSgt

    Correct Answer
    C. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a red x, an individual must be approved by the MXG/CC and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MXG/CC have the authority to downgrade a red x.

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  • 9. 

    What training phase has the these four sub phases; multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The explanation for this answer is that the four sub phases mentioned (multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training) are all part of the training phase II. This phase includes various stages of training that are necessary for the individual to acquire the required skills and qualifications.

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  • 10. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses?

    • A.

      Maintenance Qualification

    • B.

      Maintenance Refresher

    • C.

      On-the-Job

    • D.

      Ancilliary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training refers to the ongoing education and skills development that builds upon the initial training received in AETC mission ready airman and training detachment courses. Maintenance qualification courses provide both academic and practical hands-on training to enhance and complement the skills acquired during initial training. These courses focus on specific maintenance tasks and help maintain and improve the proficiency of maintenance personnel. Therefore, the answer "Maintenance Qualification" is the most suitable option for continuation training that complements the initial skills training.

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  • 11. 

    How often does the MTF provide a status of training briefing to the MXG/CC?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The MTF (Medical Treatment Facility) provides a status of training briefing to the MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing is conducted once every month to update the MXG/CC on the current status of training within the MTF. This regular monthly briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and up to date on the training progress and any issues or concerns that may arise.

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  • 12. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and the supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC course?

    • A.

      Operation officer

    • B.

      Group Commander

    • C.

      UTM

    • D.

      MTF/CC or chief

    Correct Answer
    C. UTM
    Explanation
    The UTM (Unit Training Manager) is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and the supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC (Career Development Course) course. The UTM ensures that both the trainee and the supervisor are prepared for the course and have a clear understanding of the expectations and requirements. They also address any questions or concerns that the trainee or supervisor may have before the course begins.

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  • 13. 

    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

    • A.

      Evaluate training

    • B.

      Select training strategies

    • C.

      Determine training needs

    • D.

      Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves identifying the specific knowledge, skills, and competencies that employees need to acquire in order to perform their job effectively. By assessing the current capabilities and performance gaps of employees, organizations can identify the areas where training is required. This step is crucial in developing targeted and effective training programs that address the specific needs of employees and improve their performance.

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  • 14. 

    In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model allows what percentage of overhead manning?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model allows for 10% of overhead manning in order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This percentage helps to ensure that there is enough manpower allocated for these additional needs and tasks, while still maintaining efficiency and effectiveness in logistics operations.

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  • 15. 

    Which element of a LCOM study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • A.

      Support facilities

    • B.

      Support equipment

    • C.

      Operations requirements

    • D.

      Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a LCOM study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This involves analyzing the specific requirements and conditions needed for the successful operation of a system or facility, including any considerations related to weather modeling. Support facilities and equipment may play a role in meeting these requirements, but operations requirements encompass a broader scope of factors that need to be considered. Maintenance requirements, on the other hand, focus on the upkeep and repair of the system or facility rather than the specific conditions needed for its operation.

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  • 16. 

    Which factor is not modeled in a LCOM manpower study?

    • A.

      Spare parts

    • B.

      Maintenance people

    • C.

      Training deployments

    • D.

      Aerospace ground equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Training deployments
    Explanation
    A LCOM manpower study is a study that models and analyzes the manpower requirements for a specific system or organization. It aims to determine the number of personnel needed to operate and maintain the system effectively. The factors that are typically considered in a LCOM manpower study include spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment. However, training deployments are not typically modeled in this study. Training deployments refer to the temporary assignments of personnel for training purposes, which are not directly related to the day-to-day operations and maintenance of the system.

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  • 17. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • A.

      Funded

    • B.

      Unfunded

    • C.

      Unvalidated

    • D.

      Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of personnel resources within an organization. When these authorizations are "funded," it means that the organization has allocated the necessary financial resources to support the hiring and employment of the authorized personnel. This indicates that the organization has the necessary budget and resources to cover the salaries, benefits, and other associated costs of the authorized positions. Therefore, "funded" manpower authorizations are those that have the financial backing to be implemented and sustained.

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  • 18. 

    A unit manpower document does not

    • A.

      Show the AFSC required for a particular position

    • B.

      Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • C.

      Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • D.

      Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    C. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document is a document that provides information about the manpower requirements within a unit. It includes details such as the positions needed, the required grade for each position, and the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) required for a particular position. However, it does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position. This information is typically not included in the document as it can change frequently due to personnel assignments and rotations.

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  • 19. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the MXG is normally held

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because a meeting to discuss manning issues in the MXG is typically held once every month. This frequency allows for regular updates and discussions on personnel matters within the MXG, ensuring that any staffing issues or concerns can be addressed in a timely manner. Holding the meeting monthly also provides sufficient time to gather relevant information and data before each meeting, allowing for more productive and informed discussions.

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  • 20. 

    Which MXG office acts as the office of primary responsibility for maintenance analysis referrals?

    • A.

      PS&D

    • B.

      MDSA

    • C.

      MOC

    • D.

      Programs and Resources Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. MDSA
    Explanation
    The MXG office that acts as the office of primary responsibility for maintenance analysis referrals is MDSA.

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  • 21. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monotoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • A.

      Maintanence Supply Liason

    • B.

      Maintenace Supply Support

    • C.

      MOC

    • D.

      MDSA

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintanence Supply Liason
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Supply Liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a liaison between maintenance units and supply units, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance operations. They also address any issues or problems that arise in the supply chain, working to resolve them and ensure a smooth flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the folowing is not normally a Maintenace Supply Liason duty?

    • A.

      Monitoring status of back ordered requisitions

    • B.

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • C.

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to indicate a quick reference list

    • D.

      Collecting and turning in expendable. excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting and turning in expendable. excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liason duty. This duty involves the process of gathering and submitting assets that are no longer needed or in excess. However, the other options mentioned in the question, such as monitoring back ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liason would typically perform.

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  • 23. 

    The assets in high priority mission support kits (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in high priority mission support kits (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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  • 24. 

    How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Biennially

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) annually. This means that they need to assess and evaluate the contents of the RSPs once every year. This review ensures that the RSPs are up to date and contain the necessary equipment and supplies for maintaining operational readiness. Regular reviews help identify any deficiencies or gaps in the RSPs and allow for necessary adjustments or replenishments to be made. By conducting annual reviews, operating commands can ensure that they are adequately prepared for any potential contingencies or emergencies.

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  • 25. 

    Which expendability, recoverability,and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

    • A.

      XF3

    • B.

      XD2

    • C.

      XD1

    • D.

      XB3

    Correct Answer
    D. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3 because the XB3 ERRC code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed in the normal course of operations and does not require repair or recovery. This code is typically assigned to assets that are easily replaceable and do not require extensive maintenance or repair.

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  • 26. 

    Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    C. 90
    Explanation
    The shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage. This means that the amount of stock available should be enough to cover the shop's needs for a maximum of 90 days. Having stock beyond this limit can lead to issues such as increased storage costs, risk of spoilage or obsolescence, and tying up valuable resources. Therefore, it is important for the shop to manage its stock levels efficiently and ensure they do not exceed 90 days of usage.

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  • 27. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • A.

      Oil sheen on standing water

    • B.

      Stressed vegetation

    • C.

      Stains on ground

    • D.

      Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    D. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment, minerals, or organic matter. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive sign as it can also occur in pristine environments. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to indicate pollution as they are direct and visible effects of contamination.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Section supervisor

    • C.

      SQ/CC

    • D.

      Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    B. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center. As the supervisor of the section, they have direct oversight and knowledge of the specific hazards present in their area of responsibility. They are in the best position to identify and communicate these hazards to the personnel under their supervision, ensuring their safety and compliance with HAZCOM regulations. The operations officer, SQ/CC, and squadron safety monitor may have other responsibilities related to safety, but the section supervisor is specifically tasked with developing the HAZCOM training plan.

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  • 30. 

    In the (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?

    • A.

      MX/CC

    • B.

      MXG Vice Commander

    • C.

      MXG Superintendent

    • D.

      MXG/CC

    Correct Answer
    D. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC, or Maintenance Group Commander, is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance. This individual holds a leadership position within the Maintenance Group and is tasked with overseeing and managing all maintenance operations. They have the authority to establish and enforce policies and procedures related to the manufacture of tools, parts, and other items, ensuring compliance with technical guidance and maintaining the highest standards of quality and safety.

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  • 31. 

    Who in the MXG is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

    • A.

      MXG Commander

    • B.

      MXG Superintendent

    • C.

      MXG Vice Commander

    • D.

      MXS Operations officer/MX SUPT

    Correct Answer
    D. MXS Operations officer/MX SUPT
    Explanation
    The MXS Operations officer/MX SUPT is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the MXG. They oversee the operations and maintenance of the MXS, which includes coordinating with local manufacturers to ensure that the necessary resources and capabilities are available to meet the requirements. This role involves managing logistics, coordinating with suppliers, and ensuring that the MXG has the necessary equipment, materials, and personnel to meet local manufacture requirements.

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  • 32. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • A.

      Section supervisor

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      Flight commander/chief

    • D.

      Operations officer/MX SUPT

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the squadron commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the squadron, including the equipment and resources. Appointing an individual as an equipment account custodian ensures that there is someone specifically designated to handle and be accountable for the equipment within the squadron.

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  • 33. 

    An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      IIB

    • D.

      IIA

    Correct Answer
    C. IIB
    Explanation
    An individual must receive IIB block of supply training before assuming duties as a DIFM monitor.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metal Recovery Program?

    • A.

      Silver

    • B.

      Cooper

    • C.

      Iridium

    • D.

      Rhodium

    Correct Answer
    B. Cooper
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cooper. The Precious Metal Recovery Program covers silver, iridium, and rhodium, but not copper.

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  • 35. 

    Which PMIC indicates that an item of supply does not contain a precious metal?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      G

    • D.

      P

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    PMIC stands for Precious Metal Indicator Code, which is used to indicate whether an item of supply contains a precious metal or not. In this case, the correct answer is A, which indicates that the item of supply does not contain a precious metal.

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  • 36. 

    Which PMIC  indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      G

    • D.

      P

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    PMIC stands for Precious Metal Indicator Code. The correct answer, C, indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify and track items that contain valuable metals such as gold, silver, platinum, or palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier to manage and account for items that have a higher intrinsic value due to the presence of multiple precious metals.

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  • 37. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • A.

      D18, Priority monitor report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. D18, Priority monitor report
    B. D04, Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D04, Daily Document Register. The Daily Document Register is a supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. The Priority Monitor Report (D18) may provide information on high-priority documents, but it does not necessarily include all document numbers processed. The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) and the Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23) are not specifically supply tracking documents.

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  • 38. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • A.

      D18, Priority monitor report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority monitor report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, Priority monitor report. This document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It tracks the supply and prioritizes them based on urgency.

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  • 39. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply report?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    C. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
    Explanation
    The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it is a supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply report. This report helps in assessing the effectiveness of the organization's supply management and identifies any issues or gaps in the supply chain. It allows management to track and monitor the availability and usage of supplies, ensuring that the organization has an efficient and effective supply system in place.

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  • 40. 

    Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in used detail records?

    • A.

      Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • B.

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • C.

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • D.

      DRMO

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in used detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the tracking and maintenance of these assets, ensuring they are properly accounted for and managed. The Flight Service Center (FSC) is not responsible for this task, and the Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) and DRMO are also not the correct offices to handle SPRAM assets.

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  • 41. 

    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for stand alone spares?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    D. A
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for stand alone spares is A.

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  • 42. 

    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for fault isolation spares?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for fault isolation spares is F.

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  • 43. 

    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programing?

    • A.

      Flight commander/chief

    • B.

      MXG/CC

    • C.

      LRS Chief Inspector

    • D.

      Operations Officer/MX SUPT

    Correct Answer
    C. LRS Chief Inspector
    Explanation
    The LRS Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet the necessary standards for functionality and safety. They have the authority to review and make decisions regarding the list of assets that require these checks and programming, ensuring that all necessary actions are taken to maintain the unit's supply assets.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • A.

      Operations Officer/MX SUPT

    • B.

      LRS Chief Inspector

    • C.

      MXG/CC

    • D.

      Flight commander/chief

    Correct Answer
    C. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. The MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations of the entire maintenance group and is not directly involved in the review process for supply assets. The other options, such as the Operations Officer/MX SUPT, LRS Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/chief, are more likely to be involved in the review chain for these items.

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  • 45. 

    Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adecuate for clasified assets installed on an aircraft?

    • A.

      Aircraft commander

    • B.

      Host installation commander

    • C.

      Operations Group Commander

    • D.

      Mission Support Group Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft. This is because the aircraft commander is responsible for the safety and security of the aircraft and its contents, including any classified assets. They have the authority to make decisions regarding security measures and ensure that the appropriate level of security is in place to protect classified information.

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  • 46. 

    Who is responsible for the immediate security of clasified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

    • A.

      Nearest military installation

    • B.

      Local law enforcement

    • C.

      Aircraft commander

    • D.

      Local fire chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes taking necessary measures to safeguard classified equipment until further assistance or instructions are received from appropriate authorities. The aircraft commander's role in maintaining security is crucial in emergency situations to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with classified equipment.

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  • 47. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with the aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • A.

      Hour

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      3 hours

    • D.

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with the aircraft, it is necessary for them to ensure that security checks are conducted regularly to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft. These security checks should be carried out every 3 hours to ensure that any potential threats or issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner. Conducting security checks at this frequency allows for effective monitoring and maintenance of the aircraft's security protocols, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or tampering.

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  • 48. 

    What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Supply delivery priority 3 is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing because it indicates that the supplies are needed within 24 hours. This priority level ensures that the necessary supplies are delivered in a timely manner to support the primary mission without causing any delays or disruptions.

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  • 49. 

    What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 5
    Explanation
    The appropriate supply delivery priority for bench stock requirements is 5. This means that bench stock requirements should be prioritized as "Routine." This suggests that the delivery of supplies for bench stock is not urgent or time-sensitive, but rather falls within the normal timeframe for delivery.

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  • 50. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replacable unit (LRU) or shop replacable unit (SRU) spare?

    • A.

      1A or JA

    • B.

      AR or BR

    • C.

      AA or AM

    • D.

      BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    B. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 04, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Sotorr
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