Z3d152 02 1511 (Volume 2 Edit Code 1511)

1. (203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

SEQ.

SYN.

STX.

EST.

In binary-synchronous protocol, the character SYN is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. It is responsible for indicating the start of a message and ensuring that the sender and receiver are in sync with each other. By using SYN characters, the protocol ensures that the data is transmitted correctly and prevents any errors or misinterpretations during communication.

Explanation

In binary-synchronous protocol, the character SYN is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. It is responsible for indicating the start of a message and ensuring that the sender and receiver are in sync with each other. By using SYN characters, the protocol ensures that the data is transmitted correctly and prevents any errors or misinterpretations during communication.

2. (204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

Network Time Protocol (NTP).

Packet Internet Groper (PING).

The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is a protocol that allows computers to accurately synchronize their time with a reference time source, such as a time server. By synchronizing the clocks, NTP ensures that all computers on the network have the same time, which is essential for various network operations and applications that rely on accurate timekeeping. SNMP, DHCP, and PING are not specifically designed for clock synchronization and serve different purposes in network communication.

Explanation

The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is a protocol that allows computers to accurately synchronize their time with a reference time source, such as a time server. By synchronizing the clocks, NTP ensures that all computers on the network have the same time, which is essential for various network operations and applications that rely on accurate timekeeping. SNMP, DHCP, and PING are not specifically designed for clock synchronization and serve different purposes in network communication.

3. (206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

8 groups of dotted decimal numbers.

8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.

4 dotted decimal numbers.

128 decimal numbers.

IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. Each group is separated by a colon. This is different from IPv4 addresses, which are represented by 4 groups of decimal numbers separated by periods. IPv6 was introduced to replace IPv4 due to the limited number of available addresses, and the use of hexadecimal numbers allows for a much larger address space.

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. Each group is separated by a colon. This is different from IPv4 addresses, which are represented by 4 groups of decimal numbers separated by periods. IPv6 was introduced to replace IPv4 due to the limited number of available addresses, and the use of hexadecimal numbers allows for a much larger address space.

4. (210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

Bus

Ring

Star

Hybrid

A ring topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle. In this topology, each station is connected to exactly two other stations, forming a closed loop. Data travels in only one direction around the ring, passing through each station until it reaches its destination. This topology provides equal access to all stations and is reliable as data can still flow even if one station fails.

Explanation

A ring topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle. In this topology, each station is connected to exactly two other stations, forming a closed loop. Data travels in only one direction around the ring, passing through each station until it reaches its destination. This topology provides equal access to all stations and is reliable as data can still flow even if one station fails.

5. (210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

Bus

Ring

Star

Hybrid

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that it can have multiple types of connections, such as a combination of bus, ring, and star topologies. This allows for flexibility and scalability in the network, as different types of connections can be used based on the specific needs and requirements.

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that it can have multiple types of connections, such as a combination of bus, ring, and star topologies. This allows for flexibility and scalability in the network, as different types of connections can be used based on the specific needs and requirements.

6. (211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

VLAN Trunks

VLAN Frames

VLAN Links

VLAN Ports

VLAN trunks allow transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. Trunks are configured on the switch ports to carry traffic from multiple VLANs, allowing them to be transmitted over the same physical link. This enables efficient use of network resources and simplifies network management by reducing the number of physical connections required for each VLAN.

Explanation

VLAN trunks allow transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. Trunks are configured on the switch ports to carry traffic from multiple VLANs, allowing them to be transmitted over the same physical link. This enables efficient use of network resources and simplifies network management by reducing the number of physical connections required for each VLAN.

7. (212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

Hostname

Network Name

Service Set Identifier (SSID)

Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID)

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the correct answer because it is a unique identifier that distinguishes one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. The SSID is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is set by the network administrator and is used by wireless devices to connect to a specific WLAN. It allows devices to identify and connect to the correct network among multiple available networks in the vicinity. The SSID is broadcasted by the wireless access point, and users can select the desired network by choosing the corresponding SSID from the available options.

Explanation

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the correct answer because it is a unique identifier that distinguishes one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. The SSID is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is set by the network administrator and is used by wireless devices to connect to a specific WLAN. It allows devices to identify and connect to the correct network among multiple available networks in the vicinity. The SSID is broadcasted by the wireless access point, and users can select the desired network by choosing the corresponding SSID from the available options.

8. (213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

Alphabetically

Hierarchically

Numerically

Objectively

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information is arranged in a structured manner, with different levels of hierarchy or levels of importance. This allows for easy navigation and retrieval of information, as it follows a logical and systematic order. By organizing the information hierarchically, it becomes easier to understand and manage the data within the MIB.

Explanation

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information is arranged in a structured manner, with different levels of hierarchy or levels of importance. This allows for easy navigation and retrieval of information, as it follows a logical and systematic order. By organizing the information hierarchically, it becomes easier to understand and manage the data within the MIB.

9. (239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

Circumvention, and confidentiality.

Circumvention, and disclosure.

Confidentiality, and integrity.

Disclosure, and integrity.

The correct answer is confidentiality and integrity. Availability refers to the ability of the network system to be accessible and functioning properly. Circumvention refers to the act of bypassing or evading security measures, which is not a cornerstone of network system security. Disclosure refers to the act of making information known to others, which is not a cornerstone of network system security either. Confidentiality refers to protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, and integrity refers to maintaining the accuracy and consistency of data. These two principles are essential for ensuring the security of a voice network system.

Explanation

The correct answer is confidentiality and integrity. Availability refers to the ability of the network system to be accessible and functioning properly. Circumvention refers to the act of bypassing or evading security measures, which is not a cornerstone of network system security. Disclosure refers to the act of making information known to others, which is not a cornerstone of network system security either. Confidentiality refers to protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access, and integrity refers to maintaining the accuracy and consistency of data. These two principles are essential for ensuring the security of a voice network system.

10. (240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

Data networks only.

Voice networks only.

Both voice and data networks

Neither voice nor data networks.

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the integration of voice and data networks, which increases the potential attack surface for cyber threats. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure comprehensive protection against potential vulnerabilities, breaches, and unauthorized access. This approach helps to address the unique security requirements and risks associated with converged networks, safeguarding both communication channels effectively.

Explanation

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the integration of voice and data networks, which increases the potential attack surface for cyber threats. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure comprehensive protection against potential vulnerabilities, breaches, and unauthorized access. This approach helps to address the unique security requirements and risks associated with converged networks, safeguarding both communication channels effectively.

11. (240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

Toll fraud

War dialing

Masquerades

Denial of service

Masquerades refers to the attempts made by an individual to gain access to a switch system by pretending to be an authorized user. This involves impersonating someone who has legitimate access to the system in order to bypass security measures and gain unauthorized access. This can be done through various means such as using stolen credentials or exploiting vulnerabilities in the system. Masquerades are a common tactic used by hackers and attackers to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or disrupt the functioning of a network.

Explanation

Masquerades refers to the attempts made by an individual to gain access to a switch system by pretending to be an authorized user. This involves impersonating someone who has legitimate access to the system in order to bypass security measures and gain unauthorized access. This can be done through various means such as using stolen credentials or exploiting vulnerabilities in the system. Masquerades are a common tactic used by hackers and attackers to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or disrupt the functioning of a network.

12. (242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to

Verify the circuit is not in use.

Prevent interruptions to critical circuits

Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

Avoid activating alarm circuits on the voice network system

Measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure that dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for safety reasons as working with circuits that have dangerous voltages can pose a risk to the technician. By measuring the voltage, one can determine if it is safe to proceed with the replacement without the risk of electric shock or other hazards.

Explanation

Measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure that dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for safety reasons as working with circuits that have dangerous voltages can pose a risk to the technician. By measuring the voltage, one can determine if it is safe to proceed with the replacement without the risk of electric shock or other hazards.

13. (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.

Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping outside the line of detection.

Potential for intruder to bypass the system.

Possibility of equipment failures

The correct answer is "Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection." In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection refers to the area or boundary that the system monitors for any unauthorized activity. Therefore, the line of detection should be able to detect any movement or activity that occurs within it, such as walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping. This ensures that any intrusion attempt is promptly identified and can trigger appropriate security measures.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection." In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection refers to the area or boundary that the system monitors for any unauthorized activity. Therefore, the line of detection should be able to detect any movement or activity that occurs within it, such as walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping. This ensures that any intrusion attempt is promptly identified and can trigger appropriate security measures.

14. 249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

Facilitate the detection of intruders.

Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.

Provide security forces personnel a safe place to work

To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry

The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. The fence acts as a physical barrier that makes it difficult for intruders to gain access to the protected area. Additionally, the presence of a fence can psychologically deter potential intruders by signaling that the area is secure and protected. This helps to prevent unauthorized entry and enhance the overall security of the system.

Explanation

The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. The fence acts as a physical barrier that makes it difficult for intruders to gain access to the protected area. Additionally, the presence of a fence can psychologically deter potential intruders by signaling that the area is secure and protected. This helps to prevent unauthorized entry and enhance the overall security of the system.

15. (251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

Ultrasonic.

Microwave.

Passive infrared.

Dual-phenomenology.

Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors are designed to detect changes in infrared energy patterns in their surroundings. When an intruder enters the monitored area, their body heat emits infrared energy, which is detected by the sensor. This detection triggers an alarm or alert, indicating the presence of an intruder. Unlike ultrasonic and microwave sensors, which use sound waves and microwave radiation respectively, passive infrared sensors specifically rely on heat radiation for intrusion detection. Dual-phenomenology sensors combine multiple detection methods, but in this case, the correct answer is passive infrared.

Explanation

Passive infrared sensors use heat radiation to detect intruders. These sensors are designed to detect changes in infrared energy patterns in their surroundings. When an intruder enters the monitored area, their body heat emits infrared energy, which is detected by the sensor. This detection triggers an alarm or alert, indicating the presence of an intruder. Unlike ultrasonic and microwave sensors, which use sound waves and microwave radiation respectively, passive infrared sensors specifically rely on heat radiation for intrusion detection. Dual-phenomenology sensors combine multiple detection methods, but in this case, the correct answer is passive infrared.

16. Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG).

Transfer Protocol (FTP).

G.711.

MPEG-4 is an example of a video compression standard. It is a widely used format for compressing audio and video files, allowing for efficient storage and transmission. MPEG-4 supports high-quality video and audio, as well as advanced features such as interactive content and streaming. It is commonly used for online streaming, video conferencing, and multimedia applications.

Explanation

MPEG-4 is an example of a video compression standard. It is a widely used format for compressing audio and video files, allowing for efficient storage and transmission. MPEG-4 supports high-quality video and audio, as well as advanced features such as interactive content and streaming. It is commonly used for online streaming, video conferencing, and multimedia applications.

17. Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

Character-oriented

Bit-oriented.

Network.

Routing.

Bit-oriented data communication protocol is based on the individual bits and their positions. It focuses on the structure and arrangement of the bits to transmit and receive data. This protocol ensures that the bits are correctly encoded, synchronized, and interpreted, making it suitable for efficient and reliable data transmission. Character-oriented protocols, on the other hand, are based on characters or groups of characters, rather than individual bits. Network and routing are not directly related to the concept of data communication protocols based on bits and positions.

Explanation

Bit-oriented data communication protocol is based on the individual bits and their positions. It focuses on the structure and arrangement of the bits to transmit and receive data. This protocol ensures that the bits are correctly encoded, synchronized, and interpreted, making it suitable for efficient and reliable data transmission. Character-oriented protocols, on the other hand, are based on characters or groups of characters, rather than individual bits. Network and routing are not directly related to the concept of data communication protocols based on bits and positions.

18. (208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

Auxiliary.

Console.

Ethernet.

Telnet.

The console port on a router is used for initial configuration. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) using a console cable. By connecting a computer to the console port, network administrators can configure the router's settings, such as IP addresses, passwords, and routing protocols, before the router is connected to the network. The console port provides a reliable and secure method for initial configuration and troubleshooting purposes.

Explanation

The console port on a router is used for initial configuration. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) using a console cable. By connecting a computer to the console port, network administrators can configure the router's settings, such as IP addresses, passwords, and routing protocols, before the router is connected to the network. The console port provides a reliable and secure method for initial configuration and troubleshooting purposes.

19. (208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

Line Console

Line VTY

Enable

Secret

When configuring a router, the password used to control access to privileged EXEC mode is the "Enable" password. This password is set in order to restrict unauthorized access to the router's privileged mode, which allows for more advanced configuration and management tasks. By setting a strong "Enable" password, network administrators can ensure that only authorized individuals are able to access and make changes to the router's settings.

Explanation

When configuring a router, the password used to control access to privileged EXEC mode is the "Enable" password. This password is set in order to restrict unauthorized access to the router's privileged mode, which allows for more advanced configuration and management tasks. By setting a strong "Enable" password, network administrators can ensure that only authorized individuals are able to access and make changes to the router's settings.

20. (210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

Physical

Logical

Hybrid

Star

Logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It focuses on the logical connections between devices, rather than the physical layout of the network. This includes defining how devices are connected, the paths that data takes, and the protocols used for communication. The logical topology can be different from the physical topology, as devices may be physically connected in a different way than how they communicate. Therefore, logical topology is the correct answer to the question.

Explanation

Logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It focuses on the logical connections between devices, rather than the physical layout of the network. This includes defining how devices are connected, the paths that data takes, and the protocols used for communication. The logical topology can be different from the physical topology, as devices may be physically connected in a different way than how they communicate. Therefore, logical topology is the correct answer to the question.

21. (211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

Disable all the interfaces after creating the EtherChannel.

Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.

Configure all interfaces for the same parameters as the last port configured.

Assign all interfaces in the EtherChannel to a different Virtual LAN (VLAN).

Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any mismatch or compatibility issues that could lead to configuration problems. By having the same speed and duplex mode, the interfaces can effectively communicate and work together as a bundle, improving overall performance and reducing the likelihood of errors or conflicts.

Explanation

Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any mismatch or compatibility issues that could lead to configuration problems. By having the same speed and duplex mode, the interfaces can effectively communicate and work together as a bundle, improving overall performance and reducing the likelihood of errors or conflicts.

22. (214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.

Configure the equipment to use a line console password.

Power cycle the equipment at the end of the duty day.

Configure the equipment using setup mode.

By configuring the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible, it allows for better performance and the ability to support a wider range of security services. With more memory, the equipment can handle more processes and store more data, which is essential for implementing and running various security services effectively. This ensures that the network equipment is capable of meeting the demands of different security measures, enhancing the overall security of the network.

Explanation

By configuring the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible, it allows for better performance and the ability to support a wider range of security services. With more memory, the equipment can handle more processes and store more data, which is essential for implementing and running various security services effectively. This ensures that the network equipment is capable of meeting the demands of different security measures, enhancing the overall security of the network.

23. (218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels.

A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.

The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition.

Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

B8ZS stands for Binary with Eight-Zero Substitution. In this signaling technique, bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into the data signal to break up long strings of zeros. This is done to ensure that the receiving end can accurately detect and interpret the data. By inserting these violations, the signal maintains a balance between positive and negative voltages, preventing the loss of synchronization and ensuring reliable transmission.

Explanation

B8ZS stands for Binary with Eight-Zero Substitution. In this signaling technique, bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into the data signal to break up long strings of zeros. This is done to ensure that the receiving end can accurately detect and interpret the data. By inserting these violations, the signal maintains a balance between positive and negative voltages, preventing the loss of synchronization and ensuring reliable transmission.

24. (227) What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?

Crystal oscillator

Internal timing.

Atomic clock.

Station clock.

Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use atomic clocks to provide very precise time to GPS receivers. Atomic clocks are highly accurate timekeeping devices that use the vibrations of atoms to measure time. These clocks are able to maintain accuracy within nanoseconds, which is crucial for GPS systems to calculate accurate positions. Crystal oscillators, internal timing, and station clocks may be used for other purposes within the GPS system, but they do not provide the same level of precision as atomic clocks.

Explanation

Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use atomic clocks to provide very precise time to GPS receivers. Atomic clocks are highly accurate timekeeping devices that use the vibrations of atoms to measure time. These clocks are able to maintain accuracy within nanoseconds, which is crucial for GPS systems to calculate accurate positions. Crystal oscillators, internal timing, and station clocks may be used for other purposes within the GPS system, but they do not provide the same level of precision as atomic clocks.

25. (237) When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

Is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.

Is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.

Has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.

Has a dedicated trunk created by the switch .

In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call is assigned a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a direct path is established between the calling and receiving parties, and this path remains dedicated to that call for the duration of the conversation. This ensures that the call quality remains consistent and there is no interference from other calls.

Explanation

In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call is assigned a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a direct path is established between the calling and receiving parties, and this path remains dedicated to that call for the duration of the conversation. This ensures that the call quality remains consistent and there is no interference from other calls.

26. (250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.

Security forces entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator and gatehouse.

Location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

Gatehouse, vehicle parking area and personnel entry gate.

The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area. This configuration is necessary to ensure proper security measures at the entry point. The gatehouse serves as a control center where security personnel can monitor and control access to the facility. The personnel entry gate is where individuals enter and exit the facility, and it is important to have proper control and documentation of personnel movements. Inspection equipment is essential for screening and checking individuals and their belongings for any prohibited items. Lastly, the vehicle entrapment area is designed to detain and inspect vehicles entering the facility, ensuring that they do not pose any security threats.

Explanation

The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area. This configuration is necessary to ensure proper security measures at the entry point. The gatehouse serves as a control center where security personnel can monitor and control access to the facility. The personnel entry gate is where individuals enter and exit the facility, and it is important to have proper control and documentation of personnel movements. Inspection equipment is essential for screening and checking individuals and their belongings for any prohibited items. Lastly, the vehicle entrapment area is designed to detain and inspect vehicles entering the facility, ensuring that they do not pose any security threats.

27. (202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

Layer above.

Layer below.

Lowest layer.

Peer layer.

In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, each layer communicates with three other layers. The layer above communicates with the layer below, the layer below communicates with the layer above, and the layer communicates with its peer layer. However, the lowest layer does not have a layer below it, so it does not communicate with a lower layer. Therefore, the lowest layer is not one of the layers that a layer in the OSI model communicates with.

Explanation

In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, each layer communicates with three other layers. The layer above communicates with the layer below, the layer below communicates with the layer above, and the layer communicates with its peer layer. However, the lowest layer does not have a layer below it, so it does not communicate with a lower layer. Therefore, the lowest layer is not one of the layers that a layer in the OSI model communicates with.

28. (205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

A

B

C

D

Class A network has the most addresses for hosts. Class A networks have a very large network portion and a small host portion, allowing for a large number of hosts to be connected to the network. The first octet of a Class A network is reserved for the network portion, while the remaining three octets are used for the host portion. This allows for a maximum of 16,777,214 hosts to be connected to a Class A network.

Explanation

Class A network has the most addresses for hosts. Class A networks have a very large network portion and a small host portion, allowing for a large number of hosts to be connected to the network. The first octet of a Class A network is reserved for the network portion, while the remaining three octets are used for the host portion. This allows for a maximum of 16,777,214 hosts to be connected to a Class A network.

29. (207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

Bridge.

Router.

Gateway.

Repeater.

A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and is responsible for directing data between nodes on a network. It analyzes the data packets and determines the most efficient path for them to reach their destination. Unlike bridges, gateways, and repeaters, routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and can connect multiple networks together. Therefore, a router is the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and is responsible for directing data between nodes on a network. It analyzes the data packets and determines the most efficient path for them to reach their destination. Unlike bridges, gateways, and repeaters, routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and can connect multiple networks together. Therefore, a router is the correct answer for this question.

30. (207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).

Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

Internet backbones use Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is designed to exchange routing information between autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It allows routers in different ASes to communicate and make routing decisions based on various factors such as network policies, path preferences, and network reachability. BGP is widely used by internet service providers and large organizations to ensure efficient and reliable routing across the internet backbone.

Explanation

Internet backbones use Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is designed to exchange routing information between autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It allows routers in different ASes to communicate and make routing decisions based on various factors such as network policies, path preferences, and network reachability. BGP is widely used by internet service providers and large organizations to ensure efficient and reliable routing across the internet backbone.

31. (211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

Lag

Hop

Latency

Time Zone

Latency refers to the time it takes for a switch to determine the appropriate destination for a data unit. It represents the delay or time lag in the forwarding process. Unlike lag, which typically refers to a delay or slowness in general, latency specifically relates to the time it takes for the switch to make a decision on where to send the data. Hop refers to the number of devices a data unit must pass through to reach its destination, and time zone is unrelated to the switch's forwarding process.

Explanation

Latency refers to the time it takes for a switch to determine the appropriate destination for a data unit. It represents the delay or time lag in the forwarding process. Unlike lag, which typically refers to a delay or slowness in general, latency specifically relates to the time it takes for the switch to make a decision on where to send the data. Hop refers to the number of devices a data unit must pass through to reach its destination, and time zone is unrelated to the switch's forwarding process.

32. (212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

Planning

Securing

Deployment

Management

The correct answer is Planning. During the planning phase of wireless design, various factors are taken into consideration, including the number of users on the network, the training required for these users, and the security and integrity requirements of the network data. This phase involves analyzing the requirements and objectives of the wireless network and developing a detailed plan to meet these requirements effectively.

Explanation

The correct answer is Planning. During the planning phase of wireless design, various factors are taken into consideration, including the number of users on the network, the training required for these users, and the security and integrity requirements of the network data. This phase involves analyzing the requirements and objectives of the wireless network and developing a detailed plan to meet these requirements effectively.

33. (213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

Future growth.

Network security.

Remote monitoring.

Network contingencies.

SNMP is a tool that allows network administrators to monitor and manage network performance, troubleshoot issues, and plan for future growth. It provides a framework for collecting and organizing information about devices on the network, allowing administrators to track performance metrics and make informed decisions about network expansion and upgrades. While SNMP can also be used for network security, remote monitoring, and network contingencies, the primary focus is on managing network performance and planning for future growth.

Explanation

SNMP is a tool that allows network administrators to monitor and manage network performance, troubleshoot issues, and plan for future growth. It provides a framework for collecting and organizing information about devices on the network, allowing administrators to track performance metrics and make informed decisions about network expansion and upgrades. While SNMP can also be used for network security, remote monitoring, and network contingencies, the primary focus is on managing network performance and planning for future growth.

34. (215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

Baud rate

Interface speed

Bits per second

Baud per second

In data systems, the most commonly used term to express signaling speed is "bits per second." This term refers to the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. It is a measure of the data transfer rate and is used to determine the speed at which information can be transmitted or received in a data system. Baud rate, interface speed, and baud per second are not as commonly used or accurate in expressing signaling speed as bits per second.

Explanation

In data systems, the most commonly used term to express signaling speed is "bits per second." This term refers to the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. It is a measure of the data transfer rate and is used to determine the speed at which information can be transmitted or received in a data system. Baud rate, interface speed, and baud per second are not as commonly used or accurate in expressing signaling speed as bits per second.

35. (216) Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?

Timing pulses are transmitted within the signal stream.

Start and stop pulses control data transmission.

System timing is not of critical importance.

All data bits are the same length in time.

In synchronous data operation, all data bits are the same length in time. This means that each bit in the data stream is transmitted for the same duration, ensuring that the receiver can accurately interpret the data. This characteristic allows for precise synchronization between the sender and receiver, as they both operate on the same timing. By maintaining consistent bit lengths, the receiver can easily distinguish between different bits and decode the transmitted information accurately.

Explanation

In synchronous data operation, all data bits are the same length in time. This means that each bit in the data stream is transmitted for the same duration, ensuring that the receiver can accurately interpret the data. This characteristic allows for precise synchronization between the sender and receiver, as they both operate on the same timing. By maintaining consistent bit lengths, the receiver can easily distinguish between different bits and decode the transmitted information accurately.

36. (222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called

Sidebands

Sine waves

Frequency translators

Modulating frequencies

Sidebands are the signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier. In modulation, the carrier wave is modified by adding or subtracting frequencies, resulting in the creation of sidebands. These sidebands contain the information that is being transmitted. Therefore, the correct answer is sidebands.

Explanation

Sidebands are the signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier. In modulation, the carrier wave is modified by adding or subtracting frequencies, resulting in the creation of sidebands. These sidebands contain the information that is being transmitted. Therefore, the correct answer is sidebands.

37. (240) What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage and incidents of toll fraud?

Public Switched Telephone Network system.

Enterprise Telephony Management system.

Voice over Internet protocol system.

Time Division Multiplexing system

The Enterprise Telephony Management system provides enterprise-wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud. This system allows organizations to monitor and manage their telephony infrastructure, including phone lines, extensions, and call data. It provides detailed reports and analytics to help identify patterns of resource utilization and detect any fraudulent activities. By having this visibility, organizations can optimize their telecom resources, improve network performance, and prevent unauthorized use or toll fraud incidents.

Explanation

The Enterprise Telephony Management system provides enterprise-wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud. This system allows organizations to monitor and manage their telephony infrastructure, including phone lines, extensions, and call data. It provides detailed reports and analytics to help identify patterns of resource utilization and detect any fraudulent activities. By having this visibility, organizations can optimize their telecom resources, improve network performance, and prevent unauthorized use or toll fraud incidents.

38. (247) What does the GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allow?

Remote microprocessor control.

Remote control of switcher transitions.

Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

Remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer.

The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows for remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer. This means that the switcher can be controlled and operated from a computer, allowing for more flexibility and convenience in managing and controlling the switcher's functions. This feature enables the user to remotely control all aspects of the switcher, such as switching between different video sources, adjusting settings, and managing transitions, all from the comfort of a computer.

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows for remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer. This means that the switcher can be controlled and operated from a computer, allowing for more flexibility and convenience in managing and controlling the switcher's functions. This feature enables the user to remotely control all aspects of the switcher, such as switching between different video sources, adjusting settings, and managing transitions, all from the comfort of a computer.

39. (252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

None

Tamper

Intruder

Equipment fault

If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is activated when there is any unauthorized interference or tampering with the sensor. Removing the cover would indicate that someone has tampered with the sensor, potentially compromising its functionality or security.

Explanation

If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is activated when there is any unauthorized interference or tampering with the sensor. Removing the cover would indicate that someone has tampered with the sensor, potentially compromising its functionality or security.

40. (204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

IP

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that matches an IP address to a MAC address. It is used to find the MAC address of a device on the same network when only the IP address is known. When a device wants to send data to another device on the same network, it needs to know the MAC address of the destination device. ARP resolves this by broadcasting a request asking "Who has this IP address?" and the device with the matching IP address responds with its MAC address.

Explanation

The correct answer is Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that matches an IP address to a MAC address. It is used to find the MAC address of a device on the same network when only the IP address is known. When a device wants to send data to another device on the same network, it needs to know the MAC address of the destination device. ARP resolves this by broadcasting a request asking "Who has this IP address?" and the device with the matching IP address responds with its MAC address.

41. (205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

Three

Five

Seven

Nine

To support 90 subnets on a Class B network, seven subnet bits are required. In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, which provides for 16,384 possible subnets. However, since only 90 subnets are needed, additional subnet bits need to be borrowed to create enough subnets. By borrowing seven subnet bits, it creates a total of 128 subnets (2^7) which is more than enough to support the required 90 subnets. Therefore, the correct answer is seven.

Explanation

To support 90 subnets on a Class B network, seven subnet bits are required. In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, which provides for 16,384 possible subnets. However, since only 90 subnets are needed, additional subnet bits need to be borrowed to create enough subnets. By borrowing seven subnet bits, it creates a total of 128 subnets (2^7) which is more than enough to support the required 90 subnets. Therefore, the correct answer is seven.

42. (209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

Department of Defense network.

Air Force network.

Local area network.

A public network.

Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF (Air Force) to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources from anywhere, even when connected to an untrusted or public network. VPNs provide encryption and authentication mechanisms to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted over the public network, making it a suitable option for extending network resources.

Explanation

Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF (Air Force) to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources from anywhere, even when connected to an untrusted or public network. VPNs provide encryption and authentication mechanisms to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted over the public network, making it a suitable option for extending network resources.

43. (211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

Switch

Firewall

Gateway

Repeater

A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets only to the intended recipient. By connecting multiple devices to different ports on a switch, it allows for efficient communication within a network by creating separate collision domains and increasing available bandwidth. Unlike a repeater, which simply amplifies and regenerates signals, a switch provides more advanced functionality and intelligence in managing network traffic. Firewalls and gateways, on the other hand, are designed for network security and routing purposes respectively.

Explanation

A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets only to the intended recipient. By connecting multiple devices to different ports on a switch, it allows for efficient communication within a network by creating separate collision domains and increasing available bandwidth. Unlike a repeater, which simply amplifies and regenerates signals, a switch provides more advanced functionality and intelligence in managing network traffic. Firewalls and gateways, on the other hand, are designed for network security and routing purposes respectively.

44. (211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

1

2

3

4

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical grouping of devices in a network that behave as if they are on their own separate network. Each VLAN creates a separate broadcast domain, meaning that broadcast traffic is contained within that VLAN and does not spread to other VLANs. Therefore, a VLAN forms its own broadcast domain, and as per the given answer, only one broadcast domain is formed by a VLAN.

Explanation

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical grouping of devices in a network that behave as if they are on their own separate network. Each VLAN creates a separate broadcast domain, meaning that broadcast traffic is contained within that VLAN and does not spread to other VLANs. Therefore, a VLAN forms its own broadcast domain, and as per the given answer, only one broadcast domain is formed by a VLAN.

45. (217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.

NRZ mark.

NRZ space.

Return-to-zero.

In a return-to-zero (RZ) digital signal, the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels (either high or low) and then returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that the signal alternates between the two levels, with each level representing a binary value. This type of signal is commonly used in digital communication systems to transmit data.

Explanation

In a return-to-zero (RZ) digital signal, the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels (either high or low) and then returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that the signal alternates between the two levels, with each level representing a binary value. This type of signal is commonly used in digital communication systems to transmit data.

46. (220) The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that functions to

Process switch addressing.

Control digit translations

Control and process calls

Provide a clear signal.

The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that control and process calls. This means that the signals are responsible for managing and handling telephone calls, ensuring that they are properly routed and connected. The signals play a crucial role in initiating, maintaining, and terminating calls, allowing for effective communication between callers.

Explanation

The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that control and process calls. This means that the signals are responsible for managing and handling telephone calls, ensuring that they are properly routed and connected. The signals play a crucial role in initiating, maintaining, and terminating calls, allowing for effective communication between callers.

47. (226) Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost?

Wave-division multiplexing.

Coarse wave division multiplexing.

Dense wave division multiplexing.

Long wave division multiplexing.

Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) is a wave-division multiplexing technology that uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost. Unlike dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM), which requires expensive cooled lasers, CWDM utilizes uncooled lasers that do not require additional cooling mechanisms, making it a more cost-effective solution.

Explanation

Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) is a wave-division multiplexing technology that uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost. Unlike dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM), which requires expensive cooled lasers, CWDM utilizes uncooled lasers that do not require additional cooling mechanisms, making it a more cost-effective solution.

48. (227) Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source?

1

2

3

4

A Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source is a highly accurate time reference used for synchronization purposes. It is commonly used in various applications such as telecommunications, financial transactions, and scientific research. In the context of stratum levels, a GPS timing source is considered to be at stratum level 1. This is because it receives time directly from atomic clocks and is highly reliable and accurate. Stratum level 1 devices are typically primary reference clocks and serve as the ultimate time source for other devices in the network.

Explanation

A Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source is a highly accurate time reference used for synchronization purposes. It is commonly used in various applications such as telecommunications, financial transactions, and scientific research. In the context of stratum levels, a GPS timing source is considered to be at stratum level 1. This is because it receives time directly from atomic clocks and is highly reliable and accurate. Stratum level 1 devices are typically primary reference clocks and serve as the ultimate time source for other devices in the network.

49. (230) Which DD form is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports?

1441

1443

1445

1753

DD Form 1443 is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports. This form is specifically designed for reporting DODIN operational status and provides a standardized format for collecting and reporting relevant information. It ensures consistency and accuracy in reporting DODIN status, allowing for effective communication and decision-making regarding the network's operational readiness and any issues that may arise.

Explanation

DD Form 1443 is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports. This form is specifically designed for reporting DODIN operational status and provides a standardized format for collecting and reporting relevant information. It ensures consistency and accuracy in reporting DODIN status, allowing for effective communication and decision-making regarding the network's operational readiness and any issues that may arise.

50. (230) If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?

The latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration.

The original TSO and the original circuit test data.

The latest TSO and the latest circuit test data.

The original TSO that established the circuit

Technical Control Facilities are required to obtain the latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration if the circuit files are lost or destroyed. This document will provide the necessary information about the circuit configuration, allowing the facilities to effectively manage and maintain the circuit. The original TSO and the original circuit test data may not reflect the current configuration, while the latest TSO and the latest circuit test data may not be available due to the loss or destruction of the circuit files. Therefore, the latest TSO that reflects the current circuit configuration is the most appropriate document to obtain in this situation.

Explanation

Technical Control Facilities are required to obtain the latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration if the circuit files are lost or destroyed. This document will provide the necessary information about the circuit configuration, allowing the facilities to effectively manage and maintain the circuit. The original TSO and the original circuit test data may not reflect the current configuration, while the latest TSO and the latest circuit test data may not be available due to the loss or destruction of the circuit files. Therefore, the latest TSO that reflects the current circuit configuration is the most appropriate document to obtain in this situation.

51. (235) Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and

An intermediate distribution frame.

A black distribution frame.

A red distribution frame.

A mid distribution frame.

Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and an intermediate distribution frame. This means that a combined distribution frame serves as a central point for connecting various communication lines and distributing them to different locations. It combines the functions of both a main distribution frame, which is responsible for connecting external lines to internal lines, and an intermediate distribution frame, which connects internal lines to other internal lines within a building or facility.

Explanation

Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and an intermediate distribution frame. This means that a combined distribution frame serves as a central point for connecting various communication lines and distributing them to different locations. It combines the functions of both a main distribution frame, which is responsible for connecting external lines to internal lines, and an intermediate distribution frame, which connects internal lines to other internal lines within a building or facility.

52. (240) Where are voice protection system servers installed?

Local bases

MAJCOM headquarters

Air Force Network Operations Center.

Integrated Network and Security Center

The voice protection system servers are installed in the Integrated Network and Security Center.

Explanation

The voice protection system servers are installed in the Integrated Network and Security Center.

53. (252) What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

Alternating current (AC).

Direct current (DC).

Digital.

Analog.

When an alarm is detected in the fence protection system (FPS), an analog signal is sent to the signal processor. An analog signal is a continuous waveform that represents the variations of a physical quantity, such as voltage or current. In this case, the analog signal represents the alarm event detected by the FPS. This type of signal allows for precise and accurate transmission of information, ensuring that the alarm is properly identified and processed by the signal processor.

Explanation

When an alarm is detected in the fence protection system (FPS), an analog signal is sent to the signal processor. An analog signal is a continuous waveform that represents the variations of a physical quantity, such as voltage or current. In this case, the analog signal represents the alarm event detected by the FPS. This type of signal allows for precise and accurate transmission of information, ensuring that the alarm is properly identified and processed by the signal processor.

54. (204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

Internet Protocol (IP).

User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is the correct answer because it is a reliable transport layer protocol. TCP ensures that data is delivered in the correct order and without errors by using acknowledgments and retransmissions. It also provides flow control and congestion control mechanisms to manage the transmission of data. In contrast, User Datagram Protocol (UDP) does not provide reliable data delivery services as it does not have mechanisms for error detection, error correction, or flow control. Internet Protocol (IP) is a network layer protocol that is responsible for routing packets, while Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used for network diagnostics and error reporting.

Explanation

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is the correct answer because it is a reliable transport layer protocol. TCP ensures that data is delivered in the correct order and without errors by using acknowledgments and retransmissions. It also provides flow control and congestion control mechanisms to manage the transmission of data. In contrast, User Datagram Protocol (UDP) does not provide reliable data delivery services as it does not have mechanisms for error detection, error correction, or flow control. Internet Protocol (IP) is a network layer protocol that is responsible for routing packets, while Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used for network diagnostics and error reporting.

55. (222) To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than

20 kHz

50 kHz

75 kHz

88 kHz

The correct answer is 75 kHz. The FCC has set limits to prevent interference between FM radio stations, and these limits restrict the amount by which each station's oscillator frequency can deviate. In this case, the limit is 75 kHz, meaning that each station can cause its oscillator frequency to vary by up to 75 kHz from its nominal frequency. This helps to ensure that FM radio stations can coexist without causing interference to each other's signals.

Explanation

The correct answer is 75 kHz. The FCC has set limits to prevent interference between FM radio stations, and these limits restrict the amount by which each station's oscillator frequency can deviate. In this case, the limit is 75 kHz, meaning that each station can cause its oscillator frequency to vary by up to 75 kHz from its nominal frequency. This helps to ensure that FM radio stations can coexist without causing interference to each other's signals.

56. (225) What are the two major types of frame structures?

Low speed and high speed.

High speed and EBCDIC.

CCITT and Low speed frame.

EBCDIC and CCITT.

The correct answer is CCITT and Low speed frame. CCITT stands for Comité Consultatif International Téléphonique et Télégraphique, which is an international organization that sets standards for telecommunications. Low speed frame refers to a type of frame structure used for transmitting data at a slower rate. These two types of frame structures are recognized as major categories in the field of telecommunications.

Explanation

The correct answer is CCITT and Low speed frame. CCITT stands for Comité Consultatif International Téléphonique et Télégraphique, which is an international organization that sets standards for telecommunications. Low speed frame refers to a type of frame structure used for transmitting data at a slower rate. These two types of frame structures are recognized as major categories in the field of telecommunications.

57. (229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?

Commercial providers.

National Security Agency (NSA).

Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communications and information systems to the Department of Defense. They oversee the management and operation of the DOD's global information infrastructure, including satellite communications. DISA ensures that the DOD networks have the necessary connectivity and bandwidth to support the communication needs of the military.

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communications and information systems to the Department of Defense. They oversee the management and operation of the DOD's global information infrastructure, including satellite communications. DISA ensures that the DOD networks have the necessary connectivity and bandwidth to support the communication needs of the military.

58. (232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

Daily

Weekly

Monthly

Annual

Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on a monthly basis. This means that the program analyzes the performance of circuits over a period of one month and compares it to the predetermined thresholds set by management. By doing this analysis on a monthly basis, the program can identify any deviations from the desired performance levels and alert management to take necessary actions.

Explanation

Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on a monthly basis. This means that the program analyzes the performance of circuits over a period of one month and compares it to the predetermined thresholds set by management. By doing this analysis on a monthly basis, the program can identify any deviations from the desired performance levels and alert management to take necessary actions.

59. (242) What Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis and error reporting?

Visual display unit

Digital trunk controller.

Line concentrating modules.

Maintenance and administration position.

The correct answer is Maintenance and administration position. The DMS-100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis, and error reporting, which are all essential functions of a maintenance and administration position. This position is responsible for managing and maintaining the system, including diagnosing and resolving faults, analyzing errors, and ensuring proper functioning of the system. The other options, such as visual display unit, digital trunk controller, and line concentrating modules, do not specifically pertain to these maintenance and administration functions.

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance and administration position. The DMS-100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis, and error reporting, which are all essential functions of a maintenance and administration position. This position is responsible for managing and maintaining the system, including diagnosing and resolving faults, analyzing errors, and ensuring proper functioning of the system. The other options, such as visual display unit, digital trunk controller, and line concentrating modules, do not specifically pertain to these maintenance and administration functions.

60. (243) Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter the NT9X35A cross-point card?

Vertical bus (V-bus).

Horizontal bus (H-bus).

Clock rate/messaging card.

Enhanced network (ENET) processor.

Incoming circuits transmitted to the NT9X35A cross-point card enter through the Vertical bus (V-bus).

Explanation

Incoming circuits transmitted to the NT9X35A cross-point card enter through the Vertical bus (V-bus).

61. At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained and terminated?

Network

Phisical

Data Link

Transport

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts and provides reliable and ordered delivery of data. It establishes connections, manages flow control, and handles error recovery. Virtual circuits, which are logical connections created over a physical network, are implemented at this layer using protocols like TCP (Transmission Control Protocol).

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts and provides reliable and ordered delivery of data. It establishes connections, manages flow control, and handles error recovery. Virtual circuits, which are logical connections created over a physical network, are implemented at this layer using protocols like TCP (Transmission Control Protocol).

62. (222) What is the process, or result of the process, of modifying (varying) one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal?

Modulation

Multiplexing

Quantization

Synthesizing

Modulation refers to the process of modifying one or more characteristics of a carrier signal based on the instantaneous characteristic of an information signal. This process allows the information signal to be transmitted over long distances by superimposing it onto a carrier signal. By varying the characteristics of the carrier signal, such as its amplitude, frequency, or phase, the information signal can be effectively encoded and transmitted. Therefore, modulation is the correct answer to the question.

Explanation

Modulation refers to the process of modifying one or more characteristics of a carrier signal based on the instantaneous characteristic of an information signal. This process allows the information signal to be transmitted over long distances by superimposing it onto a carrier signal. By varying the characteristics of the carrier signal, such as its amplitude, frequency, or phase, the information signal can be effectively encoded and transmitted. Therefore, modulation is the correct answer to the question.

63. (223) The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions is known as

Pulse-amplitude

Pulse-duration

Pulse-position

Pulse-code

Pulse-position modulation is a form of pulse modulation where a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions. In this modulation technique, the position of the pulse within a time interval represents the information being transmitted. The amplitude and duration of the pulse remain constant, but the position varies to encode the data. This technique is commonly used in applications where accurate timing and synchronization are crucial, such as in telecommunications and digital data transmission.

Explanation

Pulse-position modulation is a form of pulse modulation where a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions. In this modulation technique, the position of the pulse within a time interval represents the information being transmitted. The amplitude and duration of the pulse remain constant, but the position varies to encode the data. This technique is commonly used in applications where accurate timing and synchronization are crucial, such as in telecommunications and digital data transmission.

64. (228) Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Network Control Center (NCC).

Node Side Coordinator (NSC).

Circuit Control Office (CCO).

The Circuit Control Office (CCO) is responsible for managing a circuit end-to-end. They oversee the provisioning, maintenance, and troubleshooting of circuits to ensure smooth communication between network nodes. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is a separate agency responsible for providing information technology and communication support to the Department of Defense. The Network Control Center (NCC) and Node Side Coordinator (NSC) are not specifically mentioned as having responsibility for circuits end-to-end.

Explanation

The Circuit Control Office (CCO) is responsible for managing a circuit end-to-end. They oversee the provisioning, maintenance, and troubleshooting of circuits to ensure smooth communication between network nodes. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is a separate agency responsible for providing information technology and communication support to the Department of Defense. The Network Control Center (NCC) and Node Side Coordinator (NSC) are not specifically mentioned as having responsibility for circuits end-to-end.

65. (229) What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?

DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE).

Facility Circuit Information Tracking (FaCIT).

Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).

Telecommunications Certifications Office Support System (TCOSS).

DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE) is the correct answer because it is the web application used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). This system allows users to place orders for various telecommunications services and products offered by DISA, making it the appropriate choice for this question.

Explanation

DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE) is the correct answer because it is the web application used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). This system allows users to place orders for various telecommunications services and products offered by DISA, making it the appropriate choice for this question.

66. (231) Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?

72

48

24

12

Within 72 normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO), the circuit control office (CCO) must submit an in-effect report. This report is necessary to ensure that the TSO has been successfully implemented and that the circuit is functioning properly. It allows for proper documentation and tracking of the TSO's effectiveness.

Explanation

Within 72 normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO), the circuit control office (CCO) must submit an in-effect report. This report is necessary to ensure that the TSO has been successfully implemented and that the circuit is functioning properly. It allows for proper documentation and tracking of the TSO's effectiveness.

67. (214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?

Console

Auxiliary

Interface

Virtual Terminal

The correct answer is Auxiliary. In general, direct dial-in access to a network device should be denied by disabling the Auxiliary port. The Auxiliary port is typically used for connecting modems or other external devices, and disabling it helps prevent unauthorized access to the network device.

Explanation

The correct answer is Auxiliary. In general, direct dial-in access to a network device should be denied by disabling the Auxiliary port. The Auxiliary port is typically used for connecting modems or other external devices, and disabling it helps prevent unauthorized access to the network device.

68. (220) Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?

Pulse

Tone

Digit

Address

The correct answer is "Tone." Tone is the communications control signal that uses a two-frequency dialing combination. It is commonly used in telephone systems to transmit signals and control various functions such as dialing and call routing. Unlike pulse dialing, which uses a series of intermittent pulses to represent numbers, tone dialing utilizes specific frequencies to generate tones that correspond to the desired numbers or control signals. This method is more efficient and faster than pulse dialing, making it the preferred choice in modern telecommunications.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tone." Tone is the communications control signal that uses a two-frequency dialing combination. It is commonly used in telephone systems to transmit signals and control various functions such as dialing and call routing. Unlike pulse dialing, which uses a series of intermittent pulses to represent numbers, tone dialing utilizes specific frequencies to generate tones that correspond to the desired numbers or control signals. This method is more efficient and faster than pulse dialing, making it the preferred choice in modern telecommunications.

69. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

Journal file.

Table control.

Dump/restore.

Pending order file.

Table control is the correct answer because it refers to the facility in the DMS-100 database system that is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This means that it manages the organization, storage, and retrieval of data within the system, ensuring that data is structured and accessible. The other options, such as journal file, dump/restore, and pending order file, do not specifically pertain to the creation and maintenance of tables in a controlled manner.

Explanation

Table control is the correct answer because it refers to the facility in the DMS-100 database system that is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This means that it manages the organization, storage, and retrieval of data within the system, ensuring that data is structured and accessible. The other options, such as journal file, dump/restore, and pending order file, do not specifically pertain to the creation and maintenance of tables in a controlled manner.

70. (212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

802.11a

802.11b

802.11g

802.11r

The IEEE specification 802.11a is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices. This is because 802.11a operates on a different frequency band (5 GHz) compared to 802.11b and 802.11g (2.4 GHz). The 5 GHz band is less crowded and has less interference from common household devices such as microwaves and cordless phones. Therefore, 802.11a provides a more stable and reliable wireless connection in environments where interference from these devices is a concern.

Explanation

The IEEE specification 802.11a is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices. This is because 802.11a operates on a different frequency band (5 GHz) compared to 802.11b and 802.11g (2.4 GHz). The 5 GHz band is less crowded and has less interference from common household devices such as microwaves and cordless phones. Therefore, 802.11a provides a more stable and reliable wireless connection in environments where interference from these devices is a concern.

71. (215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

Bits

Bytes

Codes

Blocks

Individual pulses within a digital signal are referred to as bits. In digital communication, a bit is the basic unit of information that represents either a 0 or a 1. These bits are used to encode and transmit data in binary form, allowing for efficient and accurate communication between devices. Therefore, in the context of a digital signal, the correct term to describe the individual pulses is bits.

Explanation

Individual pulses within a digital signal are referred to as bits. In digital communication, a bit is the basic unit of information that represents either a 0 or a 1. These bits are used to encode and transmit data in binary form, allowing for efficient and accurate communication between devices. Therefore, in the context of a digital signal, the correct term to describe the individual pulses is bits.

72. (217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

1

2

3

4

A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. This is because binary signals are based on the binary numbering system, where each digit can only be 0 or 1. These voltage levels are used to represent the two states of the signal, which can be interpreted as off and on, low and high, or any other pair of distinct states.

Explanation

A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. This is because binary signals are based on the binary numbering system, where each digit can only be 0 or 1. These voltage levels are used to represent the two states of the signal, which can be interpreted as off and on, low and high, or any other pair of distinct states.

73. (227) To create a better timing environment in communications networks, external timing distribution occurs through

Station clocks

Internal timing

Crystal oscillators

Distribution frames

Station clocks are used to create a better timing environment in communications networks by providing a centralized and accurate time reference. These clocks are synchronized with a reliable time source, such as a GPS signal, and distribute the timing information to all the devices in the network. This ensures that all the devices are operating on the same time, minimizing timing errors and improving the overall performance and reliability of the network. Internal timing, crystal oscillators, and distribution frames may play a role in the network's timing, but station clocks are specifically designed for this purpose.

Explanation

Station clocks are used to create a better timing environment in communications networks by providing a centralized and accurate time reference. These clocks are synchronized with a reliable time source, such as a GPS signal, and distribute the timing information to all the devices in the network. This ensures that all the devices are operating on the same time, minimizing timing errors and improving the overall performance and reliability of the network. Internal timing, crystal oscillators, and distribution frames may play a role in the network's timing, but station clocks are specifically designed for this purpose.

74. (231) What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for

In-effect.

Exception.

Acceptance.

Delayed service

If the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for in-effect, the report that must be sent is an exception report. This report is used to document any deviations or exceptions from the required parameters and to inform the relevant parties about the acceptance of the circuit despite these deviations.

Explanation

If the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for in-effect, the report that must be sent is an exception report. This report is used to document any deviations or exceptions from the required parameters and to inform the relevant parties about the acceptance of the circuit despite these deviations.

75. (232) If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be performed?

Quality Control

Operational acceptance

Test and acceptance

Operations and maintenance

If a circuit fails its management threshold, the appropriate test that might be performed is Quality Control. Quality Control involves inspecting and testing the circuit to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. This test helps to identify any defects, faults, or deviations from the expected performance, allowing for necessary adjustments or repairs to be made. By conducting Quality Control, the circuit's performance and reliability can be improved, ensuring that it operates within the desired parameters.

Explanation

If a circuit fails its management threshold, the appropriate test that might be performed is Quality Control. Quality Control involves inspecting and testing the circuit to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. This test helps to identify any defects, faults, or deviations from the expected performance, allowing for necessary adjustments or repairs to be made. By conducting Quality Control, the circuit's performance and reliability can be improved, ensuring that it operates within the desired parameters.

76. (238) In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries

User traffic

Call setup traffic

Handshaking data

Management data

In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries user traffic. This means that it is responsible for transmitting the actual data or information between the sender and receiver. The "B" channel is used for voice, video, or any other type of user-generated content. It is separate from the "D" channel, which is used for signaling and control purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is user traffic.

Explanation

In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries user traffic. This means that it is responsible for transmitting the actual data or information between the sender and receiver. The "B" channel is used for voice, video, or any other type of user-generated content. It is separate from the "D" channel, which is used for signaling and control purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is user traffic.

77. (240) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the

President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee.

Air Force Network Integration Center.

Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab.

Cryptographic Systems Group.

The correct answer is the President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. This committee released a report that emphasized the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks. The report likely discussed the potential risks and weaknesses in these networks, highlighting the need for enhanced security measures to protect national security and telecommunications infrastructure.

Explanation

The correct answer is the President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. This committee released a report that emphasized the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks. The report likely discussed the potential risks and weaknesses in these networks, highlighting the need for enhanced security measures to protect national security and telecommunications infrastructure.

78. (240) Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection system?

Securing communications.

Enabling of real-time notifications.

Centralizing yet distributing management.

Detecting and blocking all inbound and outbound modem connections.

The characteristic and capability of a voice protection system include securing communications, enabling real-time notifications, and detecting and blocking all inbound and outbound modem connections. However, centralizing yet distributing management is not a characteristic of a voice protection system. This means that a voice protection system does not involve centralizing the management of its operations while also distributing it.

Explanation

The characteristic and capability of a voice protection system include securing communications, enabling real-time notifications, and detecting and blocking all inbound and outbound modem connections. However, centralizing yet distributing management is not a characteristic of a voice protection system. This means that a voice protection system does not involve centralizing the management of its operations while also distributing it.

79. (242) What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic–100 (MSL–100) supports?

10,000

30,000

100,000

300,000

The Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports a maximum of 30,000 ports. This means that the MSL-100 can handle connections to up to 30,000 devices or endpoints. It is important to note that this is the maximum limit and the actual number of ports used may vary depending on the specific configuration and requirements of the system.

Explanation

The Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports a maximum of 30,000 ports. This means that the MSL-100 can handle connections to up to 30,000 devices or endpoints. It is important to note that this is the maximum limit and the actual number of ports used may vary depending on the specific configuration and requirements of the system.

80. (242) Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).

CM and system load module (SLM)

Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU)

CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).

The control component of the SuperNode central control is made up of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These elements are responsible for managing and controlling the operations of the SuperNode system. The computing mode determines the mode in which the system operates, while the system load module monitors and manages the system's workload. Together, these elements ensure efficient and effective control of the SuperNode central control.

Explanation

The control component of the SuperNode central control is made up of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These elements are responsible for managing and controlling the operations of the SuperNode system. The computing mode determines the mode in which the system operates, while the system load module monitors and manages the system's workload. Together, these elements ensure efficient and effective control of the SuperNode central control.

81. (245) What names are given to the shifted R–Y and B–Y signals, respectively?

I (45° in-phase) and Q (90° in-phase).

I (90° in-phase) and Q (45° in-phase).

I (out-of-phase) and Q (quadrature).

I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

The names given to the shifted R-Y and B-Y signals are I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

Explanation

The names given to the shifted R-Y and B-Y signals are I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

82. (251) What does the AN/GSS–39(V) system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?

Zone indicator plate.

Video display unit.

End-of-line module.

Tamper interface module.

The AN/GSS-39(V) system uses the end-of-line module to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel. This module is responsible for detecting any breaks or faults in the wiring and alerting the control panel. It ensures that the system is functioning properly and all sensors are connected and operational. The zone indicator plate, video display unit, and tamper interface module are not specifically designed for monitoring the integrity of sensor wiring.

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39(V) system uses the end-of-line module to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel. This module is responsible for detecting any breaks or faults in the wiring and alerting the control panel. It ensures that the system is functioning properly and all sensors are connected and operational. The zone indicator plate, video display unit, and tamper interface module are not specifically designed for monitoring the integrity of sensor wiring.

83. (252) What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS)?

60

80

100

150

The maximum detection distance of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS) is 80 meters. This means that the system can detect any intrusions within a radius of 80 meters from its location. It uses infrared technology to detect any movement or presence of objects within its range. This distance is important for determining the coverage area of the system and ensuring that it can effectively detect any potential intruders within its specified range.

Explanation

The maximum detection distance of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS) is 80 meters. This means that the system can detect any intrusions within a radius of 80 meters from its location. It uses infrared technology to detect any movement or presence of objects within its range. This distance is important for determining the coverage area of the system and ensuring that it can effectively detect any potential intruders within its specified range.

84. (204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting? a. Internet protocol (IP).

Internet protocol (IP).

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging for troubleshooting purposes. It is used to send error messages and operational information about network conditions. ICMP messages can be used to diagnose network connectivity issues, determine if a destination is reachable, and identify network congestion or errors. Therefore, ICMP is the correct answer as it provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting.

Explanation

ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging for troubleshooting purposes. It is used to send error messages and operational information about network conditions. ICMP messages can be used to diagnose network connectivity issues, determine if a destination is reachable, and identify network congestion or errors. Therefore, ICMP is the correct answer as it provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting.

85. (219) How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?

8

12

24

48

The extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence consists of 24 bits.

Explanation

The extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence consists of 24 bits.

86. (228) Who is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point and provides troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC)?

Communications focal point.

Network control center.

Node side coordinator.

Circuit actions officer.

The Node side coordinator is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point. They also provide troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC). This role acts as a focal point for communications and coordination related to network circuits within the facility. The Network control center is responsible for overall network management and operations, while the Circuit actions officer handles specific actions related to circuits.

Explanation

The Node side coordinator is responsible for all circuits within their facility up to the designated demarcation point. They also provide troubleshooting assistance at the direction of the Global NetOps Support Center (GNSC). This role acts as a focal point for communications and coordination related to network circuits within the facility. The Network control center is responsible for overall network management and operations, while the Circuit actions officer handles specific actions related to circuits.

87. (234) Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?

Circuit control office.

Systems control facility.

Defense Communications System (DCS).

National Communications System (NCS)

The National Communications System (NCS) confirms a restoration priority. The NCS is responsible for ensuring the availability and reliability of communication systems during emergencies or crises. As part of its role, it establishes priorities for restoring communication services based on the criticality of the situation. By confirming a restoration priority, the NCS helps coordinate and allocate resources effectively to ensure that essential communication services are restored first.

Explanation

The National Communications System (NCS) confirms a restoration priority. The NCS is responsible for ensuring the availability and reliability of communication systems during emergencies or crises. As part of its role, it establishes priorities for restoring communication services based on the criticality of the situation. By confirming a restoration priority, the NCS helps coordinate and allocate resources effectively to ensure that essential communication services are restored first.

88. (240) Which is not a component of the voice protection system architecture?

Server

Firewall

Software

Appliance

The voice protection system architecture consists of various components that work together to ensure the security and integrity of voice communications. These components include servers, software, and appliances. However, a firewall is not considered a component of the voice protection system architecture. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. While a firewall can be used in conjunction with a voice protection system, it is not an inherent component of the architecture itself.

Explanation

The voice protection system architecture consists of various components that work together to ensure the security and integrity of voice communications. These components include servers, software, and appliances. However, a firewall is not considered a component of the voice protection system architecture. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. While a firewall can be used in conjunction with a voice protection system, it is not an inherent component of the architecture itself.

89. (246) Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States as the standard?

Digital Video Broadcast-Terrestrial system.

Advanced Television Systems Committee

Digital Video Broadcast-Satellite system.

Digital Video Broadcast-Committee

The correct answer is Advanced Television Systems Committee. The ATSC is the digital broadcast system that was adopted by the United States as the standard. It was developed in the 1990s and is used for over-the-air television broadcasting. The ATSC system provides high-definition video and audio quality, as well as additional features such as interactive services and multi-channel audio. It replaced the previous analog broadcasting system and has become the standard for digital television in the United States.

Explanation

The correct answer is Advanced Television Systems Committee. The ATSC is the digital broadcast system that was adopted by the United States as the standard. It was developed in the 1990s and is used for over-the-air television broadcasting. The ATSC system provides high-definition video and audio quality, as well as additional features such as interactive services and multi-channel audio. It replaced the previous analog broadcasting system and has become the standard for digital television in the United States.

90. (251) Which interior intrusion detection system is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo or building?

AN/GSS–42.

AN/GSS–41.

AN/GSS–29.

AN/GSS–39.

The AN/GSS-39 is an interior intrusion detection system that is specifically designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building.

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39 is an interior intrusion detection system that is specifically designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building.

91. (225) The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is

Frequency division

Binary division

Pulse division

Time division

The T1 multiplexer uses the method of time division. This means that it divides the available time slots into smaller intervals and assigns each interval to a different channel or data stream. This allows multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously over a single communication line. Each signal is given its own time slot, and the multiplexer switches between the signals rapidly, giving the illusion of simultaneous transmission. This method is efficient and widely used in telecommunications to maximize the utilization of communication channels.

Explanation

The T1 multiplexer uses the method of time division. This means that it divides the available time slots into smaller intervals and assigns each interval to a different channel or data stream. This allows multiple signals to be transmitted simultaneously over a single communication line. Each signal is given its own time slot, and the multiplexer switches between the signals rapidly, giving the illusion of simultaneous transmission. This method is efficient and widely used in telecommunications to maximize the utilization of communication channels.

92. (206) Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?

Host-specific relay.

Client.

Server.

Agent.

The correct answer is "Agent." Teredo is an IPv6 transition technology that allows IPv6 packets to be transmitted over an IPv4 network. It consists of four tunneling components: client, server, relay, and bubble. The agent is not one of the components in Teredo.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Agent." Teredo is an IPv6 transition technology that allows IPv6 packets to be transmitted over an IPv4 network. It consists of four tunneling components: client, server, relay, and bubble. The agent is not one of the components in Teredo.

93. (211) Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design?

Core

Access

Transport

Distribution

The transport layer is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design. In a hierarchical network design, the layers typically include the core layer, distribution layer, and access layer. The transport layer, on the other hand, is a layer in the OSI model that is responsible for end-to-end communication and ensuring reliable delivery of data between hosts. It is not directly related to the hierarchical network design.

Explanation

The transport layer is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design. In a hierarchical network design, the layers typically include the core layer, distribution layer, and access layer. The transport layer, on the other hand, is a layer in the OSI model that is responsible for end-to-end communication and ensuring reliable delivery of data between hosts. It is not directly related to the hierarchical network design.

94. (230) Which test results do you record on the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697–Analog?

Idle channel noise and test tone levels.

Terminal impedance and impulse noise.

Frequency response and envelope delay.

Net loss variation and single tone interference.

On the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697-Analog, you record the test results for frequency response and envelope delay. This means that when conducting tests using this form, you would measure and record the frequency response of the system being tested, which refers to how well the system reproduces different frequencies. Additionally, you would also record the envelope delay, which is the time it takes for a signal to travel through the system. These measurements are important for assessing the performance and quality of the analog system being tested.

Explanation

On the reverse/back side of the DD Form 1697-Analog, you record the test results for frequency response and envelope delay. This means that when conducting tests using this form, you would measure and record the frequency response of the system being tested, which refers to how well the system reproduces different frequencies. Additionally, you would also record the envelope delay, which is the time it takes for a signal to travel through the system. These measurements are important for assessing the performance and quality of the analog system being tested.

95. (233) Which publication lists the methods used to identify systems, links, trunks and circuits?

Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) 310–70–1.

DISAC 310–65–1.

DISAC 310–55–1.

DISAC 300–175–9.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

96. (234) When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the second type of circuit you preempt?

Separate channels

Active on-call circuits

Nonactive on-call circuits

Circuits with 00 RP codes

When you must restore user service by rerouting, the second type of circuit you preempt is nonactive on-call circuits. These circuits are not currently in use but are reserved for future use. By preempting these circuits, you can prioritize the restoration of user service and ensure that the necessary resources are available for immediate use.

Explanation

When you must restore user service by rerouting, the second type of circuit you preempt is nonactive on-call circuits. These circuits are not currently in use but are reserved for future use. By preempting these circuits, you can prioritize the restoration of user service and ensure that the necessary resources are available for immediate use.

97. (208) On a router's serial interface connection, what provides the timing signal for the communication link?

Data communications equipment.

Data terminal equipment.

Internal oscillator.

Atomic clock.

Data communications equipment provides the timing signal for the communication link on a router's serial interface connection. This equipment is responsible for encoding, transmitting, and receiving data over the network. It ensures that the data is synchronized and transmitted at the appropriate timing to maintain reliable communication between devices.

Explanation

Data communications equipment provides the timing signal for the communication link on a router's serial interface connection. This equipment is responsible for encoding, transmitting, and receiving data over the network. It ensures that the data is synchronized and transmitted at the appropriate timing to maintain reliable communication between devices.

98. (218) Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to

Provide error-free signaling.

Operate at higher data rates.

Eliminate bipolar violations.

Maintain ones density standards.

Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are designed to maintain ones density standards. Ones density refers to the requirement of having a balanced number of ones and zeros in a digital signal. B8ZS replaces a sequence of eight zeros with a special code to ensure that ones density is maintained, preventing long runs of zeros that could cause synchronization and clocking issues. This technique is important for maintaining the integrity and reliability of high-speed digital communications.

Explanation

Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are designed to maintain ones density standards. Ones density refers to the requirement of having a balanced number of ones and zeros in a digital signal. B8ZS replaces a sequence of eight zeros with a special code to ensure that ones density is maintained, preventing long runs of zeros that could cause synchronization and clocking issues. This technique is important for maintaining the integrity and reliability of high-speed digital communications.

99. (248) Which basic circuit in the video distribution amplifier consists of two transistors that form the upper leg of a totem pole circuit?

Equalizer and peaking amp.

Fixed gain and level shift.

Variable gain amp.

Output driver.

The correct answer is "Output driver." In a video distribution amplifier, the output driver circuit consists of two transistors that form the upper leg of a totem pole circuit. This circuit is responsible for driving the video signal to the output, ensuring that it has enough power and can be properly transmitted to the connected devices. The other options mentioned, such as equalizer and peaking amp, fixed gain and level shift, and variable gain amp, do not specifically refer to the circuit that consists of two transistors forming the upper leg of a totem pole circuit.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Output driver." In a video distribution amplifier, the output driver circuit consists of two transistors that form the upper leg of a totem pole circuit. This circuit is responsible for driving the video signal to the output, ensuring that it has enough power and can be properly transmitted to the connected devices. The other options mentioned, such as equalizer and peaking amp, fixed gain and level shift, and variable gain amp, do not specifically refer to the circuit that consists of two transistors forming the upper leg of a totem pole circuit.

100. (221) In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used for?

Bit robbing

Bit stuffing

Frame correction

Frame enhancement

The seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 in common associated signaling (CAS) is used for bit robbing. Bit robbing refers to the process of stealing one bit from each frame to carry signaling information. This allows for additional signaling information to be transmitted within the existing frame structure without the need for additional overhead.

Explanation

The seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 in common associated signaling (CAS) is used for bit robbing. Bit robbing refers to the process of stealing one bit from each frame to carry signaling information. This allows for additional signaling information to be transmitted within the existing frame structure without the need for additional overhead.

101. (221) Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occur directly over links interconnecting the signaling points?

Associated

Nonassociated

Quasi-associated

Multi-associated

In the Associated CCS mode, the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occurs directly over links interconnecting the signaling points. This means that the signaling messages are sent directly from one signaling point to another without any intermediaries or additional steps. This mode is commonly used in telecommunication systems where signaling messages need to be exchanged between specific points in a direct and efficient manner.

Explanation

In the Associated CCS mode, the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occurs directly over links interconnecting the signaling points. This means that the signaling messages are sent directly from one signaling point to another without any intermediaries or additional steps. This mode is commonly used in telecommunication systems where signaling messages need to be exchanged between specific points in a direct and efficient manner.

102. (252) What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?

Beam break.

Signal fade margin.

Multipath reflection.

Multipath amplification.

The secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor is multipath reflection. This means that the sensor detects the reflection of the microwave signal off of objects or structures in its vicinity. Multipath reflection occurs when the microwave signal bounces off of surfaces and returns to the sensor, indicating the presence of an object or an intruder. This mode of detection is used in addition to the primary mode of detection, which is beam break.

Explanation

The secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor is multipath reflection. This means that the sensor detects the reflection of the microwave signal off of objects or structures in its vicinity. Multipath reflection occurs when the microwave signal bounces off of surfaces and returns to the sensor, indicating the presence of an object or an intruder. This mode of detection is used in addition to the primary mode of detection, which is beam break.

103. (216) A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes

Synchronous operation.

Asynchronous operation.

Synchronous and/or isochronous operation.

Asynchronous and/or synchronous operation.

A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes asynchronous operation. This is because synchronizing bits are used to maintain alignment and timing between the sender and receiver in asynchronous communication. Synchronous operation, on the other hand, uses a clock signal to synchronize the sender and receiver. The answer of synchronous and/or isochronous operation is incorrect as isochronous operation refers to a specific type of synchronous operation where data is transmitted at a constant rate.

Explanation

A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes asynchronous operation. This is because synchronizing bits are used to maintain alignment and timing between the sender and receiver in asynchronous communication. Synchronous operation, on the other hand, uses a clock signal to synchronize the sender and receiver. The answer of synchronous and/or isochronous operation is incorrect as isochronous operation refers to a specific type of synchronous operation where data is transmitted at a constant rate.

104. (230) Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders?

1441

1443

1698

1753

The correct answer is 1753. This form is used for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1753. This form is used for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders.

105. (242) What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?

DS-1

DS-30

DS-30A

DS-512

The link used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus is DS-512.

Explanation

The link used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus is DS-512.

106. (236) Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available?

Flight commander.

Manufacturer.

Technician.

NCOIC.

The flight commander is responsible for determining if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available. As the leader of the flight, the flight commander has the authority to make decisions regarding maintenance inspections and ensure that they are carried out effectively.

Explanation

The flight commander is responsible for determining if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available. As the leader of the flight, the flight commander has the authority to make decisions regarding maintenance inspections and ensure that they are carried out effectively.

107. (252) What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?

150 feet

200 feet

328 feet

425 feet

The maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is 328 feet. This means that the sensor can accurately measure vertical displacements up to a distance of 328 feet.

Explanation

The maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is 328 feet. This means that the sensor can accurately measure vertical displacements up to a distance of 328 feet.

108. (203) Which data communication protocol is a transmission code that supports a variety of link types and topologies?

Asynchronous protocol.

Binary synchronous protocol.

Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).

SDLC is a data communication protocol that supports a variety of link types and topologies. It is a synchronous protocol, meaning that data is transmitted in a synchronized manner, with the sender and receiver maintaining a constant communication rate. SDLC is widely used in telecommunications and computer networks for reliable and efficient data transmission. Asynchronous protocol does not support a variety of link types and topologies, while Binary Synchronous Protocol (BSP) and High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) are specific protocols that are based on SDLC.

Explanation

SDLC is a data communication protocol that supports a variety of link types and topologies. It is a synchronous protocol, meaning that data is transmitted in a synchronized manner, with the sender and receiver maintaining a constant communication rate. SDLC is widely used in telecommunications and computer networks for reliable and efficient data transmission. Asynchronous protocol does not support a variety of link types and topologies, while Binary Synchronous Protocol (BSP) and High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) are specific protocols that are based on SDLC.

109. (224) Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration?

Frequency-division

Wave-division

Time-division

Phase-division

Frequency-division multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration because it divides the available bandwidth into multiple frequency channels. Each channel carries a different signal, and these signals can interfere with each other due to factors such as noise, distortion, and attenuation. This can result in a degradation of the overall signal quality, leading to signal deterioration.

Explanation

Frequency-division multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration because it divides the available bandwidth into multiple frequency channels. Each channel carries a different signal, and these signals can interfere with each other due to factors such as noise, distortion, and attenuation. This can result in a degradation of the overall signal quality, leading to signal deterioration.

110. (241) How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

32

12

3

1

The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has 3 serial data interface ports.

Explanation

The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has 3 serial data interface ports.

111. (247) The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills with

Linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.

Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.

Key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal.

Luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.

The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. This means that the video switcher can use either the video signal from the key bus or a color matte signal generated internally to create the key fill effect. The key fill effect is used to overlay one video source onto another, and in this case, it can be achieved using either the key bus video or the internally-generated color matte signal.

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal. This means that the video switcher can use either the video signal from the key bus or a color matte signal generated internally to create the key fill effect. The key fill effect is used to overlay one video source onto another, and in this case, it can be achieved using either the key bus video or the internally-generated color matte signal.

112. (221) How is supervisory signaling information transferred in common channel signaling (CCS)?

Bit robbing.

Bit stuffing.

Frame correction.

Separate network channel.

In common channel signaling (CCS), supervisory signaling information is transferred through a separate network channel. This means that the signaling information is transmitted on a different channel than the voice or data traffic. This allows for more efficient and reliable signaling, as it is not affected by congestion or interference on the main channel. By using a separate network channel, the signaling information can be transmitted and received without any loss or distortion, ensuring accurate communication between the signaling entities.

Explanation

In common channel signaling (CCS), supervisory signaling information is transferred through a separate network channel. This means that the signaling information is transmitted on a different channel than the voice or data traffic. This allows for more efficient and reliable signaling, as it is not affected by congestion or interference on the main channel. By using a separate network channel, the signaling information can be transmitted and received without any loss or distortion, ensuring accurate communication between the signaling entities.

113.
What data communication protocol uses characters or "handshaking" to control the link and represent information?

Asynchronous protocol.

Binary synchronous protocol

Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).

Binary synchronous protocol is a data communication protocol that uses characters or "handshaking" to control the link and represent information. It is a synchronous protocol, meaning that the sender and receiver are synchronized and data is transmitted in a continuous stream. The protocol uses start and stop bits to mark the beginning and end of each character, and it also incorporates error checking mechanisms to ensure data integrity. Therefore, the correct answer is Binary synchronous protocol.

Explanation

Binary synchronous protocol is a data communication protocol that uses characters or "handshaking" to control the link and represent information. It is a synchronous protocol, meaning that the sender and receiver are synchronized and data is transmitted in a continuous stream. The protocol uses start and stop bits to mark the beginning and end of each character, and it also incorporates error checking mechanisms to ensure data integrity. Therefore, the correct answer is Binary synchronous protocol.

114. (223) Which form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?

Delta modulation.

Frequency shift keying.

Binary-phase shift keying.

Pulse-amplitude modulation.

Binary-phase shift keying (BPSK) is a form of modulation that is insensitive to signal variations. BPSK uses two phases, 0 and 180 degrees, to represent binary 0 and 1. It is immune to amplitude variations in the signal because it only relies on the phase of the signal. This makes BPSK robust against noise and other signal distortions, making it suitable for applications where signal variations are common. Delta modulation, frequency shift keying, and pulse-amplitude modulation are all sensitive to signal variations in different ways, making them less immune compared to BPSK.

Explanation

Binary-phase shift keying (BPSK) is a form of modulation that is insensitive to signal variations. BPSK uses two phases, 0 and 180 degrees, to represent binary 0 and 1. It is immune to amplitude variations in the signal because it only relies on the phase of the signal. This makes BPSK robust against noise and other signal distortions, making it suitable for applications where signal variations are common. Delta modulation, frequency shift keying, and pulse-amplitude modulation are all sensitive to signal variations in different ways, making them less immune compared to BPSK.

115. (229) What document is the authority for the operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment necessary for the installation or operation of the circuit?

Request for service.

Service acquisition message.

Telecommunications service order

Telecommunications service request.

The correct answer is "Telecommunications service order." A telecommunications service order is the document that serves as the authority for operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment needed for the installation or operation of the circuit. This order outlines the details of the requested services, including the type of equipment required and any additional specifications or instructions. It is a formal document that helps ensure proper procurement and implementation of telecommunications services.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Telecommunications service order." A telecommunications service order is the document that serves as the authority for operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment needed for the installation or operation of the circuit. This order outlines the details of the requested services, including the type of equipment required and any additional specifications or instructions. It is a formal document that helps ensure proper procurement and implementation of telecommunications services.

116. (252) How many vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors can be serviced per field distribution box (FDB)?

1

2

4

8

The correct answer is 2 because each field distribution box (FDB) can service two vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors. This means that one FDB can handle the monitoring and data collection from two separate VTWS sectors, providing accurate and reliable information about the vertical position of objects within those sectors.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because each field distribution box (FDB) can service two vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) sectors. This means that one FDB can handle the monitoring and data collection from two separate VTWS sectors, providing accurate and reliable information about the vertical position of objects within those sectors.

117. (240) During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system?

The President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee

The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab

The Air Force Network Integration Center

The Cryptographic Systems Group

The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by a voice protection system during the initial research for voice system security.

Explanation

The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by a voice protection system during the initial research for voice system security.

118. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

Journal file.

Table control.

Dump/restore.

Pending order file.

The correct answer is the "Pending order file." This facility in the DMS-100 database allows for the storage of data modification orders (DMO) and the retrieval of these orders at a specified time for execution. It is specifically designed to handle pending orders and ensures that they are executed in a timely manner.

Explanation

The correct answer is the "Pending order file." This facility in the DMS-100 database allows for the storage of data modification orders (DMO) and the retrieval of these orders at a specified time for execution. It is specifically designed to handle pending orders and ensures that they are executed in a timely manner.

119. (252) How many sensors does a taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contain?

5

6

10

12

A taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contains 12 sensors.

Explanation

A taut-wire system in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contains 12 sensors.

120. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system fails?

Journal file.

Table control.

Dump/restore.

Pending order file.

The correct answer is Journal file. In a Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility, the journal file is used to preserve data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk. This allows for the restoration of data tables in case of system failure. The journal file acts as a log that records all changes made to the data, providing a backup that can be used to recover the system in the event of a failure. The other options, such as table control, dump/restore, and pending order file, do not specifically provide the same functionality as the journal file in preserving data modifications orders.

Explanation

The correct answer is Journal file. In a Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database facility, the journal file is used to preserve data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk. This allows for the restoration of data tables in case of system failure. The journal file acts as a log that records all changes made to the data, providing a backup that can be used to recover the system in the event of a failure. The other options, such as table control, dump/restore, and pending order file, do not specifically provide the same functionality as the journal file in preserving data modifications orders.

121. (247) The total number of effects storage registers in the GVG–110 video switcher is

8

10

12

16

The GVG-110 video switcher has a total of 16 effects storage registers.

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher has a total of 16 effects storage registers.

122. (223) Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?

Pulse-amplitude.

Pulse-duration.

Pulse-position.

Pulse-code.

Pulse-code modulation (PCM) is a type of pulse modulation that converts analog signals into digital form by encoding them into binary code. Unlike other types of pulse modulation, PCM uses a coding scheme that represents each sample with a fixed number of bits, ensuring accurate transmission and reception of the signal. This digital representation makes PCM less susceptible to noise interference compared to pulse-amplitude, pulse-duration, and pulse-position modulation, which directly encode analog signals. Therefore, PCM is the type of pulse modulation least affected by noise.

Explanation

Pulse-code modulation (PCM) is a type of pulse modulation that converts analog signals into digital form by encoding them into binary code. Unlike other types of pulse modulation, PCM uses a coding scheme that represents each sample with a fixed number of bits, ensuring accurate transmission and reception of the signal. This digital representation makes PCM less susceptible to noise interference compared to pulse-amplitude, pulse-duration, and pulse-position modulation, which directly encode analog signals. Therefore, PCM is the type of pulse modulation least affected by noise.

123. (251) How many selectable frequencies are obtainable with a SD80DC microwave sensor?

5

8

10

12

The SD80DC microwave sensor is capable of obtaining 10 selectable frequencies.

Explanation

The SD80DC microwave sensor is capable of obtaining 10 selectable frequencies.

124. (252) What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?

150 feet

200 feet

328 feet

425 feet

The maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) is 200 feet.

Explanation

The maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) is 200 feet.

Z3d152 02 1511 (Volume 2 Edit Code 1511)

1. (203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. (204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

3. (206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

4. (210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

5. (210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

6. (211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

7. (212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

8. (213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

9. (239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

10. (240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

11. (240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

12. (242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to

13. (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

14. 249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

15. (251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

16. Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

17. Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

18. (208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

19. (208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

20. (210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

21. (211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

22. (214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

23. (218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

24. (227) What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?

25. (237) When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

26. (250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

27. (202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

28. (205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

29. (207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

30. (207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

31. (211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

32. (212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

33. (213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

34. (215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

35. (216) Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?

36. (222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called

37. (240) What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage and incidents of toll fraud?

38. (247) What does the GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allow?

39. (252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

40. (204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

41. (205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

42. (209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

43. (211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

44. (211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

45. (217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

46. (220) The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that functions to

47. (226) Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost?

48. (227) Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source?

49. (230) Which DD form is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports?

50. (230) If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?

51. (235) Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and

52. (240) Where are voice protection system servers installed?

53. (252) What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

54. (204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

55. (222) To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than

56. (225) What are the two major types of frame structures?

57. (229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?

58. (232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

59. (242) What Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis and error reporting?

60. (243) Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter the NT9X35A cross-point card?

61. At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained and terminated?

62. (222) What is the process, or result of the process, of modifying (varying) one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal?

63. (223) The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions is known as

64. (228) Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?

65. (229) What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?

66. (231) Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?

67. (214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?

68. (220) Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?

69. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

70. (212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

71. (215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

72. (217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

73. (227) To create a better timing environment in communications networks, external timing distribution occurs through

74. (231) What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for

75. (232) If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be performed?

76. (238) In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries

77. (240) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the

113.
What data communication protocol uses characters or "handshaking" to control the link and represent information?