4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test

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4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How is doctrine applied?

    • A.

      Authoritative but not directive

    • B.

      Not authoritative

    • C.

      Directive but not authoritative

    • D.

      Directive and outhoritative

    Correct Answer
    A. Authoritative but not directive
    Explanation
    Doctrine is applied in a manner that is authoritative but not directive. This means that while it carries weight and is considered to be a reliable and official source of guidance, it does not dictate specific actions or provide step-by-step instructions. Instead, it serves as a framework or set of principles that individuals or organizations can use to inform their decision-making and actions, allowing for flexibility and interpretation based on specific circumstances and contexts.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is the primary guite used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish the mission?

    • A.

      AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine

    • B.

      AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development

    • C.

      AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services

    • D.

      AFDD 2-8, Command and Control

    Correct Answer
    C. AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services
    Explanation
    AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission. This guide specifically focuses on health services, which is a critical aspect of the Air Force Medical Service. It provides commanders with the necessary information and strategies to effectively manage and provide healthcare services to Air Force personnel. By following the guidelines outlined in AFDD 2-4.2, commanders can ensure the delivery of high-quality healthcare and support the overall mission of the Air Force.

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  • 3. 

    Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

    • A.

      Recommends step by step actions

    • B.

      Directs the actions of commanders

    • C.

      Guides commanders in using assets

    • D.

      Changes faster than Air Force guidance

    Correct Answer
    C. Guides commanders in using assets
    Explanation
    Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. Commanders need guidance on how to effectively utilize medical resources and assets to provide the best possible healthcare to their personnel. Medical Doctrine provides a set of principles, guidelines, and procedures that commanders can follow to make informed decisions about how to allocate and employ medical assets. It ensures that commanders have a framework to optimize the use of medical resources and ensure the best possible medical support for their units.

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  • 4. 

    What type of doctine guides organization and emplayment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

    • A.

      Basic

    • B.

      Tactical

    • C.

      Operational

    • D.

      Foundational

    Correct Answer
    C. Operational
    Explanation
    Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but it is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. This means that operational doctrine provides guidance on how to plan and execute military operations at the operational level, which involves coordinating and integrating multiple tactical actions to achieve strategic goals. It encompasses a wide range of functional areas such as command and control, intelligence, logistics, and maneuver. Operational doctrine is crucial for military commanders to effectively employ their forces and achieve success in complex operational environments.

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  • 5. 

    Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

    • A.

      The Environmental Pretection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.

    • B.

      An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities.

    • C.

      An automotive designeer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.

    • D.

      A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.

    Correct Answer
    D. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.
    Explanation
    Tactical Doctrine refers to the principles and strategies used to achieve specific objectives or goals. In this context, the best example to explain Tactical Doctrine is a car buyer. A car buyer can choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences, such as speed or safety factors. This decision-making process reflects the application of tactical doctrine, as the buyer is strategically selecting a product that best meets their objectives and requirements.

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  • 6. 

    With which of the following is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statemtnes airmen should be familiar?

    • A.

      Competency

    • B.

      Use of Force

    • C.

      Force Health Protection

    • D.

      Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service

    Correct Answer
    B. Use of Force
    Explanation
    The question is asking which statement is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statements that airmen should be familiar with. The answer is "Use of Force." This means that airmen should be familiar with the concepts of Competency, Force Health Protection, and Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service, but not necessarily with the concept of Use of Force.

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  • 7. 

    While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

    • A.

      Physicians

    • B.

      Supervisors

    • C.

      Every Airman

    • D.

      Health and Wellness staff

    Correct Answer
    C. Every Airman
    Explanation
    Every Airman is responsible for maintaining their own health and fitness. While commanders have overall responsibility for the well-being of their personnel, it is ultimately up to each individual to take care of their own physical health and fitness. This includes staying physically active, eating a balanced diet, and seeking medical attention when needed. By taking personal responsibility for their health and fitness, Airmen can contribute to their overall readiness and effectiveness in their roles.

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  • 8. 

    When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine is accomplished?

    • A.

      Competency

    • B.

      Prevention

    • C.

      Force Health Protection

    • D.

      Roles and Responsibilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Competency
    Explanation
    When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine that is accomplished is competency. Competency refers to the ability to effectively apply one's knowledge, skills, and abilities in a specific field or profession. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service, competency ensures that medical professionals are well-trained and capable of providing high-quality healthcare and support to service members. By combining their expertise and technological know-how, these professionals can demonstrate their competency in delivering effective medical services.

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  • 9. 

    What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?

    • A.

      First

    • B.

      Second

    • C.

      Third

    • D.

      Fifth

    Correct Answer
    A. First
    Explanation
    The figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes that identifies career grouping is "First". This suggests that the first figure in the code represents the career grouping, indicating the broad category or field of specialization within the Air Force.

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  • 10. 

    How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan is made up of two parts.

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  • 11. 

    In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Specialty Training Standard?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Standard can be located in the second part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan.

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  • 12. 

    Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?

    • A.

      Individual Training Record

    • B.

      Master Training Plan

    • C.

      AF Form 1098

    • D.

      AF Form 797

    Correct Answer
    B. Master Training Plan
    Explanation
    The Master Training Plan would contain the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area. This plan serves as a comprehensive guide that outlines the necessary training and development activities for individuals within a specific area. It helps ensure that enlisted members receive the appropriate training to meet their goals and perform their tasks effectively. The Individual Training Record, AF Form 1098, and AF Form 797 may contain specific training information, but they do not provide the comprehensive outline of training goals and milestones that the Master Training Plan does.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience identifier?

    • A.

      Aerospace Medical Technician

    • B.

      Aeromedical Evacuation Technician

    • C.

      Squadron Medical Element Technician

    • D.

      Independent Duty Medical Technician

    Correct Answer
    B. Aeromedical Evacuation Technician
    Explanation
    An Aeromedical Evacuation Technician is identified by a Special Experience identifier.

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  • 14. 

    Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?

    • A.

      Nurse

    • B.

      Administration technician

    • C.

      Aerospace medical service craftsman

    • D.

      Aerospace medical service journeymen

    Correct Answer
    D. Aerospace medical service journeymen
  • 15. 

    When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the...

    • A.

      Novice to the apprentice

    • B.

      Apprentice to the journeyman

    • C.

      Journeyman to craftsman

    • D.

      Craftsman to technician

    Correct Answer
    B. Apprentice to the journeyman
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "apprentice to the journeyman." This is because the trainee is described as being focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills, and beginning to practice leadership and management skills. This indicates that the trainee has already acquired basic knowledge and skills (novice level) and is now progressing to a higher level of expertise and competence (journeyman level).

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  • 16. 

    Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?

    • A.

      Prevent lawsuits

    • B.

      Develop job satisfaction

    • C.

      Ensure promotion below-the-zone

    • D.

      Positively influence the patient's visit

    Correct Answer
    D. Positively influence the patient's visit
    Explanation
    It is important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service in order to positively influence the patient's visit. Providing exceptional customer service can enhance the overall experience for the patient, making them feel valued and cared for. This can lead to increased patient satisfaction, better patient outcomes, and improved patient-provider relationships. Additionally, positive patient experiences can contribute to a positive reputation for the healthcare facility and potentially attract more patients.

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  • 17. 

    Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?

    • A.

      Chief Nurse

    • B.

      Command Chief

    • C.

      Career Field Manager

    • D.

      Medical Group Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief Nurse
    Explanation
    A Chief Nurse may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory. As the head of the nursing department, the Chief Nurse is responsible for managing and overseeing the nursing staff. Requesting a job inventory allows the Chief Nurse to assess the current job positions within the nursing field and determine if any changes or adjustments are needed. This helps in ensuring that the right number of personnel with the necessary skills and qualifications are available to provide quality healthcare services.

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  • 18. 

    How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?

    • A.

      Six months

    • B.

      Three years

    • C.

      Year

    • D.

      Five Years

    Correct Answer
    B. Three years
    Explanation
    The 4N0XX Job Inventory is normally completed every three years. This suggests that there is a specific timeframe within which this inventory needs to be conducted. Completing the inventory every three years allows for regular assessment and evaluation of the job positions within the 4N0XX career field. This timeframe ensures that any changes or updates in job requirements, responsibilities, or qualifications can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 19. 

    Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?

    • A.

      Commander

    • B.

      Supervisor

    • C.

      3-level

    • D.

      5-level

    Correct Answer
    B. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey. They are in a position of authority and oversight, making them accountable for ensuring that the survey is completed accurately and on time. The commander may have a higher rank, but it is the supervisor's role to handle day-to-day tasks and assessments. The 3-level and 5-level are not mentioned in the question and therefore not relevant to the responsibility of completing the survey.

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  • 20. 

    What is the purpose of documenting training?

    • A.

      Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.

    • B.

      Document the number of personnel and the hours they work

    • C.

      Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board

    • D.

      Establish patient care guielines for civilian practice

    Correct Answer
    A. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.
    Explanation
    The purpose of documenting training is to document capability, scope of practice, and strength and weakness. This documentation helps to keep a record of the skills and knowledge that individuals possess, their areas of expertise, and areas where improvement may be needed. It allows for a comprehensive understanding of the training received and helps in identifying any gaps or areas for further development. This documentation is essential for ensuring that individuals are appropriately qualified and competent in their roles and can contribute effectively to the organization.

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  • 21. 

    On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard?

    • A.

      AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations

    • B.

      AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training

    • C.

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS

    • D.

      AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action, Military Personnel Daya System (MILPDS)

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS
    Explanation
    AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS, is the appropriate form to document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard. This form is used to document additional qualifications or tasks that are required for a specific duty position but are not covered in the standard training. It allows for the documentation of specialized training or certifications that are specific to the individual's job requirements.

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  • 22. 

    When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?

    • A.

      When the Airman arrives at the first duty station

    • B.

      When the rank of Master Sergeant has been attained

    • C.

      When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level

    • D.

      When the Airman is upgraded from the 5-skill level to the 7-skill level

    Correct Answer
    C. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level
    Explanation
    The AETC Form 156, Student Training Report, is removed from the Individual Training Record when the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This indicates that the Airman has completed the necessary training and has advanced in their skill level.

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  • 23. 

    Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card be filed in the Individual Training Record?

    • A.

      Part 2, Section A

    • B.

      Part 3, Section C

    • C.

      Part 5, Section A

    • D.

      Part 6, Section B

    Correct Answer
    D. Part 6, Section B
    Explanation
    The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card would be filed in Part 6, Section B of the Individual Training Record.

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  • 24. 

    What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?

    • A.

      Ensure there are refreshments available

    • B.

      Ask how many people will be attending

    • C.

      Evaluate learning through performance or tests

    • D.

      Confirm whether the commander will be attending

    Correct Answer
    D. Confirm whether the commander will be attending
    Explanation
    When conducting in-service training, it is important to confirm whether the commander will be attending. This is because the presence of the commander can have a significant impact on the training session. The commander's attendance can demonstrate their support and commitment to the training, which can motivate and encourage other participants. Additionally, the commander's presence can also provide an opportunity for them to observe and assess the training, ensuring that it aligns with the goals and objectives of the organization.

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  • 25. 

    What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

    • A.

      UMD

    • B.

      UMPR

    • C.

      CFETP

    • D.

      MEPRS

    Correct Answer
    D. MEPRS
    Explanation
    MEPRS stands for Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. It is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. MEPRS provides detailed information on the cost and utilization of medical resources, allowing organizations to effectively allocate their resources and make informed decisions regarding manpower and budget.

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  • 26. 

    How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?

    • A.

      Hours and section

    • B.

      Type and section

    • C.

      Hours and AFSC

    • D.

      Type and AFSC

    Correct Answer
    B. Type and section
    Explanation
    Activities are grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System based on the type of activity and the section it belongs to. This grouping allows for better organization and analysis of data, as it helps to categorize and track different types of activities within specific sections. By grouping activities based on type and section, it becomes easier to identify patterns, trends, and performance metrics related to specific areas of medical expenses.

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  • 27. 

    What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?

    • A.

      UMD

    • B.

      ACR

    • C.

      UMPR

    • D.

      MEPRS

    Correct Answer
    C. UMPR
    Explanation
    UMPR stands for Unit Manning Personnel Report. This tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center. It provides a comprehensive overview of the personnel assigned to a specific unit or work center, including their names, positions, and contact information. By using UMPR, supervisors and managers can easily track and manage the personnel assigned to their work center, ensuring that the right individuals are in the right positions and that the work center is properly staffed.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?

    • A.

      Manpower Standard

    • B.

      Manning Assistance

    • C.

      Manpower Requirement

    • D.

      Manpower Authorization

    Correct Answer
    D. Manpower Authorization
    Explanation
    Manpower Authorization is the correct answer because it refers to a funded manpower requirement that clearly defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristic needed. It specifies the number of personnel required for a particular position and ensures that the necessary resources are allocated to meet the organization's needs.

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  • 29. 

    Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?

    • A.

      USAFMS

    • B.

      MAJCOM

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Medical group commander

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM
    Explanation
    MAJCOM, which stands for Major Command, is responsible for approving or disapproving an Authorization Change Request. Major Commands are the highest level of command in the United States Air Force and have authority over multiple wings and units. They have the necessary oversight and decision-making power to review and make determinations on authorization change requests.

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  • 30. 

    Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

    • A.

      Each individual

    • B.

      Unit supervisor

    • C.

      Group comander

    • D.

      Account custodian

    Correct Answer
    A. Each individual
    Explanation
    Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility extends to all levels of the organization, from the highest-ranking officers to the lowest-ranking personnel. By holding each individual accountable for the proper handling of public property, the Air Force can ensure that its resources are effectively utilized and protected.

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  • 31. 

    Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained, and discipline of supply use?

    • A.

      Supervisors

    • B.

      Commanders

    • C.

      Property custodians

    • D.

      Medical Equipment Management Office personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. Commanders
    Explanation
    The designated individual responsible for ensuring adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, maintaining records, and disciplining supply use is the commanders. Commanders have the authority and responsibility to oversee and manage all aspects of their unit's operations, including the storage and management of medical supplies and equipment. They are accountable for ensuring that proper storage protocols are followed, records are maintained accurately, and discipline is enforced to ensure efficient and effective use of supplies.

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  • 32. 

    By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likeyly to prevent?

    • A.

      Equipment damage and injury to a patient

    • B.

      Injury to a patient and buying new technology

    • C.

      Reporting damamge and buying new technology

    • D.

      Reporting damamge to the commander and logisitcs

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment damage and injury to a patient
    Explanation
    By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel are aware of safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.

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  • 33. 

    What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?

    • A.

      20 percent

    • B.

      50 percent

    • C.

      70 percent

    • D.

      90 percent

    Correct Answer
    C. 70 percent
    Explanation
    70 percent of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This suggests that a significant majority of malfunctions occur due to mistakes or errors made by the operators of the equipment. It highlights the importance of proper training and education for operators to minimize the occurrence of such errors and ensure the safe and efficient operation of medical equipment.

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  • 34. 

    What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

    • A.

      Backorder report

    • B.

      Activity issue/turn-in summary

    • C.

      Custodial action/custodian report listing

    • D.

      Medical equipment review and authroization activity

    Correct Answer
    B. Activity issue/turn-in summary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Activity issue/turn-in summary". This report is generated through DMLSS and it lists information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a specific section. It provides a summary of the activity related to the issuance and return of supplies and equipment, allowing for better tracking and management of inventory.

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  • 35. 

    What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

    • A.

      None. Once an item is ordered, you must receive it when it arrives.

    • B.

      Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO

    • C.

      Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.

    • D.

      None. It is always better to have extra supplies on hand

    Correct Answer
    B. Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO
    Explanation
    If a backorder item is no longer needed, the property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO. This means that they should inform the appropriate department or individual responsible for managing orders and request that the order be canceled. This is the most appropriate action to take in order to prevent the unnecessary receipt and payment for an item that is no longer needed.

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  • 36. 

    What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

    • A.

      Cancel the order

    • B.

      Complain to the commander

    • C.

      Wait another 15 days then follow up

    • D.

      Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order

    Correct Answer
    D. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order
    Explanation
    If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, it would be appropriate to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This is because they are responsible for managing and tracking orders, so they would have the necessary information to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order may not be necessary if there is a chance that the item will be restocked soon. Complaining to the commander may be an option if the issue persists, but it is best to start by seeking assistance from the MEMO personnel.

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  • 37. 

    When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?

    • A.

      Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list

    • B.

      When they have completed Phase II supply training

    • C.

      Upon being assinged as property custodian

    • D.

      The first day of the new fiscal year

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list
    Explanation
    A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that they have acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed. It is a formal process that ensures accountability and proper management of the property.

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  • 38. 

    Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must...

    • A.

      Receive a briefing on responsibilities

    • B.

      Conduct a physical inverntory of equipment

    • C.

      Document his/her experience for the commander to review

    • D.

      Review the files to establish when equipment was procured

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct a physical inverntory of equipment
    Explanation
    Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is important because it allows the custodian to verify the presence and condition of all equipment, ensuring that nothing is missing or damaged. Conducting a physical inventory also helps in establishing a baseline for future inspections and audits. By physically counting and inspecting the equipment, the custodian can identify any discrepancies or issues, and take appropriate actions to rectify them. This step is crucial in maintaining accurate records and ensuring the accountability of equipment under the custodian's responsibility.

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  • 39. 

    When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?

    • A.

      When the new fiscal year begins

    • B.

      When MEMO personnel give permission

    • C.

      When a new property custodian takes over

    • D.

      When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL

    Correct Answer
    D. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL
    Explanation
    The AF Form 601 may be destroyed when the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. This suggests that the form is used to keep track of items that are being ordered or removed from the Controlled Repairable List (CRL). Once the item is successfully added to or removed from the CRL, there may no longer be a need to retain the form, hence it can be destroyed.

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  • 40. 

    How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and to identify any potential issues or defects. Daily inspections allow for timely detection and resolution of problems, reducing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular daily inspections also help to ensure compliance with safety regulations and maintain the overall efficiency and reliability of the equipment.

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  • 41. 

    What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

    • A.

      Inspect, store, and remove

    • B.

      Inspect, remove, and report

    • C.

      Report, remove, and repair

    • D.

      Remove, store, and repair

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspect, remove, and report
    Explanation
    When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the three actions to remember are to inspect the equipment thoroughly, remove it from service if any issues are found, and then report the discrepancies to the appropriate authorities. This ensures that any faulty or damaged equipment is identified, taken out of use to prevent further problems or accidents, and reported so that necessary repairs or replacements can be made.

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  • 42. 

    What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?

    • A.

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt only

    • B.

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing

    • C.

      Activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report

    • D.

      Activity issue/turn-in summary only

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing
    Explanation
    The primary source for recording equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing. This form is used to document temporary issues of equipment and any actions taken by the custodian or custodial report listing. It provides a record of the equipment repair process and helps to track the maintenance and repair history of the equipment. The other options, such as the activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report, may provide additional information but are not specifically designed for recording equipment repair.

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  • 43. 

    Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?

    • A.

      District sales and maintenance representative

    • B.

      Base supply and equipment maintentance

    • C.

      Biomedical equipment repair technician

    • D.

      Original equipment manufacturer

    Correct Answer
    C. Biomedical equipment repair technician
    Explanation
    To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, and they are likely to have the most up-to-date knowledge and information regarding equipment procedures and policies. They would be able to provide accurate guidance and assistance in resolving any equipment issues or concerns.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

    • A.

      Telling the truth

    • B.

      Respect for others

    • C.

      The duty to do no harm

    • D.

      Being faithful to do good

    Correct Answer
    C. The duty to do no harm
    Explanation
    Nonmaleficence is a principle in healthcare ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm to patients. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being and safety of their patients and to avoid any actions that may cause unnecessary harm or suffering. This principle is rooted in the idea that healthcare providers should always act in the best interest of their patients and prioritize their welfare above all else.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following defines fidelity?

    • A.

      Fairness

    • B.

      Telling the truth

    • C.

      The duty to do no harm

    • D.

      Acting in a responsible manner

    Correct Answer
    D. Acting in a responsible manner
    Explanation
    Fidelity is defined as acting in a responsible manner. This means being reliable, trustworthy, and accountable for one's actions. It involves fulfilling one's obligations and commitments, being loyal and dedicated to a cause or relationship, and maintaining integrity and honesty. Acting in a responsible manner requires making ethical decisions and considering the consequences of one's actions. It also involves being conscientious and diligent in carrying out tasks and responsibilities. Fidelity is an important value in various contexts, such as professional ethics, personal relationships, and societal interactions.

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  • 46. 

    What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?

    • A.

      UMD

    • B.

      STS

    • C.

      MTF

    • D.

      UPMR

    Correct Answer
    B. STS
    Explanation
    The correct answer, STS, refers to Special Technical Specialty. In the context of the 4N0X1 career field, STS is used to define the specific scope of practice. This suggests that there are certain technical specialties within the career field that have specific roles and responsibilities. The acronym UMD, MTF, and UPMR are not explained in the question, so it is unclear how they relate to the scope of practice in the 4N0X1 career field.

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  • 47. 

    What are patient responsibilities designed to do?

    • A.

      Protect the patient

    • B.

      Protect other patients

    • C.

      Protect the patient and healthcare workers

    • D.

      Protect other patients and health care workers

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect other patients and health care workers
    Explanation
    Patient responsibilities are designed to ensure the safety and well-being of not only the patient themselves but also other patients and healthcare workers. By following these responsibilities, patients can help prevent the spread of infections and diseases, maintain a clean and safe environment, and contribute to the overall quality of care provided to everyone involved. This includes actions such as practicing good hygiene, adhering to treatment plans, communicating openly with healthcare professionals, and respecting the rights and needs of others. By fulfilling these responsibilities, patients play a vital role in protecting the health and safety of everyone in the healthcare setting.

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  • 48. 

    Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

    • A.

      Administration

    • B.

      Chaperone

    • C.

      Supervisory

    • D.

      Appointing

    Correct Answer
    B. Chaperone
    Explanation
    Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is a person who ensures the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient during the examination or treatment. They may be present to provide support, witness the procedure, or act as a safeguard against any potential misconduct or abuse. The presence of a chaperone helps maintain professionalism and ensures the well-being of both the patient and the healthcare provider.

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  • 49. 

    During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?

    • A.

      Depression

    • B.

      Acceptance

    • C.

      Denial

    • D.

      Anger

    Correct Answer
    A. Depression
    Explanation
    During the depression stage of the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because during this stage, the individual may be experiencing intense sadness, despair, and a sense of emptiness. By giving them the space to express their feelings and share their thoughts, it can provide them with a sense of relief and validation. It also allows them to process their emotions and gradually move towards acceptance and healing.

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  • 50. 

    Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?

    • A.

      DD Form 2500

    • B.

      DD Form 2005

    • C.

      DD Form 93-975

    • D.

      DD Form 93-552a

    Correct Answer
    B. DD Form 2005
    Explanation
    DD Form 2005 is used to inform the patient about the purpose and uses of the information collected in their medical record. This form is specifically designed to provide patients with clear and concise information regarding the collection, storage, and sharing of their medical information. It ensures that patients are fully informed and aware of how their personal health information will be used and protected.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 21, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Spencer Trilby
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