3D152 Volume 2 Ures

93 Questions | Total Attempts: 328

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3D152 Volume 2 Ures

3D152 Volume 2 UREs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What happens when more bits are added to a digital signal arranged in a sequence understood by the sender and receiver?
    • A. 

      A code set is established.

    • B. 

      A word is created.

    • C. 

      An octet is formed.

    • D. 

      Nothing.

  • 2. 
    How many possible symbols can 4 bits represent?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      16.

  • 3. 
    In networking, a byte is identified as a/an
    • A. 

      Bit.

    • B. 

      Word.

    • C. 

      Octet.

    • D. 

      Letter.

  • 4. 
    What organization sets important computer networking wiring standards for residential and commercial network cabling?
    • A. 

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).

    • B. 

      Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • C. 

      The American National Standards Institute (ANSI).

    • D. 

      The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).

  • 5. 
    What Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) standard is used for commercially building telecommunications cabling?
    • A. 

      568A.

    • B. 

      569A.

    • C. 

      570A.

    • D. 

      606A.

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standardized format used for digital telecommunications services backbone system?
    • A. 

      E-carrier.

    • B. 

      Structured query language.

    • C. 

      International Organization for Standardization.

    • D. 

      American Standard Code for Information Interchange.

  • 7. 
    There is a worldwide nonprofit association of technical professionals that promotes the development of standards called the
    • A. 

      Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

    • B. 

      Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).

    • C. 

      European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI).

    • D. 

      Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).

  • 8. 
    A collection of standards for local area network (LAN) architectures, protocols, and technologies called Project 802 were developed by the
    • A. 

      Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

    • B. 

      Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).

    • C. 

      European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI).

    • D. 

      Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).

  • 9. 
    The “parent” organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, for all other telecommunications organizations is the
    • A. 

      Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

    • B. 

      International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

    • C. 

      Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).

    • D. 

      International Telegraph and Telephone Consultative Committee (CCITT).

  • 10. 
    What organization is responsible for the X-series and V-series standards?
    • A. 

      Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

    • B. 

      International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

    • C. 

      Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).

    • D. 

      International Telecommunication Union Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T).

  • 11. 
    Which series of standards are recommended for data transmission using the telephone network?
    • A. 

      T.

    • B. 

      V.

    • C. 

      X.

    • D. 

      Z.

  • 12. 
    The definition of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model was a major contribution to networking made by the
    • A. 

      Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

    • B. 

      International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

    • C. 

      International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

    • D. 

      Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).

  • 13. 
    Within how many feet of the data communications equipment (DCE) connection does the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) RS–232–C standard prescribes bipolar-voltage serial data transmission?
    • A. 

      25.

    • B. 

      50.

    • C. 

      100.

    • D. 

      200.

  • 14. 
    Which Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) interface standard has the ability to work in either balanced or unbalanced electrical circuits?
    • A. 

      RS–232–C.

    • B. 

      RS–423.

    • C. 

      RS–485.

    • D. 

      RS–530.

  • 15. 
    What transmission rates does Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS–530 accommodate?
    • A. 

      20 kilobits per second (Kbps) to 200 Kbps.

    • B. 

      20 Kbps to 2 megabits per second (Mbps).

    • C. 

      20 Kbps to 20 Mbps.

    • D. 

      20 Kbps to 22 Mbps.

  • 16. 
    What two sublayers did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divide the Open System Interconnect (OSI) data link layers into?
    • A. 

      High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

    • B. 

      Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

    • C. 

      Data communications equipment (DCE) and data terminal equipment (DTE).

    • D. 

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS–232 and RS–530.

  • 17. 
    At what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
    • A. 

      Application.

    • B. 

      Session.

    • C. 

      Presentation.

    • D. 

      Transport.

  • 18. 
    What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user?
    • A. 

      Application.

    • B. 

      Session.

    • C. 

      Presentation.

    • D. 

      Transport.

  • 19. 
    In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?
    • A. 

      Layer above.

    • B. 

      Layer below.

    • C. 

      Lowest layer.

    • D. 

      Peer layer.

  • 20. 
    Which information unit, whose source and destination are network-layer entities, uses connectionless network service?
    • A. 

      Frame.

    • B. 

      Packet.

    • C. 

      Segment.

    • D. 

      Datagram.

  • 21. 
    What data communication protocol is used to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
    • A. 

      Character-oriented.

    • B. 

      Bit-oriented.

    • C. 

      Routing.

    • D. 

      Network.

  • 22. 
    In binary-synchronous protocol, what character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
    • A. 

      SEQ.

    • B. 

      SYN.

    • C. 

      STX.

    • D. 

      EST.

  • 23. 
    What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
    • A. 

      Character-oriented.

    • B. 

      Bit-oriented.

    • C. 

      Routing.

    • D. 

      Network.

  • 24. 
    What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
    • A. 

      Asynchronous protocol.

    • B. 

      Binary synchronous protocol.

    • C. 

      Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

    • D. 

      High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).

  • 25. 
    A group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area is a
    • A. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • D. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

  • 26. 
    The interconnection of several networks in a city into a single larger network is a
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 27. 
    What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 28. 
    What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • C. 

      Virtual private network (VPN).

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

  • 29. 
    Which type network enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way?
    • A. 

      Intranet.

    • B. 

      Extranet.

    • C. 

      Peer-to-peer.

    • D. 

      Client-server.

  • 30. 
    What Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered, including the data’s source and destination addresses?
    • A. 

      Internet protocol (IP).

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

  • 31. 
    Which Network layer protocol matches a known internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
    • A. 

      IP.

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

  • 32. 
    Which Network layer protocol provides the internet protocol (IP) address for a device that knows its own Media Access Control (MAC) address?
    • A. 

      IP.

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

  • 33. 
    Which Transport layer protocol does not guarantee that packets will be received at all?
    • A. 

      Internet protocol (IP).

    • B. 

      User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

    • C. 

      Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

  • 34. 
    Which Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files by way of transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)?
    • A. 

      File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

    • D. 

      Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

  • 35. 
    Which protocol is simpler than File Transfer Protocol (FTP) when transferring files between computers?
    • A. 

      FTP.

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

    • D. 

      Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

  • 36. 
    Which Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation used to log on to remote hosts?
    • A. 

      Teletype Network.

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

    • D. 

      Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

  • 37. 
    Which Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique internet protocol (IP) address to every device on a network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

    • D. 

      Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

  • 38. 
    Which Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and communicating with the network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

    • B. 

      Network Time Protocol (NTP).

    • C. 

      File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

    • D. 

      Ping.

  • 39. 
    The physical address of any device on the network is a/an
    • A. 

      Internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address.

    • B. 

      Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address.

    • C. 

      Static internet protocol (IP) address.

    • D. 

      Media Access Control (MAC) address.

  • 40. 
    What are the two parts to an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
    • A. 

      Network and host.

    • B. 

      Network and class.

    • C. 

      Class and host.

    • D. 

      Network and octet.

  • 41. 
    What is used on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network to determine which network a computer is on?
    • A. 

      Subnet host.

    • B. 

      Subnet network.

    • C. 

      Subnet mask.

    • D. 

      Host mask.

  • 42. 
    How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?
    • A. 

      Three.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Seven.

    • D. 

      Nine.

  • 43. 
    How many bits are available for host bits on a Class B network using seven bits?
    • A. 

      Three.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Seven.

    • D. 

      Nine.

  • 44. 
    What is not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
    • A. 

      Start with the shortest mask.

    • B. 

      Re-address the entire network.

    • C. 

      Aim to use contiguous subnets where possible.

    • D. 

      Choose one or more available subnets and subnet further.

  • 45. 
    What mechanism allows for easier Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address allocations?
    • A. 

      Auto-sense.

    • B. 

      Auto negotiation.

    • C. 

      Auto configuration.

    • D. 

      Auto summarization.

  • 46. 
    Which one of the following is not an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) transition approach?
    • A. 

      Translation.

    • B. 

      Tunneling.

    • C. 

      Dual stack.

    • D. 

      Auto configuration.

  • 47. 
    Which Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) tunneling approach attempts to solve the issue of IPv6 to IP version 4 (IPv4), IP protocol 41 issue?
    • A. 

      6to4.

    • B. 

      Teredo.

    • C. 

      Tunnel Broker.

    • D. 

      Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP).

  • 48. 
    Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?
    • A. 

      Teredo host-specific relay.

    • B. 

      Teredo client.

    • C. 

      Teredo server.

    • D. 

      Teredo agent.

  • 49. 
    The combination transmitter/receiver device, in a single package, is called a
    • A. 

      Transceiver.

    • B. 

      Repeater.

    • C. 

      Router.

    • D. 

      Hub.

  • 50. 
    What device provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media?
    • A. 

      Bridge.

    • B. 

      Router.

    • C. 

      Gateway.

    • D. 

      Network interface card (NIC).

  • 51. 
    What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
    • A. 

      Data Link and Network layers.

    • B. 

      Physical and Network layers.

    • C. 

      Physical and Data Link layers.

    • D. 

      Physical, Data Link, and Network layers.

  • 52. 
    A repeater with more than one output port is a
    • A. 

      Hub.

    • B. 

      Bridge.

    • C. 

      Brouter.

    • D. 

      Gateway.

  • 53. 
    What can be used to extend the size of a network?
    • A. 

      Brouter.

    • B. 

      Gateway.

    • C. 

      Active hubs.

    • D. 

      Passive hubs.

  • 54. 
    What device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
    • A. 

      Switch.

    • B. 

      Brouter.

    • C. 

      Gateway.

    • D. 

      Repeater.

  • 55. 
    The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called
    • A. 

      Lag.

    • B. 

      Hop.

    • C. 

      Latency.

    • D. 

      Time zone.

  • 56. 
    Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
    • A. 

      Switch.

    • B. 

      Router.

    • C. 

      Gateway.

    • D. 

      Repeater.

  • 57. 
    A router’s strength is its
    • A. 

      Intelligence.

    • B. 

      Quality of service.

    • C. 

      Different interface cards.

    • D. 

      Different types of network connectors.

  • 58. 
    What is the oldest routing protocol?
    • A. 

      Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

    • B. 

      Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).

    • C. 

      Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

    • D. 

      Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

  • 59. 
    Which routing protocol does internet backbones use?
    • A. 

      Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

    • B. 

      Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).

    • C. 

      Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

    • D. 

      Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

  • 60. 
    What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice versa?
    • A. 

      Voice/data.

    • B. 

      Internet.

    • C. 

      LAN.

    • D. 

      Firewall.

  • 61. 
    What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)?
    • A. 

      Voice/data.

    • B. 

      Internet.

    • C. 

      LAN.

    • D. 

      Firewall.

  • 62. 
    Virtual private networks (VPN) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
    • A. 

      Department of Defense network.

    • B. 

      Air Force network.

    • C. 

      Wide area network.

    • D. 

      Public network.

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
    • A. 

      Manages data transfer across the tunnel.

    • B. 

      Encrypts and decrypts data.

    • C. 

      Establishes tunnels.

    • D. 

      Encapsulates data.

  • 64. 
    What cable discrepancies can a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect?
    • A. 

      Opens, shorts, and bad grounds.

    • B. 

      Pinholes, shorts, and bad grounds.

    • C. 

      Shorts, kinks, and low cable pressure.

    • D. 

      Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors.

  • 65. 
    What type of cable property changes does a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect to identify problems?
    • A. 

      Conductance.

    • B. 

      Inductance.

    • C. 

      Impedance.

    • D. 

      Capacitance.

  • 66. 
    When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action is suggested by most manufacturers to prevent false readings?
    • A. 

      Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

    • B. 

      Connect an injector at the end of the cable being tested.

    • C. 

      Set the range for maximum reading.

    • D. 

      Use the Frequency mode.

  • 67. 
    A cable scanner wire-map display identifies crossover and straight-through cables by
    • A. 

      Displaying opens, shorts, and split pairs.

    • B. 

      Providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable.

    • C. 

      Monitoring and providing access to conductors.

    • D. 

      Measuring current, frequency, and resistance.

  • 68. 
    What test equipment has the capability of diagnosing digital network and developing communications software?
    • A. 

      Digital distortion analyzer.

    • B. 

      Protocol analyzer.

    • C. 

      Communications test set.

    • D. 

      Data analysis center.

  • 69. 
    Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
    • A. 

      Counter.

    • B. 

      Buffer.

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU).

    • D. 

      Filter.

  • 70. 
    What component of a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and the user configuration inputs?
    • A. 

      Counter.

    • B. 

      Buffer.

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU).

    • D. 

      Filter.

  • 71. 
    What protocol analyzer feature automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    • A. 

      Media Access Control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 72. 
    What protocol analyzer utility is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
    • A. 

      Trace Route.

    • B. 

      Ping.

    • C. 

      Who is.

    • D. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

  • 73. 
    What protocol analyzer utility is used to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?
    • A. 

      Trace Route.

    • B. 

      Ping.

    • C. 

      Who is.

    • D. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

  • 74. 
    A Management Information Base (MIB) can be identified by either its object name or its object what?
    • A. 

      Descriptor.

    • B. 

      Character.

    • C. 

      Number.

    • D. 

      Trait.

  • 75. 
    Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) has three components: a managed device, an agent and a
    • A. 

      Network Management System (NMS).

    • B. 

      Management Information Base (MIB).

    • C. 

      Monitor screen.

    • D. 

      Threshold.

  • 76. 
    Which of the following is not a basic Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) command?
    • A. 

      Write.

    • B. 

      Read.

    • C. 

      Trap.

    • D. 

      Get.

  • 77. 
    Which network management function provides the capability to initialize, operate and shut down managed devices?
    • A. 

      Fault.

    • B. 

      Accounting.

    • C. 

      Performance.

    • D. 

      Configuration.

  • 78. 
    Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
    • A. 

      Fault.

    • B. 

      Accounting.

    • C. 

      Performance.

    • D. 

      Configuration.

  • 79. 
    The community name that is used with the network management systems (NMS) authenticates
    • A. 

      Simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests.

    • B. 

      Transmission control protocol (TCP) requests.

    • C. 

      Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) requests.

    • D. 

      File transfer protocol (FTP) requests.

  • 80. 
    What defines the format and type of data in a network management system (NMS) report?
    • A. 

      Grapher template.

    • B. 

      Report template.

    • C. 

      Grapher tool.

    • D. 

      Report tool.

  • 81. 
    What process provides the overall process to secure and protect our information networks?
    • A. 

      Barrier Reef.

    • B. 

      Defense in Depth.

    • C. 

      Combat Information Transport System/Base Information Protection (CITS/BIP).

    • D. 

      Joint Vision 2010.

  • 82. 
    What defines traffic flow and is a basic protection mechanism on routers?
    • A. 

      Telnet.

    • B. 

      Access lists.

    • C. 

      Hypertext Transfer Protocol session.

    • D. 

      Virtual Local Area Networks.

  • 83. 
    The World Wide Web (WWW) proxy provides three benefits: it conceals internal network configuration, provides a means to monitor and eliminate traffic to unofficial WWW sites, and
    • A. 

      Allows for limited WWW access because it is so restrictive.

    • B. 

      Allows web pages to download in a considerably less time.

    • C. 

      Provides much faster access to the internet.

    • D. 

      You see the same sites over again since it caches pages.

  • 84. 
    What is one of the primary functions of the Network Control Center (NCC), usually done in real time, and ensures the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy?
    • A. 

      Packet filtering.

    • B. 

      System auditing.

    • C. 

      System monitoring.

    • D. 

      Information protection.

  • 85. 
    What security posture permits everything that is not specifically blocked?
    • A. 

      Default deny.

    • B. 

      Default allow.

    • C. 

      Close.

    • D. 

      Open.

  • 86. 
    What security posture prevents everything that is not specifically authorized?
    • A. 

      Default deny.

    • B. 

      Default allow.

    • C. 

      Close.

    • D. 

      Open.

  • 87. 
    What is the first line of defense when gaining access to a laptop computer’s operating system?
    • A. 

      Physical security.

    • B. 

      Information condition.

    • C. 

      Logon identification and password combination.

    • D. 

      File share level of effective permissions.

  • 88. 
    Who has unrestricted access to system commands and data?
    • A. 

      Powerusers.

    • B. 

      Supersusers.

    • C. 

      Server operators.

    • D. 

      Backup operators.

  • 89. 
    What must be employed to ensure data integrity?
    • A. 

      Check sums.

    • B. 

      Access lists.

    • C. 

      Encryption.

    • D. 

      Authentication.

  • 90. 
    What method is approved for changing passwords through the use of remote access?
    • A. 

      Password authentication protocol.

    • B. 

      Strongly encrypted virtual private network.

    • C. 

      Strongly encrypted virtual local area network.

    • D. 

      Challenge handshake authentication protocol.

  • 91. 
    An intrusion detection system (IDS) may miss attacks that bypass the firewall like application-based attacks and
    • A. 

      Snooping.

    • B. 

      Tunneling.

    • C. 

      Capturing.

    • D. 

      Rejecting.

  • 92. 
    What type of firewall can filter messages according to a set of rules for a specific application?
    • A. 

      Bastion host.

    • B. 

      Circuit level.

    • C. 

      Proxy server.

    • D. 

      Packet filtering.

  • 93. 
    What are the two vulnerability scanner examination techniques?
    • A. 

      Internal and external.

    • B. 

      Physical and logical.

    • C. 

      Static and dynamic.

    • D. 

      Passive and active.