CDC 3D152 Ure Volume 3

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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1. One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to 

Explanation

Microwave wavelengths are susceptible to weather effects because they can be absorbed or scattered by rain, snow, fog, and other atmospheric conditions. This can result in signal loss or degradation, leading to poor communication or data transmission. Therefore, weather effects are a disadvantage of microwave wavelengths.

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About This Quiz
3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

This CDC 3D152 URE Volume 3 quiz assesses knowledge in military communications, focusing on microwave wavelengths, refractive indices, waveguide sizing, satellite orbits, and modulation of signals. It's essential... see morefor personnel involved in defense communications systems. see less

2. How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?

Explanation

Satellites are placed in orbit approximately 22,300 miles above the Earth's surface. This distance allows satellites to maintain a geostationary orbit, meaning they stay fixed above a specific point on the Earth's surface. At this altitude, satellites can provide continuous coverage and communication services, such as television broadcasting, weather monitoring, and GPS navigation.

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3. Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit

Explanation

Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit a relatively wide range of frequencies. This means that it is capable of transmitting a variety of frequencies, from low to high, allowing for the transmission of different types of information. It is not limited to only high frequency information or high amplitude information. The term "broad" in broadband indicates the wide range of frequencies that can be transmitted.

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4. The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

Explanation

The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability, confidentiality, and integrity. Availability refers to the system being accessible and functioning properly. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the information exchanged over the network. Integrity ensures that the data transmitted is accurate and has not been tampered with. Therefore, the correct answer is C. confidentiality, and integrity.

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5. Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100. These models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services.

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6. Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a 

Explanation

The correct answer is D. cable vault. A cable vault is a secure underground chamber or room where cables enter a central office facility. It provides protection and easy access to the cables for maintenance and repairs. Cable manholes are typically used for accessing underground cables in outdoor settings, while a telecommunications cable closet is a small room or enclosure used to house networking equipment. Building cable raceways are pathways or conduits used for routing cables within a building. Therefore, the most appropriate option for cables entering a central office facility would be a cable vault.

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7. What function in a VTR is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?

Explanation

The function in a VTR that is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded is playback. During playback, the tape is moved across the playback heads at the same speed as it was recorded, allowing the recorded video and audio signals to be read and played back on a monitor or television screen. This process allows the user to view or listen to the recorded content.

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8. Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?

Explanation

The SDI-76 microwave sensor can be adjusted between the ranges of 15-75 feet. This means that the sensitivity of the sensor can be set to detect objects within this distance range.

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9. What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

Explanation

If the circuit does not meet all required parameters but is still accepted for service based on the advice of the TSO issuing authority, a report must be sent to document this situation. This report is referred to as an "exception" report, as it signifies that the circuit is an exception to the normal requirements.

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10. Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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11. Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?

Explanation

The Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) is used to transmit space operations. This system is specifically designed for military use and provides secure and reliable communication capabilities for various military operations. The other options, such as the Milstar Communication System, Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM), and Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC), may also have communication capabilities but are not specifically designed for space operations like the DSCS. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

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12. To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be

Explanation

In order to transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it needs to be modulated. Modulation is the process of altering the characteristics of the carrier signal, such as amplitude, frequency, or phase, to encode the audio information onto it. This modulation allows the audio signal to be combined with the carrier signal and transmitted over the RF medium.

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13. Which is notdisadvantage of laser light transmission?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver. This is not a disadvantage because laser light transmission does not require precise alignment between the transmitter and receiver. Unlike other forms of wireless transmission, such as radio waves, laser light transmission is highly directional and focused, allowing for a more reliable and efficient connection. This eliminates the need for careful alignment and ensures that the transmitted signal reaches the intended receiver without interference or loss of signal strength.

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14. Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?

Explanation

Broadband technology utilizes various transmission mediums to transmit data, including telephone lines, television cable lines, and satellite systems. However, it does not use laser light as a transmission medium. Laser light is commonly used in fiber optic communication systems, which is a different technology from broadband.

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15. The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the

Explanation

The primary rate interface (PRI) is the ISDN configuration typically used to connect switches together. PRI provides 23 B-channels and 1 D-channel, allowing for a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. This configuration is commonly used in larger networks where multiple switches need to be interconnected. The basic rate interface (BRI) is a lower capacity configuration with 2 B-channels and 1 D-channel, typically used for smaller connections such as individual phone lines. The trunk rate interface (TRI) and switch rate interface (SRI) are not standard ISDN configurations.

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16. What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?

Explanation

The primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system was the cabling issues caused by point-to-point telephone access. This means that connecting each telephone directly to another telephone caused problems with managing and organizing the cables. The telephone exchange system solved this issue by centralizing the connection point, allowing for more efficient and organized communication.

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17. If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to

Explanation

If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, it means that the clocks are synchronized using GPS. This eliminates the possibility of timing slips, which refers to the discrepancy in timing between different devices or systems. Therefore, by ensuring that all locations use GPS referenced clocks, we can eliminate the occurrence of timing slips and prevent crypto-sync loss.

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18. The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?

Explanation

The NGRT accepts feeds from the Ku and Ka satellite bands.

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19. The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to

Explanation

Measuring the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure the safety of the person performing the task. By measuring the voltage, one can determine if dangerous voltages are present on the line. Removing or replacing protectors without checking the voltage could result in electric shock or other accidents. Therefore, it is crucial to measure the voltage to ensure that it is safe to proceed with the task.

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20. Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

Explanation

The correct answer is D. Pending order file. The pending order file is a DMS-100 database facility that is used to preserve data modification orders (DMO) and retrieve them at a specified time for execution. This facility ensures that any modifications made to the data are recorded and can be executed later as per the specified time. This helps in maintaining the integrity of the data and ensures that all modifications are properly executed. The other options, such as the journal file, table control, and dump/restore, do not specifically provide facilities for preserving and retrieving data modifications orders.

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21. How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?

Explanation

Information is recorded or stored on a videotape through a series of magnetic patterns. These patterns are created by manipulating the magnetic field on the tape, which aligns the magnetic particles in different orientations. These patterns represent the audio and video signals that are being recorded, and can be read back by a magnetic head during playback. This method allows for the storage and retrieval of information on the videotape.

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22. What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz. This suggests that the two common mode nulling adjustments in the video distribution amplifier are set at a frequency of 60 Hz and a frequency of 5.5 MHz.

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23. What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?

Explanation

The trunk line is responsible for carrying the signal to individual subscribers. It is a high-capacity communication line that connects the head-end (where the signal originates) to the distribution points, which then deliver the signal to individual subscribers. The trunk line ensures that the signal is transmitted efficiently and effectively to reach the intended recipients.

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24. What must a line of detection detect?

Explanation

The line of detection must be able to detect any movement such as walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through it. This means that if any person or object passes through the line of detection, it should be able to detect and trigger a response. The other options, B, C, and D, are not directly related to what the line of detection should detect.

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25. The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a

Explanation

The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area. This configuration ensures that there is a designated area for security personnel to monitor and control access to the facility. The gatehouse serves as a control center where personnel can monitor and communicate with individuals attempting to enter the facility. The personnel entry gate allows authorized individuals to enter after proper identification and clearance. The inspection equipment is used to screen vehicles and individuals for any prohibited items or threats. The vehicle entrapment area is designed to prevent unauthorized vehicles from entering the facility by trapping them in a designated area until they can be properly inspected and cleared.

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26. What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire (VTWS) is removed?

Explanation

If the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. A tamper alarm is activated when there is unauthorized interference or manipulation with the security system or its components. In this case, removing the sensor post cover would be considered tampering with the VTWS, leading to the activation of the tamper alarm.

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27. What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?

Explanation

High frequency (HF) transmissions follow the groundwave path from the antenna to the distant end. Groundwave propagation refers to the transmission of radio waves along the surface of the Earth, allowing them to travel long distances. This type of propagation is commonly used for HF communications, as it allows for reliable long-range transmission. Lightwave, microwave, and soundwave are not applicable in this context as they do not pertain to the transmission of HF signals.

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28. When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

Explanation

In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a physical path is established between the calling and receiving parties for the duration of the call. This dedicated circuit ensures that the communication is uninterrupted and has a dedicated bandwidth allocated to it. Unlike packet-switched networks, where data is divided into packets and transmitted separately, circuit-switched networks keep the connection open throughout the call. This allows for real-time, continuous communication between the parties involved.

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29. How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?

Explanation

The FCC-100 has a total of 16 card slots, but only 8 of them are available for user configuration.

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30. What link is used to connect the digital mulitplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus?

Explanation

The link used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus is DS-512. This means that the DMS-cor is connected to the DMS-bus using a DS-512 link.

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31. Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?

Explanation

The NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers through the peripheral module (PM). The peripheral module acts as an interface between the central control and the subscribers, allowing for the transmission of data and signals between the two. This component plays a crucial role in connecting the subscribers to the switching system, making it the correct answer.

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32. The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the 

Explanation

The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the encoder. An encoder is a device that converts analog signals into digital signals. In this case, the RGB outputs from the camera are analog signals, and the encoder converts them into digital signals that can be processed and transmitted. The encoder is responsible for encoding the RGB signals and preparing them for further processing or transmission.

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33. You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an

Explanation

A video tape recorder (VTR) head is a device that uses an electromagnet to record and play back video signals on magnetic tape. The head contains a coil of wire that is wrapped around a core made of a magnetic material. When an electric current passes through the coil, it creates a magnetic field that interacts with the magnetic particles on the tape, allowing the recording and playback of video. Therefore, the comparison of a VTR head to an electromagnet is the most appropriate explanation.

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34. What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?

Explanation

The means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR) is a counter. A counter keeps track of the elapsed time on the VTR, allowing users to easily monitor the duration of their recordings or playback. This feature is essential for managing and organizing video content effectively. Tape meter, tracker, and display clock do not specifically measure the amount of time played or recorded on a VTR, making them incorrect options.

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35. What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?

Explanation

The effects keyer is the part of the video switcher that allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background. It is a tool used in video production to create overlays or layering effects by combining multiple video sources together. The effects keyer enables the user to superimpose graphics or other video content onto the main video feed, creating a visually appealing and dynamic composition.

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36. What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

Explanation

The main purpose of a boundary fence is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. This means that the fence acts as a barrier to prevent individuals from entering a restricted area without permission. The presence of a fence can create a sense of security and discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the perimeter. Additionally, the fence can serve as a visual reminder of boundaries and discourage unauthorized access.

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37. Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

Explanation

Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors detect changes in infrared energy patterns in their surroundings, specifically the heat emitted by living beings. When an intruder enters the sensor's field of view, the sensor detects the difference in heat signatures and triggers an alarm or activates a security system. Ultrasonic and microwave sensors use sound waves and radio waves respectively, while dual-phenomenology sensors combine multiple detection methods. However, only passive infrared sensors specifically rely on heat radiation for intrusion detection.

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38. How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?

Explanation

The standard configuration in North American ISDN PRI application uses 23 B channels and 1 D channel. The B channels are used for carrying voice or data traffic, while the D channel is used for signaling and control purposes. This configuration allows for a total of 24 channels, with one channel reserved for signaling.

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39. Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except

Explanation

Trend Analysis is a program that analyzes and tracks various aspects of outage data. It trends the outage times, the reason for the outage, and the number of outages. However, it does not trend preempted outages. This means that the program does not analyze or track instances where outages were prevented or stopped before they occurred.

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40. What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?

Explanation

Subversion refers to the act of undermining or overthrowing something, and in the context of a voice network system, it can pose a serious threat to its integrity. Subversion could involve unauthorized access or manipulation of the system, leading to potential security breaches, unauthorized monitoring, or even complete system failure. This threat could compromise the confidentiality, availability, and reliability of the voice network system, making it the most serious threat among the options provided.

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41. What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?

Explanation

The Private Branch Exchange (PBX) plays the role of a small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization. It allows for internal communication within the organization by routing calls between different extensions and managing features such as call transfer, voicemail, and conference calling. It is designed to meet the telephony needs of a specific organization and is not meant to handle traffic for a city or metropolitan area.

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42. What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. 100,000. The DMS-100 is a digital multiplex system that supports a maximum of 100,000 ports. This means that it can handle up to 100,000 simultaneous connections or communications.

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43. Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?

Explanation

The video converter in the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box. A video converter is responsible for converting the incoming broadcast signals into a format that can be displayed on a television. It takes the signal from the RBM and converts it into a format that can be understood by the television, allowing users to view the broadcasted content on their TV screens.

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44. Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. Table control. The table control facility in the DMS-100 database is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This facility ensures that the data in the tables is organized and structured effectively, allowing for efficient retrieval and manipulation of information.

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45. What is the beginning of a cable system called?

Explanation

The beginning of a cable system is called the head-end. This is where the signal is received and processed before being distributed to the rest of the cable network. The head-end is responsible for receiving multiple channels, converting them into a format suitable for transmission, and then sending them out to the trunk lines for distribution to subscribers. The head-end is a crucial component of a cable system as it ensures that the signal is properly received and distributed to the viewers.

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46. What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?

Explanation

The range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported is 1.5 to 15 seconds.

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47. In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the VTWS remain operational?

Explanation

The VTWS can remain operational for 4 hours in the event of a power failure.

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48. What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?

Explanation

The refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much light slows down when it passes through that medium. In the case of air, the refractive index is primarily determined by its temperature. As temperature increases, the refractive index of air decreases. Atmospheric pressure, moisture content, and other factors can also have a small effect on the refractive index of air, but the propagation medium itself, which refers to the air itself, does not play a significant role in determining the refractive index.

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49. Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of

Explanation

When circuits fail to meet the specified parameters during test and acceptance, they cannot be accepted for service without the express approval of the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority. This authority has the final say in determining whether the circuits are suitable for service or not. The user, Circuit control office (CCO), and Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) may have some input or involvement in the process, but the TSO issuing authority has the ultimate decision-making power.

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50. Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TSO must the CCO submit an in-effect report?

Explanation

Within 72 normal duty hours of completion action on the TSO, the CCO must submit an in-effect report. This means that the CCO has a maximum of 72 hours to submit the report after the completion action has been taken on the TSO.

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51. Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?

Explanation

Trend Analysis is a program that monitors circuits to ensure they meet management thresholds (MT). This suggests that the program is used to analyze and track the performance of circuits over a specific period of time. Since the question asks on what basis the circuits are monitored, the correct answer is C. Monthly. This implies that the Trend Analysis program assesses the circuit performance on a monthly basis to ensure they meet the management thresholds.

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52. If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?

Explanation

If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), the most appropriate test to be performed would be quality control (QC). Quality control involves testing and inspecting products or processes to ensure that they meet the required standards and specifications. In this case, the circuit failed its management threshold, indicating that it may not be functioning properly or meeting the desired performance levels. By conducting quality control tests, any issues or faults in the circuit can be identified and addressed, ensuring that it meets the required quality standards.

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53. The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the 

Explanation

The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the "from" (sending) station. This means that the trunk identifier is used to identify the station or location from which a call or communication is being sent. The trunk identifier helps to route the call or communication to the correct destination.

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54. What are the two parts/priorities to the TSP?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. provisioning and restoration. In the context of the TSP (Telecommunications Service Priority) system, provisioning refers to the process of ensuring that critical telecommunications services are provided to priority users during emergencies or crises. Restoration, on the other hand, involves the quick recovery and repair of any disrupted or damaged telecommunications infrastructure. These two priorities are crucial in maintaining effective communication during times of crisis and ensuring that essential services are available to those who need them the most.

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55. The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of

Explanation

The Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of 2. This means that you can connect two Avaya Prologix switches together to create a stack and increase the capacity and capabilities of the network.

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56. What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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57. Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matix, any input channel has access to any available

Explanation

The given statement suggests that the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, which means that any input channel can access any available output channel. Therefore, the correct answer is D. output channel, as it aligns with the explanation provided.

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58. Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving DMO on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Journal file. The journal file in the DMS-100 database facility is used to preserve DMO (Data Manipulation Operations) on tape or disk. This allows for the restoration of data tables in case of a system failure. The journal file keeps a record of all changes made to the database, ensuring that no data is lost and providing a backup option for recovery purposes.

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59. Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33º counterclockwise?

Explanation

The R-Y and B-Y signals are shifted 33° counterclockwise in order to maximize the color acuity for human vision. By shifting R-Y to the maximum and B-Y to the minimum color acuity, the signals are aligned with the way that humans perceive color, allowing for accurate and realistic color reproduction. This adjustment ensures that the R-Y and B-Y signals accurately represent their respective primary colors in a way that is most compatible with human vision.

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60. What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?

Explanation

The Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system uses 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB) modulation technique. This modulation technique is specifically designed for digital television broadcasting and is used to transmit high-quality audio and video signals over the airwaves. The 8-VSB modulation technique allows for efficient use of bandwidth and provides robust transmission in various environmental conditions, making it suitable for over-the-air television broadcasting.

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61. What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?

Explanation

MPEG-2 is the modulation technique used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission. MPEG-2 is a widely used standard for compressing and transmitting video and audio data. It is specifically designed for broadcasting applications and is capable of delivering high-quality video and audio signals over cable networks. It provides efficient compression and transmission of digital video signals, making it suitable for cable transmission.

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62. How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?

Explanation

In high-definition 1080 line video, each frame has a resolution of 1920x1088 pixels. However, the display resolution is only 1920x1080 pixels. This means that the last 8 lines of each frame are discarded prior to display, resulting in a total of 8 lines of video being discarded. Therefore, the correct answer is D. 8.

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63. The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to 

Explanation

The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders. This means that the purpose of the lighting is to make it easier to identify and keep track of any unauthorized individuals who may enter the area. It helps security forces to quickly locate and apprehend intruders, ensuring the safety and security of the restricted area.

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64. What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS). This annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit.

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65. Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

Explanation

The control component of the SuperNode central control is made up of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These elements are responsible for managing and controlling the operations of the SuperNode system. The CM determines the mode of operation of the system, while the SLM monitors and manages the system load to ensure optimal performance. Together, these elements play a crucial role in the control and management of the SuperNode central control.

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66. A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from

Explanation

A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from the Defense Information Technology Contracting Office (DITCO). This office is responsible for managing the acquisition process for information technology services and systems for the defense sector. They handle the procurement and contracting activities related to these services, including sending out status acquisition messages to keep track of the progress and status of the acquisition process. The other options, DISA, SCF, and the end user, are not typically involved in sending SAMs.

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67. The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is 

Explanation

The correct size of a waveguide is determined by the frequency of the transmitted signal. Different frequencies require different sizes of waveguides to ensure efficient transmission. The size of the waveguide affects the propagation characteristics of the signal, such as attenuation and dispersion. Therefore, selecting the appropriate size based on the frequency is crucial for optimal signal transmission.

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68. For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the

Explanation

In theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router is responsible for handling the secure or nonsecure data network. It is referred to as the "external router" because it connects the TDC network to the external networks. This router manages the flow of data between the TDC network and other networks outside of the system.

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69. How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

Explanation

The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has three serial data interface ports.

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70. What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. Type one. The question is asking about the receive broadcast manager (RBM) that processes military specific and classified information. The term "Type one" is commonly used in military and government contexts to refer to the highest level of security classification. Therefore, it can be inferred that the RBM processes this type of classified information.

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71. Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?

Explanation

Incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix through the vertical bus. The vertical bus is responsible for carrying the incoming circuits from the PM to the cross-point card matrix, where they can be switched and routed to the desired destination. This allows for efficient communication and connectivity within the system.

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72. What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?

Explanation

The Meridian mail user interface is the voice mail interface that has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature. This feature allows users to set a temporary greeting to inform callers that they are currently away or unavailable. The other options, such as the administration and maintenance interface, the voice messaging user interface forum, and the message service interface, do not specifically mention support for the TAG feature.

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73. What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?

Explanation

A major advantage of digital recording over analog recording is that material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality. This means that the recorded material can be modified and manipulated multiple times without any loss in the overall sound quality. In analog recording, each generation of copying or editing can introduce noise and degradation, resulting in a loss of fidelity. However, in digital recording, the information is stored as numerical data, allowing for precise and accurate editing without any noticeable loss in quality.

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74. What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?

Explanation

The correct answer is D. AN/GSS-39. The AN/GSS-39 is an interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) that is specifically designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building. It is likely equipped with sensors and alarms to detect unauthorized access and alert security personnel. Options A, B, and C are not specifically mentioned as being designed for this purpose.

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75. What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?

Explanation

The maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is 328 ft.

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76. How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?

Explanation

The beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor is 2 inches.

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77. What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?

Explanation

The Red Data Module normally operates in a Gateway/client configuration. This means that it functions as both a gateway and a client, allowing it to connect to other devices as a client and also serve as a gateway for other devices to connect to the network. This configuration provides flexibility and allows the Red Data Module to perform both roles effectively.

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78. An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for 

Explanation

Digital video is a method of representing video signals using discrete values, such as binary numbers. It is not primarily used for minimizing video loss, minimizing signal dropout, or transmitting an analog waveform. Instead, digital video is used for carrying a video waveform, as it allows for more efficient storage, transmission, and manipulation of video data.

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79. What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?

Explanation

A modulator is a device used to combine multiple TV channels into a single line. This process is known as modulation, where the audio and video signals from different channels are converted into a single signal that can be transmitted over a single line. The modulator takes the individual signals and combines them into a single composite signal, which can then be transmitted through a cable or antenna. This allows for the transmission of multiple channels over a single line, making it possible to receive and watch different TV channels on a single television.

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80. Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?

Explanation

The National Communications System (NCS) is responsible for confirming a restoration priority. This means that they determine the order in which communication systems and services should be restored after an outage or disruption. They assess the criticality of each system and prioritize their restoration accordingly. The NCS plays a crucial role in ensuring that essential communication services are restored in a timely and efficient manner.

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81. For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?

Explanation

The CV-2048/8448-D is necessary in a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations. This piece of equipment is likely needed to establish a secure connection between the CIM and the P-MUX, ensuring the encryption and decryption of data transmitted over the network. The KIV 19 and KIV-7HS/B are also crypto devices, but they may not be specifically designed for connecting the CIM and P-MUX. The Cisco 3745 router is a networking device and may not have the necessary capabilities for secure communication in this specific scenario.

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82. What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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83. What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39 system uses an EOL module to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel. This module is responsible for detecting any breaks or faults in the wiring and ensuring that the sensors are properly connected and functioning. It provides a way to monitor the end-of-line of the sensor wiring and ensures that the system is able to accurately detect any tampering or interference. The EOL module plays a crucial role in maintaining the reliability and integrity of the system's sensor wiring.

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84. What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

Explanation

When an alarm is detected, the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor sends an analog signal. Analog signals are continuous and vary in amplitude and frequency, allowing for the transmission of a wide range of information. In the context of the FPS, the analog signal would likely contain data about the location and intensity of the alarm, enabling the system to accurately detect and respond to potential security breaches.

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85. At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?

Explanation

The correct answer is D. 150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers. This means that the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters changes at a distance of 150 feet, and the signal is transmitted to two receivers. This suggests that the IPDS system has a range of 150 feet and is designed to cover a wider area by transmitting the signal to multiple receivers.

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86. What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?

Explanation

The primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor is beam break. This means that the sensor detects any interruption or break in the microwave beam that is emitted by the sensor. When an object or person crosses the beam, it causes a change in the signal received by the sensor, indicating a potential intrusion or movement. This mode of detection is commonly used in perimeter security systems to detect unauthorized access or breaches.

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87. How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?

Explanation

The T-Bus is responsible for transmitting multiplexed and demultiplexed information in the Promina. This means that the T-Bus is the pathway through which the data is combined and separated for transmission. The other options do not accurately describe the function of the T-Bus in relation to the Promina.

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88. Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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89. When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?

Explanation

When aligning a microwave fence sensor, the reading you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter is the lowest possible. This is because the AGC is responsible for adjusting the gain of the sensor to maintain a consistent signal level. By aligning the sensor to the lowest possible AGC reading, you ensure that the sensor's gain is set to the minimum required level, which helps in reducing false alarms and improving the accuracy of the sensor's detection capabilities.

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90. Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?

Explanation

The correct answer is D. Crypto. The Crypto module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network. This module ensures that the data transmitted over the network is secure and protected from unauthorized access.

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91. The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?

Explanation

The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses the Internet protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment. This means that the TIG enables communication and data transfer between these different systems by utilizing the Internet protocol.

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92. Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rat, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?

Explanation

D1 is the correct answer because it is a digital video tape format that uses a 4:2:2 standard, which refers to the chroma subsampling ratio. The 8 bit sampling rate indicates the color depth of the format. The 19mm wide tape is a characteristic of the D1 format. Additionally, D1 has a recording time of 94 minutes, which matches the given information.

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93. What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is D. 1200 Hz. The operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS) is 1200 Hz.

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94. Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?

Explanation

The E-Flex II system allows users to customize various settings, such as alarm duration, number of cuts, and cable sensitivity. However, sector reporting priority is not a selectable option in the system. This means that users cannot prioritize or customize the reporting of different sectors within the system.

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95. What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?

Explanation

The FCC-100 can handle a maximum of 16 channels of voice and/or data traffic.

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96. What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire (YTWS)?

Explanation

The maximum length of the Y taut-wire (YTWS) is 200 ft.

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97. A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?

Explanation

The standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors up to 300 meters.

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98. The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow

Explanation

The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow remote control of switcher transitions. This means that the GPI can be used to remotely initiate and control the switching between different sources or inputs on a switcher. This allows for seamless transitions between different video feeds or other inputs without the need for manual intervention.

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99. The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator. This means that the switcher can be controlled and manipulated from a separate device such as a computer or digital picture manipulator, providing convenience and flexibility in operating the switcher.

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100. The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with either key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. This means that the effects keyer can use either the video signal from the key bus or a color matte signal that is generated internally to fill the key. This allows for flexibility in creating different visual effects during video switching.

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What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
An important concept to understand is that digital video is...
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has...
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be...
What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all...
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal...
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter...
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence...
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for...
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of...
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow...
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit...
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the...
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data...
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire (YTWS)?
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor...
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
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