Z3d152 Volume 1 UREs

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

    • Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3)
    • Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)
    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X4)
    • Client Systems (3D1X1)
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Military Training Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Z3D152 Volume 1 UREs explores key skills in military communications systems, including deployment and repair of transmission devices, security responsibilities, and core competencies in transport systems. It evaluates knowledge crucial for Air Force personnel.


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  • 2. 

    What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • Core duty

    • Core value

    • Core competency

    • Core responsibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Core competency
    Explanation
    Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the specialized abilities and expertise that individuals or organizations possess, which distinguish them from their competitors and enable them to excel in their field. Core competencies are essential for achieving a competitive advantage and success in a specific industry or profession. They represent the unique strengths and capabilities that contribute to the overall effectiveness and performance in a particular career field.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is a core competency of Core Transport Systems?

    • Fixed cable systems

    • Voice network systems

    • Application software systems

    • Client-server database systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Voice network systems
    Explanation
    Voice network systems are a core competency of Core Transport Systems because they specialize in providing solutions for voice communication. This suggests that they have expertise in designing, implementing, and maintaining voice network systems, which are crucial for effective communication within an organization. It is likely that Core Transport Systems has developed a strong reputation and track record in delivering high-quality voice network solutions to their clients.

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  • 4. 

    When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

    • The circuit is energized

    • You have a valid prescription

    • They are certified for high voltage

    • They are secured with a nonmetallic cord

    Correct Answer
    A. They are secured with a nonmetallic cord
    Explanation
    When working on electrical circuits, it is important to wear metal framed eyeglasses that are secured with a nonmetallic cord. This is because metal framed eyeglasses can conduct electricity, which can be extremely dangerous when working with energized circuits. By securing the glasses with a nonmetallic cord, the risk of them falling off and coming into contact with live wires is minimized. Therefore, wearing metal framed eyeglasses that are secured with a nonmetallic cord is a safety precaution to prevent electrical accidents.

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  • 5. 

    What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

    • Risk control

    • Safety control

    • Risk management

    • Safety management

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is risk management. Risk management is a simple and systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying potential risks, assessing their likelihood and impact, and implementing strategies to mitigate or eliminate them. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and success of their operations. Safety control and safety management are related concepts but do not encompass the comprehensive approach of risk management.

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  • 6. 

    The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

    • Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host

    • Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down

    • Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords

    • Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed

    Correct Answer
    A. Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down
    Explanation
    A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down because it requires processing power and memory to continuously monitor and analyze system activities. This can result in decreased performance and potentially impact the overall functionality of the host.

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  • 7. 

    Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

    • Working at a bench

    • Walking across carpet

    • Walking across a vinyl floor

    • Picking up a common plastic bag

    Correct Answer
    A. Walking across carpet
    Explanation
    Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current. When we walk across a carpet, friction is created between our shoes and the carpet surface. This friction causes the transfer of electrons between the two surfaces, resulting in an accumulation of static charge on our bodies. This static charge can then be discharged when we touch a conductive object, such as a metal doorknob, creating an electrostatic current. Walking across carpet is known to generate more static electricity compared to other activities listed, such as working at a bench or walking across a vinyl floor.

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  • 8. 

    Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise
    Explanation
    Electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference are commonly referred to as "noise" in the context of power line faults. Noise refers to any unwanted electrical signal that can disrupt the normal functioning of electronic devices or communication systems. In the case of power lines, noise can be caused by various factors such as electromagnetic radiation from nearby sources, faulty equipment, or poor grounding. This interference can affect the quality of power supply and cause disruptions or malfunctions in sensitive electronic equipment.

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  • 9. 

    To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 25
    Explanation
    To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your muscles and joints, increasing the risk of injuries such as strains, sprains, or even more serious conditions like hernias. By using team lifting, the load is distributed among multiple people, reducing the strain on each individual and making it safer to handle heavier items.

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  • 10. 

    When working on electrical circuits, the role of the safety observer is normally performed by the

    • Trainer

    • Certifier

    • Technician

    • Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The role of the safety observer in electrical circuits is typically performed by a supervisor. A supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work being done, ensuring safety protocols are followed, and monitoring the overall safety of the work environment. They have the authority and knowledge to intervene if any unsafe practices or conditions are observed, making them suitable for the role of a safety observer in electrical circuits.

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  • 11. 

    To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

    • All personnel

    • Only safety personnel

    • Only civilian personnel

    • Only medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel
    Explanation
    The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that everyone in the organization, regardless of their role or department, is responsible for identifying, assessing, and managing risks. By involving all personnel in the RM process, the organization can benefit from a collective effort to mitigate potential hazards and ensure the safety and well-being of everyone involved. This approach promotes a culture of risk awareness and encourages proactive measures to prevent accidents and incidents.

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  • 12. 

    How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • Four

    • Five

    • Six

    • Seven

    Correct Answer
    A. Five
    Explanation
    The correct answer is five because the risk management process typically involves five steps: identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and communication. In the identification step, potential risks are identified and documented. The assessment step involves analyzing the identified risks to determine their likelihood and impact. Mitigation involves developing strategies to minimize or eliminate the risks. Monitoring involves tracking the effectiveness of the mitigation strategies and making adjustments as needed. Finally, communication involves sharing information about the risks and mitigation efforts with relevant stakeholders.

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  • 13. 

    How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).

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  • 14. 

    At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for managing communication between applications and provides services such as file transfers, email, and web browsing. By operating at this layer, an application-level firewall can monitor and control traffic based on the specific application protocols being used, allowing it to provide more granular and targeted security measures.

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  • 15. 

    One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

    • Can decrypt data

    • Uses very few network resources

    • Monitors logs for policy violations

    • Can analyzed encrypted network traffic

    Correct Answer
    A. Uses very few network resources
    Explanation
    A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) that uses very few network resources is advantageous because it minimizes the impact on network performance. This means that the NIDS can monitor network traffic and detect potential intrusions without causing significant slowdowns or disruptions to the network. By using fewer network resources, the NIDS can operate efficiently and effectively, allowing for continuous monitoring and protection against intrusions without negatively affecting network performance.

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  • 16. 

    The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • Having information ready when needed

    • Not being able to deny who performed network actions

    • The protection of the network from those not authorized access

    • The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission

    Correct Answer
    A. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission
    Explanation
    Integrity in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption refers to the assurance that no unauthorized individual has tampered with or destroyed information without proper permission. It ensures that the data remains intact and unaltered, maintaining its accuracy and reliability. This is crucial for maintaining the trustworthiness and security of a network, as it prevents unauthorized modifications or destruction of sensitive information.

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  • 17. 

    What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

    • Protection from noise

    • Protection from lightning

    • Protection from blackouts

    • Protection brownouts

    Correct Answer
    A. Protection from lightning
    Explanation
    An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. This system is designed to safely conduct the electrical current from a lightning strike away from the facility and direct it into the ground, minimizing the risk of damage to the building and its occupants. By providing a designated path for the lightning to follow, this system helps prevent electrical fires, equipment damage, and other hazards associated with lightning strikes.

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  • 18. 

    What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

    • RJ-11

    • RJ-15

    • RJ-45

    • RJ-49

    Correct Answer
    A. RJ-45
    Explanation
    RJ-45 is the correct answer because it is the standard conductor used for data networking. RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for Ethernet connections and can support data transfer rates up to 10 gigabits per second. They have 8 pins and are typically used with twisted pair cables. RJ-11, RJ-15, and RJ-49 are not used for data networking purposes. RJ-11 is commonly used for telephone connections, RJ-15 is not a standard connector, and RJ-49 is used for T3 connections.

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  • 19. 

    At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming and outgoing packets to make decisions about whether to allow or block them based on predefined rules and filters. By operating at this layer, a packet filter gateway can effectively control network traffic and enhance network security.

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  • 20. 

    What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

    • Digital

    • Biometric

    • Encryption

    • E-mail signing

    Correct Answer
    A. Digital
    Explanation
    A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is a digital file that contains information about the user and is issued by a trusted authority. This certificate is used to verify the identity of the user in online transactions and communications. It provides a secure way to ensure that the user is who they claim to be, protecting against identity theft and fraud.

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  • 21. 

    What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

    • Bonding

    • Shielding

    • Annealing

    • Grounding

    Correct Answer
    A. Shielding
    Explanation
    Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves the use of materials or structures that can block or absorb electromagnetic radiation, preventing it from interfering with the operation of electronic equipment. This can include the use of metal enclosures, conductive coatings, or shielding cables to minimize the impact of external electromagnetic fields and prevent interference from affecting sensitive electronic components.

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  • 22. 

    Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts?

    • Class I

    • Class II

    • Class III

    • Class IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I
    Explanation
    Class I is the correct answer because it is the only class among the given options that has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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  • 23. 

    Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Blackout
    Explanation
    A blackout refers to a complete loss of utility power, resulting in a total absence of electricity. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the power grid are affected, causing a complete disruption of power supply. This is different from other power line faults such as sags, spikes, or noise, which may cause fluctuations or disturbances in the power supply but do not result in a complete loss of utility power.

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  • 24. 

    Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

    • Sag

    • Spike

    • Noise

    • Blackout

    Correct Answer
    A. Spike
    Explanation
    A spike in the power line refers to a sudden and temporary increase in voltage. This fault category is characterized by a rapid and dramatic surge in voltage, which can cause damage to electrical equipment. Spikes are often caused by lightning strikes, power surges, or switching operations. They can lead to the failure of sensitive electronic devices and can pose a safety risk.

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  • 25. 

    Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

    • Emitter

    • Receiver

    • Transmitter

    • Synchronizer

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver
    Explanation
    The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. In a BERT test, a known test pattern is transmitted and then received by the receiver section. The receiver analyzes the received pattern and compares it to the expected pattern to calculate the bit error rate. This helps to determine the quality and reliability of the communication channel. The receiver plays a crucial role in accurately measuring the errors in the received data.

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  • 26. 

    What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?

    • Trace route

    • Route generator

    • Traffic generator

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING)

    Correct Answer
    A. Trace route
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Trace route." Trace route is a network diagnostic tool used to track the path that packets take from one network node to another. It sends out a series of packets with incrementally increasing time-to-live (TTL) values, allowing it to determine the route taken and measure the time it takes for each packet to reach its destination. By doing so, it helps in identifying network connectivity issues, locating network bottlenecks, and troubleshooting network problems.

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  • 27. 

    Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

    • 1118

    • 457

    • 55

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 457
    Explanation
    AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions, such as damaged equipment, unsafe working environments, or potential hazards that could cause harm. By using AF Form 457, Air Force personnel can easily and efficiently report these conditions to the appropriate authorities, allowing for prompt action to be taken to mitigate the risk and ensure the safety of personnel and property.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept unnecessary risk

    • Apply the RM process continuously

    • Train and adhere to safety guidelines

    • Make risk decisions at the lowest level

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the RM process continuously
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Apply the RM process continuously." This principle of risk management emphasizes the importance of consistently applying the risk management process throughout the entire duration of a project or operation. By continuously assessing and managing risks, organizations can proactively identify and address potential threats, minimize their impact, and maximize opportunities. This approach ensures that risk management remains an ongoing and integral part of decision-making and planning processes, helping to protect the organization's assets, reputation, and overall success.

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  • 29. 

    An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave lacks the necessary security measures to protect against unauthorized access and potential intrusions. Without a firewall, the enclave is vulnerable to network-based attacks, while the absence of an IDS leaves it susceptible to detecting and responding to potential security breaches. Overall, the absence of these security measures increases the risk of unauthorized access and compromises the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the enclave's resources.

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  • 30. 

    The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

    • Maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall

    • Standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall

    • Maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices

    • Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN). This task is likely assigned to another entity or department within the network infrastructure.

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  • 31. 

    Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

    • Active only

    • Passive only

    • Passive and active

    • Neither passive nor active

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive only
    Explanation
    Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. They work passively by analyzing network packets and comparing them against known attack signatures or abnormal behavior patterns. NIDS do not actively intervene or block any traffic; instead, they generate alerts or notifications to alert system administrators or security personnel about potential threats. Therefore, the correct answer is "passive only" as NIDS solely operate in a passive manner without actively intervening in network traffic.

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  • 32. 

    What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

    • Equipment processing unencrypted classified information

    • Equipment processing encrypted classified information

    • Equipment processing clear-text classified information

    • Equipment processing plaintext classified information

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment processing encrypted classified information
    Explanation
    The equipment that should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts is the one processing encrypted classified information. This is because BLACK is typically used to represent equipment that handles sensitive and classified information, and encryption is a crucial aspect of protecting classified data from unauthorized access or interception.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

    • Cable

    • Circuit

    • Facility

    • Equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable
    Explanation
    Cable is the correct answer because it is the type of shielding that utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit, or twisted wire around a conductor. Shielding is used to protect the conductor from external electromagnetic interference.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?

    • Passive standby

    • Line interactive

    • Double conversion

    • Ferro resonant standby

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive standby
    Explanation
    Passive standby UPS, also known as offline UPS, is a type of uninterruptible power supply that provides basic power protection by switching to battery power when the input power fails. In normal operation, the UPS allows the input power to bypass the battery and directly power the connected equipment. When the input power fails, the UPS switches to battery power to provide uninterrupted power to the equipment. This type of UPS is commonly used for protecting personal computers and other low-power devices.

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  • 35. 

    Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

    • Unshielded

    • Shielded

    • Twisted pair

    • Multipair

    Correct Answer
    A. Shielded
    Explanation
    A shielded cable is designed to prevent the radiation of energy and is also able to resist the interference caused by nearby magnetic fields. The shielding of the cable is typically made of a conductive material, such as aluminum or copper, which acts as a barrier to electromagnetic interference. This shielding helps to maintain the integrity of the signals transmitted through the cable, making it a suitable choice for applications where electromagnetic interference is a concern.

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  • 36. 

    What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

    • Tip and Ring

    • Tip and Color

    • Rate and Color

    • Pair and Position

    Correct Answer
    A. Tip and Ring
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Tip and Ring. Tip and Ring are used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable. In telecommunications, the tip is the positive conductor, and the ring is the negative conductor. This terminology is commonly used in telephone systems, where the tip and ring connections are used to transmit audio signals. By identifying the tip and ring, technicians can ensure that the correct polarity is maintained for proper signal transmission.

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  • 37. 

    When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

    • Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack

    • Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested

    • Place the meter in frequency mode

    • Set the range for maximum reading

    Correct Answer
    A. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested
    Explanation
    Before using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested. This precaution is necessary to avoid any potential electrical hazards or damage to the meter. By disconnecting the power, it ensures that there is no current flowing through the circuit, making it safe to measure the resistance accurately without any interference.

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  • 38. 

    What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

    • Packet internetwork groper (PING)

    • Traffic generator

    • Route generator

    • Trace route

    Correct Answer
    A. Packet internetwork groper (PING)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Packet internetwork groper (PING)". PING is an active test that is commonly used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the target node and waits for a response. If the node is connected and responsive, it will send a reply back. PING is a widely used tool for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and measuring network performance.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

    • Transmission security

    • Technical security

    • Emission security

    • Physical security

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical security
    Explanation
    Technical security is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs primarily focus on protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information during its transmission. Transmission security ensures that information is securely transmitted over networks. Emission security deals with preventing unauthorized disclosure of information through unintentional emissions. Physical security involves protecting physical assets and infrastructure. However, technical security refers to measures taken to protect the technical aspects of a system, such as software, hardware, and networks. While important for overall system security, it is not specifically related to communications security in this context.

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  • 40. 

    Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    • Physical

    • Nuclear

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear
    Explanation
    Nuclear hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards. The four major types of hazards are biological, chemical, physical, and nuclear hazards. While biological hazards involve the risk of exposure to harmful organisms or substances, chemical hazards involve the risk of exposure to toxic or hazardous chemicals. Physical hazards refer to the risk of injury or harm due to physical factors such as noise, radiation, or temperature. On the other hand, nuclear hazards specifically pertain to the risk of exposure to radioactive materials or nuclear reactions.

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  • 41. 

    Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    • Physical

    • Stress

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress
    Explanation
    Stress is the correct answer because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to increased stress levels in the workplace. These factors can negatively impact an individual's mental and physical well-being, leading to a variety of health issues.

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  • 42. 

    What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

    • 2000

    • 3000

    • 7000

    • 8000

    Correct Answer
    A. 7000
    Explanation
    The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers various aspects of security in the Air Force. In this case, the question specifically asks about emission security (EMSEC). The correct answer is 7000 because AFSSI 7000 specifically focuses on EMSEC, which involves protecting against unauthorized disclosure of information through unintentional electromagnetic emissions. This instruction provides guidelines and procedures for managing and mitigating the risks associated with electromagnetic emissions and ensuring the security of Air Force systems.

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  • 43. 

    Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

    • Blue

    • Orange

    • White/blue

    • White/Orange

    Correct Answer
    A. White/Orange
    Explanation
    In a typical EIA/TIA 568B connector, Pin 1 is color-coded as White/Orange. This color combination is used to identify the specific pin and its corresponding function in the connector.

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  • 44. 

    What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

    • Core, cladding, and shield

    • Core, cladding, and jacket

    • Core, conductor, and shield

    • Core, conductor, and jacket

    Correct Answer
    A. Core, cladding, and jacket
    Explanation
    The three sections of a fiber optic cable are the core, cladding, and jacket. The core is the central part of the cable where the light signals travel through. The cladding surrounds the core and helps to keep the light signals contained within the core. The jacket is the outermost layer of the cable, providing protection and insulation for the core and cladding.

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  • 45. 

    What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

    • Cyclic redundancy check

    • Bipolar violation

    • Bit slip

    • Frame

    Correct Answer
    A. Bipolar violation
    Explanation
    A bipolar violation is the type of error that occurs when two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity violate alternate mark inversion coding rules. This means that instead of alternating between positive and negative voltage levels, two consecutive positive or negative pulses are sent. This violates the encoding scheme and can lead to errors in data transmission.

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  • 46. 

    Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

    • IP telephony

    • Network telephony

    • Voice protection system

    • Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)

    Correct Answer
    A. IP telephony
    Explanation
    IP telephony is the correct answer because it accurately describes the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). IP telephony, also known as Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), allows for the transmission of voice signals in digital form over an IP network, enabling voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines. This technology has become increasingly popular due to its cost-effectiveness and flexibility.

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  • 47. 

    At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    A circuit layer gateway operates at the transport layer (layer 4) of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between end systems, providing services such as segmentation, flow control, and error recovery. A circuit layer gateway acts as a translator between different protocols or network architectures at this layer, allowing communication between networks with different protocols.

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  • 48. 

    What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

    • Set a login ID and password combination for access

    • Install biometrics and encryption certificates

    • Place a lock on computer

    • Store in locked case

    Correct Answer
    A. Set a login ID and password combination for access
    Explanation
    The first line of defense in securing laptops is to set a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing the laptop and its data. By requiring a unique login ID and a strong password, the laptop becomes more secure and less vulnerable to potential threats.

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  • 49. 

    What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

    • Distance and angle

    • Distance and separation

    • Induction and grounding

    • Induction and impedance

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance and angle
    Explanation
    The ability to minimize compromising emanations in a conductor is influenced by both distance and angle. Distance refers to the physical separation between the conductor and potential sources of interference, while angle refers to the orientation or direction of the conductor in relation to these sources. By increasing the distance and adjusting the angle appropriately, the conductor can reduce the likelihood of electromagnetic interference and maintain better signal integrity.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 19, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Samattes
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