CDC 3D152 Ure Volume 3
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Systems and procedures.
- 1.One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
- A.
A. line noise.
- B.
B. weather effects.
- C.
C. frequency distortion.
- D.
D. electromagnetic interference.
- 2.What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
- A.
A. Atmospheric pressure.
- B.
B. Propagation medium.
- C.
C. Temperature.
- D.
D. Moisture.
- 3.The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
- A.
A. frequency.
- B.
B. power output.
- C.
C. bandwidth of the transmission medium.
- D.
D. distance between equipment and transmitter.
- 4.How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
- A.
A. 2,230.
- B.
B. 2,320.
- C.
C. 22,300.
- D.
D. 23,200.
- 5.Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
- A.
A. Milstar Communication System.
- B.
B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
- C.
C. Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM).
- D.
D. Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC).
- 6.To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
- A.
A. phase shifted.
- B.
B. transmitted.
- C.
C. modulated.
- D.
D. encoded.
- 7.What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
- A.
A. Lightwave.
- B.
B. Microwave.
- C.
C. Soundwave.
- D.
D. Groundwave.
- 8.Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
- A.
A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
- B.
B. Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.
- C.
C. Sensitive to atmospheric interference.
- D.
D. Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission.
- 9.Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
- A.
A. a relatively wide range of frequencies.
- B.
B. only high frequency information.
- C.
C. a relatively wide range of amplitudes.
- D.
D. only high amplitude information.
- 10.Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
- A.
A. Telephone lines.
- B.
B. Television cable lines.
- C.
C. Satellite systems.
- D.
D. laser light.
- 11.The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
- A.
A. basic rate interface (BRI).
- B.
B. primary rate interface (PRI).
- C.
C. trunk rate interface (TRI).
- D.
D. switch rate interface (SRI).
- 12.How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
- A.
A. 2, 1.
- B.
B. 30, 2.
- C.
C. 1, 24.
- D.
D. 23, 1.
- 13.What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?
- A.
A. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
- B.
B. The invention of the multi-line telephone.
- C.
C. Military communication requirements.
- D.
D. Radio communication requirements.
- 14.When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
- A.
A. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.
- B.
B. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.
- C.
C. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
- D.
D. requires a dedicated switch to make the connection.
- 15.The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
- A.
A. circumvention, and confidentiality.
- B.
B. circumvention, and disclosure.
- C.
C. confidentiality, and integrity.
- D.
D. disclosure, and integrity.
- 16.What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
- A.
A. Subversion.
- B.
B. Unauthorized monitoring.
- C.
C. Inexperienced switch technicians.
- D.
D. Inadequate maintenance practices.
- 17.What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
- A.
A. A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city.
- B.
B. A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system.
- C.
C. A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area.
- D.
D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
- 18.How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?
- A.
A. 32.
- B.
B. 12.
- C.
C. 3.
- D.
D. 1.
- 19.Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
- A.
A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
- B.
B. DMS-100/200 and MSL-100.
- C.
C. DMS-100/200 and DMS-200.
- D.
D. DMS-200 and MSL-100.
- 20.What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
- A.
A. 10,000.
- B.
B. 30,000.
- C.
C. 100,000.
- D.
D. 300,000.
- 21.Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
- A.
A. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).
- B.
B. CM and system load module (SLM).
- C.
C. Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU).
- D.
D. CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).
- 22.What link is used to connect the digital mulitplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus?
- A.
A. DS-1.
- B.
B. DS-30.
- C.
C. DS-30A.
- D.
D. DS-512.
- 23.Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?
- A.
A. Central control.
- B.
B. input/output (I/O).
- C.
C. peripheral module (PM).
- D.
D. peripheral subsystem (PS).
- 24.What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
- A.
A. Printer, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.
- B.
B. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
- C.
C. A maintenance and administration position (MAP).
- D.
D. The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard.
- 25.Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
- A.
A. cable manhole.
- B.
B. telecommunications cable closet.
- C.
C. building cable raceway.
- D.
D. cable vault.
- 26.The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
- A.
A. verify the circuit is not in use.
- B.
B. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.
- C.
C. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
- D.
D. avoid activating alarm circuits.
- 27.Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
- A.
A. Vertical bus.
- B.
B. Horizontal bus.
- C.
C. Clock/message card.
- D.
D. Enhanced network (ENET) processor.
- 28.Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matix, any input channel has access to any available
- A.
A. computing mode channel.
- B.
B. peripheral channel.
- C.
C. H-bus channel.
- D.
D. output channel.
- 29.Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
- A.
A. Journal file.
- B.
B. Table control.
- C.
C. Dump/restore.
- D.
D. Pending order file.
- 30.Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
- A.
A. Journal file.
- B.
B. Table control.
- C.
C. Dump/restore.
- D.
D. Pending order file.
- 31.Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving DMO on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
- A.
A. Journal file.
- B.
B. Table control.
- C.
C. Dump/restore.
- D.
D. Pending order file.
- 32.What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
- A.
A. Administration and maintenance interface.
- B.
B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
- C.
C. Meridian mail user interface.
- D.
D. Message service interface.
- 33.What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
- A.
A. Administration and maintenance interface.
- B.
B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
- C.
C. Meridian mail user interface.
- D.
D. Message service interface.
- 34.Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33º counterclockwise?
- A.
A. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors.
- B.
B. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors.
- C.
C. R-Y was shifted to minimum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
- D.
D. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
- 35.The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
- A.
A. encoder.
- B.
B. decoder.
- C.
C. multiplexer.
- D.
D. demultiplexer.
- 36.What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
- A.
A. 4-quadraplex sideband (4-QSB).
- B.
B. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
- C.
C. 4-vestigial sideband (4-VSB).
- D.
D. 8-quadratrue modulation (8-QM).
- 37.What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
- A.
A. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)-1.
- B.
B. MPEG-2.
- C.
C. MPEG-3.
- D.
D. MPEG-4.
- 38.How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 4.
- C.
C. 6.
- D.
D. 8.
- 39.How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
- A.
A. Series of magnetic patterns.
- B.
B. Series of edited electrical patterns.
- C.
C. Transferred current indents.
- D.
D. Transferred voltage indents.
- 40.You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
- A.
A. magnet.
- B.
B. conductor.
- C.
C. electromagnet.
- D.
D. charged capacitor.
- 41.What function in a VTR is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
- A.
A. Fast Forward.
- B.
B. Playback.
- C.
C. Erasure.
- D.
D. Rewind.
- 42.An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
- A.
A. minimizing video loss.
- B.
B. carrying a video waveform.
- C.
C. minimized signal dropout.
- D.
D. transmitting an analog waveform.
- 43.What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
- A.
A. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
- B.
B. Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain.
- C.
C. The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality.
- D.
D. The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain.
- 44.Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rat, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
- A.
A. D1.
- B.
B. D2.
- C.
C. D3.
- D.
D. D4.
- 45.What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
- A.
A. Tape meter.
- B.
B. Tracker.
- C.
C. Counter.
- D.
D. Display clock.
- 46.What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
- A.
A. Effects keyer.
- B.
B. Effects preview multiplier.
- C.
C. Effects program multiplier.
- D.
D. Transition pattern generator.
- 47.The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
- A.
A. linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.
- B.
B. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
- C.
C. key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal.
- D.
D. luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.
- 48.The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
- A.
A. remote control of switcher transitions.
- B.
B. remote programming of all switcher functions.
- C.
C. parallel interface with the switcher effects memory.
- D.
D. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.
- 49.The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
- A.
A. remote control of switcher transitions.
- B.
B. remote programming of all switcher functions.
- C.
C. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.
- D.
D. remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
- 50.What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
- A.
A. 60 Hz and 15,750 Hz.
- B.
B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
- C.
C. 15.750 Hz and 4.5 MHz.
- D.
D. 15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
- 51.What is the beginning of a cable system called?
- A.
A. Head-end.
- B.
B. Trunk line.
- C.
C. Receiver.
- D.
D. Decoder.
- 52.What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
- A.
A. Multiplexer.
- B.
B. Demodulator.
- C.
C. Modulator.
- D.
D. Decoder.
- 53.What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
- A.
A. Head-end.
- B.
B. Trunk line.
- C.
C. Receiver.
- D.
D. Coax RJ-6
- 54.What must a line of detection detect?
- A.
A. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
- B.
B. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection.
- C.
C. Potential for intruder to bypass the system.
- D.
D. Possibility of equipment failures.
- 55.What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
- A.
A. Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work.
- B.
B. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.
- C.
C. Facilitate the detection of intruders.
- D.
D. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
- 56.The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
- A.
A. provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time hours.
- B.
B. identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone.
- C.
C. facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
- D.
D. present a means of deterring unauthorized entry.
- 57.The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
- A.
A. gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate.
- B.
B. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
- C.
C. personnel entry gate,inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse.
- D.
D. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.
- 58.What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
- A.
A. AN/GSS-42.
- B.
B. AN/GSS-41.
- C.
C. AN/GSS-29.
- D.
D. AN/GSS-39.
- 59.What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
- A.
A. Small annuciator system (SMAS).
- B.
B. Standard annunctiator system (STAS).
- C.
C. Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).
- D.
D. Security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART).
- 60.What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?
- A.
A. End-of-line (EOL) resistor.
- B.
B. Line termination unit.
- C.
C. EOL module.
- D.
D. Tamper interface unit.
- 61.Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
- A.
A. Ultrasonic.
- B.
B. Microwave.
- C.
C. Passive infrared.
- D.
D. Dual-phenomenology.
- 62.What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?
- A.
A. 1.5 to 10 seconds.
- B.
B. 1.5 to 15 seconds.
- C.
C. 3 to 10 seconds.
- D.
D. 5 to 15 seconds.
- 63.Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
- A.
A. 15-50 feet.
- B.
B. 15-75 feet.
- C.
C. 25-75 feet.
- D.
D. 30-90 feet.
- 64.What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
- A.
A. Alternate current (AC).
- B.
B. Direct current (DC).
- C.
C. Digital.
- D.
D. Analog.
- 65.A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
- A.
A. 100.
- B.
B. 150.
- C.
C. 200.
- D.
D. 300.
- 66.Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
- A.
A. Alarm duration.
- B.
B. Number of cuts.
- C.
C. Cable sensitivity.
- D.
D. Sector reporting priority.
- 67.What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
- A.
A. 150 ft.
- B.
B. 200 ft.
- C.
C. 328 ft.
- D.
D. 425 ft.
- 68.What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire (YTWS)?
- A.
A. 150 ft.
- B.
B. 200 ft.
- C.
C. 328 ft.
- D.
D. 425 ft.
- 69.What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire (VTWS) is removed?
- A.
A. None.
- B.
B. Tamper.
- C.
C. Intruder.
- D.
D. Equipment fault.
- 70.In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the VTWS remain operational?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 4.
- C.
C. 8.
- D.
D. 10.
- 71.How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
- A.
A. 0.5.
- B.
B. 1.
- C.
C. 2.
- D.
D. 4.
- 72.At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
- A.
A. 100 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.
- B.
B. 150 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.
- C.
C. 100 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
- D.
D. 150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
- 73.What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
- A.
A. 100 Hz.
- B.
B. 800 Hz.
- C.
C. 1000 Hz.
- D.
D. 1200 Hz.
- 74.What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
- A.
A. Beam break.
- B.
B. Signal fade margin.
- C.
C. Multipath deflection.
- D.
D. Dual-phenomena reflection.
- 75.When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
- A.
A. Lowest possible.
- B.
B. Highest possible.
- C.
C. Equal to the phase lock loop (PLL).
- D.
D. Midpoint.
- 76.How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
- A.
A. The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-Bus.
- B.
B. The T-Bus connects the Promina to other modules in the TDC suite.
- C.
C. The front card communicates with the rear card through the T-Bus.
- D.
D. The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
- 77.Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
- A.
A. using two trunk cards in one Promina
- B.
B. configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DS0s.
- C.
C. not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
- D.
D. consuming bandwidth equally in both directions while preserving one-way communication.
- 78.Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
- A.
A. Crypto Interface.
- B.
B. Basic Access.
- C.
C. Red Data.
- D.
D. Crypto.
- 79.If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
- A.
A. synchronization.
- B.
B. buffer overflow.
- C.
C. timing slips.
- D.
D. data speeds.
- 80.What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?
- A.
A. 12.
- B.
B. 16.
- C.
C. 24.
- D.
D. 32.
- 81.How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
- A.
A. 16, 8.
- B.
B. 12, 10.
- C.
C. 13, 8.
- D.
D. 13, 10.
- 82.For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the
- A.
A. management console.
- B.
B. internal firewall.
- C.
C. external router.
- D.
D. internal router.
- 83.For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?
- A.
A. KIV 19.
- B.
B. KIV-7HS/B.
- C.
C. CV-2048/8448-D.
- D.
D. Cisco 3745 router.
- 84.The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of
- A.
A. 4.
- B.
B. 6.
- C.
C. 8.
- D.
D. 2.
- 85.The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?
- A.
A. Transmission Control.
- B.
B. User Datagram.
- C.
C. File Transfer.
- D.
D. Internet.
- 86.What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
- A.
A. Stand alone.
- B.
B. Client only.
- C.
C. Gateway only.
- D.
D. Gateway/client.
- 87.The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
- A.
A. Ku, Ka.
- B.
B. C, X.
- C.
C. Ku, X.
- D.
D. Ka, C.
- 88.What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?
- A.
A. Military.
- B.
B. Type one.
- C.
C. Managed.
- D.
D. Classified.
- 89.Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?
- A.
A. Managed Ethernet switch (MES).
- B.
B. Display and keyboard.
- C.
C. Video converter.
- D.
D. RBM server.
- 90.A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
- A.
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- B.
B. Defense Information Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
- C.
C. the sytems control facility (SCF).
- D.
D. the end user.
- 91.Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of
- A.
A. the user.
- B.
B. Circuit control office (CCO).
- C.
C. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- D.
D. the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
- 92.Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TSO must the CCO submit an in-effect report?
- A.
A. 72.
- B.
B. 48.
- C.
C. 24.
- D.
D. 12.
- 93.What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
- A.
A. In-effect.
- B.
B. Exception.
- C.
C. Acceptance.
- D.
D. Delayed service.
- 94.Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
- A.
A. outage times.
- B.
B. reason for outage.
- C.
C. number of outages.
- D.
D. preempted outages.
- 95.Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?
- A.
A. Daily.
- B.
B. Weekly.
- C.
C. Monthly.
- D.
D. Annual.
- 96.If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
- A.
A. Quality control (QC).
- B.
B. Test and acceptance (T&A).
- C.
C. Operations and maintenance (O&M).
- D.
D. Operation acceptance.
- 97.The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
- A.
A. responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency.
- B.
B. "from" (sending) station.
- C.
C. "to" (receiving) station.
- D.
D. type of trunk.
- 98.Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
- A.
A. 310-55-1 only.
- B.
B. 300-175-9 only.
- C.
C. 310-70-1 and 310-55-1.
- D.
D. 310-70-1 and 300-175-9.
- 99.Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
- A.
A. Circuit control office (CCO).
- B.
B. National Communications System (NCS).
- C.
C. Systems control facility (SCF).
- D.
D. Defense Communications System (DCS).
- 100.What are the two parts/priorities to the TSP?
- A.
A. provisioning and restoration.
- B.
B. provisioning and recovery.
- C.
C. procurement and restoration.
- D.
D. procurement and recovery priority.
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