4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test

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Spencer Trilby
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  • 1/124 Questions

    While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

    • Physicians
    • Supervisors
    • Every Airman
    • Health and Wellness staff
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About This Quiz

This practice test for 4N051 CDC Set A focuses on understanding and applying Air Force medical doctrine. It assesses knowledge on the application, necessity, and types of doctrine, guiding commanders in resource utilization and mission accomplishment in health services.

4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure...

    • Each team member enjoys going to work each day

    • Each member can take leave on the requested days

    • The best care is provided to our customers

    • The team earns new medical technology

    Correct Answer
    A. The best care is provided to our customers
    Explanation
    A health care team needs to work in harmony to ensure that the best care is provided to their customers. When team members collaborate effectively, they can communicate and coordinate their efforts to deliver high-quality care. This includes sharing information, coordinating treatments, and working together to address any challenges that may arise. By prioritizing the best care for their customers, the team can improve patient outcomes, enhance patient satisfaction, and ultimately contribute to the overall success of the healthcare organization.

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  • 3. 

    When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

    • No care or treatment was accomplished

    • There is no follow up care required

    • There were no complications

    • The outcome was positive

    Correct Answer
    A. No care or treatment was accomplished
    Explanation
    If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is essential in healthcare to track and record the care provided to patients. Without proper documentation, it becomes difficult to determine the treatments administered, medications given, and any complications that may have occurred. It also hinders effective communication and coordination among healthcare providers. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was accomplished for the patient.

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  • 4. 

    You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of your patients', Mrs. Jones, room.  What would it mean for Mrs. Jones if the doctor's orders are written as NPO?

    • May walk around as desired

    • Should increase her fluid intake

    • May not have anything to eat or drink

    • May not get out of bed without assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. May not have anything to eat or drink
    Explanation
    If the doctor's orders are written as NPO, it means that Mrs. Jones is not allowed to have anything to eat or drink.

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  • 5. 

    What is the purpose of documenting training?

    • Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.

    • Document the number of personnel and the hours they work

    • Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board

    • Establish patient care guielines for civilian practice

    Correct Answer
    A. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.
    Explanation
    The purpose of documenting training is to document capability, scope of practice, and strength and weakness. This documentation helps to keep a record of the skills and knowledge that individuals possess, their areas of expertise, and areas where improvement may be needed. It allows for a comprehensive understanding of the training received and helps in identifying any gaps or areas for further development. This documentation is essential for ensuring that individuals are appropriately qualified and competent in their roles and can contribute effectively to the organization.

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  • 6. 

    What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

    • Cancel the order

    • Complain to the commander

    • Wait another 15 days then follow up

    • Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order
    Explanation
    If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, it would be appropriate to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This is because they are responsible for managing and tracking orders, so they would have the necessary information to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order may not be necessary if there is a chance that the item will be restocked soon. Complaining to the commander may be an option if the issue persists, but it is best to start by seeking assistance from the MEMO personnel.

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  • 7. 

    What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

    • Collect patient demographic information

    • Determine the health of the local population

    • Aid manpower in determining allocation requests

    • Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients
    Explanation
    The purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility is to collect feedback from patients and determine ways to better serve them. These surveys help gather information about the patients' experiences and satisfaction levels, allowing the facility to identify areas for improvement and make necessary changes to enhance the quality of patient care and service.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

    • Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness

    • Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety

    • Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider

    • Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patient's fear

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety
    Explanation
    Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress because it promotes trust and reassurance. By being honest, the healthcare provider can provide accurate information and address any concerns or questions the patient may have. Being in control of the situation helps to create a sense of stability and confidence for the patient, reducing their anxiety.

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  • 9. 

    What nerve is the pathway to vision?

    • Posterior

    • Anterior

    • Sclera

    • Optic

    Correct Answer
    A. Optic
    Explanation
    The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It transmits visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. This nerve is responsible for carrying signals related to light and visual images, making it essential for vision. The other options, posterior, anterior, and sclera, are not nerves and do not play a direct role in the visual pathway.

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  • 10. 

    What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

    • Patella

    • Fibula

    • Femur

    • Tibia

    Correct Answer
    A. Patella
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It acts as a protective shield for the knee joint and provides leverage to the quadriceps muscles. The patella helps in the smooth movement of the knee joint and also enhances the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps muscles during activities such as running, jumping, and walking.

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  • 11. 

    By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likeyly to prevent?

    • Equipment damage and injury to a patient

    • Injury to a patient and buying new technology

    • Reporting damamge and buying new technology

    • Reporting damamge to the commander and logisitcs

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment damage and injury to a patient
    Explanation
    By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel are aware of safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.

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  • 12. 

    What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

    • None. Once an item is ordered, you must receive it when it arrives.

    • Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO

    • Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.

    • None. It is always better to have extra supplies on hand

    Correct Answer
    A. Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO
    Explanation
    If a backorder item is no longer needed, the property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO. This means that they should inform the appropriate department or individual responsible for managing orders and request that the order be canceled. This is the most appropriate action to take in order to prevent the unnecessary receipt and payment for an item that is no longer needed.

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  • 13. 

    Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

    • Administration

    • Chaperone

    • Supervisory

    • Appointing

    Correct Answer
    A. Chaperone
    Explanation
    Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is a person who ensures the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient during the examination or treatment. They may be present to provide support, witness the procedure, or act as a safeguard against any potential misconduct or abuse. The presence of a chaperone helps maintain professionalism and ensures the well-being of both the patient and the healthcare provider.

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  • 14. 

    Pigmentation is attributed to...

    • Melanin

    • Dermal cells

    • Subcutaneous cells

    • Sebaceous gland secretions

    Correct Answer
    A. Melanin
    Explanation
    Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It protects the skin from harmful UV radiation and helps regulate body temperature. Melanin production can be influenced by various factors such as genetics, sun exposure, and hormonal changes. Dermal cells, subcutaneous cells, and sebaceous gland secretions do not directly contribute to pigmentation.

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  • 15. 

    Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?

    • Prevent lawsuits

    • Develop job satisfaction

    • Ensure promotion below-the-zone

    • Positively influence the patient's visit

    Correct Answer
    A. Positively influence the patient's visit
    Explanation
    It is important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service in order to positively influence the patient's visit. Providing exceptional customer service can enhance the overall experience for the patient, making them feel valued and cared for. This can lead to increased patient satisfaction, better patient outcomes, and improved patient-provider relationships. Additionally, positive patient experiences can contribute to a positive reputation for the healthcare facility and potentially attract more patients.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?

    • Smiling

    • Laughing

    • Talking too much

    • Identifying commonalities

    Correct Answer
    A. Talking too much
    Explanation
    Talking too much can be considered a barrier to effective communication because it can prevent others from expressing their thoughts and feelings. When one person dominates the conversation, it can hinder the exchange of ideas and hinder active listening. Additionally, talking too much can lead to information overload and confusion for the listener. Effective communication involves a balance of speaking and listening, allowing all parties to participate and contribute to the conversation.

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  • 17. 

    Who is considered the patient advocate?

    • Clinic representative only

    • Officer-in-charge only

    • Facility representative only

    • Every staff member

    Correct Answer
    A. Every staff member
    Explanation
    Every staff member is considered the patient advocate because they all have a role in ensuring the well-being and rights of the patients. From the clinic representative to the officer-in-charge and facility representative, each staff member has a responsibility to advocate for the patients, address their concerns, and ensure they receive the best possible care. Patient advocacy is a team effort, and it is important for every staff member to actively participate in advocating for the patients' needs and rights.

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  • 18. 

    How should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider is he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?

    • Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity

    • Inform the caller the doctor is busy and ask them to try to call back later

    • Inform the caller the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours

    • Knock on the door and the inform the physician he or she has a telephone call

    Correct Answer
    A. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity
    Explanation
    When the provider is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold, the best course of action is to take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity. This ensures that the provider receives the message and can address it when they are available. It is important to prioritize the patient currently being seen by the provider and handle the non-emergent call in a timely manner. Informing the caller that the doctor is busy or not taking calls during appointment hours may not be sufficient or satisfactory for the caller. Knocking on the door and informing the physician may disrupt the ongoing appointment.

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  • 19. 

    When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do?

    • No team members will work extra hours

    • Be able to do the job of every other team member

    • Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice

    • Make sure all patients have appointments on the day requested

    Correct Answer
    A. Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice
    Explanation
    Each member of the PCM team must contribute at their highest level of scope of practice when the team goal is achieved. This means that they should utilize their skills, knowledge, and expertise to the fullest extent in order to support the team's success. By doing so, each member can make valuable contributions and ensure that their individual capabilities are utilized effectively, thereby maximizing the team's overall performance and achievement of the goal.

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  • 20. 

    If a patient has an emrgency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, you should...

    • Provide the patient care and then determine eligibility

    • Determine eligibility first and provide treatment only if they are eligible

    • Inform the patient that they will be billed for the visit and ensure they agree to pay

    • Have the patient wait and ask a provider to see them at the end of scheduled patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide the patient care and then determine eligibility
    Explanation
    In an emergency situation, the priority is to provide immediate care to the patient without delay. It is crucial to prioritize the patient's health and well-being over determining eligibility for care. Once the patient's condition is stabilized, the healthcare provider can then assess their eligibility for further treatment or assistance. This approach ensures that the patient receives necessary care in a timely manner, regardless of their eligibility status.

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  • 21. 

    What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

    • Plasma

    • Platelets

    • Leukocytes

    • Erythrocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When there is an injury, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. Platelets also help in the repair of damaged blood vessels by releasing growth factors. These small cell fragments play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the circulatory system and preventing excessive bleeding.

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  • 22. 

    Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

    • Each individual

    • Unit supervisor

    • Group comander

    • Account custodian

    Correct Answer
    A. Each individual
    Explanation
    Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility extends to all levels of the organization, from the highest-ranking officers to the lowest-ranking personnel. By holding each individual accountable for the proper handling of public property, the Air Force can ensure that its resources are effectively utilized and protected.

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  • 23. 

    Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act affect?

    • Patients handling their information

    • Anyone handling patient information

    • Medical staff handling patient information

    • Administrative staff handling patient information

    Correct Answer
    A. Anyone handling patient information
    Explanation
    The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone handling patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also any other personnel who may come into contact with patient data, such as billing staff, IT personnel, and even janitorial staff. HIPAA regulations are in place to protect the privacy and security of patient information, and all individuals who handle this information must comply with the law to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of patient data.

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  • 24. 

    Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services?

    • Family practice clinic

    • Internal medicine clinic

    • The MTF commander

    • The patient advocate

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient advocate
    Explanation
    The patient advocate is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services. They are trained professionals who advocate for the patient's rights and help navigate the healthcare system. They can provide information, support, and assistance in understanding and accessing the necessary services.

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  • 25. 

    Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?

    • District sales and maintenance representative

    • Base supply and equipment maintentance

    • Biomedical equipment repair technician

    • Original equipment manufacturer

    Correct Answer
    A. Biomedical equipment repair technician
    Explanation
    To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, and they are likely to have the most up-to-date knowledge and information regarding equipment procedures and policies. They would be able to provide accurate guidance and assistance in resolving any equipment issues or concerns.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

    • Telling the truth

    • Respect for others

    • The duty to do no harm

    • Being faithful to do good

    Correct Answer
    A. The duty to do no harm
    Explanation
    Nonmaleficence is a principle in healthcare ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm to patients. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being and safety of their patients and to avoid any actions that may cause unnecessary harm or suffering. This principle is rooted in the idea that healthcare providers should always act in the best interest of their patients and prioritize their welfare above all else.

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  • 27. 

    How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial?

    • At the back of the body or body part

    • Toward the back of the body or body part

    • Away from the midline of the body or body part

    • Toward the head or area of the body that is closer to the head

    Correct Answer
    A. Away from the midline of the body or body part
    Explanation
    The anatomical lateral position refers to being away from the midline of the body or body part. This means that the body or body part is located towards the side, away from the center. On the other hand, the term medial refers to being towards the midline of the body or body part. This means that the body or body part is located towards the center, closer to the midline. Therefore, the anatomical lateral position and the term medial differ in terms of the direction they indicate - one is away from the midline and the other is towards the midline.

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  • 28. 

    Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health cre worker and clarifying the reason for the appoinment or hospitalization?

    • Preinteractive

    • Introductory

    • Working

    • Termination

    Correct Answer
    A. Introductory
    Explanation
    The introductory phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the healthcare worker, as well as clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization. This phase focuses on building rapport, gathering initial information, and setting the foundation for effective communication and collaboration between the patient and the healthcare provider. It is a crucial stage in developing trust and understanding between both parties, which sets the stage for the subsequent phases of the patient relationship.

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  • 29. 

    What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?

    • Reduce the number of lawsuits

    • Provide an unbiased third party

    • To determine the correct treatment plan

    • To approve funding for off-base treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide an unbiased third party
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program is to provide an unbiased third party. This means that the program aims to have someone who is not directly involved in the patient's care or treatment to advocate for their needs and rights. This can help ensure that the patient's concerns and preferences are heard and addressed, and that they receive fair and impartial support throughout their healthcare journey. The program may also help mediate any disputes or conflicts that may arise between the patient and healthcare providers.

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  • 30. 

    Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

    • The Environmental Pretection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.

    • An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities.

    • An automotive designeer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.

    • A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.

    Correct Answer
    A. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.
    Explanation
    Tactical Doctrine refers to the principles and strategies used to achieve specific objectives or goals. In this context, the best example to explain Tactical Doctrine is a car buyer. A car buyer can choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences, such as speed or safety factors. This decision-making process reflects the application of tactical doctrine, as the buyer is strategically selecting a product that best meets their objectives and requirements.

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  • 31. 

    Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • 3-level

    • 5-level

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey. They are in a position of authority and oversight, making them accountable for ensuring that the survey is completed accurately and on time. The commander may have a higher rank, but it is the supervisor's role to handle day-to-day tasks and assessments. The 3-level and 5-level are not mentioned in the question and therefore not relevant to the responsibility of completing the survey.

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  • 32. 

    The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as...

    • Interphase

    • Metaphase

    • Cell differentiation

    • Cytoplasmic

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell differentiation
    Explanation
    Cell differentiation refers to the process by which cells develop specialized structures and functions. During this process, cells undergo changes in gene expression, leading to the development of specific cell types with distinct characteristics. This process is crucial for the formation of tissues and organs in multicellular organisms. Interphase, metaphase, and cytoplasmic are not directly related to the process of cell differentiation.

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  • 33. 

    What substance does a melanocyte produce?

    • Sebum

    • Melanin

    • Adipose

    • Pigmentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Melanin
    Explanation
    Melanocytes are specialized cells that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. Melanin helps protect the skin from harmful UV radiation by absorbing and scattering the rays. It also plays a role in determining the color of our hair and eyes. Therefore, the correct answer is melanin.

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  • 34. 

    The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the...

    • Pulse pressure

    • Residual pressure

    • Systolic pressure

    • Diastolic blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Diastolic blood pressure
    Explanation
    Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions. It is the lower number in a blood pressure reading and represents the minimum pressure exerted on the arterial walls. This measurement is important as it indicates the pressure on the blood vessels during relaxation, which allows the heart to refill with blood and ensures proper blood flow to organs and tissues. Therefore, diastolic blood pressure is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 35. 

    Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must...

    • Receive a briefing on responsibilities

    • Conduct a physical inverntory of equipment

    • Document his/her experience for the commander to review

    • Review the files to establish when equipment was procured

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a physical inverntory of equipment
    Explanation
    Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is important because it allows the custodian to verify the presence and condition of all equipment, ensuring that nothing is missing or damaged. Conducting a physical inventory also helps in establishing a baseline for future inspections and audits. By physically counting and inspecting the equipment, the custodian can identify any discrepancies or issues, and take appropriate actions to rectify them. This step is crucial in maintaining accurate records and ensuring the accountability of equipment under the custodian's responsibility.

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  • 36. 

    What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

    • Inspect, store, and remove

    • Inspect, remove, and report

    • Report, remove, and repair

    • Remove, store, and repair

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspect, remove, and report
    Explanation
    When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the three actions to remember are to inspect the equipment thoroughly, remove it from service if any issues are found, and then report the discrepancies to the appropriate authorities. This ensures that any faulty or damaged equipment is identified, taken out of use to prevent further problems or accidents, and reported so that necessary repairs or replacements can be made.

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  • 37. 

    What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord?

    • Cardiac

    • Smooth

    • Skeletal

    • Nervous

    Correct Answer
    A. Nervous
    Explanation
    The correct answer is nervous because the spinal cord is a part of the central nervous system, which is responsible for transmitting signals between the brain and the rest of the body. Nervous tissue is specialized for communication and consists of neurons and glial cells. These cells work together to transmit electrical signals, process information, and coordinate bodily functions.

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  • 38. 

    What type of tissue can change its shape?

    • Muscle

    • Nervous

    • Epithelial

    • Connective

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle
    Explanation
    Muscle tissue has the unique ability to change its shape, allowing for movement and contraction. This tissue is made up of specialized cells called muscle fibers that can contract and relax, enabling the body to perform various functions such as moving limbs, pumping blood, and digesting food. Unlike other types of tissue, such as nervous, epithelial, and connective tissue, muscle tissue has the capacity to change its shape and size, making it the correct answer to the question.

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  • 39. 

    The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the...

    • Nail plate

    • Dermis

    • Lunula

    • Nail bed

    Correct Answer
    A. Lunula
    Explanation
    The lunula is the white area at the base of the nail plate, which is the visible part of the nail. The nail grows outward from this area, and it is responsible for the half-moon shape that is often seen on the nails. The dermis is the layer of skin beneath the nail plate, and the nail bed is the tissue underneath the nail plate. Therefore, the correct answer is lunula.

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  • 40. 

    What fluid acts as joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartialge within the joint?

    • Gomphosis

    • Synovial

    • Mucosal

    • Blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Synovial
    Explanation
    Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps to reduce friction between the bones, allowing smooth movement, and also provides essential nutrients to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity, and plays a crucial role in maintaining joint health and function.

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  • 41. 

    Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?

    • 15 days

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 60 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    Patients who are treated without initial proof of eligibility are required to sign a statement stating that they will provide eligibility documentation within 30 days. This means that they have a month to provide the necessary documents to prove their eligibility for treatment. This time frame allows the healthcare facility to proceed with the treatment while ensuring that the patient provides the required documentation within a reasonable period.

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  • 42. 

    You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye.  How should you document this information correctly?

    • Patient complains of blurred vision-OD

    • Patient complains of blurred vision-AD

    • Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye

    • The technician informs the provider but does not document

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye." This is the correct way to document the information because it clearly states the patient's complaint of blurred vision specifically in the right eye. The other options either use incorrect abbreviations (OD and AD) or do not specify the eye affected.

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  • 43. 

    What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?

    • Sebum

    • Sweat

    • Follicle

    • Adipose

    Correct Answer
    A. Sebum
    Explanation
    Sebum is the substance secreted by the sebaceous gland. Sebaceous glands are located in the skin and their main function is to produce sebum, an oily substance that helps to lubricate the skin and hair. Sebum also helps to protect the skin from drying out and acts as a barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances.

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  • 44. 

    Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?

    • No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky

    • Yes; the problem may be simple and the patient could treat themselves

    • No; only doctors can legally give medical advice over the telephone

    • Yes; many medical problems do not require a doctor's examination

    Correct Answer
    A. No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky
    Explanation
    Giving medical advice over the telephone is not recommended because it can lead to inaccurate self-treatment. Without a proper examination, it is difficult to accurately diagnose a medical condition and provide appropriate advice. Additionally, providing medical advice without proper qualifications and knowledge can be legally risky. It is important for individuals to consult with qualified healthcare professionals, such as doctors, who have the necessary expertise and can provide accurate and safe advice.

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  • 45. 

    What four components make up the PCM team?

    • Provider, nurse, medical technician and mental health technician

    • Provider, nurse, medical technician and health services management technician

    • Nurse, medical technician, and health services management technician and mental health technician

    • Nurse, medical technician, dental technician and mental health technician

    Correct Answer
    A. Provider, nurse, medical technician and health services management technician
    Explanation
    The PCM team consists of a provider, nurse, medical technician, and health services management technician. These four components work together to provide comprehensive healthcare services. The provider is responsible for diagnosing and treating patients, while the nurse assists in patient care and medication administration. The medical technician performs various medical tests and procedures, and the health services management technician handles administrative tasks such as scheduling appointments and managing medical records. This combination of expertise ensures efficient and effective healthcare delivery.

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  • 46. 

    With which of the following is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statemtnes airmen should be familiar?

    • Competency

    • Use of Force

    • Force Health Protection

    • Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of Force
    Explanation
    The question is asking which statement is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statements that airmen should be familiar with. The answer is "Use of Force." This means that airmen should be familiar with the concepts of Competency, Force Health Protection, and Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service, but not necessarily with the concept of Use of Force.

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  • 47. 

    What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?

    • Not elsewhere classified

    • Next even cancelled

    • Not elsewhere coded

    • New event code

    Correct Answer
    A. Not elsewhere classified
    Explanation
    The abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified" when used in ICD-9. This term is used to categorize medical conditions or procedures that do not have a specific code within the classification system. It is used when there is no other appropriate code available to accurately describe the condition or procedure.

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  • 48. 

    What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

    • Ribosomes

    • Lysosomes

    • Peroxisomes

    • Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitochondria
    Explanation
    Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through cellular respiration. They generate ATP by breaking down glucose and other organic molecules in a process called aerobic respiration. This ATP is then used by the cell as a primary source of energy for various cellular activities such as metabolism, growth, and movement. Therefore, mitochondria provide the primary source of cellular energy.

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  • 49. 

    Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

    • Nervous

    • Epithelial

    • Smooth muscle

    • Cardiac muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac muscle
    Explanation
    Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues have a striped or striated pattern due to the arrangement of contractile proteins within the cells. This striated appearance indicates that both tissues have organized sarcomeres, which are the basic units of contraction. In contrast, smooth muscle tissue lacks this striated appearance and has a different arrangement of contractile proteins. Nervous and epithelial tissues do not have a striated appearance and are not similar to skeletal muscle tissue in this aspect.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 20, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 20, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 21, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Spencer Trilby
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