CDC 3D152 Ure Volume 3

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 37

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3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

Systems and procedures.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to 
    • A. 

      A. line noise.

    • B. 

      B. weather effects.

    • C. 

      C. frequency distortion.

    • D. 

      D. electromagnetic interference.

  • 2. 
    What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
    • A. 

      A. Atmospheric pressure.

    • B. 

      B. Propagation medium.

    • C. 

      C. Temperature.

    • D. 

      D. Moisture.

  • 3. 
    The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is 
    • A. 

      A. frequency.

    • B. 

      B. power output.

    • C. 

      C. bandwidth of the transmission medium.

    • D. 

      D. distance between equipment and transmitter.

  • 4. 
    How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
    • A. 

      A. 2,230.

    • B. 

      B. 2,320.

    • C. 

      C. 22,300.

    • D. 

      D. 23,200.

  • 5. 
    Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
    • A. 

      A. Milstar Communication System.

    • B. 

      B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM).

    • D. 

      D. Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC).

  • 6. 
    To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
    • A. 

      A. phase shifted.

    • B. 

      B. transmitted.

    • C. 

      C. modulated.

    • D. 

      D. encoded.

  • 7. 
    What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
    • A. 

      A. Lightwave.

    • B. 

      B. Microwave.

    • C. 

      C. Soundwave.

    • D. 

      D. Groundwave.

  • 8. 
    Which is notdisadvantage of laser light transmission?
    • A. 

      A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.

    • B. 

      B. Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.

    • C. 

      C. Sensitive to atmospheric interference.

    • D. 

      D. Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission.

  • 9. 
    Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
    • A. 

      A. a relatively wide range of frequencies.

    • B. 

      B. only high frequency information.

    • C. 

      C. a relatively wide range of amplitudes.

    • D. 

      D. only high amplitude information.

  • 10. 
    Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
    • A. 

      A. Telephone lines.

    • B. 

      B. Television cable lines.

    • C. 

      C. Satellite systems.

    • D. 

      D. laser light.

  • 11. 
    The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
    • A. 

      A. basic rate interface (BRI).

    • B. 

      B. primary rate interface (PRI).

    • C. 

      C. trunk rate interface (TRI).

    • D. 

      D. switch rate interface (SRI).

  • 12. 
    How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
    • A. 

      A. 2, 1.

    • B. 

      B. 30, 2.

    • C. 

      C. 1, 24.

    • D. 

      D. 23, 1.

  • 13. 
    What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?
    • A. 

      A. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.

    • B. 

      B. The invention of the multi-line telephone.

    • C. 

      C. Military communication requirements.

    • D. 

      D. Radio communication requirements.

  • 14. 
    When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
    • A. 

      A. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.

    • B. 

      B. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.

    • C. 

      C. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.

    • D. 

      D. requires a dedicated switch to make the connection.

  • 15. 
    The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
    • A. 

      A. circumvention, and confidentiality.

    • B. 

      B. circumvention, and disclosure.

    • C. 

      C. confidentiality, and integrity.

    • D. 

      D. disclosure, and integrity.

  • 16. 
    What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
    • A. 

      A. Subversion.

    • B. 

      B. Unauthorized monitoring.

    • C. 

      C. Inexperienced switch technicians.

    • D. 

      D. Inadequate maintenance practices.

  • 17. 
    What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
    • A. 

      A. A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city.

    • B. 

      B. A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system.

    • C. 

      C. A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area.

    • D. 

      D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.

  • 18. 
    How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?
    • A. 

      A. 32.

    • B. 

      B. 12.

    • C. 

      C. 3.

    • D. 

      D. 1.

  • 19. 
    Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
    • A. 

      A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.

    • B. 

      B. DMS-100/200 and MSL-100.

    • C. 

      C. DMS-100/200 and DMS-200.

    • D. 

      D. DMS-200 and MSL-100.

  • 20. 
    What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
    • A. 

      A. 10,000.

    • B. 

      B. 30,000.

    • C. 

      C. 100,000.

    • D. 

      D. 300,000.

  • 21. 
    Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
    • A. 

      A. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).

    • B. 

      B. CM and system load module (SLM).

    • C. 

      C. Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU).

    • D. 

      D. CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).

  • 22. 
    What link is used to connect the digital mulitplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus?
    • A. 

      A. DS-1.

    • B. 

      B. DS-30.

    • C. 

      C. DS-30A.

    • D. 

      D. DS-512.

  • 23. 
    Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?
    • A. 

      A. Central control.

    • B. 

      B. input/output (I/O).

    • C. 

      C. peripheral module (PM).

    • D. 

      D. peripheral subsystem (PS).

  • 24. 
    What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
    • A. 

      A. Printer, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.

    • B. 

      B. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.

    • C. 

      C. A maintenance and administration position (MAP).

    • D. 

      D. The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard.

  • 25. 
    Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a 
    • A. 

      A. cable manhole.

    • B. 

      B. telecommunications cable closet.

    • C. 

      C. building cable raceway.

    • D. 

      D. cable vault.

  • 26. 
    The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
    • A. 

      A. verify the circuit is not in use.

    • B. 

      B. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

    • C. 

      C. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

    • D. 

      D. avoid activating alarm circuits.

  • 27. 
    Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
    • A. 

      A. Vertical bus.

    • B. 

      B. Horizontal bus.

    • C. 

      C. Clock/message card.

    • D. 

      D. Enhanced network (ENET) processor.

  • 28. 
    Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matix, any input channel has access to any available
    • A. 

      A. computing mode channel.

    • B. 

      B. peripheral channel.

    • C. 

      C. H-bus channel.

    • D. 

      D. output channel.

  • 29. 
    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
    • A. 

      A. Journal file.

    • B. 

      B. Table control.

    • C. 

      C. Dump/restore.

    • D. 

      D. Pending order file.

  • 30. 
    Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
    • A. 

      A. Journal file.

    • B. 

      B. Table control.

    • C. 

      C. Dump/restore.

    • D. 

      D. Pending order file.

  • 31. 
    Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving DMO on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
    • A. 

      A. Journal file.

    • B. 

      B. Table control.

    • C. 

      C. Dump/restore.

    • D. 

      D. Pending order file.

  • 32. 
    What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
    • A. 

      A. Administration and maintenance interface.

    • B. 

      B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.

    • C. 

      C. Meridian mail user interface.

    • D. 

      D. Message service interface.

  • 33. 
    What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
    • A. 

      A. Administration and maintenance interface.

    • B. 

      B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.

    • C. 

      C. Meridian mail user interface.

    • D. 

      D. Message service interface.

  • 34. 
    Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33º counterclockwise?
    • A. 

      A. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors.

    • B. 

      B. To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors.

    • C. 

      C. R-Y was shifted to minimum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for human vision.

    • D. 

      D. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.

  • 35. 
    The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the 
    • A. 

      A. encoder.

    • B. 

      B. decoder.

    • C. 

      C. multiplexer.

    • D. 

      D. demultiplexer.

  • 36. 
    What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
    • A. 

      A. 4-quadraplex sideband (4-QSB).

    • B. 

      B. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).

    • C. 

      C. 4-vestigial sideband (4-VSB).

    • D. 

      D. 8-quadratrue modulation (8-QM).

  • 37. 
    What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
    • A. 

      A. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)-1.

    • B. 

      B. MPEG-2.

    • C. 

      C. MPEG-3.

    • D. 

      D. MPEG-4.

  • 38. 
    How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
    • A. 

      A. 2.

    • B. 

      B. 4.

    • C. 

      C. 6.

    • D. 

      D. 8.

  • 39. 
    How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
    • A. 

      A. Series of magnetic patterns.

    • B. 

      B. Series of edited electrical patterns.

    • C. 

      C. Transferred current indents.

    • D. 

      D. Transferred voltage indents.

  • 40. 
    You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
    • A. 

      A. magnet.

    • B. 

      B. conductor.

    • C. 

      C. electromagnet.

    • D. 

      D. charged capacitor.

  • 41. 
    What function in a VTR is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
    • A. 

      A. Fast Forward.

    • B. 

      B. Playback.

    • C. 

      C. Erasure.

    • D. 

      D. Rewind.

  • 42. 
    An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for 
    • A. 

      A. minimizing video loss.

    • B. 

      B. carrying a video waveform.

    • C. 

      C. minimized signal dropout.

    • D. 

      D. transmitting an analog waveform.

  • 43. 
    What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
    • A. 

      A. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.

    • B. 

      B. Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain.

    • C. 

      C. The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality.

    • D. 

      D. The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain.

  • 44. 
    Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rat, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
    • A. 

      A. D1.

    • B. 

      B. D2.

    • C. 

      C. D3.

    • D. 

      D. D4.

  • 45. 
    What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
    • A. 

      A. Tape meter.

    • B. 

      B. Tracker.

    • C. 

      C. Counter.

    • D. 

      D. Display clock.

  • 46. 
    What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
    • A. 

      A. Effects keyer.

    • B. 

      B. Effects preview multiplier.

    • C. 

      C. Effects program multiplier.

    • D. 

      D. Transition pattern generator.

  • 47. 
    The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
    • A. 

      A. linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.

    • B. 

      B. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.

    • C. 

      C. key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal.

    • D. 

      D. luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.

  • 48. 
    The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
    • A. 

      A. remote control of switcher transitions.

    • B. 

      B. remote programming of all switcher functions.

    • C. 

      C. parallel interface with the switcher effects memory.

    • D. 

      D. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

  • 49. 
    The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
    • A. 

      A. remote control of switcher transitions.

    • B. 

      B. remote programming of all switcher functions.

    • C. 

      C. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

    • D. 

      D. remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.

  • 50. 
    What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
    • A. 

      A. 60 Hz and 15,750 Hz.

    • B. 

      B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

    • C. 

      C. 15.750 Hz and 4.5 MHz.

    • D. 

      D. 15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

  • 51. 
    What is the beginning of a cable system called?
    • A. 

      A. Head-end.

    • B. 

      B. Trunk line.

    • C. 

      C. Receiver.

    • D. 

      D. Decoder.

  • 52. 
    What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
    • A. 

      A. Multiplexer.

    • B. 

      B. Demodulator.

    • C. 

      C. Modulator.

    • D. 

      D. Decoder.

  • 53. 
    What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
    • A. 

      A. Head-end.

    • B. 

      B. Trunk line.

    • C. 

      C. Receiver.

    • D. 

      D. Coax RJ-6

  • 54. 
    What must a line of detection detect?
    • A. 

      A. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.

    • B. 

      B. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection.

    • C. 

      C. Potential for intruder to bypass the system.

    • D. 

      D. Possibility of equipment failures.

  • 55. 
    What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
    • A. 

      A. Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work.

    • B. 

      B. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.

    • C. 

      C. Facilitate the detection of intruders.

    • D. 

      D. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

  • 56. 
    The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to 
    • A. 

      A. provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time hours.

    • B. 

      B. identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone.

    • C. 

      C. facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.

    • D. 

      D. present a means of deterring unauthorized entry.

  • 57. 
    The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
    • A. 

      A. gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate.

    • B. 

      B. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.

    • C. 

      C. personnel entry gate,inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse.

    • D. 

      D. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

  • 58. 
    What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
    • A. 

      A. AN/GSS-42.

    • B. 

      B. AN/GSS-41.

    • C. 

      C. AN/GSS-29.

    • D. 

      D. AN/GSS-39.

  • 59. 
    What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
    • A. 

      A. Small annuciator system (SMAS).

    • B. 

      B. Standard annunctiator system (STAS).

    • C. 

      C. Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).

    • D. 

      D. Security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART).

  • 60. 
    What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?
    • A. 

      A. End-of-line (EOL) resistor.

    • B. 

      B. Line termination unit.

    • C. 

      C. EOL module.

    • D. 

      D. Tamper interface unit.

  • 61. 
    Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
    • A. 

      A. Ultrasonic.

    • B. 

      B. Microwave.

    • C. 

      C. Passive infrared.

    • D. 

      D. Dual-phenomenology.

  • 62. 
    What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?
    • A. 

      A. 1.5 to 10 seconds.

    • B. 

      B. 1.5 to 15 seconds.

    • C. 

      C. 3 to 10 seconds.

    • D. 

      D. 5 to 15 seconds.

  • 63. 
    Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
    • A. 

      A. 15-50 feet.

    • B. 

      B. 15-75 feet.

    • C. 

      C. 25-75 feet.

    • D. 

      D. 30-90 feet.

  • 64. 
    What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
    • A. 

      A. Alternate current (AC).

    • B. 

      B. Direct current (DC).

    • C. 

      C. Digital.

    • D. 

      D. Analog.

  • 65. 
    A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
    • A. 

      A. 100.

    • B. 

      B. 150.

    • C. 

      C. 200.

    • D. 

      D. 300.

  • 66. 
    Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
    • A. 

      A. Alarm duration.

    • B. 

      B. Number of cuts.

    • C. 

      C. Cable sensitivity.

    • D. 

      D. Sector reporting priority.

  • 67. 
    What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
    • A. 

      A. 150 ft.

    • B. 

      B. 200 ft.

    • C. 

      C. 328 ft.

    • D. 

      D. 425 ft.

  • 68. 
    What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire (YTWS)?
    • A. 

      A. 150 ft.

    • B. 

      B. 200 ft.

    • C. 

      C. 328 ft.

    • D. 

      D. 425 ft.

  • 69. 
    What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire (VTWS) is removed?
    • A. 

      A. None.

    • B. 

      B. Tamper.

    • C. 

      C. Intruder.

    • D. 

      D. Equipment fault.

  • 70. 
    In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the VTWS remain operational?
    • A. 

      A. 2.

    • B. 

      B. 4.

    • C. 

      C. 8.

    • D. 

      D. 10.

  • 71. 
    How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
    • A. 

      A. 0.5.

    • B. 

      B. 1.

    • C. 

      C. 2.

    • D. 

      D. 4.

  • 72. 
    At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
    • A. 

      A. 100 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.

    • B. 

      B. 150 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.

    • C. 

      C. 100 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.

    • D. 

      D. 150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.

  • 73. 
    What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
    • A. 

      A. 100 Hz.

    • B. 

      B. 800 Hz.

    • C. 

      C. 1000 Hz.

    • D. 

      D. 1200 Hz.

  • 74. 
    What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
    • A. 

      A. Beam break.

    • B. 

      B. Signal fade margin.

    • C. 

      C. Multipath deflection.

    • D. 

      D. Dual-phenomena reflection.

  • 75. 
    When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
    • A. 

      A. Lowest possible.

    • B. 

      B. Highest possible.

    • C. 

      C. Equal to the phase lock loop (PLL).

    • D. 

      D. Midpoint.

  • 76. 
    How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
    • A. 

      A. The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-Bus.

    • B. 

      B. The T-Bus connects the Promina to other modules in the TDC suite.

    • C. 

      C. The front card communicates with the rear card through the T-Bus.

    • D. 

      D. The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.

  • 77. 
    Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
    • A. 

      A. using two trunk cards in one Promina

    • B. 

      B. configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DS0s.

    • C. 

      C. not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.

    • D. 

      D. consuming bandwidth equally in both directions while preserving one-way communication.

  • 78. 
    Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
    • A. 

      A. Crypto Interface.

    • B. 

      B. Basic Access.

    • C. 

      C. Red Data.

    • D. 

      D. Crypto.

  • 79. 
    If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
    • A. 

      A. synchronization.

    • B. 

      B. buffer overflow.

    • C. 

      C. timing slips.

    • D. 

      D. data speeds.

  • 80. 
    What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?
    • A. 

      A. 12.

    • B. 

      B. 16.

    • C. 

      C. 24.

    • D. 

      D. 32.

  • 81. 
    How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
    • A. 

      A. 16, 8.

    • B. 

      B. 12, 10.

    • C. 

      C. 13, 8.

    • D. 

      D. 13, 10.

  • 82. 
    For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the
    • A. 

      A. management console.

    • B. 

      B. internal firewall.

    • C. 

      C. external router.

    • D. 

      D. internal router.

  • 83. 
    For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?
    • A. 

      A. KIV 19.

    • B. 

      B. KIV-7HS/B.

    • C. 

      C. CV-2048/8448-D.

    • D. 

      D. Cisco 3745 router.

  • 84. 
    The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of
    • A. 

      A. 4.

    • B. 

      B. 6.

    • C. 

      C. 8.

    • D. 

      D. 2.

  • 85. 
    The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?
    • A. 

      A. Transmission Control.

    • B. 

      B. User Datagram.

    • C. 

      C. File Transfer.

    • D. 

      D. Internet.

  • 86. 
    What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
    • A. 

      A. Stand alone.

    • B. 

      B. Client only.

    • C. 

      C. Gateway only.

    • D. 

      D. Gateway/client.

  • 87. 
    The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
    • A. 

      A. Ku, Ka.

    • B. 

      B. C, X.

    • C. 

      C. Ku, X.

    • D. 

      D. Ka, C.

  • 88. 
    What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?
    • A. 

      A. Military.

    • B. 

      B. Type one.

    • C. 

      C. Managed.

    • D. 

      D. Classified.

  • 89. 
    Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?
    • A. 

      A. Managed Ethernet switch (MES).

    • B. 

      B. Display and keyboard.

    • C. 

      C. Video converter.

    • D. 

      D. RBM server.

  • 90. 
    A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
    • A. 

      A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • B. 

      B. Defense Information Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).

    • C. 

      C. the sytems control facility (SCF).

    • D. 

      D. the end user.

  • 91. 
    Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of
    • A. 

      A. the user.

    • B. 

      B. Circuit control office (CCO).

    • C. 

      C. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      D. the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.

  • 92. 
    Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TSO must the CCO submit an in-effect report?
    • A. 

      A. 72.

    • B. 

      B. 48.

    • C. 

      C. 24.

    • D. 

      D. 12.

  • 93. 
    What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
    • A. 

      A. In-effect.

    • B. 

      B. Exception.

    • C. 

      C. Acceptance.

    • D. 

      D. Delayed service.

  • 94. 
    Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
    • A. 

      A. outage times.

    • B. 

      B. reason for outage.

    • C. 

      C. number of outages.

    • D. 

      D. preempted outages.

  • 95. 
    Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?
    • A. 

      A. Daily.

    • B. 

      B. Weekly.

    • C. 

      C. Monthly.

    • D. 

      D. Annual.

  • 96. 
    If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
    • A. 

      A. Quality control (QC).

    • B. 

      B. Test and acceptance (T&A).

    • C. 

      C. Operations and maintenance (O&M).

    • D. 

      D. Operation acceptance.

  • 97. 
    The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the 
    • A. 

      A. responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency.

    • B. 

      B. "from" (sending) station.

    • C. 

      C. "to" (receiving) station.

    • D. 

      D. type of trunk.

  • 98. 
    Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
    • A. 

      A. 310-55-1 only.

    • B. 

      B. 300-175-9 only.

    • C. 

      C. 310-70-1 and 310-55-1.

    • D. 

      D. 310-70-1 and 300-175-9.

  • 99. 
    Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
    • A. 

      A. Circuit control office (CCO).

    • B. 

      B. National Communications System (NCS).

    • C. 

      C. Systems control facility (SCF).

    • D. 

      D. Defense Communications System (DCS).

  • 100. 
    What are the two parts/priorities to the TSP?
    • A. 

      A. provisioning and restoration.

    • B. 

      B. provisioning and recovery.

    • C. 

      C. procurement and restoration.

    • D. 

      D. procurement and recovery priority.