CDC Z3d152 UREs Volumes 1&2 Mixed

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1. To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

Explanation

The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that everyone within an organization, regardless of their role or department, is responsible for identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. It emphasizes the importance of a collective effort in managing risks and ensuring the safety and well-being of all individuals involved. By involving all personnel in the RM process, organizations can benefit from a wider range of perspectives and expertise, leading to more effective risk management strategies.

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About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge in deploying, sustaining, and troubleshooting communication systems in the Air Force, focusing on radio frequency and cyber transport systems. It evaluates core competencies and... see moreadherence to safety standards, essential for professionals in military communications. see less

2. Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

Explanation

Noise is the correct answer because electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference are both forms of electrical disturbances that can cause unwanted signals or disruptions in power lines. These disturbances can be caused by various factors such as electrical equipment, power surges, or external sources. Therefore, the category that encompasses these types of interference is referred to as "noise".

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3. Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

Explanation

Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is designed to allow accurate and reliable time synchronization between systems by exchanging time information between clients and servers. It ensures that all devices on the network have consistent time settings, which is crucial for various network operations, such as logging, authentication, and coordination of events. SNMP is used for network management, DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses, and PING is used for network troubleshooting, but none of these protocols specifically deal with clock synchronization.

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4. The three cornerstones of voice network systems are availability,

Explanation

Confidentiality and integrity are the two key aspects of voice network systems. Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information transmitted over the network remains private and is only accessible to authorized individuals. Integrity, on the other hand, guarantees that the information remains unchanged and uncorrupted during transmission. These two cornerstones are essential for maintaining the security and reliability of voice network systems.

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5. When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

Explanation

Metal framed eyeglasses conduct electricity, so wearing them while working on electrical circuits can be dangerous. However, if the eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord, it reduces the risk of them falling onto the circuit and causing a short circuit or electrical shock. This safety precaution ensures that even if the glasses accidentally come off, they will not pose a threat to the person working on the circuit.

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6. What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

Explanation

Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing strategies to mitigate or control them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can ensure the safety of their personnel and equipment, while still achieving their mission objectives. Safety control and safety management are related concepts, but they specifically focus on ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment, whereas risk management encompasses a broader approach that addresses both safety and combat capability.

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7. What is the first line of defense in securing laptops

Explanation

The first line of defense in securing laptops is to set a login ID and password combination for access. This ensures that only authorized individuals can gain access to the laptop and its contents. It acts as a barrier against unauthorized access and protects sensitive information from being compromised. Installing biometrics and encryption certificates, placing a lock on the computer, and storing it in a locked case can provide additional layers of security, but setting a login ID and password is the initial and fundamental step in securing a laptop.

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8. In Binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

Explanation

In Binary-synchronous protocol, the characters that establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission are represented by the "SYN" character. This character is used to signal the start and end of a transmission block, ensuring that the sender and receiver are in sync and can properly interpret the data being transmitted.

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9. Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

Explanation

Bit-oriented is the correct answer because this data communication protocol is based on individual bits and the position of those bits. It focuses on the transmission and interpretation of binary data, where each bit holds significance in conveying information. This protocol ensures that data is transmitted accurately and efficiently by considering the specific arrangement and order of the bits.

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10. Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current. When a person walks across a carpet, friction is created between their shoes and the carpet, causing the transfer of electrons between the two surfaces. This transfer of electrons creates an imbalance of charges, resulting in the buildup of static electricity. As a result, walking across carpet generates a higher amount of electrostatic current compared to the other activities mentioned.

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11. Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Explanation

A blackout is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power. During a blackout, there is a complete and sudden loss of electricity in an area, resulting in a complete loss of utility power. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or a disruption in the power grid. During a blackout, all electrical appliances and systems relying on utility power will cease to function until power is restored.

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12. What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

Explanation

The correct answer is RJ-45. RJ-45 is the standard conductor used for data networking. It is a type of connector commonly used for Ethernet connections. RJ-45 connectors have eight pins and are used to connect network devices such as computers, routers, and switches. They are widely used in both residential and commercial settings for wired internet connections. RJ-11, RJ-15, and RJ-49 are not commonly used for data networking and are typically used for telephone connections.

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13. Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

Explanation

In a ring topology, the stations are connected in the form of a circle. Each station is connected to two neighboring stations, forming a closed loop. This allows data to be transmitted in both directions around the ring. When a station wants to transmit data, it passes through each station in the ring until it reaches its destination. This topology is commonly used in local area networks (LANs) and is known for its simplicity and efficiency.

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14. What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

Explanation

The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is a commonly used active test on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the target node and waits for a response. If the target node responds, it indicates that the node is connected and responsive. PING is a simple and effective way to check the connectivity and response time of a network node.

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15. In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

Explanation

The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. The fence acts as a physical barrier that makes it difficult for intruders to gain access to the protected area. Additionally, the presence of a fence can create a psychological deterrent by signaling that the area is secure and monitored, discouraging potential intruders from attempting unauthorized entry.

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16. Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that different types of topologies, such as bus, ring, or star, are interconnected to create a more complex and versatile network. This allows for increased flexibility and scalability, as different segments of the network can be designed to meet specific requirements. Additionally, a hybrid topology provides redundancy and fault tolerance, as failures in one segment of the network do not affect the entire network.

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17. What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

Explanation

Bits per second is the most commonly used term in data systems to express signaling speed. The signaling speed is measured in terms of the number of bits transmitted or received per second. Baud rate refers to the number of signal changes per second and is used in analog signaling systems. Interface speed is a general term that can refer to various aspects of data transmission. Baud per second is not a commonly used term and is not a correct answer in this context.

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18. What are attempts to gain access to a switch by posing as an authorized user?

Explanation

Masquerades refer to attempts to gain access to a switch by posing as an authorized user. This involves pretending to be someone else in order to deceive the system and gain unauthorized access. It is a form of social engineering where the attacker tries to exploit trust and impersonate a legitimate user to bypass security measures.

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19. The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

Explanation

Latency refers to the time it takes for a switch to determine the appropriate destination for a data unit. It represents the delay or time lag in forwarding the data. This delay can be caused by various factors such as the processing time of the switch, the distance between the switch and the destination, and the congestion in the network. Therefore, latency is the correct answer as it accurately describes the time it takes for a switch to determine the forwarding path for a data unit.

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20. What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLANs)between switches using a single physical link?

Explanation

VLAN trunks allow the transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. Trunks are configured to carry traffic from multiple VLANs over a single connection, allowing for efficient use of network resources. By tagging each frame with a VLAN identifier, the switches can differentiate and forward traffic belonging to different VLANs. This enables the switches to maintain VLAN segregation and ensure that the correct VLAN traffic reaches its intended destination.

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21. What identifier differentiates one Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) from another?

Explanation

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the correct answer because it is a unique identifier that distinguishes one Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) from another. The SSID is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is assigned to a WLAN, and it allows devices to connect to the correct network. The SSID is broadcasted by the wireless access point, allowing devices to identify and connect to the desired WLAN.

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22. Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3) because this career field specifically deals with deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices. This field focuses on working with various types of transmission devices and ensuring their proper functioning and maintenance.

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23. What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

Explanation

Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that an individual or organization possesses, which sets them apart from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for achieving success and competitive advantage in the industry. They represent the key areas of expertise and skills that are crucial for performing the core duties and responsibilities of a particular career field. Core values, core responsibilities, and core duties may be important aspects of a career, but they do not encompass the comprehensive expertise and skills that core competency entails.

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24. Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Explanation

Stress is caused by various factors such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working alone, and conflict with coworkers and employers. These factors can lead to increased pressure and tension, affecting an individual's mental and physical well-being. Stress can have negative effects on productivity, performance, and overall health. It is important to address and manage stress in the workplace to maintain a healthy and productive work environment.

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25. When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

Explanation

In electrical circuits, the role of a safety observer is crucial to ensure the safety of the individuals working on the circuits. The supervisor is the most suitable candidate for this role as they have the authority and responsibility to oversee the work being done. They can monitor the procedures, identify any potential hazards, and take necessary actions to prevent accidents or injuries. Additionally, supervisors are typically experienced and knowledgeable in electrical safety protocols, making them well-equipped to fulfill the role of a safety observer.

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26. Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Apply the RM process continuously." This principle of risk management emphasizes the need to consistently and regularly apply the risk management process. Risk management is not a one-time activity but an ongoing process that involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks. By continuously applying the RM process, organizations can ensure that risks are effectively managed and that any changes or new risks are promptly addressed. This helps in maintaining a proactive approach towards risk management and minimizing the potential impact of risks on the organization.

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27. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. A public network refers to a network that is accessible to the general public, such as the internet. By using a VPN, the AF can securely connect to and access resources on a public network, while maintaining the privacy and security of their data. This is achieved by encrypting the data transmitted over the VPN connection, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized parties.

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28. The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows down the device because it needs to constantly monitor and analyze the system's activities and events. This continuous monitoring and analysis require processing power and memory, which can impact the overall performance of the host. As a result, the device may experience slower response times and decreased efficiency.

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29. Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

Explanation

Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4) is an example of a video compression standard. MPEG-4 is a widely used format for compressing audio and video files, allowing for efficient storage and transmission of multimedia content. It is commonly used for streaming videos over the internet and is supported by a wide range of devices and platforms. JPEG, FTP, and G.711 are not video compression standards, but rather relate to image compression, file transfer, and audio compression, respectively.

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30. What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

Explanation

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the merging of voice and data networks, which increases the risk of security breaches. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can establish comprehensive measures to protect against potential threats and vulnerabilities. This ensures that all aspects of the network infrastructure are adequately secured, reducing the likelihood of unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security incidents.

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31. Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

Explanation

Cable is the correct answer because it is the type of shielding that utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor. Cable shielding is used to protect the conductor from electromagnetic interference and to prevent signal leakage. It helps to maintain the integrity and quality of the signal being transmitted through the cable.

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32. What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

Explanation

An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. This system helps to divert the lightning strike safely into the ground, preventing damage to the facility and ensuring the safety of the people inside.

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33. Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

Explanation

A spike is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage. This sudden surge in voltage can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances connected to the power line. Spikes can occur due to lightning strikes, power surges, or other electrical disturbances. It is important to protect sensitive electronics with surge protectors to prevent damage from these voltage spikes.

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34. Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communication and information technology services to the Department of Defense. They manage and operate the DOD Information Network (DODIN), which includes satellite communications systems, to ensure that DOD personnel have access to the necessary communication capabilities. DISA's expertise and infrastructure make them the preferred agency for providing these transport services.

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35. Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

Explanation

Shielded cables are designed to minimize electromagnetic interference (EMI) by using a conductive layer (usually made of metal) surrounding the inner conductors. This conductive layer acts as a shield, preventing the cable from radiating energy and also protecting it from nearby magnetic fields. This shielding helps to maintain signal integrity and reduce the chances of data corruption or loss. Therefore, shielded cables are the type of cables that do not radiate energy and are not affected by nearby magnetic fields.

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36. What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

Explanation

The use of light-emitting diodes has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable because LEDs can emit light at high frequencies, allowing for the transmission of large amounts of data. The high frequency of light signals enables faster data transfer rates, making it possible to achieve high data rates on fiber optics cables.

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37. A Management Interface Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

Explanation

A Management Interface Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information in the MIB is structured in a way that reflects a hierarchy or a tree-like structure. The hierarchy allows for easy navigation and categorization of the information, with higher-level categories or nodes containing more general information and lower-level categories or nodes containing more specific information. This hierarchical organization helps in efficiently managing and accessing the information in the MIB.

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38. Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet Protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

Explanation

The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that is used to match a known IP address to a MAC address. It is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses so that data can be properly delivered on a local network. ARP works by broadcasting a request to all devices on the network, asking for the MAC address associated with a specific IP address. The device that matches the IP address responds with its MAC address, allowing communication to occur at the data link layer.

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39. What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

Explanation

If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is designed to alert the system that someone has tampered with the sensor by removing its cover. This could indicate an attempt to disable or bypass the sensor, potentially indicating unauthorized access or intrusion.

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40. Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address are represented by?

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. Each group is separated by a colon (:), and each group consists of four hexadecimal digits. This representation allows for a much larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses represented by 4 dotted decimal numbers. The use of hexadecimal numbers in IPv6 also simplifies address configuration and makes it easier for humans to read and remember the addresses.

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41. Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

Explanation

A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets between devices on the same network. By connecting multiple devices to different ports on a switch, it allows for efficient communication and prevents network congestion. Unlike a repeater, which simply amplifies and extends network signals, a switch intelligently directs traffic to the appropriate destination, improving network performance. Firewalls and gateways, on the other hand, are network security devices that control and monitor traffic flow between different networks.

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42. How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

Explanation

A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. This is because binary signals are used in digital systems where information is represented using only two states, on and off. The two voltage levels allow for the encoding and transmission of information in a simple and efficient manner.

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43. Which router port is used for initial configuration?

Explanation

The console port is used for the initial configuration of a router. This port allows a direct physical connection between a computer or terminal and the router, enabling the user to access the router's command-line interface (CLI) and configure its settings. The console port is typically used when setting up a new router or troubleshooting network connectivity issues. It provides a reliable and secure method of accessing the router's configuration and management features. The other options listed (Auxiliary, Ethernet, and Telnet) are not typically used for the initial configuration of a router.

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44. Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

Explanation

Voice network systems are a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems. This means that Cyber Transport Systems specialize in developing and managing voice network systems, which involve the transmission of voice signals over a network infrastructure. This competency suggests that Cyber Transport Systems have the expertise and capabilities to design, implement, and maintain voice communication systems, making them a trusted provider in this area.

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45. Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

Explanation

Nuclear is not one of the four major types of hazards because the four major types of hazards are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear hazards. Since nuclear is listed as one of the options, it cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, the correct answer must be nuclear.

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46. In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Walking, running rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection." In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection is the boundary or area that is being monitored for any unauthorized access or intrusion. The IDS must be able to detect any movement or activity that occurs within this line of detection, whether it is walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping. This ensures that any potential intruders who try to breach the system by physically crossing the line of detection are detected and alerted.

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47. The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to

Explanation

Measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them ensures that dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is important for the safety of the person working on the circuit, as well as to prevent any damage or harm that could be caused by the presence of high voltages. By measuring the voltage, one can determine if it is safe to proceed with the replacement without risking injury or damage.

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48. Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

Explanation

Passive standby is traditionally referred to as an "offline" uninterruptible power supply (UPS). In this type of UPS, the load is directly connected to the main power source, and the UPS remains inactive until a power outage occurs. When a power outage is detected, the UPS quickly switches to battery power to provide uninterrupted power to the load. This type of UPS is considered "offline" because it operates in standby mode and only becomes active during power disruptions.

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49. Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Logical" because the logical topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It focuses on the flow of data and the logical connections between devices, rather than the physical layout of the network. This includes concepts such as how data is routed, how devices are addressed, and how data is organized and transmitted.

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50. Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

Explanation

The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. This section is responsible for receiving the transmitted test pattern and comparing it with the expected pattern to determine the number of bit errors. It analyzes the received signal quality and provides valuable information about the performance of the communication system under test.

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51. Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

Explanation

TCP provides reliable data delivery services because it guarantees that data sent from one device will reach the destination device without errors or loss. It achieves this through the use of acknowledgments, sequence numbers, and retransmissions. TCP also ensures that data is delivered in the correct order and handles congestion control to prevent network congestion.

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52. The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

Explanation

The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a gatehouse, which serves as a control center for monitoring and managing access to the facility. The personnel entry gate is where individuals enter and exit the facility, and it is typically equipped with security measures such as access control systems or identification checks. Inspection equipment is necessary to screen people and their belongings for any prohibited items or threats. The vehicle entrapment area is a designated space where vehicles can be inspected and detained if necessary.

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53. Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and

Explanation

Combined distribution frames combine the functions of a main distribution frame and an intermediate distribution frame. An intermediate distribution frame is a device used in telecommunications to connect multiple incoming and outgoing lines. By combining these two functions into one frame, it allows for more efficient and streamlined distribution of signals. This eliminates the need for separate frames and simplifies the overall network infrastructure.

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54. Individual pulses within a digital signal are

Explanation

Individual pulses within a digital signal are referred to as bits. A bit is the smallest unit of information in computing and digital communications. It can represent a binary value of either 0 or 1. In digital systems, data is transmitted and stored in the form of bits, which can be combined to form larger units such as bytes, codes, or blocks. However, in the context of the given question, the correct answer is bits because it specifically asks about individual pulses within a digital signal.

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55. Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

Explanation

Internet backbones use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is specifically designed for large-scale networks and is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It allows internet service providers (ISPs) to determine the best path for data packets to travel across multiple networks, ensuring efficient and reliable routing. BGP is known for its scalability, stability, and ability to handle complex routing policies, making it the preferred choice for internet backbone routing.

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56. In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

Explanation

Return-to-zero is a type of digital signal in which the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. Unlike non-return-to-zero (NRZ) signals, which maintain a constant signal level until a change is needed, return-to-zero signals reset to zero after each bit. This helps in synchronization and allows for easy detection of bit boundaries.

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57. Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Explanation

AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed to document and report any unsafe conditions or situations that may pose a threat to the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel or property. By using AF Form 457, individuals can effectively communicate and report these hazardous conditions to the appropriate authorities, ensuring that necessary actions are taken to mitigate the risks and maintain a safe environment for all.

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58. How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

Explanation

The correct answer is five because the risk management process typically consists of five steps: risk identification, risk analysis, risk evaluation, risk treatment, and risk monitoring. These steps are followed to systematically identify, assess, and mitigate potential risks in order to minimize their impact on a project or organization.

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59. An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

Explanation

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a Category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave lacks the necessary security measures to protect against unauthorized access and potential attacks. Without a firewall, the enclave is vulnerable to network-based attacks, while the absence of an IDS leaves it exposed to intrusion attempts that may go undetected. This combination of vulnerabilities puts the enclave at high risk of compromise and unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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60. You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

Explanation

The correct answer is consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN). This is because consolidating voice and data on the same VLAN can increase the risk of attacks as it exposes the voice traffic to potential security breaches. It is recommended to separate voice and data traffic using separate VLANs to enhance security. The other options mentioned, such as enabling access control lists (ACL), deploying protection from DHCP spoofing, and enabling port security access, are all valid security measures to defend IP telephony systems from attackers.

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61. In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

Explanation

In the OSI model, a layer communicates with the layer above it, the layer below it, and its peer layer. However, the "lowest layer" does not exist in the OSI model. The OSI model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. Therefore, "lowest layer" is not one of the layers that a layer communicates with in the OSI model.

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62. Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

Explanation

Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors detect changes in the infrared energy emitted by objects in their field of view. When an intruder enters the sensor's range, their body heat causes a change in the infrared energy pattern, triggering the alarm. This makes passive infrared sensors an effective choice for interior intrusion detection systems as they can accurately detect human presence based on heat radiation.

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63. The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

Explanation

Integrity, in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption, refers to the assurance that no unauthorized individual has tampered with or destroyed information without permission. It ensures the accuracy and reliability of data by preventing unauthorized modifications or deletions. This aspect of integrity is crucial for maintaining data integrity and trust in the network.

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64. Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

Explanation

The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This implies that the validation process involves significant costs, which may include the fees for the certification authority, specialized equipment, and expert personnel. By requiring validation, the authorities ensure that the investment in TEMPEST-certified equipment is justified and that the equipment meets the necessary standards to protect against electromagnetic radiation and potential security breaches.

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65. What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

Explanation

Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves using materials or structures that can block or absorb electromagnetic waves, preventing them from interfering with the functioning of electronic equipment. It creates a barrier between the equipment and external sources of interference, ensuring that the signals remain clear and undisturbed. By implementing shielding measures, the integrity and reliability of electronic systems can be maintained.

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66. Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

Explanation

Class I electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) devices have a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. This means that they can detect and be affected by electrostatic discharges within this voltage range. Class II, III, and IV ESD devices have different sensitivity ranges and are not applicable in this case.

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67. What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

Explanation

The terms "tip" and "ring" are commonly used in telecommunications to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable. The tip refers to the positive side of the circuit, while the ring refers to the negative side. By using these terms, it becomes easier to distinguish and connect the wires correctly, ensuring proper signal transmission.

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68. Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

Explanation

In a typical EIA/TIA 568B connector, Pin 1 is indicated by the color white/orange. The EIA/TIA 568B standard is commonly used for Ethernet connections, and it specifies the color coding for the different pins in the connector. In this standard, Pin 1 corresponds to the white/orange wire.

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69. If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?

Explanation

Technical Control Facilities are required to obtain the latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration. This document is important because it provides information about the circuit configuration, which is necessary for troubleshooting and maintaining the circuit. It ensures that the circuit can be restored accurately in case the circuit files are lost or destroyed. The original TSO and the original circuit test data may not be sufficient as they may not reflect the current configuration. Similarly, the latest TSO and the latest circuit test data are not necessary if they do not reflect the current configuration.

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70. When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

Explanation

When using a polishing cloth, it is important to remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time. This is done in order to achieve a flat and level surface. By gradually removing the fiber, the cloth can be smoothed out until it is completely flat and level, ensuring a proper polishing process.

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71. When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

Explanation

The common terminal jack is always used when a multimeter has three input terminal jacks. This is because the common terminal serves as the reference point for measuring voltage, amperage, and frequency. It is connected to the ground or the negative terminal of the circuit being measured. By using the common terminal, the multimeter can accurately measure the potential difference or current flow between the other terminal jacks and the common terminal.

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72. When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

Explanation

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person taking the reading and to prevent any damage to the ohmmeter or the circuit itself. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electrical shock or short-circuiting is minimized, allowing for a more accurate and safe resistance measurement.

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73. What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

Explanation

Advancing the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far can cause distortion in the observed signal. This means that the waveform on the oscilloscope screen will become distorted and may not accurately represent the original signal. This can happen due to incorrect synchronization between the oscilloscope and the input signal, leading to errors in the displayed waveform.

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74. Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

Explanation

By configuring the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible, it allows for better performance and capacity, which in turn supports a wider range of security services. Memory plays a crucial role in the functioning of network equipment as it stores and processes data. By increasing the memory, the equipment can handle more tasks simultaneously, enabling it to support a broader range of security services effectively. This ensures that the network equipment is capable of handling the necessary resources and processes required for various security services, making it a suitable physical security action.

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75. The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called

Explanation

Sidebands are the signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier. They are created during modulation when the modulating frequencies mix with the carrier frequency. These sidebands contain the information that is being transmitted. Therefore, the correct answer is "Sidebands".

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76. Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

Explanation

The correct answer is Planning. During the planning phase of wireless design, various factors are taken into consideration, including the number of users on the network, the training required for the users, and the security and integrity requirements of the network data. This phase involves analyzing the needs and requirements of the network and developing a comprehensive plan to meet those needs effectively.

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77. To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects alone can put excessive strain on an individual's muscles and joints, increasing the risk of injuries such as strains, sprains, or even more serious conditions like hernias. By using a team lifting approach, the weight is distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of injuries.

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78. At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

Explanation

An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for providing network services to user applications and is where protocols such as HTTP, FTP, and SMTP operate. By operating at this layer, an application-level firewall can monitor and control network traffic based on specific application-level protocols and rules. This allows it to provide more granular control and security for applications and their associated data.

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79. One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) that uses very few network resources is advantageous because it minimizes the impact on network performance. By efficiently utilizing network resources, the NIDS can effectively monitor and analyze network traffic without causing significant slowdowns or disruptions. This allows for continuous monitoring and detection of potential intrusions while maintaining optimal network performance.

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80. Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

Explanation

Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on a monthly basis. This means that the program analyzes data and tracks trends over a month-long period to determine if circuits are meeting the required thresholds set by management. By conducting monthly trend analysis, any issues or deviations from the thresholds can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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81. What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

Explanation

The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series that covers emission security (EMSEC) is the 7000 series. This series specifically focuses on the protection of electromagnetic emissions and ensuring that sensitive information is not leaked through unintentional electromagnetic radiation. EMSEC is crucial in preventing adversaries from intercepting and exploiting these emissions to gather intelligence or compromise the security of Air Force systems.

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82. What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables are designed to withstand high temperatures, and the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable is typically around 1,000°C. This high temperature tolerance allows the cables to be used in various environments, including industrial settings where heat may be a factor. However, it is important to note that the actual maximum operating temperature may vary depending on the specific type and quality of the fiber optic cable being used.

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83. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

Explanation

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. By monitoring network devices and collecting data, SNMP allows administrators to identify areas where the network may need to be expanded or upgraded in order to accommodate increased traffic or new technologies. This helps ensure that the network can support future growth and avoid performance issues.

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84. What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

Explanation

The microprocessor in a digital storage oscilloscope is responsible for taking digitized samples of the input signal and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessor is the central processing unit of the oscilloscope that handles the data processing and analysis tasks.

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85. What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

Explanation

Trace route is the correct answer because it is a network diagnostic tool used to track the path that packets take from one network to another. It shows the intermediate routers and the time it takes for packets to reach their destination. This information is helpful in identifying network issues, such as high latency or packet loss, and can assist in troubleshooting network connectivity problems. The other options, such as route generator, traffic generator, and PING, do not specifically provide the same functionality as trace route in terms of tracking packet paths and measuring their completion time.

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86. Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

Explanation

ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging services for troubleshooting purposes. It is used by network devices to send error messages, diagnostic information, and operational information about network conditions. ICMP messages are often used by network administrators to troubleshoot network connectivity issues, identify network congestion, and diagnose network problems. Therefore, ICMP is the correct answer as it helps with troubleshooting in the network layer.

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87. Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

Explanation

A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and is responsible for directing data between nodes on a network. It acts as a central hub, receiving data packets from different devices and determining the most efficient path for the data to reach its destination. Routers use routing tables and protocols to make these decisions, ensuring that data is sent to the correct destination. Unlike bridges, gateways, and repeaters, routers are specifically designed for network connectivity and data routing.

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88. Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

Explanation

B8ZS is a line coding scheme used in telecommunications to ensure synchronization and prevent long strings of zeros. It intentionally inserts bipolar violations into the data signal, which means it alternates the polarity of the signal to break up consecutive zeros. This helps in maintaining clock recovery and prevents loss of synchronization.

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89. When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

Explanation

When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring the "Enable" password. This password is used to authenticate users and grant them access to the highest level of privilege on the router. By setting the "Enable" password, you can ensure that only authorized individuals can access and make changes to the router's configuration.

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90. Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source?

Explanation

Stratum level 1 is a GPS timing source. This means that it is directly connected to an atomic clock and provides highly accurate timing information. Stratum level 2, 3, and 4 are lower levels that receive timing information from higher stratum levels, such as stratum level 1, and distribute it to other devices. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

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91. The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).

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92. What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Open." An "Open" security posture allows everything unless it is specifically denied. This means that there are no restrictions or limitations on what is allowed, and all access and actions are permitted by default. This approach can be risky as it leaves the system vulnerable to potential threats and breaches, as there are no predefined rules or restrictions in place to protect against unauthorized access or malicious activities.

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93. What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user

Explanation

A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital document that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted third party known as a Certificate Authority (CA). The digital certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in online transactions and communications. It ensures that the user is who they claim to be and helps to establish a secure and encrypted connection between the user and the recipient.

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94. What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

Explanation

The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the ground and the facility should be 10 ohms or lower. This low resistance is important for safety and proper functioning of the equipment, as it helps to prevent electrical shocks, minimize interference, and ensure effective grounding of electrical currents.

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95. Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

Explanation

The number of AC converters required for the facility is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries. The selection of facility batteries is based on factors such as the facility power requirements, the facility power reserve times, and the amount of current and future floor space available. The number of AC converters required is not directly related to the selection of batteries, as it is more related to the electrical infrastructure of the facility.

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96. What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

Explanation

A bipolar violation is the type of error that occurs when two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity violate alternate mark inversion coding rules. In alternate mark inversion coding, consecutive ones must have opposite polarities. A bipolar violation happens when this rule is violated, causing an error in the transmission. This error can lead to data corruption and affect the integrity of the transmitted information.

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97. Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. The component that discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition is the filter. A filter allows the user to specify certain criteria or conditions that need to be met for a frame to be captured or displayed. Frames that do not meet the filter criteria are discarded, allowing the user to focus on the specific network traffic they are interested in analyzing.

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98. In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network by disabling which port?

Explanation

Denying direct dial-in access to a network involves disabling the Auxiliary port. The Auxiliary port is typically used for connecting external modems or other devices for remote management and configuration. By disabling this port, unauthorized users cannot directly dial into the network and gain access. The Console port is used for local management and configuration, the Interface ports are used for connecting network devices, and the Virtual terminal is used for remote access via Telnet or SSH.

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99. What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?

Explanation

DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE) is the web application used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

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100. Which network Class has the most address for hosts?

Explanation

Network Class A has the most address for hosts compared to Class B, C, and D. Class A has a 8-bit network prefix, allowing for a maximum of 16,777,214 host addresses. Class B has a 16-bit network prefix, allowing for a maximum of 65,534 host addresses. Class C has a 24-bit network prefix, allowing for a maximum of 254 host addresses. Class D is reserved for multicast addresses and cannot be used for hosts. Therefore, Class A provides the largest number of host addresses.

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101. How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

Explanation

To support 90 subnets on a Class B network, we need to determine the number of subnet bits required. A Class B network has a default subnet mask of 16 bits for the network portion. To calculate the number of subnet bits required, we need to find the smallest power of 2 that is greater than or equal to 90. The closest power of 2 to 90 is 128, which requires 7 bits. Therefore, 7 subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network.

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102. Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) wireless specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

Explanation

The 802.11a wireless specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices. This is because it operates in the 5 GHz frequency range, which is less crowded compared to the 2.4 GHz frequency range used by 802.11b and 802.11g. Household appliances and medical devices typically operate in the 2.4 GHz range, leading to potential interference with 802.11b and 802.11g signals. Therefore, 802.11a is the best choice for minimizing interference in such environments.

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103. What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?

Explanation

GPS satellites use atomic clocks to provide very precise time to GPS receivers. Atomic clocks are extremely accurate timekeeping devices that rely on the vibrations of atoms to measure time. They are able to maintain accuracy within a few billionths of a second per day. This high level of precision is necessary for GPS satellites to accurately calculate the distance between the satellite and the receiver, which is crucial for determining the receiver's position on Earth. Crystal oscillators, internal timing, and station clocks are not capable of providing the same level of accuracy as atomic clocks.

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104. How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

Explanation

The Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).

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105. Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

Explanation

The earth electrode subsystem consists of bonds that connect various components of an electrical system to the earth. These bonds are designed to be direct and permanent, meaning they provide a continuous and stable connection to the earth. To ensure effective grounding, the resistance of these bonds should be minimal. Therefore, the resistance should not exceed 1 milliohm, allowing for efficient dissipation of electrical currents into the earth.

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106. What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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107. What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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108. How are connectorized cables labeled?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second label is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM". This labeling method ensures clear identification of the connection points and the direction of the signal flow. By placing the labels within 12 inches of the connector, it allows for easy visibility and accessibility. The spacing of two inches between the labels helps to clearly distinguish the "TO" and "FROM" labels, preventing any confusion during cable management and troubleshooting.

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109. Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Explanation

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designed to provide better protection and organization for these types of cables. It may have additional features such as separate compartments or shielding to minimize interference and ensure proper signal transmission.

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110. The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a

Explanation

The correct answer is binder. A binder is a stationary item that is used to hold and organize loose papers or documents. It typically consists of a cover made of thin plastic or cardboard and metal rings that can be opened and closed to add or remove pages. The description in the question matches the features of a binder, as it mentions a thin plastic colored tape spiraling around a specific number of pairs, which likely refers to the rings that hold the pages together.

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111. What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?

Explanation

A scribe is used to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable. A scribe is a tool with a sharp point or blade that can be used to score or scratch the excess fiber, allowing it to be easily broken off. This helps to ensure a clean and smooth finish on the fiber cable after the connector is installed. Strippers, alco wipes, and polishing cloth are not typically used for this purpose.

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112. What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

Explanation

A digital storage oscilloscope normally uses real-time sampling on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals. Real-time sampling captures and digitizes the waveform continuously, allowing for accurate representation of the signal's shape and timing. This is particularly useful for capturing transient or sporadic events that occur infrequently. Sequential sampling, on the other hand, captures the signal in a sequential manner, which may result in missed or distorted data for fast-changing signals. Repetitive sampling is used for signals that repeat regularly, while random sampling is typically used for statistical analysis.

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113. Which interior intrusion detection system is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo or building?

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39 is the correct answer because it is an interior intrusion detection system specifically designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building. The other options, AN/GSS-42, AN/GSS-41, and AN/GSS-29, do not have this specific purpose and are therefore not the correct answer.

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114. Which is not a component of the voice protection system architecture?

Explanation

The voice protection system architecture typically includes components such as servers, software, and appliances. However, a firewall is not considered a component of the voice protection system architecture. Firewalls are primarily used to monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic, ensuring the security of the network and preventing unauthorized access. While firewalls play a crucial role in overall network security, they are not directly related to the voice protection system architecture.

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115. To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than

Explanation

The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) sets limits on the amount of frequency deviation allowed for FM radio stations to prevent interference with each other. In this case, the correct answer is 75 kHz, which means that each station is allowed to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate by a maximum of 75 kHz. This limit ensures that different FM stations can operate on different frequencies without causing interference or overlap.

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116. What are the two major types of frame structures?

Explanation

The correct answer is CCITT and low speed. CCITT stands for Comité Consultatif International Téléphonique et Télégraphique, which is an international organization that sets standards for telecommunications. Low speed refers to a type of frame structure that is used for slower data transmission rates. These two types of frame structures are distinct and commonly used in telecommunications systems.

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117. Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI)are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available?

Explanation

The flight commander determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available. As the person in charge of the flight operations, the flight commander has the authority to make decisions regarding maintenance procedures and inspections in the absence of official manuals or publications. They are responsible for ensuring that the necessary inspections are carried out to maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft.

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118. Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

Explanation

Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all the interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any potential issues that may arise from mismatched speed or duplex settings. By ensuring uniformity, it helps to maintain stability and optimal performance of the EtherChannel.

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119. What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

Explanation

When an alarm is detected, an analog signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor. Analog signals are continuous and can have any value within a certain range. In the case of the FPS, the analog signal would likely represent the specific characteristics of the alarm, such as its intensity or location. This analog signal can then be processed and analyzed by the FPS to determine the appropriate response or action to take.

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120. Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

Explanation

The question asks for the duty and responsibility that is not a part of the communications security program for Cyber Transport Systems. The options include transmission security, technical security, emission security, and physical security. Transmission security involves protecting the integrity and confidentiality of data during transmission. Emission security refers to preventing unauthorized disclosure of information through electromagnetic emissions. Physical security involves safeguarding the physical infrastructure and equipment. Therefore, the correct answer is technical security, as it is not a specific duty or responsibility related to communications security in this context.

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121. Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

Explanation

IP telephony is the correct answer because it refers to the technology of transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). This technology allows for voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines, making it more cost-effective and flexible. IP telephony is commonly known as Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

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122. In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used for?

Explanation

The seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 in common associated signaling (CAS) is used for "Bit robbing." Bit robbing is a technique used in CAS to steal one bit from the least significant digit of each frame in order to carry additional signaling information. This allows for the transmission of more information within the limited number of bits available in each frame.

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123. What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

Explanation

The ability to minimize compromising emanations is influenced by both distance and angle. Distance refers to the physical separation between the conductor and the source of emanations, with greater distance generally resulting in reduced interference. Angle, on the other hand, refers to the orientation or direction of the conductor in relation to the source, and adjusting the angle can help mitigate the impact of emanations. Both factors are important in ensuring effective reduction of compromising emanations.

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124. What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

Explanation

The equipment that should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts is the one processing encrypted classified information. This is because encryption involves the use of algorithms and keys to convert information into a code that can only be deciphered by authorized parties. Therefore, equipment processing encrypted classified information requires additional security measures and controls to protect the sensitive data.

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125. Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

Explanation

Double conversion UPS offers the highest level of protection because it continuously converts incoming AC power to DC power and then back to AC power, ensuring a consistent and clean power supply to connected devices. This process eliminates any fluctuations or disturbances in the incoming power, providing a stable and reliable power source. In case of a power outage or voltage spike, the UPS seamlessly switches to battery power without any interruption, offering maximum protection against power disturbances.

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126. Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?

Explanation

In synchronous data operation, all data bits are the same length in time. This means that each bit in the data stream is transmitted for the same duration, ensuring that the timing of the data is consistent. This characteristic allows for easier synchronization and decoding of the data at the receiving end.

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127. What is the process, or result of process, of modifying (varying) one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal?

Explanation

Modulation is the correct answer because it refers to the process or result of modifying one or more characteristics of a carrier signal based on the instantaneous characteristic of an information signal. This process allows the information signal to be transmitted over a carrier signal, enabling efficient communication and signal transmission. Multiplexing involves combining multiple signals into one, quantization is the process of converting analog signals into digital form, and synthesizing refers to creating complex sounds or signals using simpler ones.

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128. What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?

Explanation

A crossover cable is used to connect devices that operate at similar layers of the OSI model. In this type of cable, the transmit and receive wires are crossed over, allowing two similar devices, such as two computers or two switches, to communicate directly with each other without the need for a network hub or switch. This is different from a straight-through cable, which is used to connect devices that operate at different layers of the OSI model. A rollover cable is used to connect a computer to the console port of a router or switch for configuration purposes. Coaxial cable is used for transmitting television signals and is not typically used for connecting devices at similar layers of the OSI model.

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129. What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage and incidents of toll fraud?

Explanation

The Enterprise Telephony Management system provides enterprise-wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud. This system allows organizations to monitor and manage their telephony infrastructure, including tracking usage patterns, identifying potential fraud, and optimizing resource allocation. By implementing this system, companies can ensure efficient and secure communication networks while minimizing costs and improving overall operational performance.

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130. Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

Explanation

The correct answer is Table control. In a Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility, the table control is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This facility ensures that the data is organized and managed effectively, allowing for easy access and retrieval when needed. The table control feature helps in maintaining the integrity and consistency of the data within the DMS-100 system.

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131. How many broadcast domains form a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

Explanation

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical grouping of devices in a network, regardless of their physical location. It allows for the segmentation of a network into multiple broadcast domains. Each VLAN represents a separate broadcast domain, so in this case, the correct answer is 1, as only one broadcast domain is formed by a VLAN.

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132. Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?

Explanation

Tone is the correct answer because it is a communications control signal that uses a two-frequency dialing combination. This means that when dialing a number, the phone generates two specific tones to indicate the desired digit. This method of dialing is commonly used in modern telephone systems and is more reliable and faster than pulse dialing, which uses a series of brief interruptions in the current flow.

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133. If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be performed?

Explanation

If a circuit fails its management threshold, the appropriate test that might be performed is quality control. Quality control involves inspecting and testing the circuit to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. By conducting quality control tests, any faults or issues with the circuit can be identified and resolved, ensuring that it functions properly and meets the desired performance criteria.

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134. What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The three sections of a fiber optic cable are the core, cladding, and jacket. The core is the central part of the cable where the light travels through. The cladding is the layer that surrounds the core and helps to keep the light contained within the core. The jacket is the outermost layer of the cable, providing protection and insulation for the core and cladding.

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135. Toredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Agent." Toredo is an IPv6 transition technology that enables communication between IPv6 and IPv4 networks. It consists of four tunneling components, namely Host-specific relay, Client, Agent, and Server. However, "Agent" is not one of the tunneling components in Toredo.

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136. What document is the authority for the operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment necessary for the installation or operation of the equipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Telecommunications service order." This document serves as the authority for operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment needed for the installation or operation of the equipment. It outlines the necessary details and specifications for the requested services, ensuring that the procurement process is properly documented and authorized.

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137. Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost?

Explanation

Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) is a wave-division multiplexing technology that uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost. Unlike dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM) which requires cooled lasers, CWDM allows for the use of uncooled lasers, which are less expensive and easier to maintain. This makes CWDM a more cost-effective solution for multiplexing multiple signals onto a single optical fiber. Long wave division multiplexing (LWDM) is not a commonly used term in the context of wave-division multiplexing technologies.

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138. Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?

Explanation

Within 72 normal duty hours of completion, the circuit control office (CCO) must submit an in-effect report on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO). This report ensures that the necessary actions have been taken and the circuit is functioning properly. It allows for proper documentation and tracking of the TSO, ensuring that any issues or concerns are addressed in a timely manner.

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139. What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

Explanation

If the circuit does not meet all required parameters but is still accepted for service by the TSO issuing authority, a report called "Exception" must be sent. This report is likely used to document and explain the deviations from the required parameters and any potential issues or limitations that may arise from these deviations.

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140. Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

Explanation

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are both passive and active. Passive means that they monitor and analyze system activities without taking any action. They detect and log any suspicious or malicious activities happening on the host. On the other hand, active means that they can take action to prevent or mitigate an intrusion. This can include blocking network traffic, terminating processes, or alerting system administrators. By combining both passive and active capabilities, HIDS can provide comprehensive protection against intrusions by detecting and responding to them in real-time.

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141. Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

Explanation

Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. This involves dividing the facility into different zones based on the level of sensitivity to radiated emanations. Each zone is then tested to ensure that the equipment and facilities within it meet the required standards for containing radiated emanations. This method ensures that sensitive information is protected by creating controlled areas where the risk of radiated emanations is minimized.

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142. Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

Explanation

The equipment that should be designated as RED is the one processing clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment is handling information that is not encrypted and is considered to be confidential and classified. It is important to designate this equipment as RED to ensure proper security measures are in place to protect the sensitive information being processed.

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143. How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

Explanation

For industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power provides a more balanced and efficient distribution of electricity compared to single or double phases. Three-phase power allows for higher power transfer, reduces voltage drop, and enables the use of motors and heavy machinery. It is the standard choice for powering large-scale operations and is widely used in industries and commercial settings.

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144. Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

Explanation

The support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed 5 feet. This means that the cables need to be supported or secured at regular intervals, and these intervals will not be more than 5 feet apart. This is important to ensure the stability and proper functioning of the cables.

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145. The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable

Explanation

Coaxial cable does not radiate energy, which means it has better shielding capabilities compared to paired cable. This prevents interference from external sources and ensures a more reliable and stable transmission of signals. Additionally, the lack of energy radiation also makes coaxial cable more secure, as it is harder for unauthorized individuals to tap into the cable and intercept the transmitted data.

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146. When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

Explanation

In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a specific path is established for the duration of the call, allowing for a continuous and uninterrupted connection between the calling and receiving parties. Unlike packet-switched networks, where data is divided into packets and transmitted in bursts, circuit-switched networks ensure a dedicated connection throughout the call. This dedicated circuit provides a reliable and consistent communication channel for the duration of the call.

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147. Where are voice protection system servers installed?

Explanation

The voice protection system servers are installed in the Integrated Network and Security Center. This is the location where the network and security operations are managed and monitored, making it the most suitable place to house the servers responsible for protecting voice communications. The Integrated Network and Security Center ensures that the voice protection system is centrally located and easily accessible for maintenance and troubleshooting purposes.

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148. In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries

Explanation

In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel is responsible for carrying user traffic. This refers to the actual data that is being transmitted over the network, such as voice, video, or other forms of communication. The "B" channel is separate from the "D" channel, which is used for call setup, handshaking, and management data. Therefore, the correct answer is user traffic.

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149. What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports?

Explanation

The maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports is 30,000.

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150. What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?

Explanation

The link used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus is DS-512.

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151. How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?

Explanation

The extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence consists of 24 bits. This framing sequence is used in telecommunications to provide synchronization and framing for T1 digital transmission systems.

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152. What Digital multiplexing System (DMS-100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis and error reporting?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Maintenance and administration position" because the DMS-100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis, and error reporting. The maintenance and administration position is responsible for overseeing these tasks and ensuring the system is functioning properly. This position is crucial for the smooth operation and maintenance of the DMS-100 system.

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153. What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

Explanation

The protocol statistics test window provides information about the network utilization and frame errors that are specific to a particular protocol. This window allows users to analyze the performance and efficiency of the protocol by providing data on the amount of network resources utilized and any errors encountered. It helps in identifying any issues or bottlenecks related to the protocol and allows for optimization and troubleshooting.

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154. The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is

Explanation

The method of multiplexing used by the T1 multiplexer is time division. Time division multiplexing (TDM) is a technique where multiple signals are combined into one transmission channel by allocating specific time slots to each signal. In the case of T1 multiplexing, it combines multiple voice or data signals into a single T1 line by dividing the available time slots. Each signal is given a specific time slot within the T1 frame, allowing for simultaneous transmission and reception of multiple signals over the same line.

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155. To create a better timing environment in communications networks, external timing distribution occurs through

Explanation

Station clocks are used to create a better timing environment in communications networks by providing a centralized and synchronized time reference for all devices within the network. These clocks ensure that all devices are operating on the same time scale, which is crucial for accurate and efficient communication. By distributing the timing information from the station clocks to all devices, the network can maintain synchronization and minimize timing errors. This allows for seamless communication and coordination between different components of the network.

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156. What names are given to the shifted R-Y and B-Y signals, respectively?

Explanation

The names given to the shifted R-Y and B-Y signals are I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

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157. Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

Explanation

NIDS stands for Network-based Intrusion Detection Systems, which are designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. The term "passive" refers to the fact that NIDS do not actively interfere with the network or the traffic being monitored. Instead, they passively analyze the network packets and look for patterns or signatures that indicate an intrusion. Therefore, the correct answer is "passive only" as NIDS do not actively participate in network activities.

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158. Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD’s TEMPEST program?

Explanation

AFSSI 7700 provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program. TEMPEST is a program that ensures the security of electronic systems by preventing the compromising of classified information through compromising emanations. AFSSI 7700 outlines the guidelines and procedures for protecting classified information from unauthorized access via electromagnetic radiation. It establishes the standards and requirements for TEMPEST countermeasures to be implemented in DOD systems.

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159. Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground” and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. It is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. This ground connection ensures that all signals within the facility are referenced to a common ground point, reducing the risk of interference and improving signal quality.

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160. Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States as the standard?

Explanation

The correct answer is Advance Television Systems Committee. The United States adopted the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) as the standard for digital broadcasting. ATSC is a set of standards that define the digital television (DTV) system used in the country, including the transmission, reception, and display of digital television signals. It was chosen for its ability to provide high-quality audio and video, as well as its compatibility with existing analog systems.

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161. Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occur directly over links interconnecting the signaling points?

Explanation

In the Associated mode of Common Channel Signaling (CCS), the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occurs directly over links interconnecting the signaling points. This means that the signaling messages are sent and received without any intermediate nodes or additional processing. The Associated mode provides a direct and efficient communication path for signaling between the two points, ensuring reliable and timely delivery of signaling information.

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162. How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

Explanation

Fiber-optic epoxies typically take 12-24 hours to set. This is because the curing process of epoxy involves a chemical reaction that takes time to complete and harden. The longer curing time allows for a stronger bond to form between the fibers and the epoxy, ensuring a durable and reliable connection. Waiting for the epoxy to fully set before handling or using the fiber-optic cables is important to prevent any damage or disruption to the connection.

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163. Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

Explanation

The correct answer is "waveform points." In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored as waveform points. This means that the oscilloscope records and stores the voltage values of the waveform at specific time intervals. These waveform points can then be used to reconstruct and display the waveform on the oscilloscope's screen for analysis and measurement purposes.

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164. Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

Explanation

The CURSORS control button on a digital storage oscilloscope is used to control all the waveforms displayed in the STORE mode. It allows the user to select and manipulate the cursors on the screen, which can be used for various measurements and analysis of the waveform. By adjusting the cursors, the user can accurately measure parameters such as voltage, time, frequency, and more. Therefore, the CURSORS control button is essential for controlling and analyzing the waveforms in the STORE mode.

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165. What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

Explanation

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the segment is determined by the number of bits needed to represent the entire test pattern, rather than factors such as bandwidth or the number of bytes.

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166. When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

Explanation

When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), connecting a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested is necessary to prevent false readings. This launch cable helps to eliminate any inconsistencies or reflections that may occur at the beginning of the cable under test. By connecting the launch cable, the OTDR can accurately measure the characteristics of the cable being tested without any interference or false readings caused by reflections.

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167. Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter the NT9X35A cross-point card?

Explanation

Incoming circuits transmitted to the NT9X35A cross-point card enter through the Vertical bus (V-bus).

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168. When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the second type of circuit you preempt?

Explanation

When restoring user service by rerouting, the second type of circuit that is preempted is the nonactive on-call circuits. These circuits are not currently in use and can be temporarily taken over in order to prioritize the restoration of user service. By preempting nonactive on-call circuits, resources can be efficiently utilized to minimize downtime and ensure uninterrupted service for users.

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169. Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection system?

Explanation

A voice protection system is designed to secure communications, enable real-time notifications, and detect and block all inbound and outbound modem connections. However, centralizing yet distributing management is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection system. This means that a voice protection system does not involve centralizing the management of its functions while also distributing it to different locations or entities.

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170. What does the GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allow?

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows for remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer. This means that the user can control all aspects of the switcher, such as input selection, transitions, and effects, from a computer rather than manually operating the switcher. This provides convenience and flexibility in controlling the switcher, allowing for more precise and efficient operation.

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171. What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Media access control (MAC) node statistics. This is because MAC node statistics provide information about errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. These statistics help in identifying and troubleshooting issues related to the physical layer of the network. Connection statistics, protocol statistics, and node discovery do not specifically report errors at the physical layer.

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172. Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration?

Explanation

Frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) is a form of multiplexing where multiple signals are combined and transmitted simultaneously over a single communication channel by allocating different frequency ranges to each signal. However, FDM is very susceptible to signal deterioration because it relies on dividing the available bandwidth into smaller frequency ranges. This division can result in signal interference and crosstalk between different signals, leading to a degradation in the quality of the transmitted signals.

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173. A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes

Explanation

A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes asynchronous operation. In asynchronous operation, the sender and receiver are not synchronized by a common clock, but instead rely on start and stop bits to indicate the beginning and end of each data packet. The synchronizing bits within the signal stream help to establish the timing and ensure accurate transmission of data in an asynchronous communication system.

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174. Who is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point and provides troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC)?

Explanation

The node site coordinator is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point and provides troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC). They act as the point of contact for any communication issues and coordinate with the GNSC to resolve any network problems.

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175. Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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176. The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the 

Explanation

The correct answer is President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. This committee released a report that highlighted the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks. The report likely discussed the potential risks and threats that these networks face, as well as recommendations for improving their security.

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177. The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that functions to

Explanation

The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that control and process calls. This means that the equipment is responsible for managing and directing phone calls, ensuring that they are properly connected and handled. It is not just providing a clear signal, but also performing the necessary actions to control and process the calls effectively.

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178. Which test results do you record on the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697-Analog?

Explanation

On the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697-Analog, you record the test results for frequency response and envelope delay. This means that you would measure and document the performance of the system in terms of its ability to accurately reproduce different frequencies and the time it takes for the signal to reach its peak level. These measurements are important in assessing the overall quality and performance of the analog system being tested.

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179. Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem that uses surge arrestors is lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical systems from sudden voltage spikes or surges caused by lightning strikes. Lightning protection systems typically include surge arrestors to divert the excess electrical energy from a lightning strike away from sensitive equipment, preventing damage or disruption to the facility's electrical system.

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180. Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

Explanation

Multimode step index fiber is the easiest to splice because it has a larger core diameter and a higher numerical aperture, which allows for easier alignment and coupling of the fibers during the splicing process. Additionally, the step index design provides a more uniform distribution of light, reducing the need for precise alignment.

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181. The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions is known as

Explanation

Pulse-position modulation is a form of pulse modulation where the position of a discrete pulse within a given time period is varied. In this modulation technique, the amplitude and duration of the pulse remain constant, but the position of the pulse is changed to represent different information. By varying the position of the pulse, different values can be encoded and transmitted. This technique is commonly used in digital communication systems to transmit digital data over a communication channel.

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182. Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Transport." In a hierarchical network design, the core, distribution, and access layers are commonly recognized and distinct layers. The core layer is responsible for high-speed connectivity between different parts of the network. The distribution layer provides routing, filtering, and WAN connectivity. The access layer connects end devices to the network. However, the transport layer is not typically considered as a distinct layer in the hierarchical network design model. The transport layer is part of the OSI model and is responsible for end-to-end communication and reliable data transfer between applications.

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183. What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS)?

Explanation

The maximum detection distance of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS) is 80 meters. This means that the system can detect any intrusions within a range of 80 meters.

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184. Which basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier consists of two transistors that form the upper leg of a totem pole circuit?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Output driver." The output driver is a basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier that consists of two transistors forming the upper leg of a totem pole circuit. This circuit is responsible for driving the output signal to the desired level and maintaining its stability.

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185. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors to monitor the activities and behavior of individual hosts or endpoints within a network. These software sensors are installed on each host and collect data about system logs, file integrity, user activity, and network connections. By analyzing this data, the host-based IDS can detect and alert on any suspicious or malicious activities occurring on the host itself. This type of IDS is particularly effective in detecting insider threats or attacks targeting specific hosts within a network.

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186. Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

Explanation

The control component of the SuperNode central control consists of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These elements are responsible for managing and controlling the overall operation of the SuperNode system. The computing mode determines the mode in which the system operates, while the system load module monitors and manages the workload of the system. Together, CM and SLM ensure efficient and effective control of the SuperNode central control.

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187. The purpose of a breakout box is to

Explanation

A breakout box is a device used to connect multiple conductors and allow for monitoring and access to them. It provides a convenient way to access and test the different wires within a cable or harness. By connecting the breakout box to the conductors, technicians can easily monitor and measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance. This allows for troubleshooting and testing of the conductors without the need to disconnect or cut the cable. Therefore, the purpose of a breakout box is to allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.

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188. What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, the test window that automatically runs in the background is the "Node discovery" window. This window is responsible for detecting and identifying all the nodes or devices present on the network. It scans the network to find devices, collects information about them, and displays the results in the Node discovery window. This allows the user to have a comprehensive view of all the nodes connected to the network, aiding in troubleshooting and network management.

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189. What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?

Explanation

The secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor is multipath reflection. This means that the sensor detects the reflection of microwave signals off of nearby objects or structures. This can help in detecting any disturbances or intrusions in the monitored area.

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190. Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?

Explanation

Pulse-code modulation (PCM) is least affected by noise because it uses digital coding to represent the amplitude of the signal. In PCM, the signal is sampled and quantized into discrete levels, which are then encoded into binary code words. This digital representation allows for accurate reconstruction of the original signal, even in the presence of noise, as long as the noise does not exceed the quantization levels. Therefore, PCM is less susceptible to noise compared to other forms of pulse modulation like pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM), pulse-duration modulation (PDM), and pulse-position modulation (PPM), which directly encode the analog signal without digital coding.

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191. Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?

Explanation

The Circuit Control Office (CCO) is responsible for managing a circuit end-to-end. They oversee the provisioning, monitoring, and maintenance of the circuit to ensure its proper functioning. The CCO acts as a central point of contact for any issues or changes related to the circuit, coordinating with other agencies and service providers as necessary. This includes troubleshooting and resolving any connectivity or performance problems that may arise. The CCO plays a critical role in ensuring the smooth and reliable operation of the circuit.

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192. What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?

Explanation

The maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is 328 feet.

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193. Which publication lists the methods used to identify systems, links, trunks and circuits?

Explanation

DISAC 310-65-1 is the correct answer because it is the publication that lists the methods used to identify systems, links, trunks, and circuits.

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194. Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 31–10 series. This publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices.

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195. During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system?

Explanation

The Air Force Information warfare Battle Lab recognized during the initial research for voice system security that the most common security threats could be addressed by a voice protection system.

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196. Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to

Explanation

Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to maintain ones density standards. Ones density refers to the continuous stream of ones in a digital signal. Maintaining ones density is important for proper synchronization and error detection in high-speed data transmission. B8ZS coding technique replaces long sequences of zeros with specific patterns of ones and zeros, ensuring a consistent ones density. This helps in maintaining signal integrity, reducing errors, and improving the overall quality of the transmitted data.

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197. How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

Explanation

The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has 3 serial data interface ports.

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198. Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

Explanation

Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This type of separation involves using electrical techniques to isolate and protect sensitive information from unauthorized access or interference. By implementing proper electrical separation, the integrity and security of the data transmission can be maintained, ensuring that only authorized devices can access the information.

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199. What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

Explanation

The jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow for the cross-patching of individual interface conductors. This means that they enable the connection or reconfiguration of specific conductors within the interface, allowing for flexibility and customization in signal routing.

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200. What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

Explanation

The standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope is the Sample mode. In this mode, the oscilloscope samples the input signal at regular intervals and stores the amplitude of each sample in its memory. This allows for accurate representation of the signal's waveform and enables the oscilloscope to capture transient events. Real-time mode, on the other hand, displays the waveform continuously without any gaps between samples. Averaging mode is used to reduce noise by averaging multiple waveforms, while peak detect mode captures and displays the highest amplitude points of the waveform.

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In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in...
What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing...
What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating...
Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest...
Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
What is the process, or result of process, of modifying (varying) one...
What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the...
What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource...
Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility is...
How many broadcast domains form a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?
Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing...
If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be...
What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?
Toredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one...
What document is the authority for the operations and maintenance...
Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to...
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the...
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required...
Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are
Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility...
Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in...
How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial...
Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not...
The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial...
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
Where are voice protection system servers installed?
In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B"...
What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic-100...
What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core...
How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing...
What Digital multiplexing System (DMS-100 system contains subsystems...
What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the...
The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
To create a better timing environment in communications networks,...
What names are given to the shifted R-Y and B-Y signals, respectively?
Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are
Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall...
Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground”...
Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States as the...
Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of...
How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?
Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage...
Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms...
What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a...
When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action...
Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter...
When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the second...
Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection...
What does the GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allow?
What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the...
Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal...
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal...
Who is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the...
Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is often...
The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were...
The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that...
Which test results do you record on the reverse/back side of the DD...
Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?
The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied...
Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a...
What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared Pulsed...
Which basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier consists of...
Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central...
The purpose of a breakout box is to
What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the...
What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence...
Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?
Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
Which publication lists the methods used to identify systems, links,...
Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation...
During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized...
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution...
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C...
Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a...
What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box...
What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a...
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