CDC Z3d152 UREs Volumes 1&2 Mixed

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  • 1/224 Questions

    To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

    • All personnel
    • Only safety personnel
    • Only civilian personnel
    • Only medical personnel
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in deploying, sustaining, and troubleshooting communication systems in the Air Force, focusing on radio frequency and cyber transport systems. It evaluates core competencies and adherence to safety standards, essential for professionals in military communications.


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  • 2. 

    Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise
    Explanation
    Noise is the correct answer because electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference are both forms of electrical disturbances that can cause unwanted signals or disruptions in power lines. These disturbances can be caused by various factors such as electrical equipment, power surges, or external sources. Therefore, the category that encompasses these types of interference is referred to as "noise".

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  • 3. 

    When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

    • The circuit is energized

    • You have a valid prescription

    • They are certified for high voltage

    • They are secured with a nonmetallic cord

    Correct Answer
    A. They are secured with a nonmetallic cord
    Explanation
    Metal framed eyeglasses conduct electricity, so wearing them while working on electrical circuits can be dangerous. However, if the eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord, it reduces the risk of them falling onto the circuit and causing a short circuit or electrical shock. This safety precaution ensures that even if the glasses accidentally come off, they will not pose a threat to the person working on the circuit.

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  • 4. 

    What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

    • Risk control

    • Safety control

    • Risk management

    • Safety management

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk management
    Explanation
    Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing strategies to mitigate or control them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can ensure the safety of their personnel and equipment, while still achieving their mission objectives. Safety control and safety management are related concepts, but they specifically focus on ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment, whereas risk management encompasses a broader approach that addresses both safety and combat capability.

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  • 5. 

    What is the first line of defense in securing laptops

    • Set a login ID and password combination for access

    • Install biometrics and encryption certificates

    • Place a lock on computer

    • Store in locked case

    Correct Answer
    A. Set a login ID and password combination for access
    Explanation
    The first line of defense in securing laptops is to set a login ID and password combination for access. This ensures that only authorized individuals can gain access to the laptop and its contents. It acts as a barrier against unauthorized access and protects sensitive information from being compromised. Installing biometrics and encryption certificates, placing a lock on the computer, and storing it in a locked case can provide additional layers of security, but setting a login ID and password is the initial and fundamental step in securing a laptop.

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  • 6. 

    Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

    • Working at a bench

    • Walking across carpet

    • Walking across a vinyl floor

    • Picking up a common plastic bag

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking across carpet
    Explanation
    Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current. When a person walks across a carpet, friction is created between their shoes and the carpet, causing the transfer of electrons between the two surfaces. This transfer of electrons creates an imbalance of charges, resulting in the buildup of static electricity. As a result, walking across carpet generates a higher amount of electrostatic current compared to the other activities mentioned.

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  • 7. 

    Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Blackout
    Explanation
    A blackout is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power. During a blackout, there is a complete and sudden loss of electricity in an area, resulting in a complete loss of utility power. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or a disruption in the power grid. During a blackout, all electrical appliances and systems relying on utility power will cease to function until power is restored.

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  • 8. 

    What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

    • RJ–11

    • RJ–15

    • RJ–45

    • RJ–49

    Correct Answer
    A. RJ–45
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RJ-45. RJ-45 is the standard conductor used for data networking. It is a type of connector commonly used for Ethernet connections. RJ-45 connectors have eight pins and are used to connect network devices such as computers, routers, and switches. They are widely used in both residential and commercial settings for wired internet connections. RJ-11, RJ-15, and RJ-49 are not commonly used for data networking and are typically used for telephone connections.

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  • 9. 

    What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING)

    • Traffic generator

    • Route generator

    • Trace route

    Correct Answer
    A. Packet internetwork groper (PING)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is a commonly used active test on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the target node and waits for a response. If the target node responds, it indicates that the node is connected and responsive. PING is a simple and effective way to check the connectivity and response time of a network node.

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  • 10. 

    In Binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

    • SEQ

    • SYN

    • STX

    • EST

    Correct Answer
    A. SYN
    Explanation
    In Binary-synchronous protocol, the characters that establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission are represented by the "SYN" character. This character is used to signal the start and end of a transmission block, ensuring that the sender and receiver are in sync and can properly interpret the data being transmitted.

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  • 11. 

    Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

    • Character oriented

    • Bit-oriented

    • Network

    • Routing

    Correct Answer
    A. Bit-oriented
    Explanation
    Bit-oriented is the correct answer because this data communication protocol is based on individual bits and the position of those bits. It focuses on the transmission and interpretation of binary data, where each bit holds significance in conveying information. This protocol ensures that data is transmitted accurately and efficiently by considering the specific arrangement and order of the bits.

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  • 12. 

    Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

    • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

    • Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

    • Network Time Protocol (NTP)

    • Packet Internet Groper (PING)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network Time Protocol (NTP)
    Explanation
    Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is designed to allow accurate and reliable time synchronization between systems by exchanging time information between clients and servers. It ensures that all devices on the network have consistent time settings, which is crucial for various network operations, such as logging, authentication, and coordination of events. SNMP is used for network management, DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses, and PING is used for network troubleshooting, but none of these protocols specifically deal with clock synchronization.

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  • 13. 

    Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

    • Bus

    • Ring

    • Star

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Ring
    Explanation
    In a ring topology, the stations are connected in the form of a circle. Each station is connected to two neighboring stations, forming a closed loop. This allows data to be transmitted in both directions around the ring. When a station wants to transmit data, it passes through each station in the ring until it reaches its destination. This topology is commonly used in local area networks (LANs) and is known for its simplicity and efficiency.

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  • 14. 

    Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

    • Bus

    • Ring

    • Star

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Hybrid
    Explanation
    A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that different types of topologies, such as bus, ring, or star, are interconnected to create a more complex and versatile network. This allows for increased flexibility and scalability, as different segments of the network can be designed to meet specific requirements. Additionally, a hybrid topology provides redundancy and fault tolerance, as failures in one segment of the network do not affect the entire network.

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  • 15. 

    The three cornerstones of voice network systems are availability,

    • Circumvention, and confidentiality

    • Circumvention, and disclosure

    • Confidentiality, and integrity

    • Disclosure, and integrity

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality, and integrity
    Explanation
    Confidentiality and integrity are the two key aspects of voice network systems. Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information transmitted over the network remains private and is only accessible to authorized individuals. Integrity, on the other hand, guarantees that the information remains unchanged and uncorrupted during transmission. These two cornerstones are essential for maintaining the security and reliability of voice network systems.

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  • 16. 

    In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

    • Facilitate the detection of intruders

    • Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone

    • Provide security forces personnel a safe place to work

    • To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry

    Correct Answer
    A. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry
    Explanation
    The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. The fence acts as a physical barrier that makes it difficult for intruders to gain access to the protected area. Additionally, the presence of a fence can create a psychological deterrent by signaling that the area is secure and monitored, discouraging potential intruders from attempting unauthorized entry.

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  • 17. 

    Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

    • Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)

    • Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)

    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)

    • Client Systems (3D1X1)

    Correct Answer
    A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3) because this career field specifically deals with deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices. This field focuses on working with various types of transmission devices and ensuring their proper functioning and maintenance.

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  • 18. 

    What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • Core duty.

    • Core value.

    • Core competency.

    • Core responsibility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Core competency.
    Explanation
    Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that an individual or organization possesses, which sets them apart from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for achieving success and competitive advantage in the industry. They represent the key areas of expertise and skills that are crucial for performing the core duties and responsibilities of a particular career field. Core values, core responsibilities, and core duties may be important aspects of a career, but they do not encompass the comprehensive expertise and skills that core competency entails.

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  • 19. 

    Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    • Physical

    • Stress

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress
    Explanation
    Stress is caused by various factors such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working alone, and conflict with coworkers and employers. These factors can lead to increased pressure and tension, affecting an individual's mental and physical well-being. Stress can have negative effects on productivity, performance, and overall health. It is important to address and manage stress in the workplace to maintain a healthy and productive work environment.

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  • 20. 

    When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

    • Trainer

    • Certifier

    • Technician

    • Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    In electrical circuits, the role of a safety observer is crucial to ensure the safety of the individuals working on the circuits. The supervisor is the most suitable candidate for this role as they have the authority and responsibility to oversee the work being done. They can monitor the procedures, identify any potential hazards, and take necessary actions to prevent accidents or injuries. Additionally, supervisors are typically experienced and knowledgeable in electrical safety protocols, making them well-equipped to fulfill the role of a safety observer.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept unnecessary risk

    • Apply the RM process continuously

    • Train and adhere to safety guidelines

    • Make risk decisions at the lowest level

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the RM process continuously
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Apply the RM process continuously." This principle of risk management emphasizes the need to consistently and regularly apply the risk management process. Risk management is not a one-time activity but an ongoing process that involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. By continuously applying the RM process, organizations can ensure that risks are effectively managed and that any changes or new risks are promptly addressed. This helps in maintaining a proactive approach towards risk management and minimizing the potential impact of risks on the organization.

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  • 22. 

    The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

    • Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host

    • Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down

    • Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords

    • Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed

    Correct Answer
    A. Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down
    Explanation
    A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows down the device because it needs to constantly monitor and analyze the system's activities and events. This continuous monitoring and analysis require processing power and memory, which can impact the overall performance of the host. As a result, the device may experience slower response times and decreased efficiency.

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  • 23. 

    Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

    • Cable

    • Circuit

    • Facility

    • Equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable
    Explanation
    Cable is the correct answer because it is the type of shielding that utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor. Cable shielding is used to protect the conductor from electromagnetic interference and to prevent signal leakage. It helps to maintain the integrity and quality of the signal being transmitted through the cable.

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  • 24. 

    What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

    • Protection from noise

    • Protection from lightning

    • Protection from blackouts

    • Protection from brownouts

    Correct Answer
    A. Protection from lightning
    Explanation
    An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. This system helps to divert the lightning strike safely into the ground, preventing damage to the facility and ensuring the safety of the people inside.

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  • 25. 

    Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Spike
    Explanation
    A spike is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage. This sudden surge in voltage can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances connected to the power line. Spikes can occur due to lightning strikes, power surges, or other electrical disturbances. It is important to protect sensitive electronics with surge protectors to prevent damage from these voltage spikes.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

    • Unshielded

    • Shielded

    • Twisted pair

    • Multipair

    Correct Answer
    A. Shielded
    Explanation
    Shielded cables are designed to minimize electromagnetic interference (EMI) by using a conductive layer (usually made of metal) surrounding the inner conductors. This conductive layer acts as a shield, preventing the cable from radiating energy and also protecting it from nearby magnetic fields. This shielding helps to maintain signal integrity and reduce the chances of data corruption or loss. Therefore, shielded cables are the type of cables that do not radiate energy and are not affected by nearby magnetic fields.

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  • 27. 

    What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

    • The use of light-emitting diodes

    • The broad bandwidth of the cable

    • The low signal to noise ratio of the cable

    • The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of light-emitting diodes
    Explanation
    The use of light-emitting diodes has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable because LEDs can emit light at high frequencies, allowing for the transmission of large amounts of data. The high frequency of light signals enables faster data transfer rates, making it possible to achieve high data rates on fiber optics cables.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

    • Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4)

    • Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)

    • File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

    • G.711

    Correct Answer
    A. Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4)
    Explanation
    Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4) is an example of a video compression standard. MPEG-4 is a widely used format for compressing audio and video files, allowing for efficient storage and transmission of multimedia content. It is commonly used for streaming videos over the internet and is supported by a wide range of devices and platforms. JPEG, FTP, and G.711 are not video compression standards, but rather relate to image compression, file transfer, and audio compression, respectively.

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  • 29. 

    Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet Protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

    • IP

    • Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

    • Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that is used to match a known IP address to a MAC address. It is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses so that data can be properly delivered on a local network. ARP works by broadcasting a request to all devices on the network, asking for the MAC address associated with a specific IP address. The device that matches the IP address responds with its MAC address, allowing communication to occur at the data link layer.

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  • 30. 

    Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

    • Department of Defense network

    • Air Force network

    • Local area network

    • A public network

    Correct Answer
    A. A public network
    Explanation
    VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. A public network refers to a network that is accessible to the general public, such as the internet. By using a VPN, the AF can securely connect to and access resources on a public network, while maintaining the privacy and security of their data. This is achieved by encrypting the data transmitted over the VPN connection, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized parties.

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  • 31. 

    The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

    • Lag

    • Hop

    • Latency

    • Time zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Latency
    Explanation
    Latency refers to the time it takes for a switch to determine the appropriate destination for a data unit. It represents the delay or time lag in forwarding the data. This delay can be caused by various factors such as the processing time of the switch, the distance between the switch and the destination, and the congestion in the network. Therefore, latency is the correct answer as it accurately describes the time it takes for a switch to determine the forwarding path for a data unit.

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  • 32. 

    What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLANs)between switches using a single physical link?

    • VLAN trunks

    • VLAN frames

    • VLAN links

    • VLAN ports

    Correct Answer
    A. VLAN trunks
    Explanation
    VLAN trunks allow the transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. Trunks are configured to carry traffic from multiple VLANs over a single connection, allowing for efficient use of network resources. By tagging each frame with a VLAN identifier, the switches can differentiate and forward traffic belonging to different VLANs. This enables the switches to maintain VLAN segregation and ensure that the correct VLAN traffic reaches its intended destination.

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  • 33. 

    What identifier differentiates one Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) from another?

    • Hostname

    • Network name

    • Service Set Identifier (SSID)

    • Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID)

    Correct Answer
    A. Service Set Identifier (SSID)
    Explanation
    The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the correct answer because it is a unique identifier that distinguishes one Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) from another. The SSID is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is assigned to a WLAN, and it allows devices to connect to the correct network. The SSID is broadcasted by the wireless access point, allowing devices to identify and connect to the desired WLAN.

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  • 34. 

    A Management Interface Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

    • Alphabetically

    • Hierarchically

    • Numerically

    • Objectively

    Correct Answer
    A. Hierarchically
    Explanation
    A Management Interface Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information in the MIB is structured in a way that reflects a hierarchy or a tree-like structure. The hierarchy allows for easy navigation and categorization of the information, with higher-level categories or nodes containing more general information and lower-level categories or nodes containing more specific information. This hierarchical organization helps in efficiently managing and accessing the information in the MIB.

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  • 35. 

    What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

    • Baud rate

    • Interface speed

    • Bits per second

    • Baud per second

    Correct Answer
    A. Bits per second
    Explanation
    Bits per second is the most commonly used term in data systems to express signaling speed. The signaling speed is measured in terms of the number of bits transmitted or received per second. Baud rate refers to the number of signal changes per second and is used in analog signaling systems. Interface speed is a general term that can refer to various aspects of data transmission. Baud per second is not a commonly used term and is not a correct answer in this context.

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  • 36. 

    Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks

    • Commercial providers

    • National Security Agency (NSA)

    • Air Force Space Command (AFSPC)

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communication and information technology services to the Department of Defense. They manage and operate the DOD Information Network (DODIN), which includes satellite communications systems, to ensure that DOD personnel have access to the necessary communication capabilities. DISA's expertise and infrastructure make them the preferred agency for providing these transport services.

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  • 37. 

    What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

    • Data networks only

    • Voice networks only

    • Both voice and data networks

    • Neither voice nor data networks

    Correct Answer
    A. Both voice and data networks
    Explanation
    Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the merging of voice and data networks, which increases the risk of security breaches. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can establish comprehensive measures to protect against potential threats and vulnerabilities. This ensures that all aspects of the network infrastructure are adequately secured, reducing the likelihood of unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security incidents.

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  • 38. 

    What are attempts to gain access to a switch by posing as an authorized user?

    • Toll fraud

    • War dialing

    • Masquerades

    • Denial of service

    Correct Answer
    A. Masquerades
    Explanation
    Masquerades refer to attempts to gain access to a switch by posing as an authorized user. This involves pretending to be someone else in order to deceive the system and gain unauthorized access. It is a form of social engineering where the attacker tries to exploit trust and impersonate a legitimate user to bypass security measures.

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  • 39. 

    What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

    • None

    • Tamper

    • Intruder

    • Equipment fault

    Correct Answer
    A. Tamper
    Explanation
    If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is designed to alert the system that someone has tampered with the sensor by removing its cover. This could indicate an attempt to disable or bypass the sensor, potentially indicating unauthorized access or intrusion.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

    • Fixed cable systems

    • Voice network systems.

    • Application software systems

    • Client-server database systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Voice network systems.
    Explanation
    Voice network systems are a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems. This means that Cyber Transport Systems specialize in developing and managing voice network systems, which involve the transmission of voice signals over a network infrastructure. This competency suggests that Cyber Transport Systems have the expertise and capabilities to design, implement, and maintain voice communication systems, making them a trusted provider in this area.

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  • 41. 

    Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    • Physical

    • Nuclear

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear
    Explanation
    Nuclear is not one of the four major types of hazards because the four major types of hazards are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear hazards. Since nuclear is listed as one of the options, it cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, the correct answer must be nuclear.

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  • 42. 

    Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

    • Passive standby

    • Line interactive

    • Double conversion

    • Ferro resonant standby

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive standby
    Explanation
    Passive standby is traditionally referred to as an "offline" uninterruptible power supply (UPS). In this type of UPS, the load is directly connected to the main power source, and the UPS remains inactive until a power outage occurs. When a power outage is detected, the UPS quickly switches to battery power to provide uninterrupted power to the load. This type of UPS is considered "offline" because it operates in standby mode and only becomes active during power disruptions.

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  • 43. 

    Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

    • Emitter

    • Receiver

    • Transmitter

    • Synchronizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver
    Explanation
    The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. This section is responsible for receiving the transmitted test pattern and comparing it with the expected pattern to determine the number of bit errors. It analyzes the received signal quality and provides valuable information about the performance of the communication system under test.

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  • 44. 

    Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

    • Internet Protocol (IP)

    • User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

    • Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

    • Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
    Explanation
    TCP provides reliable data delivery services because it guarantees that data sent from one device will reach the destination device without errors or loss. It achieves this through the use of acknowledgments, sequence numbers, and retransmissions. TCP also ensures that data is delivered in the correct order and handles congestion control to prevent network congestion.

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  • 45. 

    Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address are represented by?

    • 8 groups of dotted decimal numbers

    • 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers

    • 4 dotted decimal numbers

    • 128 decimal numbers

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers
    Explanation
    IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. Each group is separated by a colon (:), and each group consists of four hexadecimal digits. This representation allows for a much larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses represented by 4 dotted decimal numbers. The use of hexadecimal numbers in IPv6 also simplifies address configuration and makes it easier for humans to read and remember the addresses.

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  • 46. 

    Which router port is used for initial configuration?

    • Auxiliary

    • Console

    • Ethernet

    • Telnet

    Correct Answer
    A. Console
    Explanation
    The console port is used for the initial configuration of a router. This port allows a direct physical connection between a computer or terminal and the router, enabling the user to access the router's command-line interface (CLI) and configure its settings. The console port is typically used when setting up a new router or troubleshooting network connectivity issues. It provides a reliable and secure method of accessing the router's configuration and management features. The other options listed (Auxiliary, Ethernet, and Telnet) are not typically used for the initial configuration of a router.

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  • 47. 

    Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

    • Physical

    • Logical

    • Hybrid

    • Star

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Logical" because the logical topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It focuses on the flow of data and the logical connections between devices, rather than the physical layout of the network. This includes concepts such as how data is routed, how devices are addressed, and how data is organized and transmitted.

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  • 48. 

    Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

    • Switch

    • Firewall

    • Gateway

    • Repeater

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch
    Explanation
    A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets between devices on the same network. By connecting multiple devices to different ports on a switch, it allows for efficient communication and prevents network congestion. Unlike a repeater, which simply amplifies and extends network signals, a switch intelligently directs traffic to the appropriate destination, improving network performance. Firewalls and gateways, on the other hand, are network security devices that control and monitor traffic flow between different networks.

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  • 49. 

    How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. This is because binary signals are used in digital systems where information is represented using only two states, on and off. The two voltage levels allow for the encoding and transmission of information in a simple and efficient manner.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 18, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Vamp8267
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