TCP/IP Practice Test Quiz

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TCP/IP Practice Test Quiz - Quiz

In this advanced technological world, where everything is directly or indirectly linked to computers or smartphones, we have brought this TCP/IP practice test quiz to test your knowledge. The quiz has multiple questions that will be useful to test your understanding and knowledge as well as to gain some more through this fun learning experience. So, are you ready and well-prepared for it? Let's go then! Best of luck!
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TCP/IP Practice Test Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    What is the basic unit of data transfer across an IP internetwork? 

    • A.

      The Data Link Layer frame

    • B.

      The IP Layer Packet

    • C.

      The TCP Layer Packet

    • D.

      The Application layer Packet

    Correct Answer
    B. The IP Layer Packet
    Explanation
    The basic unit of data transfer across an IP internetwork is the IP Layer Packet. This packet contains the necessary information such as the source and destination IP addresses, as well as the data being sent. The IP Layer is responsible for routing and forwarding packets between different networks, making it the fundamental unit for data transfer in an IP network.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following components of the TCP/IP protocol stack are end-to-end layers (also known as host-to-host layers)? 

    • A.

      ARP

    • B.

      IP

    • C.

      TCP and UDP

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    C. TCP and UDP
    Explanation
    TCP and UDP are considered end-to-end layers in the TCP/IP protocol stack because they provide the necessary protocols for communication between two hosts or end systems. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) and IP (Internet Protocol) are network layer protocols that handle addressing and routing, but they do not directly facilitate end-to-end communication. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) are transport layer protocols that establish connections, manage data transfer, and provide error checking and flow control, making them the appropriate layers for host-to-host communication.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following does not describe the IP packet delivery layer? 

    • A.

      Connectionless

    • B.

      Best-Effort

    • C.

      Unreliable

    • D.

      Streaming

    Correct Answer
    D. Streaming
    Explanation
    The IP packet delivery layer is responsible for delivering packets from the source to the destination. It operates in a connectionless manner, meaning that there is no established connection between the sender and receiver. It also follows a best-effort approach, where it tries its best to deliver packets but does not guarantee delivery or quality of service. Additionally, it is considered unreliable as it does not provide mechanisms for error detection or correction. However, the term "streaming" does not describe the IP packet delivery layer as it refers to a specific method of transmitting continuous data in real time.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following fields in the header of an IP packet will be decremented by one at each router? 

    • A.

      The Header Checksum

    • B.

      The Type of Service (TOS)

    • C.

      The Time to Live (TTL)

    • D.

      The Protocol Number

    Correct Answer
    C. The Time to Live (TTL)
    Explanation
    The Time to Live (TTL) field in the header of an IP packet will be decremented by one at each router. The TTL field is used to prevent packets from circulating endlessly in a network. When a router receives a packet, it decrements the TTL value by one. If the TTL reaches zero, the router discards the packet and sends an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source. This mechanism ensures that packets do not continue to circulate indefinitely and helps prevent network congestion and routing loops.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following fields in the IP header identifies the type of data (payload) that the IP packet is carrying? 

    • A.

      The Header Checksum

    • B.

      The Type of Service (TOS

    • C.

      The Time to Live (TTL)

    • D.

      The Protocol Number

    Correct Answer
    D. The Protocol Number
    Explanation
    The Protocol Number field in the IP header identifies the type of data (payload) that the IP packet is carrying. This field specifies the protocol used in the data portion of the IP packet, such as TCP, UDP, ICMP, etc. By examining this field, the receiving device can determine how to process and interpret the data contained within the IP packet.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not true about an IP address? 

    • A.

      An IP address is a logical address.

    • B.

      An IP address is globally unique on the internetwork.

    • C.

      An IP address can be considered to consist of a Network Part and a Host Part.

    • D.

      An IP address is usually represented in Hex Format for the user.

    Correct Answer
    D. An IP address is usually represented in Hex Format for the user.
    Explanation
    While IP addresses can be represented in hexadecimal format, they are more commonly represented in decimal format, especially for user readability. Hexadecimal representation is more common in technical contexts or when dealing with network configurations, but for most users and applications, IP addresses are presented in their decimal format, such as "192.168.1.1" for IPv4 addresses. Therefore, this statement is not true.
     

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following IP addresses is a class A number? 

    • A.

      126.1.1.1

    • B.

      128.1.1.1

    • C.

      191.1.1.1

    • D.

      192.1.1.1

    Correct Answer
    A. 126.1.1.1
    Explanation
    The IP address 126.1.1.1 is a class A number because it falls within the range of 1.0.0.0 to 126.255.255.255. Class A IP addresses have the first octet as the network portion and the remaining three octets as the host portion.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following default masks for the major class numbers is incorrect? 

    • A.

      Class A mask 255.0.0.0 or /8

    • B.

      Class B mask 255.255.0.0 or /16

    • C.

      Class C mask 255.255.255.0 or /24

    • D.

      Class D mask 255.255.255.255 or /32

    Correct Answer
    D. Class D mask 255.255.255.255 or /32
    Explanation
    Class D mask 255.255.255.255 or /32 is incorrect because it is not a valid mask for any major class. Class D addresses are used for multicast purposes and do not have a network portion, hence they do not require a subnet mask. The correct mask for Class D addresses is 224.0.0.0.

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  • 9. 

    Given the IP address 199.74.239.1 /24, what is the network number? 

    • A.

      199.0.0.0

    • B.

      199.74.0.0

    • C.

      199.74.239.0

    • D.

      199.74.239.1

    Correct Answer
    C. 199.74.239.0
    Explanation
    In the given IP address 199.74.239.1 with a subnet mask of /24, the /24 indicates that the first 24 bits are used for the network portion.
    The binary representation of the first three octets (199.74.239) is:
    199: 11000111
    74: 01001010
    239: 11101111
    The network portion is the first 24 bits, so the network number is:
    11000111.01001010.11101111 (in binary)
    Converting this binary representation to decimal:
    11000111 (binary) = 199 (decimal)
    01001010 (binary) = 74 (decimal)
    11101111 (binary) = 239 (decimal)
    Therefore, the network number is 199.74.239.0 in CIDR notation /24.

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  • 10. 

    What does the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) do? 

    • A.

      Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses.

    • B.

      Resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses.

    • C.

      Resolves the TYPE field to the MAC address

    • D.

      Resolves the MAC address to the TYPE field

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses.
    Explanation
    ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol used in computer networks to map an IP address to a corresponding MAC address. It allows devices on the same network to communicate with each other using MAC addresses, which are unique identifiers assigned to network interface cards. When a device wants to send data to another device using its IP address, it uses ARP to determine the MAC address associated with that IP address. This mapping is stored in an ARP table, which is used for efficient data transmission within the network. Therefore, the correct answer is "Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses."

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  • 11. 

    Which component is unknown in an ARP request packet? 

    • A.

      The sender’s Hardware Address

    • B.

      The Sender’s IP address

    • C.

      The Target’s Hardware Address

    • D.

      Target’s IP address

    Correct Answer
    C. The Target’s Hardware Address
    Explanation
    In an ARP request packet, the sender's hardware address and IP address are known because they are included in the packet. However, the target's hardware address is unknown in the ARP request packet. The purpose of the ARP request is to determine the target's hardware address by broadcasting the request to all devices on the network and waiting for the device with the matching IP address to respond with its hardware address.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about ICMP? 

    • A.

      ICMP is carried in IP packets

    • B.

      ICMP is used for error notification between routers and hosts

    • C.

      ICMP stands for the Internet Control Message Protocol

    • D.

      If an ICMP packet is dropped, a new ICMP packet will be generated.

    Correct Answer
    D. If an ICMP packet is dropped, a new ICMP packet will be generated.
    Explanation
    When an ICMP packet is dropped, a new ICMP packet will not be generated. ICMP is a protocol that is carried in IP packets and is used for error notification between routers and hosts. It stands for the Internet Control Message Protocol. However, if an ICMP packet is dropped, it will not automatically generate a new ICMP packet.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following can be accomplished by the Ping utility? 

    • A.

      Traces the path that the IP packet is taking

    • B.

      Determines if TCP connections can be established

    • C.

      Verifies IP layer connectivity between two endpoints

    • D.

      Determines if UDP port numbers are opened

    Correct Answer
    C. Verifies IP layer connectivity between two endpoints
    Explanation
    The Ping utility can be used to verify IP layer connectivity between two endpoints. It sends a small packet of data to the destination IP address and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the IP layer connectivity between the two endpoints is functioning properly.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about the traceroute utility? 

    • A.

      It uses the TTL field to determine intermediate routers.

    • B.

      It traces out the path taken by IP packets to a given destination.

    • C.

      It can verify connectivity between endpoints.

    • D.

      It uses TCP packets carried in an IP packet.

    Correct Answer
    D. It uses TCP packets carried in an IP packet.
    Explanation
    The traceroute utility is used to trace the path taken by IP packets to a given destination. It does this by sending out a series of UDP packets with increasing TTL values. The TTL field in the IP header is used to determine the maximum number of hops (routers) that a packet can pass through before being discarded. Each router along the path decrements the TTL value by 1, and if the TTL reaches 0, the router discards the packet and sends an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source. Therefore, the statement "It uses TCP packets carried in an IP packet" is incorrect because traceroute uses UDP packets, not TCP packets.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a feature of the TCP layer? 

    • A.

      Connection-Oriented

    • B.

      Reliable

    • C.

      Full Duplex

    • D.

      Low overhead

    Correct Answer
    D. Low overhead
    Explanation
    The TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) layer is responsible for establishing and maintaining a reliable connection between two devices over a network. It ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without errors. The TCP layer also supports full-duplex communication, allowing data to be transmitted simultaneously in both directions. However, low overhead is not a feature of the TCP layer. Overhead refers to the extra data that is added to each packet for routing and error-checking purposes, and TCP has a relatively high overhead compared to other protocols.

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  • 16. 

    Which fields in the header of the TCP packet identify the upper-layer applications (processes)? 

    • A.

      The protocol number

    • B.

      Source and Destination Port Numbers

    • C.

      The TYPE field

    • D.

      The TTL field

    Correct Answer
    B. Source and Destination Port Numbers
    Explanation
    The source and destination port numbers in the header of the TCP packet are used to identify the upper-layer applications or processes. These port numbers allow the TCP protocol to determine which application or process on the source and destination devices should receive the data. The source port number represents the application or process on the sending device, while the destination port number represents the application or process on the receiving device. By using these port numbers, TCP ensures that the data is correctly delivered to the intended application or process on both ends of the communication.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following are not reliability mechanisms used by TCP? 

    • A.

      Sequence Numbers

    • B.

      Acknowledgments

    • C.

      The source and destination port numbers

    • D.

      The Sliding Window Protocol for flow control

    Correct Answer
    C. The source and destination port numbers
    Explanation
    The source and destination port numbers are not reliability mechanisms used by TCP. These port numbers are used to identify specific processes or services on a device, but they do not directly contribute to the reliability of the TCP connection. Reliability mechanisms in TCP include sequence numbers, which ensure that packets are received in the correct order, and acknowledgments, which confirm the successful receipt of packets. The Sliding Window Protocol is also used for flow control, ensuring that the sender does not overwhelm the receiver with too many packets at once.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following are incorrect about the UDP layer? 

    • A.

      Connectionless

    • B.

      Unreliable

    • C.

      Low overhead

    • D.

      No-Port Numbers

    Correct Answer
    D. No-Port Numbers
    Explanation
    The incorrect statement about the UDP layer is "No-Port Numbers". UDP does use port numbers to identify the source and destination ports for communication. Port numbers are essential for multiplexing and demultiplexing data packets at the transport layer. They help in distinguishing between different applications or services running on the same device.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about Variable-Length Subnetting (VLSM)? 

    • A.

      VLSM permits the use of variable length masks for a given major network number throughout the internetwork.

    • B.

      VLSM permits more efficient use of the address space compared with standard subnetting

    • C.

      An IP addressing plan based on VLSM would require classless routing protocols like RIPv2, EIGRP, or OSPF.

    • D.

      The RFC on VLSM was published before the one on Standard Subnetting.

    Correct Answer
    D. The RFC on VLSM was published before the one on Standard Subnetting.
    Explanation
    The given answer states that the RFC on VLSM was published before the one on Standard Subnetting. However, this statement is incorrect. The RFC on Standard Subnetting was published before the one on VLSM. Standard Subnetting was introduced in RFC 950 in 1985, while VLSM was introduced in RFC 1812 in 1995.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about Route Aggregation? 

    • A.

      Route aggregation is a technique used to decrease the number of routes in the routing table.

    • B.

      Contiguous blocks of specific routes may be summarized.

    • C.

      Route aggregation will slow down the process of routing table lookups on the router.

    • D.

      Route aggregation is accomplished by configuring the routing protocol to advertise the summary route.

    Correct Answer
    C. Route aggregation will slow down the process of routing table lookups on the router.
    Explanation
    Route aggregation is a technique used to decrease the number of routes in the routing table by summarizing contiguous blocks of specific routes. It does not slow down the process of routing table lookups on the router. Instead, it improves the efficiency of routing by reducing the size of the routing table and the time required for route lookup. Route aggregation is accomplished by configuring the routing protocol to advertise the summary route.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following techniques will allow hosts on a private Intranet with private addresses to communicate with the Internet? 

    • A.

      A. CIDR blocks

    • B.

      B. Route Summarization

    • C.

      C. BGP

    • D.

      D. NAT (Network Address Translation)

    Correct Answer
    D. D. NAT (Network Address Translation)
    Explanation
    NAT (Network Address Translation) allows hosts on a private Intranet with private addresses to communicate with the Internet. NAT translates the private IP addresses of the internal network into a single public IP address when communicating with the Internet. This allows multiple devices on the private network to share a single public IP address, extending the limited number of available public IP addresses and enabling communication with the Internet.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following methods is not how a router can learn routes into its routing table? 

    • A.

      Directly attached networks

    • B.

      Through TCP/IP applications

    • C.

      Dynamically through a routing protocol

    • D.

      Manually added through static routes

    Correct Answer
    B. Through TCP/IP applications
    Explanation
    Routers learn routes into their routing tables through various methods, including directly attached networks, dynamic routing protocols, and manually added static routes. However, routers do not learn routes through TCP/IP applications. TCP/IP applications are used for communication between devices on a network, but they do not provide routing information to routers. Therefore, the correct answer is "Through TCP/IP applications."

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following are incorrect about a dynamic routing protocol? 

    • A.

      Learn routes to destinations automatically

    • B.

      Reflects changes in the network topology automatically

    • C.

      Rely on communicating between routers and their neighbors

    • D.

      Examples of dynamic routing protocols are TCP, UDP, DHCP, ARP etc.

    Correct Answer
    D. Examples of dynamic routing protocols are TCP, UDP, DHCP, ARP etc.
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing protocols are used by routers to automatically learn routes to destinations and reflect changes in the network topology. They rely on communication between routers and their neighbors to exchange routing information. Examples of dynamic routing protocols include OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, and BGP. TCP, UDP, DHCP, and ARP are not routing protocols but rather protocols used for other purposes in networking.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about a routing protocol metric?

    • A.

      Every routing protocol is associated with a metric

    • B.

      Metrics can be used to evaluate alternative routes learned by two different routing protocols

    • C.

      Metrics can be used to evaluate best routes between alternative routes learned by the same routing protocol

    • D.

      Newer routing protocols like EIGRP and OSPF reflect network bandwidth in the metric

    Correct Answer
    B. Metrics can be used to evaluate alternative routes learned by two different routing protocols
    Explanation
    Routing protocol metrics are used to determine the best path to a destination within a routing domain. However, metrics are specific to each routing protocol and are not directly comparable between different routing protocols. Therefore, metrics cannot be used to evaluate alternative routes learned by two different routing protocols (Option B). Options A, C, and D are correct statements about routing protocol metrics.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following data structures are not maintained by OSPF? 

    • A.

      The Topology Table

    • B.

      The Link State Database

    • C.

      The Neighbor Table

    • D.

      The Routing Table

    Correct Answer
    D. The Routing Table
    Explanation
    OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol that maintains several data structures to facilitate routing within an autonomous system. These include the Topology Table, which represents the network topology; the Link State Database (LSDB), which stores information about all links in the network; and the Neighbor Table, which maintains information about neighboring routers. However, OSPF itself does not maintain the Routing Table directly. The Routing Table is maintained by the OSPF routing process in conjunction with the underlying routing algorithm to determine the best paths to destination networks based on the information in the Link State Database. Therefore, Option D is the correct choice. Options A, B, and C are data structures maintained by OSPF.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about the hello protocol used by OSPF?

    • A.

      It is not used in the formation of neighbor adjacency

    • B.

      The typical Hello interval for OSPF is 10 seconds

    • C.

      It is used to detect new neighbors

    • D.

      It is used to maintain existing neighbors

    Correct Answer
    A. It is not used in the formation of neighbor adjacency
    Explanation
    The hello protocol used by OSPF is indeed used in the formation of neighbor adjacency. The hello protocol is responsible for exchanging hello packets between OSPF routers to establish and maintain neighbor relationships. These hello packets contain information about the router's OSPF interfaces, priority, and other parameters necessary for neighbor discovery and formation of adjacencies. The hello protocol plays a crucial role in the OSPF routing process by facilitating the identification and communication between neighboring routers. Therefore, the statement that the hello protocol is not used in the formation of neighbor adjacency is incorrect.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about OSPF ?

    • A.

      An OSPF autonomous system may be divided into multiple areas

    • B.

      An OSPF autonomous system is given an AS number

    • C.

      Area 0 is the backbone area

    • D.

      OSPF areas are given an Area ID

    Correct Answer
    B. An OSPF autonomous system is given an AS number
    Explanation
    OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol that operates within an autonomous system (AS). An AS is a collection of networks under a common administration and is identified by an AS number. Therefore, the statement "An OSPF autonomous system is given an AS number" is correct.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is correct about the Designated Router (DR) in OSPF?

    • A.

      There will be one DR per area

    • B.

      There will be one DR per autonomous system

    • C.

      There will be one DR for every network

    • D.

      There will be one DR for every broadcast and NBMA network

    Correct Answer
    D. There will be one DR for every broadcast and NBMA network
    Explanation
    In OSPF, the Designated Router (DR) is responsible for maintaining the link-state database and exchanging routing information with other routers in a broadcast or NBMA network. The DR is elected within each broadcast and NBMA network, not per area or per autonomous system. This ensures efficient communication within the network by reducing the number of adjacencies that need to be established. Therefore, the correct answer is "There will be one DR for every broadcast and NBMA network."

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is incorrect about OSPF with multiple areas? 

    • A.

      Non-zero areas must be attached to area 0

    • B.

      Area Border Routers (ABRs) attach an non-zero area to the backbone area

    • C.

      Router LSAs and Network LSAs are intra-area LSAs

    • D.

      Summary LSAs will not propagate across the entire OSPF autonomous system.

    Correct Answer
    D. Summary LSAs will not propagate across the entire OSPF autonomous system.
    Explanation
    Summary LSAs are used in OSPF to advertise routes from one area to another. When an ABR receives a Summary LSA, it creates a new Summary LSA and floods it into other areas. This allows the routes to be propagated across the entire OSPF autonomous system. Therefore, the statement that "Summary LSAs will not propagate across the entire OSPF autonomous system" is incorrect.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following are incorrect about stub areas and their variants in OSPF? 

    • A.

      A stub area does not accept external routes

    • B.

      A totally stubby area does not access external and Inter-area routes

    • C.

      Stub areas are not recommended when an area has a single exit point to the backbone area

    • D.

      A Not so Stubby area works like a stub area but allows an ASBR to be located in it

    Correct Answer
    C. Stub areas are not recommended when an area has a single exit point to the backbone area
    Explanation
    Stub areas are actually recommended when an area has a single exit point to the backbone area. This is because stub areas reduce the amount of routing information that needs to be maintained within the area, making the network more efficient. By blocking external routes, a stub area can rely on the default route provided by the backbone area, simplifying the routing process. Therefore, the statement that stub areas are not recommended when an area has a single exit point to the backbone area is incorrect.

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  • 31. 

    How many IP addresses are available for devices on a network with a subnet mask of /25?

    • A.

      62

    • B.

      128

    • C.

      254

    • D.

      126

    Correct Answer
    D. 126
    Explanation
    A subnet mask of /25 means that the network has 25 bits for the network address and 7 bits for the host address. With 7 bits for the host address, there are 2^7 or 128 possible combinations. However, the first and last combinations are reserved for network address and broadcast address respectively, leaving 126 available IP addresses for devices on the network.

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  • 32. 

    When traffic is fragmented passing through a router due to a smaller MTU size allowed, does the next hop router assemble that traffic if it's MTU size supports the original MTU size?

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    • C.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. No
    Explanation
    When traffic is fragmented passing through a router due to a smaller MTU size allowed, the next hop router does not assemble that traffic even if its MTU size supports the original MTU size. The fragmentation and reassembly of packets is the responsibility of the sending and receiving hosts, not the routers in between. Therefore, the next-hop router does not have the capability to reassemble the fragmented traffic.

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  • 33. 

    195.194.193.0/27 provides how many subnets (including the all 0 and 1s subnet)?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 8
    Explanation
    The given IP address range 195.194.193.0/27 provides 8 subnets, including the all 0 and 1s subnet. This is because the /27 subnet mask allows for 32 IP addresses, but 2 of those addresses are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address. Therefore, there are 30 usable IP addresses, which can be divided into 8 subnets.

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  • 34. 

    What is a gratuitous ARP?

    • A.

      When a router running VRRP resolves its neighbor's IP address

    • B.

      A switch resolving it's own IP address

    • C.

      PC sending out a broadcast for a new gateway IP address

    • D.

      When a host sends an ARP request to resolve its own IP address

    Correct Answer
    D. When a host sends an ARP request to resolve its own IP address
    Explanation
    A gratuitous ARP is when a host sends an ARP request to resolve its own IP address. This is typically done to update or validate the ARP cache of other devices on the network. By sending an ARP request with its own IP address, the host is essentially announcing its presence and ensuring that other devices have the correct mapping of its IP address to its MAC address in their ARP caches. This can help prevent connectivity issues and improve network performance.

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  • 35. 

    In a TCP 3-way handshake, what does a SYN, ACK message indicate?

    • A.

      First message of a 3-way handshake.

    • B.

      Second message of a 3-way handshake.

    • C.

      Third and final message of a 3-way handshake.

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Second message of a 3-way handshake.
    Explanation
    A SYN, ACK message in a TCP 3-way handshake indicates the second message of the handshake. In this step, the server acknowledges the client's SYN message and sends its own SYN message along with an ACK message. This indicates that the server is willing to establish a connection with the client. The client will then respond with an ACK message, completing the 3-way handshake and establishing a reliable connection between the client and the server.

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  • 36. 

    What are class D addresses used for?

    • A.

      Multicast

    • B.

      Broadcast

    • C.

      Unicast

    • D.

      Multipurpose

    Correct Answer
    A. Multicast
    Explanation
    Class D addresses are used for multicast communication. Multicast allows a single sender to send data to a specific group of receivers simultaneously. This type of communication is efficient for applications such as streaming media, online gaming, and video conferencing, where data needs to be distributed to multiple recipients at the same time. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are reserved specifically for multicast communication.

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  • 37. 

    What would the broadcast address for 22.22.22.64/27 be?

    • A.

      22.22.22.255

    • B.

      22.22.22.95

    • C.

      22.22.22.127

    • D.

      22.22.22.31

    Correct Answer
    B. 22.22.22.95
    Explanation
    The given IP address is 22.22.22.64/27. The /27 indicates that the first 27 bits of the IP address are the network address and the remaining 5 bits are for host addresses. In binary, the first 27 bits would be 00010110.00010110.00010110.01. To find the broadcast address, we need to change all the host bits to 1. So, the broadcast address would be 22.22.22.95, as it has the same network address (first 27 bits) but with all host bits set to 1.

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  • 38. 

    How does a device determine if an IP address is on its local network or a remote network?

    • A.

      It works out it's own class address

    • B.

      It refers to it's subnet mask with IP address

    • C.

      Sends out a local ARP before working out the IP address class

    • D.

      Forwards the packet to the default gateway

    Correct Answer
    B. It refers to it's subnet mask with IP address
    Explanation
    A device determines if an IP address is on its local network or a remote network by referring to its subnet mask with the IP address. The subnet mask helps the device identify the network portion and the host portion of the IP address. By comparing the IP address with the subnet mask, the device can determine if the destination IP address is within its local network or if it needs to forward the packet to the default gateway for routing to a remote network.

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  • 39. 

    What is the range of unreserved IP ports?

    • A.

      1-255

    • B.

      1024-65535

    • C.

      4096-65535

    • D.

      1024-65533

    Correct Answer
    B. 1024-65535
    Explanation
    The range of unreserved IP ports is from 1024 to 65535. IP ports are used to identify specific processes or services running on a device connected to a network. The range from 1024 to 65535 is reserved for dynamic or private ports, which are available for use by any application or service. Ports below 1024 are considered well-known ports and are typically reserved for specific services like HTTP (port 80) or FTP (port 21). Ports above 65535 are not valid for use.

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  • 40. 

    What does ARP perform?

    • A.

      Address Resolution

    • B.

      Resolving a Layer 2 MAC address to a Layer 3 IP address

    • C.

      Used between routers to exchange MAC address tables

    • D.

      Resolving a Layer 3 IP address to a Layer 2 MAC address

    Correct Answer
    D. Resolving a Layer 3 IP address to a Layer 2 MAC address
    Explanation
    ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) performs the task of resolving a Layer 3 IP address to a Layer 2 MAC address. This is necessary because data is transmitted in packets over a network, and each packet needs to have both a source and destination MAC address. ARP allows devices on the same network to communicate by mapping the IP address to the corresponding MAC address, ensuring that packets are correctly delivered to the intended recipient.

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  • 41. 

    What is port 80 used for?

    • A.

      Management of file servers

    • B.

      Typically the default destination port to access a web server

    • C.

      The source port of your PCs browser when connecting to an internet web server

    • D.

      Typically used for proxy servers

    Correct Answer
    B. Typically the default destination port to access a web server
    Explanation
    Port 80 is typically used as the default destination port to access a web server. When a user wants to access a website, their browser sends a request to the web server on port 80. The web server then responds to the request and delivers the requested web page back to the user's browser. This port is specifically designated for web traffic and is commonly used for HTTP communication between clients and servers.

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  • 42. 

    What is layer 5 of the OSI model?

    • A.

      Connection

    • B.

      Session

    • C.

      Transport

    • D.

      Presentation

    Correct Answer
    B. Session
    Explanation
    Layer 5 of the OSI model is called the Session layer. This layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications. It provides services such as session establishment, synchronization, and checkpointing. The Session layer ensures that data is exchanged between applications in an orderly and controlled manner. It also handles session recovery in case of any interruptions or failures.

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  • 43. 

    DHCP provides what benefit to an IP network?

    • A.

      Resolution of hostnames to IP addresses

    • B.

      Dynamic Host Communication Protocol

    • C.

      Assignment of IP address, subnet mask, gateway and other values to a host device

    • D.

      Sharing of DNS lookup tables between devices

    Correct Answer
    C. Assignment of IP address, subnet mask, gateway and other values to a host device
    Explanation
    DHCP provides the benefit of assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, gateway, and other values to a host device in an IP network. This allows for automatic configuration of network settings, eliminating the need for manual configuration on each device. DHCP simplifies network administration and ensures that devices are properly connected and able to communicate within the network.

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  • 44. 

    DNS simplifies user access to the network by providing?

    • A.

      Assignment of IP address, subnet mask, gateway and other values to a host device

    • B.

      Resolution of hostnames to IP addresses so you don't have to remember an IP address

    • C.

      Easy web site access

    • D.

      Automatically downloading hostnames and IP address static tables for internal network devices.

    Correct Answer
    B. Resolution of hostnames to IP addresses so you don't have to remember an IP address
    Explanation
    DNS (Domain Name System) simplifies user access to the network by resolving hostnames to IP addresses. Instead of remembering and typing in a series of numbers (IP address), users can simply type in a domain name (hostname) into their web browser. The DNS system then translates the hostname into the corresponding IP address, allowing the user to access the desired website or network resource. This eliminates the need for users to remember and manually enter IP addresses, making it easier and more convenient to access websites and network services.

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  • 45. 

    What is the use of the Time To Live (TTL) field in the IP header?

    • A.

      To keep track of the number of virtual routers, traffic may be used to forward traffic

    • B.

      How long a routing entry remains in the routing table before being renewed

    • C.

      The TTL field is used to limit the lifetime of a IP datagram and to prevent indefinite looping of IP datagrams

    • D.

      To count how many Layer 3 devices have passed an IP packet

    Correct Answer
    C. The TTL field is used to limit the lifetime of a IP datagram and to prevent indefinite looping of IP datagrams
    Explanation
    The TTL field in the IP header is used to limit the lifetime of an IP datagram and prevent indefinite looping of IP datagrams. Each time the datagram passes through a router, the TTL value is decremented by one. If the TTL value reaches zero, the datagram is discarded. This mechanism ensures that IP packets do not circulate indefinitely in the network and helps prevent congestion and unnecessary resource consumption.

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  • 46. 

    What is binary 100011101101 equivalent to in Decimal?

    • A.

      2285

    • B.

      237

    • C.

      8.237

    • D.

      29.29

    Correct Answer
    A. 2285
    Explanation
    Binary 100011101101 is equivalent to the decimal number 2285.

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Godwin Iheuwa |MS, Computer Science |
Computer Expert
Godwin is a proficient Database Administrator currently employed at MTN Nigeria. He holds as MS in Computer Science from the University of Bedfordshire, where he specialized in Agile Methodologies and Database Administration. He also earned a Bachelor's degree in Computer Science from the University of Port Harcourt. With expertise in SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) and SQL Server Management Studio, Godwin's knowledge and experience enhance the authority of our quizzes, ensuring accuracy and relevance in the realm of computer science.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 26, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team

    Expert Reviewed by
    Godwin Iheuwa
  • Feb 28, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Apalani
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