CDC 3D152 Ure Volume 3

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3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

Systems and procedures.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to 

    • A.

      A. line noise.

    • B.

      B. weather effects.

    • C.

      C. frequency distortion.

    • D.

      D. electromagnetic interference.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. weather effects.
    Explanation
    Microwave wavelengths are susceptible to weather effects because they can be absorbed or scattered by rain, snow, fog, and other atmospheric conditions. This can result in signal loss or degradation, leading to poor communication or data transmission. Therefore, weather effects are a disadvantage of microwave wavelengths.

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  • 2. 

    What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?

    • A.

      A. Atmospheric pressure.

    • B.

      B. Propagation medium.

    • C.

      C. Temperature.

    • D.

      D. Moisture.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Propagation medium.
    Explanation
    The refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much light slows down when it passes through that medium. In the case of air, the refractive index is primarily determined by its temperature. As temperature increases, the refractive index of air decreases. Atmospheric pressure, moisture content, and other factors can also have a small effect on the refractive index of air, but the propagation medium itself, which refers to the air itself, does not play a significant role in determining the refractive index.

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  • 3. 

    The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is 

    • A.

      A. frequency.

    • B.

      B. power output.

    • C.

      C. bandwidth of the transmission medium.

    • D.

      D. distance between equipment and transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. frequency.
    Explanation
    The correct size of a waveguide is determined by the frequency of the transmitted signal. Different frequencies require different sizes of waveguides to ensure efficient transmission. The size of the waveguide affects the propagation characteristics of the signal, such as attenuation and dispersion. Therefore, selecting the appropriate size based on the frequency is crucial for optimal signal transmission.

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  • 4. 

    How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?

    • A.

      A. 2,230.

    • B.

      B. 2,320.

    • C.

      C. 22,300.

    • D.

      D. 23,200.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 22,300.
    Explanation
    Satellites are placed in orbit approximately 22,300 miles above the Earth's surface. This distance allows satellites to maintain a geostationary orbit, meaning they stay fixed above a specific point on the Earth's surface. At this altitude, satellites can provide continuous coverage and communication services, such as television broadcasting, weather monitoring, and GPS navigation.

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  • 5. 

    Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?

    • A.

      A. Milstar Communication System.

    • B.

      B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

    • C.

      C. Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM).

    • D.

      D. Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
    Explanation
    The Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) is used to transmit space operations. This system is specifically designed for military use and provides secure and reliable communication capabilities for various military operations. The other options, such as the Milstar Communication System, Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM), and Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC), may also have communication capabilities but are not specifically designed for space operations like the DSCS. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

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  • 6. 

    To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be

    • A.

      A. phase shifted.

    • B.

      B. transmitted.

    • C.

      C. modulated.

    • D.

      D. encoded.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. modulated.
    Explanation
    In order to transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it needs to be modulated. Modulation is the process of altering the characteristics of the carrier signal, such as amplitude, frequency, or phase, to encode the audio information onto it. This modulation allows the audio signal to be combined with the carrier signal and transmitted over the RF medium.

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  • 7. 

    What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?

    • A.

      A. Lightwave.

    • B.

      B. Microwave.

    • C.

      C. Soundwave.

    • D.

      D. Groundwave.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Groundwave.
    Explanation
    High frequency (HF) transmissions follow the groundwave path from the antenna to the distant end. Groundwave propagation refers to the transmission of radio waves along the surface of the Earth, allowing them to travel long distances. This type of propagation is commonly used for HF communications, as it allows for reliable long-range transmission. Lightwave, microwave, and soundwave are not applicable in this context as they do not pertain to the transmission of HF signals.

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  • 8. 

    Which is notdisadvantage of laser light transmission?

    • A.

      A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.

    • B.

      B. Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.

    • C.

      C. Sensitive to atmospheric interference.

    • D.

      D. Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver. This is not a disadvantage because laser light transmission does not require precise alignment between the transmitter and receiver. Unlike other forms of wireless transmission, such as radio waves, laser light transmission is highly directional and focused, allowing for a more reliable and efficient connection. This eliminates the need for careful alignment and ensures that the transmitted signal reaches the intended receiver without interference or loss of signal strength.

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  • 9. 

    Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit

    • A.

      A. a relatively wide range of frequencies.

    • B.

      B. only high frequency information.

    • C.

      C. a relatively wide range of amplitudes.

    • D.

      D. only high amplitude information.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. a relatively wide range of frequencies.
    Explanation
    Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit a relatively wide range of frequencies. This means that it is capable of transmitting a variety of frequencies, from low to high, allowing for the transmission of different types of information. It is not limited to only high frequency information or high amplitude information. The term "broad" in broadband indicates the wide range of frequencies that can be transmitted.

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  • 10. 

    Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?

    • A.

      A. Telephone lines.

    • B.

      B. Television cable lines.

    • C.

      C. Satellite systems.

    • D.

      D. laser light.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. laser light.
    Explanation
    Broadband technology utilizes various transmission mediums to transmit data, including telephone lines, television cable lines, and satellite systems. However, it does not use laser light as a transmission medium. Laser light is commonly used in fiber optic communication systems, which is a different technology from broadband.

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  • 11. 

    The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the

    • A.

      A. basic rate interface (BRI).

    • B.

      B. primary rate interface (PRI).

    • C.

      C. trunk rate interface (TRI).

    • D.

      D. switch rate interface (SRI).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. primary rate interface (PRI).
    Explanation
    The primary rate interface (PRI) is the ISDN configuration typically used to connect switches together. PRI provides 23 B-channels and 1 D-channel, allowing for a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. This configuration is commonly used in larger networks where multiple switches need to be interconnected. The basic rate interface (BRI) is a lower capacity configuration with 2 B-channels and 1 D-channel, typically used for smaller connections such as individual phone lines. The trunk rate interface (TRI) and switch rate interface (SRI) are not standard ISDN configurations.

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  • 12. 

    How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?

    • A.

      A. 2, 1.

    • B.

      B. 30, 2.

    • C.

      C. 1, 24.

    • D.

      D. 23, 1.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 23, 1.
    Explanation
    The standard configuration in North American ISDN PRI application uses 23 B channels and 1 D channel. The B channels are used for carrying voice or data traffic, while the D channel is used for signaling and control purposes. This configuration allows for a total of 24 channels, with one channel reserved for signaling.

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  • 13. 

    What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?

    • A.

      A. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.

    • B.

      B. The invention of the multi-line telephone.

    • C.

      C. Military communication requirements.

    • D.

      D. Radio communication requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
    Explanation
    The primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system was the cabling issues caused by point-to-point telephone access. This means that connecting each telephone directly to another telephone caused problems with managing and organizing the cables. The telephone exchange system solved this issue by centralizing the connection point, allowing for more efficient and organized communication.

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  • 14. 

    When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

    • A.

      A. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.

    • B.

      B. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.

    • C.

      C. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.

    • D.

      D. requires a dedicated switch to make the connection.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
    Explanation
    In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a physical path is established between the calling and receiving parties for the duration of the call. This dedicated circuit ensures that the communication is uninterrupted and has a dedicated bandwidth allocated to it. Unlike packet-switched networks, where data is divided into packets and transmitted separately, circuit-switched networks keep the connection open throughout the call. This allows for real-time, continuous communication between the parties involved.

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  • 15. 

    The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

    • A.

      A. circumvention, and confidentiality.

    • B.

      B. circumvention, and disclosure.

    • C.

      C. confidentiality, and integrity.

    • D.

      D. disclosure, and integrity.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. confidentiality, and integrity.
    Explanation
    The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability, confidentiality, and integrity. Availability refers to the system being accessible and functioning properly. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the information exchanged over the network. Integrity ensures that the data transmitted is accurate and has not been tampered with. Therefore, the correct answer is C. confidentiality, and integrity.

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  • 16. 

    What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?

    • A.

      A. Subversion.

    • B.

      B. Unauthorized monitoring.

    • C.

      C. Inexperienced switch technicians.

    • D.

      D. Inadequate maintenance practices.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Subversion.
    Explanation
    Subversion refers to the act of undermining or overthrowing something, and in the context of a voice network system, it can pose a serious threat to its integrity. Subversion could involve unauthorized access or manipulation of the system, leading to potential security breaches, unauthorized monitoring, or even complete system failure. This threat could compromise the confidentiality, availability, and reliability of the voice network system, making it the most serious threat among the options provided.

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  • 17. 

    How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

    • A.

      A. 32.

    • B.

      B. 12.

    • C.

      C. 3.

    • D.

      D. 1.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 3.
    Explanation
    The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has three serial data interface ports.

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  • 18. 

    What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?

    • A.

      A. A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city.

    • B.

      B. A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system.

    • C.

      C. A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area.

    • D.

      D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
    Explanation
    The Private Branch Exchange (PBX) plays the role of a small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization. It allows for internal communication within the organization by routing calls between different extensions and managing features such as call transfer, voicemail, and conference calling. It is designed to meet the telephony needs of a specific organization and is not meant to handle traffic for a city or metropolitan area.

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  • 19. 

    Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

    • A.

      A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.

    • B.

      B. DMS-100/200 and MSL-100.

    • C.

      C. DMS-100/200 and DMS-200.

    • D.

      D. DMS-200 and MSL-100.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100. These models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services.

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  • 20. 

    What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?

    • A.

      A. 10,000.

    • B.

      B. 30,000.

    • C.

      C. 100,000.

    • D.

      D. 300,000.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 100,000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. 100,000. The DMS-100 is a digital multiplex system that supports a maximum of 100,000 ports. This means that it can handle up to 100,000 simultaneous connections or communications.

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  • 21. 

    Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

    • A.

      A. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).

    • B.

      B. CM and system load module (SLM).

    • C.

      C. Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU).

    • D.

      D. CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. CM and system load module (SLM).
    Explanation
    The control component of the SuperNode central control is made up of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These elements are responsible for managing and controlling the operations of the SuperNode system. The CM determines the mode of operation of the system, while the SLM monitors and manages the system load to ensure optimal performance. Together, these elements play a crucial role in the control and management of the SuperNode central control.

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  • 22. 

    What link is used to connect the digital mulitplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus?

    • A.

      A. DS-1.

    • B.

      B. DS-30.

    • C.

      C. DS-30A.

    • D.

      D. DS-512.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. DS-512.
    Explanation
    The link used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus is DS-512. This means that the DMS-cor is connected to the DMS-bus using a DS-512 link.

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  • 23. 

    Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?

    • A.

      A. Central control.

    • B.

      B. input/output (I/O).

    • C.

      C. peripheral module (PM).

    • D.

      D. peripheral subsystem (PS).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. peripheral module (PM).
    Explanation
    The NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers through the peripheral module (PM). The peripheral module acts as an interface between the central control and the subscribers, allowing for the transmission of data and signals between the two. This component plays a crucial role in connecting the subscribers to the switching system, making it the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?

    • A.

      A. Printer, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.

    • B.

      B. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.

    • C.

      C. A maintenance and administration position (MAP).

    • D.

      D. The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
  • 25. 

    Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a 

    • A.

      A. cable manhole.

    • B.

      B. telecommunications cable closet.

    • C.

      C. building cable raceway.

    • D.

      D. cable vault.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. cable vault.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. cable vault. A cable vault is a secure underground chamber or room where cables enter a central office facility. It provides protection and easy access to the cables for maintenance and repairs. Cable manholes are typically used for accessing underground cables in outdoor settings, while a telecommunications cable closet is a small room or enclosure used to house networking equipment. Building cable raceways are pathways or conduits used for routing cables within a building. Therefore, the most appropriate option for cables entering a central office facility would be a cable vault.

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  • 26. 

    The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to

    • A.

      A. verify the circuit is not in use.

    • B.

      B. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

    • C.

      C. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

    • D.

      D. avoid activating alarm circuits.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
    Explanation
    Measuring the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure the safety of the person performing the task. By measuring the voltage, one can determine if dangerous voltages are present on the line. Removing or replacing protectors without checking the voltage could result in electric shock or other accidents. Therefore, it is crucial to measure the voltage to ensure that it is safe to proceed with the task.

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  • 27. 

    Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?

    • A.

      A. Vertical bus.

    • B.

      B. Horizontal bus.

    • C.

      C. Clock/message card.

    • D.

      D. Enhanced network (ENET) processor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Vertical bus.
    Explanation
    Incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix through the vertical bus. The vertical bus is responsible for carrying the incoming circuits from the PM to the cross-point card matrix, where they can be switched and routed to the desired destination. This allows for efficient communication and connectivity within the system.

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  • 28. 

    Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matix, any input channel has access to any available

    • A.

      A. computing mode channel.

    • B.

      B. peripheral channel.

    • C.

      C. H-bus channel.

    • D.

      D. output channel.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. output channel.
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, which means that any input channel can access any available output channel. Therefore, the correct answer is D. output channel, as it aligns with the explanation provided.

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  • 29. 

    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

    • A.

      A. Journal file.

    • B.

      B. Table control.

    • C.

      C. Dump/restore.

    • D.

      D. Pending order file.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Table control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. Table control. The table control facility in the DMS-100 database is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This facility ensures that the data in the tables is organized and structured effectively, allowing for efficient retrieval and manipulation of information.

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  • 30. 

    Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

    • A.

      A. Journal file.

    • B.

      B. Table control.

    • C.

      C. Dump/restore.

    • D.

      D. Pending order file.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Pending order file.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. Pending order file. The pending order file is a DMS-100 database facility that is used to preserve data modification orders (DMO) and retrieve them at a specified time for execution. This facility ensures that any modifications made to the data are recorded and can be executed later as per the specified time. This helps in maintaining the integrity of the data and ensures that all modifications are properly executed. The other options, such as the journal file, table control, and dump/restore, do not specifically provide facilities for preserving and retrieving data modifications orders.

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  • 31. 

    Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving DMO on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?

    • A.

      A. Journal file.

    • B.

      B. Table control.

    • C.

      C. Dump/restore.

    • D.

      D. Pending order file.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Journal file.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Journal file. The journal file in the DMS-100 database facility is used to preserve DMO (Data Manipulation Operations) on tape or disk. This allows for the restoration of data tables in case of a system failure. The journal file keeps a record of all changes made to the database, ensuring that no data is lost and providing a backup option for recovery purposes.

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  • 32. 

    What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?

    • A.

      A. Administration and maintenance interface.

    • B.

      B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.

    • C.

      C. Meridian mail user interface.

    • D.

      D. Message service interface.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Meridian mail user interface.
    Explanation
    The Meridian mail user interface is the voice mail interface that has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature. This feature allows users to set a temporary greeting to inform callers that they are currently away or unavailable. The other options, such as the administration and maintenance interface, the voice messaging user interface forum, and the message service interface, do not specifically mention support for the TAG feature.

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  • 33. 

    What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?

    • A.

      A. Administration and maintenance interface.

    • B.

      B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.

    • C.

      C. Meridian mail user interface.

    • D.

      D. Message service interface.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
  • 34. 

    Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33º counterclockwise?

    • A.

      A. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors.

    • B.

      B. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors.

    • C.

      C. R-Y was shifted to minimum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for human vision.

    • D.

      D. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
    Explanation
    The R-Y and B-Y signals are shifted 33° counterclockwise in order to maximize the color acuity for human vision. By shifting R-Y to the maximum and B-Y to the minimum color acuity, the signals are aligned with the way that humans perceive color, allowing for accurate and realistic color reproduction. This adjustment ensures that the R-Y and B-Y signals accurately represent their respective primary colors in a way that is most compatible with human vision.

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  • 35. 

    The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the 

    • A.

      A. encoder.

    • B.

      B. decoder.

    • C.

      C. multiplexer.

    • D.

      D. demultiplexer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. encoder.
    Explanation
    The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the encoder. An encoder is a device that converts analog signals into digital signals. In this case, the RGB outputs from the camera are analog signals, and the encoder converts them into digital signals that can be processed and transmitted. The encoder is responsible for encoding the RGB signals and preparing them for further processing or transmission.

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  • 36. 

    What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?

    • A.

      A. 4-quadraplex sideband (4-QSB).

    • B.

      B. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).

    • C.

      C. 4-vestigial sideband (4-VSB).

    • D.

      D. 8-quadratrue modulation (8-QM).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
    Explanation
    The Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system uses 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB) modulation technique. This modulation technique is specifically designed for digital television broadcasting and is used to transmit high-quality audio and video signals over the airwaves. The 8-VSB modulation technique allows for efficient use of bandwidth and provides robust transmission in various environmental conditions, making it suitable for over-the-air television broadcasting.

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  • 37. 

    What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?

    • A.

      A. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)-1.

    • B.

      B. MPEG-2.

    • C.

      C. MPEG-3.

    • D.

      D. MPEG-4.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. MPEG-2.
    Explanation
    MPEG-2 is the modulation technique used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission. MPEG-2 is a widely used standard for compressing and transmitting video and audio data. It is specifically designed for broadcasting applications and is capable of delivering high-quality video and audio signals over cable networks. It provides efficient compression and transmission of digital video signals, making it suitable for cable transmission.

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  • 38. 

    How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?

    • A.

      A. 2.

    • B.

      B. 4.

    • C.

      C. 6.

    • D.

      D. 8.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 8.
    Explanation
    In high-definition 1080 line video, each frame has a resolution of 1920x1088 pixels. However, the display resolution is only 1920x1080 pixels. This means that the last 8 lines of each frame are discarded prior to display, resulting in a total of 8 lines of video being discarded. Therefore, the correct answer is D. 8.

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  • 39. 

    How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?

    • A.

      A. Series of magnetic patterns.

    • B.

      B. Series of edited electrical patterns.

    • C.

      C. Transferred current indents.

    • D.

      D. Transferred voltage indents.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Series of magnetic patterns.
    Explanation
    Information is recorded or stored on a videotape through a series of magnetic patterns. These patterns are created by manipulating the magnetic field on the tape, which aligns the magnetic particles in different orientations. These patterns represent the audio and video signals that are being recorded, and can be read back by a magnetic head during playback. This method allows for the storage and retrieval of information on the videotape.

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  • 40. 

    You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an

    • A.

      A. magnet.

    • B.

      B. conductor.

    • C.

      C. electromagnet.

    • D.

      D. charged capacitor.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. electromagnet.
    Explanation
    A video tape recorder (VTR) head is a device that uses an electromagnet to record and play back video signals on magnetic tape. The head contains a coil of wire that is wrapped around a core made of a magnetic material. When an electric current passes through the coil, it creates a magnetic field that interacts with the magnetic particles on the tape, allowing the recording and playback of video. Therefore, the comparison of a VTR head to an electromagnet is the most appropriate explanation.

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  • 41. 

    What function in a VTR is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?

    • A.

      A. Fast Forward.

    • B.

      B. Playback.

    • C.

      C. Erasure.

    • D.

      D. Rewind.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Playback.
    Explanation
    The function in a VTR that is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded is playback. During playback, the tape is moved across the playback heads at the same speed as it was recorded, allowing the recorded video and audio signals to be read and played back on a monitor or television screen. This process allows the user to view or listen to the recorded content.

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  • 42. 

    An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for 

    • A.

      A. minimizing video loss.

    • B.

      B. carrying a video waveform.

    • C.

      C. minimized signal dropout.

    • D.

      D. transmitting an analog waveform.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. carrying a video waveform.
    Explanation
    Digital video is a method of representing video signals using discrete values, such as binary numbers. It is not primarily used for minimizing video loss, minimizing signal dropout, or transmitting an analog waveform. Instead, digital video is used for carrying a video waveform, as it allows for more efficient storage, transmission, and manipulation of video data.

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  • 43. 

    What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?

    • A.

      A. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.

    • B.

      B. Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain.

    • C.

      C. The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality.

    • D.

      D. The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
    Explanation
    A major advantage of digital recording over analog recording is that material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality. This means that the recorded material can be modified and manipulated multiple times without any loss in the overall sound quality. In analog recording, each generation of copying or editing can introduce noise and degradation, resulting in a loss of fidelity. However, in digital recording, the information is stored as numerical data, allowing for precise and accurate editing without any noticeable loss in quality.

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  • 44. 

    Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rat, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?

    • A.

      A. D1.

    • B.

      B. D2.

    • C.

      C. D3.

    • D.

      D. D4.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. D1.
    Explanation
    D1 is the correct answer because it is a digital video tape format that uses a 4:2:2 standard, which refers to the chroma subsampling ratio. The 8 bit sampling rate indicates the color depth of the format. The 19mm wide tape is a characteristic of the D1 format. Additionally, D1 has a recording time of 94 minutes, which matches the given information.

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  • 45. 

    What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?

    • A.

      A. Tape meter.

    • B.

      B. Tracker.

    • C.

      C. Counter.

    • D.

      D. Display clock.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Counter.
    Explanation
    The means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR) is a counter. A counter keeps track of the elapsed time on the VTR, allowing users to easily monitor the duration of their recordings or playback. This feature is essential for managing and organizing video content effectively. Tape meter, tracker, and display clock do not specifically measure the amount of time played or recorded on a VTR, making them incorrect options.

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  • 46. 

    What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?

    • A.

      A. Effects keyer.

    • B.

      B. Effects preview multiplier.

    • C.

      C. Effects program multiplier.

    • D.

      D. Transition pattern generator.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Effects keyer.
    Explanation
    The effects keyer is the part of the video switcher that allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background. It is a tool used in video production to create overlays or layering effects by combining multiple video sources together. The effects keyer enables the user to superimpose graphics or other video content onto the main video feed, creating a visually appealing and dynamic composition.

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  • 47. 

    The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with

    • A.

      A. linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.

    • B.

      B. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.

    • C.

      C. key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal.

    • D.

      D. luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
    Explanation
    The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with either key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. This means that the effects keyer can use either the video signal from the key bus or a color matte signal that is generated internally to fill the key. This allows for flexibility in creating different visual effects during video switching.

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  • 48. 

    The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow

    • A.

      A. remote control of switcher transitions.

    • B.

      B. remote programming of all switcher functions.

    • C.

      C. parallel interface with the switcher effects memory.

    • D.

      D. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. remote control of switcher transitions.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow remote control of switcher transitions. This means that the GPI can be used to remotely initiate and control the switching between different sources or inputs on a switcher. This allows for seamless transitions between different video feeds or other inputs without the need for manual intervention.

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  • 49. 

    The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows

    • A.

      A. remote control of switcher transitions.

    • B.

      B. remote programming of all switcher functions.

    • C.

      C. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

    • D.

      D. remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
    Explanation
    The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator. This means that the switcher can be controlled and manipulated from a separate device such as a computer or digital picture manipulator, providing convenience and flexibility in operating the switcher.

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  • 50. 

    What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?

    • A.

      A. 60 Hz and 15,750 Hz.

    • B.

      B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

    • C.

      C. 15.750 Hz and 4.5 MHz.

    • D.

      D. 15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz. This suggests that the two common mode nulling adjustments in the video distribution amplifier are set at a frequency of 60 Hz and a frequency of 5.5 MHz.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 21, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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