4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test

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1. While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

Explanation

Every Airman is responsible for maintaining their own health and fitness. While commanders have overall responsibility for the well-being of their personnel, it is ultimately up to each individual to take care of their own physical health and fitness. This includes staying physically active, eating a balanced diet, and seeking medical attention when needed. By taking personal responsibility for their health and fitness, Airmen can contribute to their overall readiness and effectiveness in their roles.

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About This Quiz
4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test - Quiz

This practice test for 4N051 CDC Set A focuses on understanding and applying Air Force medical doctrine. It assesses knowledge on the application, necessity, and types of doctrine,... see moreguiding commanders in resource utilization and mission accomplishment in health services. see less

2. It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure...

Explanation

A health care team needs to work in harmony to ensure that the best care is provided to their customers. When team members collaborate effectively, they can communicate and coordinate their efforts to deliver high-quality care. This includes sharing information, coordinating treatments, and working together to address any challenges that may arise. By prioritizing the best care for their customers, the team can improve patient outcomes, enhance patient satisfaction, and ultimately contribute to the overall success of the healthcare organization.

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3. When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

Explanation

If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is essential in healthcare to track and record the care provided to patients. Without proper documentation, it becomes difficult to determine the treatments administered, medications given, and any complications that may have occurred. It also hinders effective communication and coordination among healthcare providers. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was accomplished for the patient.

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4. You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of your patients', Mrs. Jones, room.  What would it mean for Mrs. Jones if the doctor's orders are written as NPO?

Explanation

If the doctor's orders are written as NPO, it means that Mrs. Jones is not allowed to have anything to eat or drink.

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5. What is the purpose of documenting training?

Explanation

The purpose of documenting training is to document capability, scope of practice, and strength and weakness. This documentation helps to keep a record of the skills and knowledge that individuals possess, their areas of expertise, and areas where improvement may be needed. It allows for a comprehensive understanding of the training received and helps in identifying any gaps or areas for further development. This documentation is essential for ensuring that individuals are appropriately qualified and competent in their roles and can contribute effectively to the organization.

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6. What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

Explanation

If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, it would be appropriate to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This is because they are responsible for managing and tracking orders, so they would have the necessary information to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order may not be necessary if there is a chance that the item will be restocked soon. Complaining to the commander may be an option if the issue persists, but it is best to start by seeking assistance from the MEMO personnel.

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7. What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

Explanation

The purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility is to collect feedback from patients and determine ways to better serve them. These surveys help gather information about the patients' experiences and satisfaction levels, allowing the facility to identify areas for improvement and make necessary changes to enhance the quality of patient care and service.

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8. Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

Explanation

Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress because it promotes trust and reassurance. By being honest, the healthcare provider can provide accurate information and address any concerns or questions the patient may have. Being in control of the situation helps to create a sense of stability and confidence for the patient, reducing their anxiety.

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9. What nerve is the pathway to vision?

Explanation

The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It transmits visual information from the retina to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. This nerve is responsible for carrying signals related to light and visual images, making it essential for vision. The other options, posterior, anterior, and sclera, are not nerves and do not play a direct role in the visual pathway.

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10. What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

Explanation

The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It acts as a protective shield for the knee joint and provides leverage to the quadriceps muscles. The patella helps in the smooth movement of the knee joint and also enhances the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps muscles during activities such as running, jumping, and walking.

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11. By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likeyly to prevent?

Explanation

By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel are aware of safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.

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12. What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

Explanation

If a backorder item is no longer needed, the property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO. This means that they should inform the appropriate department or individual responsible for managing orders and request that the order be canceled. This is the most appropriate action to take in order to prevent the unnecessary receipt and payment for an item that is no longer needed.

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13. Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

Explanation

Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is a person who ensures the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient during the examination or treatment. They may be present to provide support, witness the procedure, or act as a safeguard against any potential misconduct or abuse. The presence of a chaperone helps maintain professionalism and ensures the well-being of both the patient and the healthcare provider.

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14. Pigmentation is attributed to...

Explanation

Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It protects the skin from harmful UV radiation and helps regulate body temperature. Melanin production can be influenced by various factors such as genetics, sun exposure, and hormonal changes. Dermal cells, subcutaneous cells, and sebaceous gland secretions do not directly contribute to pigmentation.

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15. Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?

Explanation

It is important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service in order to positively influence the patient's visit. Providing exceptional customer service can enhance the overall experience for the patient, making them feel valued and cared for. This can lead to increased patient satisfaction, better patient outcomes, and improved patient-provider relationships. Additionally, positive patient experiences can contribute to a positive reputation for the healthcare facility and potentially attract more patients.

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16. Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?

Explanation

Talking too much can be considered a barrier to effective communication because it can prevent others from expressing their thoughts and feelings. When one person dominates the conversation, it can hinder the exchange of ideas and hinder active listening. Additionally, talking too much can lead to information overload and confusion for the listener. Effective communication involves a balance of speaking and listening, allowing all parties to participate and contribute to the conversation.

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17. Who is considered the patient advocate?

Explanation

Every staff member is considered the patient advocate because they all have a role in ensuring the well-being and rights of the patients. From the clinic representative to the officer-in-charge and facility representative, each staff member has a responsibility to advocate for the patients, address their concerns, and ensure they receive the best possible care. Patient advocacy is a team effort, and it is important for every staff member to actively participate in advocating for the patients' needs and rights.

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18. How should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider is he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?

Explanation

When the provider is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold, the best course of action is to take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity. This ensures that the provider receives the message and can address it when they are available. It is important to prioritize the patient currently being seen by the provider and handle the non-emergent call in a timely manner. Informing the caller that the doctor is busy or not taking calls during appointment hours may not be sufficient or satisfactory for the caller. Knocking on the door and informing the physician may disrupt the ongoing appointment.

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19. When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do?

Explanation

Each member of the PCM team must contribute at their highest level of scope of practice when the team goal is achieved. This means that they should utilize their skills, knowledge, and expertise to the fullest extent in order to support the team's success. By doing so, each member can make valuable contributions and ensure that their individual capabilities are utilized effectively, thereby maximizing the team's overall performance and achievement of the goal.

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20. If a patient has an emrgency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, you should...

Explanation

In an emergency situation, the priority is to provide immediate care to the patient without delay. It is crucial to prioritize the patient's health and well-being over determining eligibility for care. Once the patient's condition is stabilized, the healthcare provider can then assess their eligibility for further treatment or assistance. This approach ensures that the patient receives necessary care in a timely manner, regardless of their eligibility status.

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21. What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

Explanation

Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When there is an injury, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. Platelets also help in the repair of damaged blood vessels by releasing growth factors. These small cell fragments play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the circulatory system and preventing excessive bleeding.

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22. Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

Explanation

Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility extends to all levels of the organization, from the highest-ranking officers to the lowest-ranking personnel. By holding each individual accountable for the proper handling of public property, the Air Force can ensure that its resources are effectively utilized and protected.

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23. Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act affect?

Explanation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone handling patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also any other personnel who may come into contact with patient data, such as billing staff, IT personnel, and even janitorial staff. HIPAA regulations are in place to protect the privacy and security of patient information, and all individuals who handle this information must comply with the law to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of patient data.

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24. Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services?

Explanation

The patient advocate is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services. They are trained professionals who advocate for the patient's rights and help navigate the healthcare system. They can provide information, support, and assistance in understanding and accessing the necessary services.

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25. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?

Explanation

To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, and they are likely to have the most up-to-date knowledge and information regarding equipment procedures and policies. They would be able to provide accurate guidance and assistance in resolving any equipment issues or concerns.

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26. How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial?

Explanation

The anatomical lateral position refers to being away from the midline of the body or body part. This means that the body or body part is located towards the side, away from the center. On the other hand, the term medial refers to being towards the midline of the body or body part. This means that the body or body part is located towards the center, closer to the midline. Therefore, the anatomical lateral position and the term medial differ in terms of the direction they indicate - one is away from the midline and the other is towards the midline.

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27. Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

Explanation

Nonmaleficence is a principle in healthcare ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm to patients. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being and safety of their patients and to avoid any actions that may cause unnecessary harm or suffering. This principle is rooted in the idea that healthcare providers should always act in the best interest of their patients and prioritize their welfare above all else.

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28. Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health cre worker and clarifying the reason for the appoinment or hospitalization?

Explanation

The introductory phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the healthcare worker, as well as clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization. This phase focuses on building rapport, gathering initial information, and setting the foundation for effective communication and collaboration between the patient and the healthcare provider. It is a crucial stage in developing trust and understanding between both parties, which sets the stage for the subsequent phases of the patient relationship.

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29. What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program is to provide an unbiased third party. This means that the program aims to have someone who is not directly involved in the patient's care or treatment to advocate for their needs and rights. This can help ensure that the patient's concerns and preferences are heard and addressed, and that they receive fair and impartial support throughout their healthcare journey. The program may also help mediate any disputes or conflicts that may arise between the patient and healthcare providers.

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30. Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

Explanation

Tactical Doctrine refers to the principles and strategies used to achieve specific objectives or goals. In this context, the best example to explain Tactical Doctrine is a car buyer. A car buyer can choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences, such as speed or safety factors. This decision-making process reflects the application of tactical doctrine, as the buyer is strategically selecting a product that best meets their objectives and requirements.

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31. Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey. They are in a position of authority and oversight, making them accountable for ensuring that the survey is completed accurately and on time. The commander may have a higher rank, but it is the supervisor's role to handle day-to-day tasks and assessments. The 3-level and 5-level are not mentioned in the question and therefore not relevant to the responsibility of completing the survey.

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32. The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as...

Explanation

Cell differentiation refers to the process by which cells develop specialized structures and functions. During this process, cells undergo changes in gene expression, leading to the development of specific cell types with distinct characteristics. This process is crucial for the formation of tissues and organs in multicellular organisms. Interphase, metaphase, and cytoplasmic are not directly related to the process of cell differentiation.

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33. What substance does a melanocyte produce?

Explanation

Melanocytes are specialized cells that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. Melanin helps protect the skin from harmful UV radiation by absorbing and scattering the rays. It also plays a role in determining the color of our hair and eyes. Therefore, the correct answer is melanin.

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34. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the...

Explanation

Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions. It is the lower number in a blood pressure reading and represents the minimum pressure exerted on the arterial walls. This measurement is important as it indicates the pressure on the blood vessels during relaxation, which allows the heart to refill with blood and ensures proper blood flow to organs and tissues. Therefore, diastolic blood pressure is the correct answer in this case.

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35. Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must...

Explanation

Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is important because it allows the custodian to verify the presence and condition of all equipment, ensuring that nothing is missing or damaged. Conducting a physical inventory also helps in establishing a baseline for future inspections and audits. By physically counting and inspecting the equipment, the custodian can identify any discrepancies or issues, and take appropriate actions to rectify them. This step is crucial in maintaining accurate records and ensuring the accountability of equipment under the custodian's responsibility.

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36. What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

Explanation

When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the three actions to remember are to inspect the equipment thoroughly, remove it from service if any issues are found, and then report the discrepancies to the appropriate authorities. This ensures that any faulty or damaged equipment is identified, taken out of use to prevent further problems or accidents, and reported so that necessary repairs or replacements can be made.

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37. What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord?

Explanation

The correct answer is nervous because the spinal cord is a part of the central nervous system, which is responsible for transmitting signals between the brain and the rest of the body. Nervous tissue is specialized for communication and consists of neurons and glial cells. These cells work together to transmit electrical signals, process information, and coordinate bodily functions.

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38. What type of tissue can change its shape?

Explanation

Muscle tissue has the unique ability to change its shape, allowing for movement and contraction. This tissue is made up of specialized cells called muscle fibers that can contract and relax, enabling the body to perform various functions such as moving limbs, pumping blood, and digesting food. Unlike other types of tissue, such as nervous, epithelial, and connective tissue, muscle tissue has the capacity to change its shape and size, making it the correct answer to the question.

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39. The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the...

Explanation

The lunula is the white area at the base of the nail plate, which is the visible part of the nail. The nail grows outward from this area, and it is responsible for the half-moon shape that is often seen on the nails. The dermis is the layer of skin beneath the nail plate, and the nail bed is the tissue underneath the nail plate. Therefore, the correct answer is lunula.

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40. What fluid acts as joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartialge within the joint?

Explanation

Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps to reduce friction between the bones, allowing smooth movement, and also provides essential nutrients to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity, and plays a crucial role in maintaining joint health and function.

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41. Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?

Explanation

Patients who are treated without initial proof of eligibility are required to sign a statement stating that they will provide eligibility documentation within 30 days. This means that they have a month to provide the necessary documents to prove their eligibility for treatment. This time frame allows the healthcare facility to proceed with the treatment while ensuring that the patient provides the required documentation within a reasonable period.

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42. You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye.  How should you document this information correctly?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye." This is the correct way to document the information because it clearly states the patient's complaint of blurred vision specifically in the right eye. The other options either use incorrect abbreviations (OD and AD) or do not specify the eye affected.

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43. What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?

Explanation

Sebum is the substance secreted by the sebaceous gland. Sebaceous glands are located in the skin and their main function is to produce sebum, an oily substance that helps to lubricate the skin and hair. Sebum also helps to protect the skin from drying out and acts as a barrier against bacteria and other harmful substances.

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44. Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?

Explanation

Giving medical advice over the telephone is not recommended because it can lead to inaccurate self-treatment. Without a proper examination, it is difficult to accurately diagnose a medical condition and provide appropriate advice. Additionally, providing medical advice without proper qualifications and knowledge can be legally risky. It is important for individuals to consult with qualified healthcare professionals, such as doctors, who have the necessary expertise and can provide accurate and safe advice.

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45. What four components make up the PCM team?

Explanation

The PCM team consists of a provider, nurse, medical technician, and health services management technician. These four components work together to provide comprehensive healthcare services. The provider is responsible for diagnosing and treating patients, while the nurse assists in patient care and medication administration. The medical technician performs various medical tests and procedures, and the health services management technician handles administrative tasks such as scheduling appointments and managing medical records. This combination of expertise ensures efficient and effective healthcare delivery.

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46. With which of the following is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statemtnes airmen should be familiar?

Explanation

The question is asking which statement is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statements that airmen should be familiar with. The answer is "Use of Force." This means that airmen should be familiar with the concepts of Competency, Force Health Protection, and Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service, but not necessarily with the concept of Use of Force.

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47. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?

Explanation

The abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified" when used in ICD-9. This term is used to categorize medical conditions or procedures that do not have a specific code within the classification system. It is used when there is no other appropriate code available to accurately describe the condition or procedure.

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48. What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

Explanation

Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through cellular respiration. They generate ATP by breaking down glucose and other organic molecules in a process called aerobic respiration. This ATP is then used by the cell as a primary source of energy for various cellular activities such as metabolism, growth, and movement. Therefore, mitochondria provide the primary source of cellular energy.

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49. Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

Explanation

Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues have a striped or striated pattern due to the arrangement of contractile proteins within the cells. This striated appearance indicates that both tissues have organized sarcomeres, which are the basic units of contraction. In contrast, smooth muscle tissue lacks this striated appearance and has a different arrangement of contractile proteins. Nervous and epithelial tissues do not have a striated appearance and are not similar to skeletal muscle tissue in this aspect.

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50. Which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof?

Explanation

Sebaceous glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof. These glands are responsible for producing sebum, an oily substance that helps to lubricate and moisturize the hair and skin. Sebum also forms a protective barrier on the surface of the skin, preventing excessive water loss and keeping the skin hydrated.

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51. Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

Explanation

Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. Commanders need guidance on how to effectively utilize medical resources and assets to provide the best possible healthcare to their personnel. Medical Doctrine provides a set of principles, guidelines, and procedures that commanders can follow to make informed decisions about how to allocate and employ medical assets. It ensures that commanders have a framework to optimize the use of medical resources and ensure the best possible medical support for their units.

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52. What type of doctine guides organization and emplayment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

Explanation

Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but it is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. This means that operational doctrine provides guidance on how to plan and execute military operations at the operational level, which involves coordinating and integrating multiple tactical actions to achieve strategic goals. It encompasses a wide range of functional areas such as command and control, intelligence, logistics, and maneuver. Operational doctrine is crucial for military commanders to effectively employ their forces and achieve success in complex operational environments.

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53. What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?

Explanation

The figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes that identifies career grouping is "First". This suggests that the first figure in the code represents the career grouping, indicating the broad category or field of specialization within the Air Force.

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54. When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?

Explanation

The AETC Form 156, Student Training Report, is removed from the Individual Training Record when the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This indicates that the Airman has completed the necessary training and has advanced in their skill level.

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55. What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?

Explanation

70 percent of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This suggests that a significant majority of malfunctions occur due to mistakes or errors made by the operators of the equipment. It highlights the importance of proper training and education for operators to minimize the occurrence of such errors and ensure the safe and efficient operation of medical equipment.

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56. When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?

Explanation

A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that they have acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed. It is a formal process that ensures accountability and proper management of the property.

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57. What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body?

Explanation

Ribosomes play an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body. They are responsible for protein synthesis, where they read the genetic information from the DNA and use it to assemble amino acids into proteins. Ribosomes can be found in both the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. They are essential for the proper functioning and growth of cells, as proteins are crucial for various cellular processes and functions.

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58. How is doctrine applied?

Explanation

Doctrine is applied in a manner that is authoritative but not directive. This means that while it carries weight and is considered to be a reliable and official source of guidance, it does not dictate specific actions or provide step-by-step instructions. Instead, it serves as a framework or set of principles that individuals or organizations can use to inform their decision-making and actions, allowing for flexibility and interpretation based on specific circumstances and contexts.

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59. How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?

Explanation

Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and to identify any potential issues or defects. Daily inspections allow for timely detection and resolution of problems, reducing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular daily inspections also help to ensure compliance with safety regulations and maintain the overall efficiency and reliability of the equipment.

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60. When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, you should...

Explanation

When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, it is important to have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment. This is because the patient's eligibility status should not be the determining factor in providing them with medical care. Instead, a risk assessment will help evaluate the urgency and severity of the patient's condition, allowing for appropriate and timely care to be provided. By conducting a risk assessment, healthcare professionals can prioritize the patient's needs and ensure that they receive the necessary medical attention.

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61. What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?

Explanation

Rods are responsible for viewing dimly lit images in the eye. These photoreceptor cells are highly sensitive to light and are most active in low light conditions. They are concentrated in the outer edges of the retina and are responsible for peripheral vision. Rods do not perceive color but provide black and white vision in low light situations. Cones, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and are more active in well-lit conditions. The anterior and posterior portions of the iris are not directly involved in the process of viewing dimly lit images.

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62. Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?

Explanation

MAJCOM, which stands for Major Command, is responsible for approving or disapproving an Authorization Change Request. Major Commands are the highest level of command in the United States Air Force and have authority over multiple wings and units. They have the necessary oversight and decision-making power to review and make determinations on authorization change requests.

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63. Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?

Explanation

Odors are described as belonging to seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them.

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64. What part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus and inferior meatus make up?

Explanation

The superior meatus, middle meatus, and inferior meatus make up the nasal conchae. The nasal conchae are bony structures located on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. They help to increase the surface area of the nasal cavity, creating turbulence in the airflow and promoting the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air.

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65. What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is classified as voluntary because it is under conscious control, meaning we can choose to move or contract these muscles. Additionally, skeletal muscle is striated, which means it has a striped or banded appearance under a microscope. This is due to the organized arrangement of the proteins actin and myosin within the muscle fibers.

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66. When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine is accomplished?

Explanation

When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine that is accomplished is competency. Competency refers to the ability to effectively apply one's knowledge, skills, and abilities in a specific field or profession. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service, competency ensures that medical professionals are well-trained and capable of providing high-quality healthcare and support to service members. By combining their expertise and technological know-how, these professionals can demonstrate their competency in delivering effective medical services.

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67. Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?

Explanation

The Master Training Plan would contain the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area. This plan serves as a comprehensive guide that outlines the necessary training and development activities for individuals within a specific area. It helps ensure that enlisted members receive the appropriate training to meet their goals and perform their tasks effectively. The Individual Training Record, AF Form 1098, and AF Form 797 may contain specific training information, but they do not provide the comprehensive outline of training goals and milestones that the Master Training Plan does.

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68. When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the...

Explanation

The correct answer is "apprentice to the journeyman." This is because the trainee is described as being focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills, and beginning to practice leadership and management skills. This indicates that the trainee has already acquired basic knowledge and skills (novice level) and is now progressing to a higher level of expertise and competence (journeyman level).

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69. What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?

Explanation

The primary source for recording equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing. This form is used to document temporary issues of equipment and any actions taken by the custodian or custodial report listing. It provides a record of the equipment repair process and helps to track the maintenance and repair history of the equipment. The other options, such as the activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report, may provide additional information but are not specifically designed for recording equipment repair.

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70. Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Records used when providing medical care?

Explanation

The DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Records is used when providing medical care because it eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document. This form serves as a blanket statement that informs the patient about their rights and privacy protections under the Privacy Act. By signing this form, the patient acknowledges their understanding of these protections, thereby eliminating the need for separate privacy act statements for each individual document.

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71. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, use...

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD Regulation 6025.18-R. This regulation provides general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). It outlines the policies and procedures that the Department of Defense (DOD) must follow to ensure the privacy and security of individuals' health information. It covers topics such as the use and disclosure of protected health information, individual rights, and the enforcement of HIPAA regulations within the DOD. This regulation is specific to the DOD and provides the necessary information for compliance with HIPAA in a military context.

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72. You would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm of a cell?

Explanation

The nucleus is not found in the cytoplasm of a cell. The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle that contains the cell's genetic material and is responsible for controlling the cell's activities. It is typically located in the center of the cell and is surrounded by the cytoplasm. The other components mentioned - centrosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum - are all found in the cytoplasm and play important roles in various cellular processes.

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73. What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?

Explanation

Tendons attach skeletal muscles to the bone. They are strong, fibrous connective tissues that transmit the force generated by the muscle to the bone, allowing movement and stability. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bone to bone and provide stability to joints. Aponeuroses are sheet-like tendons that attach muscles to other muscles or to structures such as the skull. Visceral muscles are found in the internal organs and do not attach to bones.

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74. The valve that leads from the right atrium the right ventricle is the...

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is the valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle in the heart. It consists of three cusps or leaflets that open and close to regulate the flow of blood from the atrium to the ventricle. When the atrium contracts, the tricuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow into the ventricle. When the ventricle contracts, the valve closes to prevent backflow of blood into the atrium.

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75. What is the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

Explanation

The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called the mitral valve. It is also known as the bicuspid valve because it consists of two flaps or cusps. The mitral valve ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the left atrium to the left ventricle, preventing any backflow. It plays a crucial role in maintaining proper blood circulation within the heart. The other options listed (aortic, tricuspid, and pulmonary) are valves found in different areas of the heart and serve different functions.

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76. Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?

Explanation

The Aerospace medical service journeyman is typically the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and provides a significant amount of care under the guidance of a physician. This role involves a range of medical duties, including patient care, monitoring vital signs, and assisting in medical procedures. The journeyman operates under the supervision of a physician and plays a crucial role in the delivery of healthcare services in various settings, particularly in military environments.

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77. During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?

Explanation

During the depression stage of the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because during this stage, the individual may be experiencing intense sadness, despair, and a sense of emptiness. By giving them the space to express their feelings and share their thoughts, it can provide them with a sense of relief and validation. It also allows them to process their emotions and gradually move towards acceptance and healing.

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78. At what age are children required to have their own ID cards?

Explanation

Children are required to have their own ID cards at the age of ten. This is likely because at this age, children are considered old enough to start taking on more responsibilities and independence. Having their own ID cards can help ensure their safety and security, as well as facilitate identification and verification processes when necessary. It also allows them to participate in certain activities that may require identification, such as traveling alone or accessing certain facilities.

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79. Which muscle is attached to the eyelid?

Explanation

The muscle attached to the eyelid is the levator palpebrae superioris. This muscle is responsible for raising the upper eyelid, allowing for opening and closing of the eye. It is located in the upper eyelid and connects to the tarsal plate, which supports the eyelid. When the levator palpebrae superioris contracts, it lifts the eyelid, allowing for better vision and protection of the eye.

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80. Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the...

Explanation

The aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris. The iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil, which regulates the amount of light that enters the eye. The aqueous humor helps maintain the shape of the eye and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens. It also helps in the circulation of fluid within the eye, contributing to the overall health and function of the eye.

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81. How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?

Explanation

Activities are grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System based on the type of activity and the section it belongs to. This grouping allows for better organization and analysis of data, as it helps to categorize and track different types of activities within specific sections. By grouping activities based on type and section, it becomes easier to identify patterns, trends, and performance metrics related to specific areas of medical expenses.

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82. Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least...

Explanation

Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF quarterly. This means that the information is updated and sent to the Military Treatment Facility (MTF) every three months. This frequency allows for regular updates and ensures that the MTF has the most current enrollment information for its beneficiaries.

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83. In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Specialty Training Standard?

Explanation

The Specialty Training Standard can be located in the second part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan.

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84. Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience identifier?

Explanation

An Aeromedical Evacuation Technician is identified by a Special Experience identifier.

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85. Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?

Explanation

DD Form 2005 is used to inform the patient about the purpose and uses of the information collected in their medical record. This form is specifically designed to provide patients with clear and concise information regarding the collection, storage, and sharing of their medical information. It ensures that patients are fully informed and aware of how their personal health information will be used and protected.

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86. When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics?

Explanation

DEERS, which stands for Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System, is the correct answer because it is the information system used to capture, edit, and maintain sponsor/family demographics. DEERS is a comprehensive database that stores information about military personnel, their dependents, and other eligible individuals. It is used by the Department of Defense to determine eligibility for military benefits and healthcare services. Therefore, when confirming a patient's information, healthcare professionals would rely on DEERS to access and update sponsor/family demographics.

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87. Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibility for follow-up care?

Explanation

Before managed care, the responsibility for follow-up care was shouldered by the patient. This means that it was the patient's responsibility to schedule and attend any necessary follow-up appointments or treatments after receiving initial care. This could include follow-up visits with healthcare providers, medication management, and adherence to any recommended lifestyle changes or self-care instructions.

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88. Where are nerve and blood vessels contained in the bone?

Explanation

The nerve and blood vessels are contained in the medullary cavity of the bone. The medullary cavity is the central cavity within the long bones, such as the femur or humerus, and it is filled with bone marrow. This cavity provides a space for the storage and production of blood cells, as well as a passage for nerves and blood vessels to travel through the bone.

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89. How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?

Explanation

The 4N0XX Job Inventory is normally completed every three years. This suggests that there is a specific timeframe within which this inventory needs to be conducted. Completing the inventory every three years allows for regular assessment and evaluation of the job positions within the 4N0XX career field. This timeframe ensures that any changes or updates in job requirements, responsibilities, or qualifications can be identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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90. If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for you to use?

Explanation

If you are working in CHCS (Composite Health Care System), the function that would not be available for you to use is outpatient coding. CHCS is a comprehensive health care system that is primarily used by the Department of Defense (DoD) to manage and track patient information. Outpatient coding involves assigning specific codes to medical procedures and services provided to patients in an outpatient setting. However, since CHCS is primarily used within the military health care system, outpatient coding may not be a function that is necessary or available within this specific system.

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91. Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the...

Explanation

The cochlea is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. When the stapes, one of the three small bones in the middle ear, moves, it causes the fluid within the cochlea to move as well. This movement of fluid stimulates the hair cells in the organ of Corti, which are responsible for converting the fluid movement into electrical signals. Therefore, the correct answer is cochlea.

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92. How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?

Explanation

The Career Field Education and Training Plan is made up of two parts.

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93. A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?

Explanation

The term "axis of joint rotation" refers to a line that is perpendicular to the plane of motion. This line represents the axis around which a joint rotates during movement. It is important in understanding the mechanics of joint movement and can help determine the range of motion and direction of movement for a particular joint.

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94. What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?

Explanation

Sesamoid bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied. These small, round bones act as pulleys, providing a smooth surface for tendons to glide over, reducing friction and increasing the efficiency of movement. They are commonly found in areas such as the hands, feet, and knees, where tendons experience significant pressure and strain.

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95. On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard?

Explanation

AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS, is the appropriate form to document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard. This form is used to document additional qualifications or tasks that are required for a specific duty position but are not covered in the standard training. It allows for the documentation of specialized training or certifications that are specific to the individual's job requirements.

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96. What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Activity issue/turn-in summary". This report is generated through DMLSS and it lists information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a specific section. It provides a summary of the activity related to the issuance and return of supplies and equipment, allowing for better tracking and management of inventory.

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97. What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?

Explanation

The correct answer, STS, refers to Special Technical Specialty. In the context of the 4N0X1 career field, STS is used to define the specific scope of practice. This suggests that there are certain technical specialties within the career field that have specific roles and responsibilities. The acronym UMD, MTF, and UPMR are not explained in the question, so it is unclear how they relate to the scope of practice in the 4N0X1 career field.

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98. When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?

Explanation

The AF Form 601 may be destroyed when the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. This suggests that the form is used to keep track of items that are being ordered or removed from the Controlled Repairable List (CRL). Once the item is successfully added to or removed from the CRL, there may no longer be a need to retain the form, hence it can be destroyed.

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99. Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing?

Explanation

Anaphase is the correct answer because it is the phase of mitosis where the sister chromatids, which are duplicated copies of DNA, separate and move to opposite ends of the cell. This division of the sister chromatids signifies that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing. In contrast, during prophase, the chromosomes condense but do not separate, telophase is the final phase where the nuclear envelope reforms, and metaphase is the phase where the chromosomes align in the middle of the cell.

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100. Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?

Explanation

Bone ends would have very little compact bone because they are primarily composed of spongy bone. Spongy bone has a lattice-like structure with open spaces filled with bone marrow. It is lighter and less dense than compact bone, making it more suitable for providing support and flexibility at the ends of bones. In contrast, compact bone is found in the shafts of long bones and forms a dense outer layer, providing strength and protection. Therefore, bone ends would have a higher proportion of spongy bone and less compact bone.

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101. Which of the following is the primary guite used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish the mission?

Explanation

AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission. This guide specifically focuses on health services, which is a critical aspect of the Air Force Medical Service. It provides commanders with the necessary information and strategies to effectively manage and provide healthcare services to Air Force personnel. By following the guidelines outlined in AFDD 2-4.2, commanders can ensure the delivery of high-quality healthcare and support the overall mission of the Air Force.

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102. If you are trying to determine the depolyment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS optimization?

Explanation

AHLTA is the correct answer because it is a system that supports Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS optimization. AHLTA stands for the Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application and it is a comprehensive electronic health record system used by the military. It allows for the tracking and management of health information for individual service members, as well as population health monitoring and analysis. AHLTA is an essential tool for determining the deployment status of a unit as it provides a centralized and up-to-date record of the health status of military personnel.

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103. In what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow until it divided again?

Explanation

Interphase is the correct answer because it is the longest phase in the cell cycle where the cell grows and carries out its normal functions. During interphase, the cell undergoes growth and DNA replication in preparation for cell division. It is the phase where the cell continues to grow until it divides again during the subsequent phases of the cell cycle, such as mitosis. Metabolism and cell differentiation are not specific phases in the cell cycle, and mitosis is the phase where the cell actually divides.

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104. Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card be filed in the Individual Training Record?

Explanation

The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card would be filed in Part 6, Section B of the Individual Training Record.

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105. Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?

Explanation

Being punctual is not a habit of successful PCM teams because it is a basic expectation and responsibility of any team member, regardless of their level of success. Successful teams go beyond punctuality and focus on being proactive, managing a panel, and communicating effectively to achieve their goals. Punctuality is important, but it is not a defining characteristic of a successful team.

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106. Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?

Explanation

The middle meatus is a nasal air passageway located in the middle of the nasal cavity. It is one of three meatuses, along with the superior and inferior meatuses, that help to direct the flow of air in the nasal passages. The middle meatus is important for the drainage of mucus from the sinuses and contains openings for the maxillary, frontal, and anterior ethmoid sinuses. It also houses the middle nasal concha, which helps to warm, humidify, and filter the air before it reaches the lungs.

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107. The auditory ossicles are located in the...

Explanation

The auditory ossicles are a group of three small bones (malleus, incus, and stapes) located in the middle ear. They play a crucial role in transmitting sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The middle ear is the space between the eardrum and the inner ear, where these ossicles are situated. They amplify and transmit sound waves, allowing us to perceive and interpret sounds. Therefore, the correct answer is middle ear.

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108. Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?

Explanation

Manpower Authorization is the correct answer because it refers to a funded manpower requirement that clearly defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristic needed. It specifies the number of personnel required for a particular position and ensures that the necessary resources are allocated to meet the organization's needs.

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109. The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the...

Explanation

The correct answer is Stratum spinosum. The stratum spinosum is the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer, the stratum basale. It is located above the stratum basale and below the stratum granulosum. The stratum spinosum is responsible for providing strength and support to the skin, as well as playing a role in the immune response. It contains several layers of keratinocytes, which are cells that produce the protein keratin, and desmosomes, which are structures that help hold the cells together.

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110. Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?

Explanation

The nurse is responsible for analyzing the performance and health status of patients in a primary care setting. They are trained to assess and monitor patients' conditions, administer treatments, and provide ongoing care. Nurses play a crucial role in coordinating and managing the overall healthcare of individuals, making them the primary care management team member responsible for analyzing performance and health status.

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111. What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

Explanation

MEPRS stands for Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. It is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. MEPRS provides detailed information on the cost and utilization of medical resources, allowing organizations to effectively allocate their resources and make informed decisions regarding manpower and budget.

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112. The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the...

Explanation

The perimysium is the correct answer because it is the connective tissue layer that surrounds and separates individual bundles of muscle fibers, called fascicles. It lies just below the epimysium, which is the connective tissue layer that surrounds the entire muscle. The perimysium provides support and protection to the fascicles, and also contains blood vessels and nerves that supply the muscle fibers within each fascicle.

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113. What type of joint connects the sternum and the first rib?

Explanation

A synchondrosis is a type of joint that connects bones with hyaline cartilage. In this case, the joint connecting the sternum and the first rib is a synchondrosis. This type of joint allows for limited movement and provides stability to the area.

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114. The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the...

Explanation

The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tubules within the cell that is responsible for transporting molecules. It plays a crucial role in protein synthesis, lipid metabolism, and detoxification. The other options, such as vesicle, ribosome, and golgi apparatus, are all involved in different cellular processes but do not specifically function as a network of tubules for molecule movement like the endoplasmic reticulum does.

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115. What are patient responsibilities designed to do?

Explanation

Patient responsibilities are designed to ensure the safety and well-being of not only the patient themselves but also other patients and healthcare workers. By following these responsibilities, patients can help prevent the spread of infections and diseases, maintain a clean and safe environment, and contribute to the overall quality of care provided to everyone involved. This includes actions such as practicing good hygiene, adhering to treatment plans, communicating openly with healthcare professionals, and respecting the rights and needs of others. By fulfilling these responsibilities, patients play a vital role in protecting the health and safety of everyone in the healthcare setting.

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116. What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?

Explanation

UMPR stands for Unit Manning Personnel Report. This tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center. It provides a comprehensive overview of the personnel assigned to a specific unit or work center, including their names, positions, and contact information. By using UMPR, supervisors and managers can easily track and manage the personnel assigned to their work center, ensuring that the right individuals are in the right positions and that the work center is properly staffed.

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117. What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and the fibula?

Explanation

A syndesmosis joint is a type of joint that connects two bones with a fibrous ligament, allowing for limited movement. In this case, the syndesmosis joint joins the distal end of the tibia and the fibula. This type of joint is characterized by its stability and strength, as the fibrous ligament holds the bones firmly together.

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118. Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained, and discipline of supply use?

Explanation

The designated individual responsible for ensuring adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, maintaining records, and disciplining supply use is the commanders. Commanders have the authority and responsibility to oversee and manage all aspects of their unit's operations, including the storage and management of medical supplies and equipment. They are accountable for ensuring that proper storage protocols are followed, records are maintained accurately, and discipline is enforced to ensure efficient and effective use of supplies.

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119. The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?

Explanation

The correct answer is four because the ICD-9, which stands for International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, is divided into four sections. These sections are: 1) Infectious and Parasitic Diseases, 2) Neoplasms (tumors), 3) Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming Organs, and 4) Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases. Each section focuses on a specific category of diseases and conditions, allowing for easier organization and classification of medical information.

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120. Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System?

Explanation

MPF, which stands for Military Personnel Flight, is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS). MPF is responsible for maintaining personnel records and ensuring that individuals meet the eligibility requirements for medical care within the military healthcare system. They play a crucial role in verifying and updating the information in DEERS, which determines an individual's eligibility for medical benefits.

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121. Which of the following defines fidelity?

Explanation

Fidelity is defined as acting in a responsible manner. This means being reliable, trustworthy, and accountable for one's actions. It involves fulfilling one's obligations and commitments, being loyal and dedicated to a cause or relationship, and maintaining integrity and honesty. Acting in a responsible manner requires making ethical decisions and considering the consequences of one's actions. It also involves being conscientious and diligent in carrying out tasks and responsibilities. Fidelity is an important value in various contexts, such as professional ethics, personal relationships, and societal interactions.

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122. The epimysium is located beneath the...

Explanation

The epimysium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. It is the outermost layer and provides protection and support to the muscle. The fascia, on the other hand, is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscles, groups of muscles, and other structures. It is located outside the epimysium and serves to separate and compartmentalize different muscle groups. Therefore, the correct answer is fascia.

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123. What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?

Explanation

When conducting in-service training, it is important to confirm whether the commander will be attending. This is because the presence of the commander can have a significant impact on the training session. The commander's attendance can demonstrate their support and commitment to the training, which can motivate and encourage other participants. Additionally, the commander's presence can also provide an opportunity for them to observe and assess the training, ensuring that it aligns with the goals and objectives of the organization.

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124. Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?

Explanation

The Career Field Manager (CFM) is responsible for managing the enlisted force structure within a specific career field. They have the authority to request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory to assess the tasks and responsibilities of 4N0X1 personnel and ensure the classification accurately reflects the work being performed.

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While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and...
It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure...
When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the...
You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of...
What is the purpose of documenting training?
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30...
What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical...
Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a...
What nerve is the pathway to vision?
What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the...
By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor...
What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is...
Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that...
Pigmentation is attributed to...
Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer...
Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective...
Who is considered the patient advocate?
How should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider...
When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must...
If a patient has an emrgency and you do not know if they are eligible...
What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?
Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of...
Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and...
Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having...
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local...
How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial?
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the...
What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?
Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following...
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?
The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell...
What substance does a melanocyte produce?
The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between...
Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian...
What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies...
What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord?
What type of tissue can change its shape?
The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the...
What fluid acts as joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for...
Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a...
You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for...
What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?
What four components make up the PCM team?
With which of the following is not one of the three Foundational...
What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?
What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?
Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to...
Which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and...
Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
What type of doctine guides organization and emplayment of forces...
What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career...
When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from...
What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are...
When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on...
What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins...
How is doctrine applied?
How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?
When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility,...
What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit...
Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?
Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?
What part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus...
What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological...
Where would you find the specific outline of training goals,...
When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily...
What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Records...
For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and...
You would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm...
What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?
The valve that leads from the right atrium the right ventricle is...
What is the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with...
During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to...
At what age are children required to have their own ID cards?
Which muscle is attached to the eyelid?
Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the...
How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance...
Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least...
In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you...
Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience...
Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of...
When confirming a patient's information, which of the following...
Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibility for follow-up...
Where are nerve and blood vessels contained in the bone?
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for...
Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the...
How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best...
What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is...
On what form would you document specific duty position training that...
What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and...
What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career...
When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?
Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is...
Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?
Which of the following is the primary guite used by Air Force Medical...
If you are trying to determine the depolyment status of a unit, what...
In what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow...
Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians...
Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?
Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?
The auditory ossicles are located in the...
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines...
The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the...
Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of...
What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and...
The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the...
What type of joint connects the sternum and the first rib?
The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the...
What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and the fibula?
Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure...
The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?
Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's...
Which of the following defines fidelity?
The epimysium is located beneath the...
What is a key point that should be considered when conducting...
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
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