Z3d152 Volume 1 UREs

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1. When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

Explanation

When working on electrical circuits, it is important to wear metal framed eyeglasses that are secured with a nonmetallic cord. This is because metal framed eyeglasses can conduct electricity, which can be extremely dangerous when working with energized circuits. By securing the glasses with a nonmetallic cord, the risk of them falling off and coming into contact with live wires is minimized. Therefore, wearing metal framed eyeglasses that are secured with a nonmetallic cord is a safety precaution to prevent electrical accidents.

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About This Quiz
Military Training Quizzes & Trivia

Z3D152 Volume 1 UREs explores key skills in military communications systems, including deployment and repair of transmission devices, security responsibilities, and core competencies in transport systems. It evaluates... see moreknowledge crucial for Air Force personnel. see less

2. What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

Explanation

The correct answer is risk management. Risk management is a simple and systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing strategies to mitigate or eliminate them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and success of their operations. Safety control and safety management are related concepts but do not encompass the comprehensive approach of risk management.

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3. The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down because it requires processing power and memory to continuously monitor and analyze system activities. This can result in decreased performance and potentially impact the overall functionality of the host.

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4. Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current. When we walk across a carpet, friction is created between our shoes and the carpet surface. This friction causes the transfer of electrons between the two surfaces, resulting in an accumulation of static charge on our bodies. This static charge can then be discharged when we touch a conductive object, such as a metal doorknob, creating an electrostatic current. Walking across carpet is known to generate more static electricity compared to other activities listed, such as working at a bench or walking across a vinyl floor.

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5. Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

Explanation

Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of transmission devices, including wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This field also deals with encryption transmission devices, which are used to secure communications. Therefore, individuals in this career field are responsible for maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of these transmission systems.

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6. Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

Explanation

Electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference are commonly referred to as "noise" in the context of power line faults. Noise refers to any unwanted electrical signal that can disrupt the normal functioning of electronic devices or communication systems. In the case of power lines, noise can be caused by various factors such as electromagnetic radiation from nearby sources, faulty equipment, or poor grounding. This interference can affect the quality of power supply and cause disruptions or malfunctions in sensitive electronic equipment.

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7. What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

Explanation

Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the specialized abilities and expertise that individuals or organizations possess, which distinguish them from their competitors and enable them to excel in their field. Core competencies are essential for achieving a competitive advantage and success in a specific industry or profession. They represent the unique strengths and capabilities that contribute to the overall effectiveness and performance in a particular career field.

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8. Which of the following is a core competency of Core Transport Systems?

Explanation

Voice network systems are a core competency of Core Transport Systems because they specialize in providing solutions for voice communication. This suggests that they have expertise in designing, implementing, and maintaining voice network systems, which are crucial for effective communication within an organization. It is likely that Core Transport Systems has developed a strong reputation and track record in delivering high-quality voice network solutions to their clients.

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9. How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

Explanation

The Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).

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10. To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your muscles and joints, increasing the risk of injuries such as strains, sprains, or even more serious conditions like hernias. By using team lifting, the load is distributed among multiple people, reducing the strain on each individual and making it safer to handle heavier items.

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11. When working on electrical circuits, the role of the safety observer is normally performed by the

Explanation

The role of the safety observer in electrical circuits is typically performed by a supervisor. A supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work being done, ensuring safety protocols are followed, and monitoring the overall safety of the work environment. They have the authority and knowledge to intervene if any unsafe practices or conditions are observed, making them suitable for the role of a safety observer in electrical circuits.

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12. To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

Explanation

The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that everyone in the organization, regardless of their role or department, is responsible for identifying, assessing, and managing risks. By involving all personnel in the RM process, the organization can benefit from a collective effort to mitigate potential hazards and ensure the safety and well-being of everyone involved. This approach promotes a culture of risk awareness and encourages proactive measures to prevent accidents and incidents.

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13. At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

Explanation

An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for managing communication between applications and provides services such as file transfers, email, and web browsing. By operating at this layer, an application-level firewall can monitor and control traffic based on the specific application protocols being used, allowing it to provide more granular and targeted security measures.

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14. One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) that uses very few network resources is advantageous because it minimizes the impact on network performance. This means that the NIDS can monitor network traffic and detect potential intrusions without causing significant slowdowns or disruptions to the network. By using fewer network resources, the NIDS can operate efficiently and effectively, allowing for continuous monitoring and protection against intrusions without negatively affecting network performance.

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15. What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

Explanation

RJ-45 is the correct answer because it is the standard conductor used for data networking. RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for Ethernet connections and can support data transfer rates up to 10 gigabits per second. They have 8 pins and are typically used with twisted pair cables. RJ-11, RJ-15, and RJ-49 are not used for data networking purposes. RJ-11 is commonly used for telephone connections, RJ-15 is not a standard connector, and RJ-49 is used for T3 connections.

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16. What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

Explanation

An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. This system is designed to safely conduct the electrical current from a lightning strike away from the facility and direct it into the ground, minimizing the risk of damage to the building and its occupants. By providing a designated path for the lightning to follow, this system helps prevent electrical fires, equipment damage, and other hazards associated with lightning strikes.

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17. How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

Explanation

The correct answer is five because the risk management process typically involves five steps: identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and communication. In the identification step, potential risks are identified and documented. The assessment step involves analyzing the identified risks to determine their likelihood and impact. Mitigation involves developing strategies to minimize or eliminate the risks. Monitoring involves tracking the effectiveness of the mitigation strategies and making adjustments as needed. Finally, communication involves sharing information about the risks and mitigation efforts with relevant stakeholders.

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18. The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

Explanation

Integrity in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption refers to the assurance that no unauthorized individual has tampered with or destroyed information without proper permission. It ensures that the data remains intact and unaltered, maintaining its accuracy and reliability. This is crucial for maintaining the trustworthiness and security of a network, as it prevents unauthorized modifications or destruction of sensitive information.

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19. At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

Explanation

A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming and outgoing packets to make decisions about whether to allow or block them based on predefined rules and filters. By operating at this layer, a packet filter gateway can effectively control network traffic and enhance network security.

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20. What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

Explanation

Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves the use of materials or structures that can block or absorb electromagnetic radiation, preventing it from interfering with the operation of electronic equipment. This can include the use of metal enclosures, conductive coatings, or shielding cables to minimize the impact of external electromagnetic fields and prevent interference from affecting sensitive electronic components.

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21. Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts?

Explanation

Class I is the correct answer because it is the only class among the given options that has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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22. What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Trace route." Trace route is a network diagnostic tool used to track the path that packets take from one network node to another. It sends out a series of packets with incrementally increasing time-to-live (TTL) values, allowing it to determine the route taken and measure the time it takes for each packet to reach its destination. By doing so, it helps in identifying network connectivity issues, locating network bottlenecks, and troubleshooting network problems.

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23. Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Explanation

A blackout refers to a complete loss of utility power, resulting in a total absence of electricity. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the power grid are affected, causing a complete disruption of power supply. This is different from other power line faults such as sags, spikes, or noise, which may cause fluctuations or disturbances in the power supply but do not result in a complete loss of utility power.

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24. Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

Explanation

The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. In a BERT test, a known test pattern is transmitted and then received by the receiver section. The receiver analyzes the received pattern and compares it to the expected pattern to calculate the bit error rate. This helps to determine the quality and reliability of the communication channel. The receiver plays a crucial role in accurately measuring the errors in the received data.

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25. Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

Explanation

A spike in the power line refers to a sudden and temporary increase in voltage. This fault category is characterized by a rapid and dramatic surge in voltage, which can cause damage to electrical equipment. Spikes are often caused by lightning strikes, power surges, or switching operations. They can lead to the failure of sensitive electronic devices and can pose a safety risk.

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26. What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

Explanation

A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital file that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted authority. This certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in online transactions and communications. It provides a secure way to ensure that the user is who they claim to be, protecting against identity theft and fraud.

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27. The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN). This task is likely assigned to another entity or department within the network infrastructure.

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28. Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

Explanation

A shielded cable is designed to prevent the radiation of energy and is also able to resist the interference caused by nearby magnetic fields. The shielding of the cable is typically made of a conductive material, such as aluminum or copper, which acts as a barrier to electromagnetic interference. This shielding helps to maintain the integrity of the signals transmitted through the cable, making it a suitable choice for applications where electromagnetic interference is a concern.

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29. What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

Explanation

The correct answer is Tip and Ring. Tip and Ring are used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable. In telecommunications, the tip is the positive conductor, and the ring is the negative conductor. This terminology is commonly used in telephone systems, where the tip and ring connections are used to transmit audio signals. By identifying the tip and ring, technicians can ensure that the correct polarity is maintained for proper signal transmission.

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30. What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

Explanation

The equipment that should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts is the one processing encrypted classified information. This is because BLACK is typically used to represent equipment that handles sensitive and classified information, and encryption is a crucial aspect of protecting classified data from unauthorized access or interception.

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31. When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

Explanation

Before using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested. This precaution is necessary to avoid any potential electrical hazards or damage to the meter. By disconnecting the power, it ensures that there is no current flowing through the circuit, making it safe to measure the resistance accurately without any interference.

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32. Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

Explanation

Cable is the correct answer because it is the type of shielding that utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor. Shielding is used to protect the conductor from external electromagnetic interference.

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33. What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Packet internetwork groper (PING)". PING is an active test that is commonly used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the target node and waits for a response. If the node is connected and responsive, it will send a reply back. PING is a widely used tool for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and measuring network performance.

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34. Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?

Explanation

Passive standby UPS, also known as offline UPS, is a type of uninterruptible power supply that provides basic power protection by switching to battery power when the input power fails. In normal operation, the UPS allows the input power to bypass the battery and directly power the connected equipment. When the input power fails, the UPS switches to battery power to provide uninterrupted power to the equipment. This type of UPS is commonly used for protecting personal computers and other low-power devices.

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35. Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

Explanation

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. They work passively by analyzing network packets and comparing them against known attack signatures or abnormal behavior patterns. NIDS do not actively intervene or block any traffic; instead, they generate alerts or notifications to alert system administrators or security personnel about potential threats. Therefore, the correct answer is "passive only" as NIDS solely operate in a passive manner without actively intervening in network traffic.

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36. Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Apply the RM process continuously." This principle of risk management emphasizes the importance of consistently applying the risk management process throughout the entire duration of a project or operation. By continuously assessing and managing risks, organizations can proactively identify and address potential threats, minimize their impact, and maximize opportunities. This approach ensures that risk management remains an ongoing and integral part of decision-making and planning processes, helping to protect the organization's assets, reputation, and overall success.

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37. Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Explanation

AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions, such as damaged equipment, unsafe working environments, or potential hazards that could cause harm. By using AF Form 457, Air Force personnel can easily and efficiently report these conditions to the appropriate authorities, allowing for prompt action to be taken to mitigate the risk and ensure the safety of personnel and property.

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38. An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

Explanation

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave lacks the necessary security measures to protect against unauthorized access and potential intrusions. Without a firewall, the enclave is vulnerable to network-based attacks, while the absence of an IDS leaves it susceptible to detecting and responding to potential security breaches. Overall, the absence of these security measures increases the risk of unauthorized access and compromises the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the enclave's resources.

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39. What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

Explanation

The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers various aspects of security in the Air Force. In this case, the question specifically asks about emission security (EMSEC). The correct answer is 7000 because AFSSI 7000 specifically focuses on EMSEC, which involves protecting against unauthorized disclosure of information through unintentional electromagnetic emissions. This instruction provides guidelines and procedures for managing and mitigating the risks associated with electromagnetic emissions and ensuring the security of Air Force systems.

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40. Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

Explanation

Nuclear hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards. The four major types of hazards are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear hazards. While biological hazards involve the risk of exposure to harmful organisms or substances, chemical hazards involve the risk of exposure to toxic or hazardous chemicals. Physical hazards refer to the risk of injury or harm due to physical factors such as noise, radiation, or temperature. On the other hand, nuclear hazards specifically pertain to the risk of exposure to radioactive materials or nuclear reactions.

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41. Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Explanation

Stress is the correct answer because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to increased stress levels in the workplace. These factors can negatively impact an individual's mental and physical well-being, leading to a variety of health issues.

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42. Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

Explanation

In a typical EIA/TIA 568B connector, Pin 1 is color-coded as White/Orange. This color combination is used to identify the specific pin and its corresponding function in the connector.

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43. What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The three sections of a fiber optic cable are the core, cladding, and jacket. The core is the central part of the cable where the light signals travel through. The cladding surrounds the core and helps to keep the light signals contained within the core. The jacket is the outermost layer of the cable, providing protection and insulation for the core and cladding.

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44. What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

Explanation

A bipolar violation is the type of error that occurs when two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity violate alternate mark inversion coding rules. This means that instead of alternating between positive and negative voltage levels, two consecutive positive or negative pulses are sent. This violates the encoding scheme and can lead to errors in data transmission.

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45. Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

Explanation

Technical security is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs primarily focus on protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information during its transmission. Transmission security ensures that information is securely transmitted over networks. Emission security deals with preventing unauthorized disclosure of information through unintentional emissions. Physical security involves protecting physical assets and infrastructure. However, technical security refers to measures taken to protect the technical aspects of a system, such as software, hardware, and networks. While important for overall system security, it is not specifically related to communications security in this context.

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46. Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

Explanation

IP telephony is the correct answer because it accurately describes the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). IP telephony, also known as Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), allows for the transmission of voice signals in digital form over an IP network, enabling voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines. This technology has become increasingly popular due to its cost-effectiveness and flexibility.

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47. At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

Explanation

A circuit layer gateway operates at the transport layer (layer 4) of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between end systems, providing services such as segmentation, flow control, and error recovery. A circuit layer gateway acts as a translator between different protocols or network architectures at this layer, allowing communication between networks with different protocols.

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48. What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

Explanation

The ability to minimize compromising emanations in a conductor is influenced by both distance and angle. Distance refers to the physical separation between the conductor and potential sources of interference, while angle refers to the orientation or direction of the conductor in relation to these sources. By increasing the distance and adjusting the angle appropriately, the conductor can reduce the likelihood of electromagnetic interference and maintain better signal integrity.

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49. Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form.  What equipment should be designated as RED?

Explanation

Equipment that processes clear-text classified information should be designated as RED. This means that the equipment is involved in handling sensitive information that is not encrypted and is classified as confidential.

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50. What is the maximum operating temperature of the fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The maximum operating temperature of a fiber optic cable is 1,000°C. This means that the cable can withstand temperatures up to 1,000 degrees Celsius without any significant damage or loss of performance. This high temperature tolerance is important in certain applications where the cable may be exposed to extreme heat, such as in industrial or aerospace environments.

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51. How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

Explanation

Most fiber-optic epoxies take 12-24 hours to set. This is because fiber-optic epoxies typically have a longer curing time compared to other types of adhesives. The curing process involves the chemical reaction between the epoxy components, which takes time to complete and reach its full strength. Waiting for 12-24 hours ensures that the epoxy has fully cured and provides a strong bond for the fiber-optic components.

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52. When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

Explanation

When using a polishing cloth, the goal is to achieve a smooth and even surface. Removing a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time helps to gradually level out the surface. The term "flat and level" implies that there are no bumps or unevenness in the fiber, resulting in a polished surface that is smooth and uniform.

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53. Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer captures and analyzes network traffic. The component responsible for discarding frames based on its definition or activating a trigger based on the trigger definition is the filter. A filter allows the user to define specific criteria for capturing or ignoring certain frames, allowing for more focused analysis. By specifying what frames to discard or trigger, the filter helps streamline the analysis process by only capturing the relevant data.

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54. What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchorizning control too far?

Explanation

If the oscilloscope synchronization control is advanced too far, it can lead to distortion in the observed signal. This means that the waveform displayed on the oscilloscope screen will not accurately represent the original signal. Distortion can cause changes in the shape, amplitude, or timing of the waveform, making it difficult to analyze and interpret the signal accurately.

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55. What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

Explanation

The microprocessor of a digital storage oscilloscope is responsible for taking digitized samples and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and conducting math computations. The microprocessor is the central processing unit of the oscilloscope and handles all the calculations and analysis of the captured waveform data. It plays a crucial role in providing accurate and detailed measurements and analysis of the signals being observed.

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56. What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

Explanation

The first line of defense in securing laptops is to set a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing the laptop and its data. By requiring a unique login ID and a strong password, the laptop becomes more secure and less vulnerable to potential threats.

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57. Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

Explanation

Double conversion UPS offers the highest level of protection because it provides continuous power to the connected devices by constantly converting the incoming AC power to DC power and then back to AC power. This ensures that the devices are always supplied with clean and stable power, even in the event of power fluctuations or outages. The double conversion UPS also offers isolation from utility power, providing additional protection against electrical noise, voltage spikes, and other power disturbances.

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58. What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

Explanation

The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This means that the resistance between the grounding system and earth should be kept below 10 ohms to ensure efficient and effective grounding. This low resistance helps to minimize the risk of electrical shock, reduce electromagnetic interference, and provide a stable reference point for electrical systems. By maintaining a grounding resistance of 10 ohms or less, military communications electronics facilities can ensure the safety and reliability of their equipment and operations.

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59. When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

Explanation

The common jack is always used when a multimeter has three input terminal jacks. This jack is used as the reference point for measuring voltage, amperage, and frequency. It provides a common ground for the measurements and allows for accurate readings.

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60. Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

Explanation

HIDS, or host-based intrusion detection systems, are designed to monitor and analyze the activities occurring within a single host or system. They can operate in both passive and active modes. In passive mode, HIDS monitors and logs activities without taking any action. In active mode, HIDS not only monitors but also takes proactive measures to prevent or mitigate potential threats, such as blocking suspicious network traffic or terminating suspicious processes. Therefore, the correct answer is "passive and active."

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61. Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

Explanation

The number of AC converters required for the facility is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries. The selection of facility batteries is typically based on factors such as the facility power requirements, the facility power reserve times, and the amount of current and future floor space available. AC converters are used to convert alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) and are not directly related to the selection of batteries for the facility.

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62. What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial current [AC] power available)?

Explanation

During normal operating conditions with commercial AC power available, facility batteries act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power. This means that they remove any unwanted fluctuations or noise from the AC power supply, ensuring a smooth and stable DC power output for the system.

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63. The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a

Explanation

The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is called a binder. A binder is a type of stationary item used to hold and organize papers, documents, or other materials. It typically consists of a cover and metal rings or prongs that allow for easy insertion and removal of pages. The description provided in the question aligns with the characteristics of a binder, making it the correct answer.

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64. Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

Explanation

The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that there are costs associated with the validation process, which may include the certification of the equipment and any additional expenses required to ensure compliance with TEMPEST standards. This validation process helps to ensure that the equipment meets the necessary security requirements and is therefore worth the investment.

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65. What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

Explanation

The use of light-emitting diodes has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable because LEDs are able to emit light at high frequencies, allowing for the transmission of data at high speeds. This is crucial for achieving high data rates in fiber optics communication.

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66. Which facility ground subsystem is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. This subsystem is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. It provides a reference point for all the signals within the facility, ensuring that they are stable and free from interference.

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67. What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, the test window that automatically runs in the background is the node discovery. Node discovery is a process where the protocol analyzer scans the network to identify and locate all the nodes present. This helps in gathering information about the network topology and the devices connected to it. By automatically running in the background, node discovery ensures that the protocol analyzer is continuously monitoring and updating the network information.

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68. When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

Explanation

To prevent false readings when using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), it is necessary to connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested. This launch cable helps to eliminate any initial reflections that may occur at the connection point, ensuring that the OTDR accurately measures the characteristics of the cable under test. By using a launch cable, the manufacturer can obtain more reliable and accurate readings without any interference or false reflections from the connection point.

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69. What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Open." In a security posture where everything is open, all actions and access are permitted unless specifically denied. This means that there are no restrictions or limitations in place, and all users have unrestricted access to resources and actions. This approach may be suitable in certain situations where there is a high level of trust among users and minimal security risks. However, it is generally not recommended as it leaves systems vulnerable to potential threats and unauthorized access.

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70. Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

Explanation

Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. This involves dividing the area into different zones based on the level of radiated emissions and conducting tests to ensure that the emissions are contained within acceptable limits. This method ensures that sensitive equipment and facilities are protected from the harmful effects of radiated emanations. Shielding, suppression, and profile matching are other methods of containing radiated emanations, but they do not necessarily require facility and equipment testing.

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71. You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

Explanation

The correct answer is consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN). This is because consolidating voice and data traffic on the same VLAN can increase the risk of attacks and compromise the security of the IP telephony system. It is recommended to separate voice and data traffic using separate VLANs to ensure better security and to prevent unauthorized access to the IP telephony system.

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72. The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable

Explanation

Coaxial cable does not radiate energy, which is an advantage over paired cable. This means that it is less likely to cause interference with other devices or pick up unwanted signals. This makes it a more reliable option for transmitting data or signals without any loss or distortion. Additionally, the lack of energy radiation also contributes to better security and privacy, as it is harder for external sources to intercept or access the transmitted information.

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73. Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

Explanation

The earth electrode subsystem is designed to provide a low-resistance path for electrical currents to flow into the ground. To ensure effective grounding, the bonds in this subsystem should be direct and permanent, meaning they should have a very low resistance. A resistance of 1 milliohm is considered acceptable for these bonds, as it allows for efficient dissipation of electrical currents into the ground. Higher resistances, such as 2 milliohms, 5 milliohms, or 10 milliohms, would result in less effective grounding and potentially pose safety risks.

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74. Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

Explanation

The CURSORS control button is the correct answer because in the STORE mode of a digital storage oscilloscope, the CURSORS control button allows the user to manipulate and analyze the displayed waveforms. This button enables the user to measure parameters such as voltage, time, and frequency by placing cursors on the waveform and making precise measurements. The CURSORS control button is essential in accurately analyzing and interpreting the stored waveforms.

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75. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. This means that it analyzes network traffic in real-time to identify any abnormal behavior or patterns that may indicate a potential intrusion or attack. By comparing the network traffic against a database of known virus signatures, the IDS can also detect and alert on any malicious code or malware that may be present in the network. This type of IDS is typically deployed at strategic points within the network infrastructure to provide comprehensive coverage and protection against network-based threats.

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76. Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 31-10 series. This publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices.

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77. Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

Explanation

The support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed 5 feet. This means that the distance between each support point for the cables should not be more than 5 feet. This is important to ensure that the cables are properly supported and do not sag or get damaged. By limiting the support intervals to 5 feet, the cables can be securely installed and maintained.

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78. What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?

Explanation

A scribe is used to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable. It is a tool with a sharp tip that allows for precise and controlled removal of excess fiber. Using a scribe ensures that the fiber is properly prepared for splicing or termination, resulting in a clean and efficient connection. Strippers, alco wipes, and polishing cloth are not suitable for this task.

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79. What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

Explanation

Signal reference bonds are typically applied using mechanical bonding. Mechanical bonding involves physically joining two materials together without the use of heat or adhesives. This type of bond is commonly used in electrical and electronic systems to ensure a reliable and low-resistance connection between components. Mechanical bonding methods include clamping, screwing, or using specialized connectors to create a secure and stable bond. This type of bond is preferred for signal reference bonds as it provides a strong and consistent electrical connection.

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80. The purpose of a breakout box is to

Explanation

A breakout box is a device that allows for monitoring and accessing multiple conductors. It provides a convenient way to connect and disconnect multiple wires or cables, allowing for easy troubleshooting and testing of electrical connections. By providing access to multiple conductors, the breakout box enables technicians to measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance at various points in a circuit. It also allows for the identification of faults, such as sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs. Overall, the breakout box serves as a versatile tool for monitoring and accessing multiple conductors in electrical systems.

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81. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

Explanation

Host-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) use software sensors to monitor and analyze activities on individual hosts or endpoints within a network. These sensors are installed directly on the host machines and collect data about file integrity, system logs, and user activities. By analyzing this data, host-based IDS can detect and alert on suspicious or malicious behavior that may indicate an intrusion or compromise. Unlike network-based IDS, which monitor network traffic, host-based IDS focus on the activities happening within the host itself. This makes them particularly effective at detecting attacks that may bypass network-based defenses.

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82. How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

Explanation

In industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power offers several advantages over single-phase power, such as higher efficiency, balanced loads, and the ability to power larger equipment. Three-phase power systems also provide a more stable and consistent power supply, making them ideal for industrial and commercial settings where a reliable and continuous power source is crucial.

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83. A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

Explanation

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone.

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84. Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Explanation

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designated for the placement and organization of cables that carry signals and control various devices or systems. It is positioned higher in the cable duct to ensure proper separation and organization of these important cables, allowing for easy access and maintenance when needed.

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85. What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on a single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

Explanation

A digital storage oscilloscope normally uses real-time sampling on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals. Real-time sampling captures and digitizes the signal continuously, allowing for accurate representation of the waveform. This type of sampling is essential for capturing transient or unpredictable events as it ensures that no data points are missed during the sampling process. Sequential sampling would involve capturing samples in a specific sequence, repetitive sampling would involve capturing the same signal repeatedly, and random sampling would involve capturing samples at random intervals, none of which are suitable for capturing single-shot or seldom-occurring signals.

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86. How are connectorized cables labeled?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked "TO", and the second is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM". This means that the first label indicating the destination or intended recipient of the cable is placed within 12 inches of the connector, and the second label indicating the source or origin of the cable is placed within two inches of the first label.

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87. What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

Explanation

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the test pattern segment is determined by the number of bits needed to accurately represent all the bits in the pattern. The other options mentioned in the question (bandwidth, number of bytes, and number of bits in the number of bytes) are not directly related to determining the size of the test pattern segment.

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88. Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem that uses surge arrestors is lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical systems from voltage spikes caused by lightning strikes. By diverting excess current to the ground, surge arrestors prevent damage to equipment and ensure the safety of the facility.

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89. What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

Explanation

The jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow for the cross-patching of individual interface conductors. This means that the cables and pins can be used to connect different conductors from various interfaces, allowing for the routing of signals between them. This enables flexibility in configuring and connecting different devices or components within a system.

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90. Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

Explanation

In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored as waveform points. This means that the oscilloscope records and stores the values of the waveform at specific time intervals. These waveform points are then used to recreate the waveform on the display of the oscilloscope. Storing the data as waveform points allows for accurate representation and analysis of the waveform.

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91. What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?

Explanation

A crossover cable is used to connect devices that operate at similar layers of the OSI model. In a crossover cable, the transmit and receive pairs are crossed over, allowing two devices to directly communicate with each other without the need for a switch or hub. This type of cable is commonly used to connect two computers, switches, or routers together.

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92. Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

Explanation

Fault protection is also called the safety ground because it is responsible for protecting electrical systems from faults and ensuring the safety of individuals and equipment. The fault protection system detects and isolates faults, such as short circuits or overcurrents, to prevent damage and minimize the risk of electrical hazards. By grounding the faulty current, the fault protection system redirects it away from sensitive equipment and provides a safe path for the current to flow, protecting both the system and the people using it.

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93. What is the standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope?

Explanation

The standard operating mode for the acquisition mode on a digital storage oscilloscope is the sample mode. In this mode, the oscilloscope takes a series of samples of the input signal at regular intervals and stores them in memory. These samples are then used to reconstruct the waveform on the display. Sample mode is commonly used when capturing single-shot or infrequent events, as it allows for a high level of detail and accuracy in the captured waveform.

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94. Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone

Explanation

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in the equipment zone C. This means that the equipment is within the range where it can potentially emit electromagnetic radiation that could be intercepted and exploited by an adversary. It is important to be aware of this zone and take appropriate measures to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or eavesdropping.

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95. Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

Explanation

Multimode step index fiber is the easiest to splice because it has a larger core diameter and a step-index profile, which means that the refractive index changes abruptly at the core-cladding interface. This allows for easier alignment and fusion of the fiber ends during the splicing process. In contrast, multimode graded-index fiber has a smaller core diameter and a gradual change in refractive index, making it more challenging to splice. Single mode fiber also has a small core diameter and requires precise alignment, making it more difficult to splice compared to multimode step index fiber. Coaxial cable, on the other hand, is not spliced in the same way as fiber optic cables.

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96. What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Protocol statistics." Protocol statistics provide information about network utilization and frame errors that are specific to a particular protocol. By analyzing these statistics, one can gain insights into the performance and efficiency of the protocol being used in the network. This information can be useful in troubleshooting network issues and optimizing network performance.

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97. What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short framers, and jabbers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Media access control (MAC) node statistics. This is because a protocol analyzer is used to monitor and analyze network traffic, and the MAC node statistics window specifically reports errors that occur at the physical layer. These errors include issues like bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. By analyzing these statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot problems related to the physical layer of the network.

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98. The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to

Explanation

The miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing. This means that the switches can be used to temporarily disconnect or interrupt the flow of signals in specific interface conductors, allowing for isolated testing of those conductors without affecting the rest of the system. This can be useful for troubleshooting or diagnosing issues with specific interface signals without disrupting the overall functionality of the system.

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99. Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?

Explanation

AFSSI 7700 provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program. TEMPEST is a program that ensures the security of electronic equipment from electromagnetic radiation emissions. AFSSI 7700 outlines the policies and procedures for protecting classified information from potential eavesdropping or compromise through electromagnetic signals. It establishes standards for the design, construction, and operation of secure facilities and equipment to prevent the leakage of classified information.

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100. Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

Explanation

Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This means that the electrical signals are isolated and protected from unauthorized access or interference when transitioning between the two types of devices. By implementing electrical separation, the integrity and confidentiality of the signals are maintained, enhancing the security of the system.

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