CDC 3D152 Ure Volume 3

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  • 1/100 Questions

    One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to 

    • A. line noise.
    • B. weather effects.
    • C. frequency distortion.
    • D. electromagnetic interference.
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About This Quiz

This CDC 3D152 URE Volume 3 quiz assesses knowledge in military communications, focusing on microwave wavelengths, refractive indices, waveguide sizing, satellite orbits, and modulation of signals. It's essential for personnel involved in defense communications systems.

3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?

    • A. 2,230.

    • B. 2,320.

    • C. 22,300.

    • D. 23,200.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 22,300.
    Explanation
    Satellites are placed in orbit approximately 22,300 miles above the Earth's surface. This distance allows satellites to maintain a geostationary orbit, meaning they stay fixed above a specific point on the Earth's surface. At this altitude, satellites can provide continuous coverage and communication services, such as television broadcasting, weather monitoring, and GPS navigation.

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  • 3. 

    Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit

    • A. a relatively wide range of frequencies.

    • B. only high frequency information.

    • C. a relatively wide range of amplitudes.

    • D. only high amplitude information.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. a relatively wide range of frequencies.
    Explanation
    Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit a relatively wide range of frequencies. This means that it is capable of transmitting a variety of frequencies, from low to high, allowing for the transmission of different types of information. It is not limited to only high frequency information or high amplitude information. The term "broad" in broadband indicates the wide range of frequencies that can be transmitted.

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  • 4. 

    The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

    • A. circumvention, and confidentiality.

    • B. circumvention, and disclosure.

    • C. confidentiality, and integrity.

    • D. disclosure, and integrity.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. confidentiality, and integrity.
    Explanation
    The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability, confidentiality, and integrity. Availability refers to the system being accessible and functioning properly. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the information exchanged over the network. Integrity ensures that the data transmitted is accurate and has not been tampered with. Therefore, the correct answer is C. confidentiality, and integrity.

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  • 5. 

    Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

    • A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.

    • B. DMS-100/200 and MSL-100.

    • C. DMS-100/200 and DMS-200.

    • D. DMS-200 and MSL-100.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100. These models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services.

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  • 6. 

    Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a 

    • A. cable manhole.

    • B. telecommunications cable closet.

    • C. building cable raceway.

    • D. cable vault.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. cable vault.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. cable vault. A cable vault is a secure underground chamber or room where cables enter a central office facility. It provides protection and easy access to the cables for maintenance and repairs. Cable manholes are typically used for accessing underground cables in outdoor settings, while a telecommunications cable closet is a small room or enclosure used to house networking equipment. Building cable raceways are pathways or conduits used for routing cables within a building. Therefore, the most appropriate option for cables entering a central office facility would be a cable vault.

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  • 7. 

    What function in a VTR is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?

    • A. Fast Forward.

    • B. Playback.

    • C. Erasure.

    • D. Rewind.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Playback.
    Explanation
    The function in a VTR that is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded is playback. During playback, the tape is moved across the playback heads at the same speed as it was recorded, allowing the recorded video and audio signals to be read and played back on a monitor or television screen. This process allows the user to view or listen to the recorded content.

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  • 8. 

    Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?

    • A. 15-50 feet.

    • B. 15-75 feet.

    • C. 25-75 feet.

    • D. 30-90 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 15-75 feet.
    Explanation
    The SDI-76 microwave sensor can be adjusted between the ranges of 15-75 feet. This means that the sensitivity of the sensor can be set to detect objects within this distance range.

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  • 9. 

    Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?

    • A. Milstar Communication System.

    • B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

    • C. Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM).

    • D. Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
    Explanation
    The Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) is used to transmit space operations. This system is specifically designed for military use and provides secure and reliable communication capabilities for various military operations. The other options, such as the Milstar Communication System, Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM), and Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC), may also have communication capabilities but are not specifically designed for space operations like the DSCS. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).

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  • 10. 

    To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be

    • A. phase shifted.

    • B. transmitted.

    • C. modulated.

    • D. encoded.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. modulated.
    Explanation
    In order to transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it needs to be modulated. Modulation is the process of altering the characteristics of the carrier signal, such as amplitude, frequency, or phase, to encode the audio information onto it. This modulation allows the audio signal to be combined with the carrier signal and transmitted over the RF medium.

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  • 11. 

    Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?

    • A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.

    • B. Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.

    • C. Sensitive to atmospheric interference.

    • D. Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver. This is not a disadvantage because laser light transmission does not require precise alignment between the transmitter and receiver. Unlike other forms of wireless transmission, such as radio waves, laser light transmission is highly directional and focused, allowing for a more reliable and efficient connection. This eliminates the need for careful alignment and ensures that the transmitted signal reaches the intended receiver without interference or loss of signal strength.

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  • 12. 

    Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?

    • A. Telephone lines.

    • B. Television cable lines.

    • C. Satellite systems.

    • D. laser light.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. laser light.
    Explanation
    Broadband technology utilizes various transmission mediums to transmit data, including telephone lines, television cable lines, and satellite systems. However, it does not use laser light as a transmission medium. Laser light is commonly used in fiber optic communication systems, which is a different technology from broadband.

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  • 13. 

    The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the

    • A. basic rate interface (BRI).

    • B. primary rate interface (PRI).

    • C. trunk rate interface (TRI).

    • D. switch rate interface (SRI).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. primary rate interface (PRI).
    Explanation
    The primary rate interface (PRI) is the ISDN configuration typically used to connect switches together. PRI provides 23 B-channels and 1 D-channel, allowing for a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. This configuration is commonly used in larger networks where multiple switches need to be interconnected. The basic rate interface (BRI) is a lower capacity configuration with 2 B-channels and 1 D-channel, typically used for smaller connections such as individual phone lines. The trunk rate interface (TRI) and switch rate interface (SRI) are not standard ISDN configurations.

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  • 14. 

    What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?

    • A. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.

    • B. The invention of the multi-line telephone.

    • C. Military communication requirements.

    • D. Radio communication requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
    Explanation
    The primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system was the cabling issues caused by point-to-point telephone access. This means that connecting each telephone directly to another telephone caused problems with managing and organizing the cables. The telephone exchange system solved this issue by centralizing the connection point, allowing for more efficient and organized communication.

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  • 15. 

    The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to

    • A. verify the circuit is not in use.

    • B. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

    • C. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

    • D. avoid activating alarm circuits.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
    Explanation
    Measuring the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure the safety of the person performing the task. By measuring the voltage, one can determine if dangerous voltages are present on the line. Removing or replacing protectors without checking the voltage could result in electric shock or other accidents. Therefore, it is crucial to measure the voltage to ensure that it is safe to proceed with the task.

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  • 16. 

    Which DMS-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

    • A. Journal file.

    • B. Table control.

    • C. Dump/restore.

    • D. Pending order file.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Pending order file.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. Pending order file. The pending order file is a DMS-100 database facility that is used to preserve data modification orders (DMO) and retrieve them at a specified time for execution. This facility ensures that any modifications made to the data are recorded and can be executed later as per the specified time. This helps in maintaining the integrity of the data and ensures that all modifications are properly executed. The other options, such as the journal file, table control, and dump/restore, do not specifically provide facilities for preserving and retrieving data modifications orders.

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  • 17. 

    How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?

    • A. Series of magnetic patterns.

    • B. Series of edited electrical patterns.

    • C. Transferred current indents.

    • D. Transferred voltage indents.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Series of magnetic patterns.
    Explanation
    Information is recorded or stored on a videotape through a series of magnetic patterns. These patterns are created by manipulating the magnetic field on the tape, which aligns the magnetic particles in different orientations. These patterns represent the audio and video signals that are being recorded, and can be read back by a magnetic head during playback. This method allows for the storage and retrieval of information on the videotape.

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  • 18. 

    What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?

    • A. 60 Hz and 15,750 Hz.

    • B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

    • C. 15.750 Hz and 4.5 MHz.

    • D. 15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz. This suggests that the two common mode nulling adjustments in the video distribution amplifier are set at a frequency of 60 Hz and a frequency of 5.5 MHz.

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  • 19. 

    What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?

    • A. Head-end.

    • B. Trunk line.

    • C. Receiver.

    • D. Coax RJ-6

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Trunk line.
    Explanation
    The trunk line is responsible for carrying the signal to individual subscribers. It is a high-capacity communication line that connects the head-end (where the signal originates) to the distribution points, which then deliver the signal to individual subscribers. The trunk line ensures that the signal is transmitted efficiently and effectively to reach the intended recipients.

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  • 20. 

    What must a line of detection detect?

    • A. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.

    • B. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection.

    • C. Potential for intruder to bypass the system.

    • D. Possibility of equipment failures.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
    Explanation
    The line of detection must be able to detect any movement such as walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through it. This means that if any person or object passes through the line of detection, it should be able to detect and trigger a response. The other options, B, C, and D, are not directly related to what the line of detection should detect.

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  • 21. 

    The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a

    • A. gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate.

    • B. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.

    • C. personnel entry gate,inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse.

    • D. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
    Explanation
    The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area. This configuration ensures that there is a designated area for security personnel to monitor and control access to the facility. The gatehouse serves as a control center where personnel can monitor and communicate with individuals attempting to enter the facility. The personnel entry gate allows authorized individuals to enter after proper identification and clearance. The inspection equipment is used to screen vehicles and individuals for any prohibited items or threats. The vehicle entrapment area is designed to prevent unauthorized vehicles from entering the facility by trapping them in a designated area until they can be properly inspected and cleared.

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  • 22. 

    What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire (VTWS) is removed?

    • A. None.

    • B. Tamper.

    • C. Intruder.

    • D. Equipment fault.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Tamper.
    Explanation
    If the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. A tamper alarm is activated when there is unauthorized interference or manipulation with the security system or its components. In this case, removing the sensor post cover would be considered tampering with the VTWS, leading to the activation of the tamper alarm.

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  • 23. 

    If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to

    • A. synchronization.

    • B. buffer overflow.

    • C. timing slips.

    • D. data speeds.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. timing slips.
    Explanation
    If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, it means that the clocks are synchronized using GPS. This eliminates the possibility of timing slips, which refers to the discrepancy in timing between different devices or systems. Therefore, by ensuring that all locations use GPS referenced clocks, we can eliminate the occurrence of timing slips and prevent crypto-sync loss.

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  • 24. 

    The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?

    • A. Ku, Ka.

    • B. C, X.

    • C. Ku, X.

    • D. Ka, C.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Ku, Ka.
    Explanation
    The NGRT accepts feeds from the Ku and Ka satellite bands.

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  • 25. 

    What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

    • A. In-effect.

    • B. Exception.

    • C. Acceptance.

    • D. Delayed service.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Exception.
    Explanation
    If the circuit does not meet all required parameters but is still accepted for service based on the advice of the TSO issuing authority, a report must be sent to document this situation. This report is referred to as an "exception" report, as it signifies that the circuit is an exception to the normal requirements.

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  • 26. 

    Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?

    • A. 310-55-1 only.

    • B. 300-175-9 only.

    • C. 310-70-1 and 310-55-1.

    • D. 310-70-1 and 300-175-9.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 310-70-1 and 310-55-1.
  • 27. 

    What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?

    • A. Lightwave.

    • B. Microwave.

    • C. Soundwave.

    • D. Groundwave.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Groundwave.
    Explanation
    High frequency (HF) transmissions follow the groundwave path from the antenna to the distant end. Groundwave propagation refers to the transmission of radio waves along the surface of the Earth, allowing them to travel long distances. This type of propagation is commonly used for HF communications, as it allows for reliable long-range transmission. Lightwave, microwave, and soundwave are not applicable in this context as they do not pertain to the transmission of HF signals.

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  • 28. 

    When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

    • A. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.

    • B. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.

    • C. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.

    • D. requires a dedicated switch to make the connection.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
    Explanation
    In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a physical path is established between the calling and receiving parties for the duration of the call. This dedicated circuit ensures that the communication is uninterrupted and has a dedicated bandwidth allocated to it. Unlike packet-switched networks, where data is divided into packets and transmitted separately, circuit-switched networks keep the connection open throughout the call. This allows for real-time, continuous communication between the parties involved.

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  • 29. 

    What link is used to connect the digital mulitplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus?

    • A. DS-1.

    • B. DS-30.

    • C. DS-30A.

    • D. DS-512.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. DS-512.
    Explanation
    The link used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-cor to the DMS-bus is DS-512. This means that the DMS-cor is connected to the DMS-bus using a DS-512 link.

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  • 30. 

    Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?

    • A. Central control.

    • B. input/output (I/O).

    • C. peripheral module (PM).

    • D. peripheral subsystem (PS).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. peripheral module (PM).
    Explanation
    The NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers through the peripheral module (PM). The peripheral module acts as an interface between the central control and the subscribers, allowing for the transmission of data and signals between the two. This component plays a crucial role in connecting the subscribers to the switching system, making it the correct answer.

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  • 31. 

    The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the 

    • A. encoder.

    • B. decoder.

    • C. multiplexer.

    • D. demultiplexer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. encoder.
    Explanation
    The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the encoder. An encoder is a device that converts analog signals into digital signals. In this case, the RGB outputs from the camera are analog signals, and the encoder converts them into digital signals that can be processed and transmitted. The encoder is responsible for encoding the RGB signals and preparing them for further processing or transmission.

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  • 32. 

    You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an

    • A. magnet.

    • B. conductor.

    • C. electromagnet.

    • D. charged capacitor.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. electromagnet.
    Explanation
    A video tape recorder (VTR) head is a device that uses an electromagnet to record and play back video signals on magnetic tape. The head contains a coil of wire that is wrapped around a core made of a magnetic material. When an electric current passes through the coil, it creates a magnetic field that interacts with the magnetic particles on the tape, allowing the recording and playback of video. Therefore, the comparison of a VTR head to an electromagnet is the most appropriate explanation.

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  • 33. 

    What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?

    • A. Tape meter.

    • B. Tracker.

    • C. Counter.

    • D. Display clock.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Counter.
    Explanation
    The means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR) is a counter. A counter keeps track of the elapsed time on the VTR, allowing users to easily monitor the duration of their recordings or playback. This feature is essential for managing and organizing video content effectively. Tape meter, tracker, and display clock do not specifically measure the amount of time played or recorded on a VTR, making them incorrect options.

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  • 34. 

    What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?

    • A. Effects keyer.

    • B. Effects preview multiplier.

    • C. Effects program multiplier.

    • D. Transition pattern generator.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Effects keyer.
    Explanation
    The effects keyer is the part of the video switcher that allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background. It is a tool used in video production to create overlays or layering effects by combining multiple video sources together. The effects keyer enables the user to superimpose graphics or other video content onto the main video feed, creating a visually appealing and dynamic composition.

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  • 35. 

    What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

    • A. Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work.

    • B. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.

    • C. Facilitate the detection of intruders.

    • D. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of a boundary fence is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. This means that the fence acts as a barrier to prevent individuals from entering a restricted area without permission. The presence of a fence can create a sense of security and discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the perimeter. Additionally, the fence can serve as a visual reminder of boundaries and discourage unauthorized access.

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  • 36. 

    Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

    • A. Ultrasonic.

    • B. Microwave.

    • C. Passive infrared.

    • D. Dual-phenomenology.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Passive infrared.
    Explanation
    Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors detect changes in infrared energy patterns in their surroundings, specifically the heat emitted by living beings. When an intruder enters the sensor's field of view, the sensor detects the difference in heat signatures and triggers an alarm or activates a security system. Ultrasonic and microwave sensors use sound waves and radio waves respectively, while dual-phenomenology sensors combine multiple detection methods. However, only passive infrared sensors specifically rely on heat radiation for intrusion detection.

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  • 37. 

    How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?

    • A. 16, 8.

    • B. 12, 10.

    • C. 13, 8.

    • D. 13, 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 16, 8.
    Explanation
    The FCC-100 has a total of 16 card slots, but only 8 of them are available for user configuration.

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  • 38. 

    How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?

    • A. 2, 1.

    • B. 30, 2.

    • C. 1, 24.

    • D. 23, 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 23, 1.
    Explanation
    The standard configuration in North American ISDN PRI application uses 23 B channels and 1 D channel. The B channels are used for carrying voice or data traffic, while the D channel is used for signaling and control purposes. This configuration allows for a total of 24 channels, with one channel reserved for signaling.

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  • 39. 

    What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?

    • A. Subversion.

    • B. Unauthorized monitoring.

    • C. Inexperienced switch technicians.

    • D. Inadequate maintenance practices.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Subversion.
    Explanation
    Subversion refers to the act of undermining or overthrowing something, and in the context of a voice network system, it can pose a serious threat to its integrity. Subversion could involve unauthorized access or manipulation of the system, leading to potential security breaches, unauthorized monitoring, or even complete system failure. This threat could compromise the confidentiality, availability, and reliability of the voice network system, making it the most serious threat among the options provided.

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  • 40. 

    What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?

    • A. A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city.

    • B. A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system.

    • C. A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area.

    • D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
    Explanation
    The Private Branch Exchange (PBX) plays the role of a small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization. It allows for internal communication within the organization by routing calls between different extensions and managing features such as call transfer, voicemail, and conference calling. It is designed to meet the telephony needs of a specific organization and is not meant to handle traffic for a city or metropolitan area.

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  • 41. 

    What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?

    • A. 10,000.

    • B. 30,000.

    • C. 100,000.

    • D. 300,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 100,000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. 100,000. The DMS-100 is a digital multiplex system that supports a maximum of 100,000 ports. This means that it can handle up to 100,000 simultaneous connections or communications.

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  • 42. 

    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

    • A. Journal file.

    • B. Table control.

    • C. Dump/restore.

    • D. Pending order file.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Table control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. Table control. The table control facility in the DMS-100 database is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This facility ensures that the data in the tables is organized and structured effectively, allowing for efficient retrieval and manipulation of information.

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  • 43. 

    What is the beginning of a cable system called?

    • A. Head-end.

    • B. Trunk line.

    • C. Receiver.

    • D. Decoder.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Head-end.
    Explanation
    The beginning of a cable system is called the head-end. This is where the signal is received and processed before being distributed to the rest of the cable network. The head-end is responsible for receiving multiple channels, converting them into a format suitable for transmission, and then sending them out to the trunk lines for distribution to subscribers. The head-end is a crucial component of a cable system as it ensures that the signal is properly received and distributed to the viewers.

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  • 44. 

    What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?

    • A. 1.5 to 10 seconds.

    • B. 1.5 to 15 seconds.

    • C. 3 to 10 seconds.

    • D. 5 to 15 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 1.5 to 15 seconds.
    Explanation
    The range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported is 1.5 to 15 seconds.

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  • 45. 

    In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the VTWS remain operational?

    • A. 2.

    • B. 4.

    • C. 8.

    • D. 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 4.
    Explanation
    The VTWS can remain operational for 4 hours in the event of a power failure.

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  • 46. 

    Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?

    • A. Managed Ethernet switch (MES).

    • B. Display and keyboard.

    • C. Video converter.

    • D. RBM server.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Video converter.
    Explanation
    The video converter in the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box. A video converter is responsible for converting the incoming broadcast signals into a format that can be displayed on a television. It takes the signal from the RBM and converts it into a format that can be understood by the television, allowing users to view the broadcasted content on their TV screens.

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  • 47. 

    Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except

    • A. outage times.

    • B. reason for outage.

    • C. number of outages.

    • D. preempted outages.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. preempted outages.
    Explanation
    Trend Analysis is a program that analyzes and tracks various aspects of outage data. It trends the outage times, the reason for the outage, and the number of outages. However, it does not trend preempted outages. This means that the program does not analyze or track instances where outages were prevented or stopped before they occurred.

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  • 48. 

    What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?

    • A. Atmospheric pressure.

    • B. Propagation medium.

    • C. Temperature.

    • D. Moisture.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Propagation medium.
    Explanation
    The refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much light slows down when it passes through that medium. In the case of air, the refractive index is primarily determined by its temperature. As temperature increases, the refractive index of air decreases. Atmospheric pressure, moisture content, and other factors can also have a small effect on the refractive index of air, but the propagation medium itself, which refers to the air itself, does not play a significant role in determining the refractive index.

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  • 49. 

    What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?

    • A. Printer, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.

    • B. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.

    • C. A maintenance and administration position (MAP).

    • D. The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 21, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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