Air Force Medical Service 4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Wigginsjrw
W
Wigginsjrw
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 438
| Attempts: 438 | Questions: 124
Please wait...
Question 1 / 124
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

Explanation

Every Airman is responsible for maintaining their own individual health and fitness. While commanders have overall responsibility for the well-being of their personnel, it is ultimately up to each individual Airman to take care of their own health and fitness. This includes staying physically active, eating a balanced diet, and seeking medical attention when needed. By taking personal responsibility for their health and fitness, Airmen can contribute to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Healthcare Quizzes & Trivia

This practice test for Air Force Medical Service 4N051 CDC Set A focuses on the application of medical doctrine. It assesses understanding of doctrine types and guides commanders... see moreon asset utilization. It's essential for those in Air Force medical command roles. see less

2. What is the purpose of documenting training?

Explanation

The purpose of documenting training is to keep a record of an individual's capability, scope of practice, and strengths and weaknesses. This documentation helps in assessing and evaluating the skills and knowledge of the personnel, which can be used for various purposes such as performance reviews, career development, and identifying areas for improvement. It also serves as evidence of training completion and compliance with regulatory requirements.

Submit
3. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?

Explanation

To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, so they would have the most up-to-date knowledge on procedures and policies related to equipment issues. District sales and maintenance representatives may have information on equipment sales and general maintenance, but may not have the specific expertise needed for troubleshooting and repairs. Base supply and equipment maintenance may have some information, but it is likely more focused on general maintenance rather than specific procedures. The original equipment manufacturer may also have information, but the biomedical equipment repair technician would be more accessible and knowledgeable in most cases.

Submit
4. When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

Explanation

If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is a crucial part of healthcare as it provides a record of the care provided to the patient. Without proper documentation, it is difficult to track the progress of the patient's treatment, ensure follow-up care, identify any complications that may have occurred, or determine the outcome of the treatment. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was carried out.

Submit
5. What nerve is the pathway to vision?

Explanation

The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret the images we see.

Submit
6. Pigmentation is attributed to...

Explanation

Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It protects the skin from harmful UV radiation and helps in determining our skin tone. Melanin production can be influenced by various factors such as genetics, exposure to sunlight, and hormonal changes. Dermal cells, subcutaneous cells, and sebaceous gland secretions do not directly contribute to pigmentation.

Submit
7. Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

Explanation

Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility is not limited to any specific rank or position, but rather applies to all individuals within the Air Force.

Submit
8. What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

Explanation

The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This implies that the custodian should communicate with the MEMO (presumably a system or department responsible for managing orders) to request the cancellation of the order for the item that is no longer needed.

Submit
9. What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

Explanation

Customer service surveys in a medical treatment facility serve the purpose of collecting feedback from patients. These surveys allow the facility to understand the patients' experiences, satisfaction levels, and areas for improvement. By analyzing the feedback, the facility can identify ways to enhance their services and provide better care to their patients. This helps in improving patient satisfaction and overall quality of care provided by the facility.

Submit
10. Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

Explanation

Remaining honest and in control helps to decrease a patient's anxiety because it creates a sense of trust and security. Patients often feel stressed and anxious when they are unsure about their condition or treatment. By being honest and transparent, healthcare providers can provide reassurance and alleviate the patient's fears. Additionally, remaining in control and composed helps to create a calming environment, which can further reduce the patient's stress levels.

Submit
11. When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do?

Explanation

Each member of the PCM team must contribute at their highest level of scope of practice. This means that they should utilize their skills, knowledge, and expertise to the fullest extent in order to achieve the team goal. This ensures that each team member is actively participating and making a valuable contribution based on their specific role and responsibilities within the team. By doing so, the team can effectively work together and maximize their collective efforts to achieve success.

Submit
12. You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of your patients', Mrs. Jones, room.  What would it mean for Mrs. Jones if the doctor's orders are written as NPO?

Explanation

If the doctor's orders are written as NPO, it would mean that Mrs. Jones is not allowed to have anything to eat or drink.

Submit
13. The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as...

Explanation

Cell differentiation is the correct answer because it refers to the complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics. During cell differentiation, cells become specialized and acquire specific structures and functions that allow them to carry out specific tasks in the body. This process is crucial for the development and maintenance of multicellular organisms, as it ensures that different cell types can perform their specialized functions efficiently.

Submit
14. What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

Explanation

The triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint is called the patella. It is commonly known as the kneecap and acts as a protective covering for the knee joint. The patella plays an important role in the extension of the leg and provides leverage to the thigh muscles.

Submit
15. By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likeyly to prevent?

Explanation

By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel understand the safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.

Submit
16. What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

Explanation

If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This is because MEMO personnel are responsible for managing and tracking orders, so they would have the necessary information to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order or complaining to the commander may be premature actions without first verifying the status of the order. Waiting another 15 days may further delay the resolution of the issue, so it is best to involve the appropriate personnel as soon as possible.

Submit
17. Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

Explanation

Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is responsible for ensuring the safety, privacy, and comfort of the patient during the examination or treatment. They provide support and act as a witness to prevent any potential misconduct or inappropriate behavior. Their presence helps maintain professionalism and protects both the provider and the patient.

Submit
18. Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?

Explanation

Developing excellent customer service is important for the 4N0XX because it can positively influence the patient's visit. By providing exceptional customer service, the 4N0XX can create a positive and welcoming environment for patients, which can contribute to their overall satisfaction and experience. This can lead to better patient outcomes, increased patient loyalty, and improved reputation for the organization. Additionally, satisfied patients are more likely to comply with medical advice and treatment plans, ultimately benefiting their health and well-being.

Submit
19. Who is considered the patient advocate?

Explanation

Every staff member is considered the patient advocate because in a healthcare setting, all staff members have a responsibility to advocate for the best interests and well-being of the patients. This includes not only the clinic representative, officer-in-charge, and facility representative, but also nurses, doctors, technicians, and other healthcare professionals. Each staff member plays a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive the highest quality of care and their rights are protected.

Submit
20. Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services?

Explanation

The patient advocate is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services. They are trained to assist and support patients in navigating the healthcare system, ensuring that their needs and concerns are addressed. They can provide information, clarify procedures, and advocate for the patient's rights and preferences.

Submit
21. How should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider is he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?

Explanation

When the provider is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold, the best course of action is to take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity. This ensures that the provider receives the message and can address it when they are available. Informing the caller that the doctor is busy or not taking calls during appointment hours may not be helpful as it does not provide a solution or alternative. Knocking on the door and informing the physician about the call may disrupt the ongoing patient consultation.

Submit
22. What four components make up the PCM team?

Explanation

The PCM team consists of a provider, a nurse, a medical technician, and a health services management technician. These four components work together to provide comprehensive healthcare services to patients. The provider is responsible for diagnosing and treating patients, while the nurse assists with patient care and medication administration. The medical technician performs various medical tests and procedures, and the health services management technician handles administrative tasks and ensures smooth operations within the healthcare facility.

Submit
23. It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure...

Explanation

A health care team needs to work in harmony in order to provide the best care to their customers. When team members work well together, they can effectively communicate and collaborate, leading to better patient outcomes. By working in harmony, the team can ensure that they are providing the highest level of care and meeting the needs of their customers. This includes coordinating treatments, sharing information, and supporting each other in delivering quality care. Ultimately, the goal is to prioritize the well-being and satisfaction of the patients, which can only be achieved through a cohesive and harmonious team effort.

Submit
24. What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?

Explanation

70 percent of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This means that the majority of malfunctions in medical equipment are caused by mistakes or errors made by the operator, rather than any inherent issues with the equipment itself. This highlights the importance of proper training and education for medical professionals to minimize errors and improve patient safety.

Submit
25. Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must...

Explanation

Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is important to ensure that all equipment is present, accounted for, and in good working condition. By conducting a physical inventory, the custodian can compare the actual equipment with the records and identify any discrepancies or missing items. This helps in maintaining accurate records, preventing loss or theft of equipment, and ensuring that the equipment is ready for use when needed.

Submit
26. Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?

Explanation

Talking too much can be considered a barrier to effective communication because it can prevent others from expressing their thoughts and ideas. When one person dominates a conversation by talking excessively, it can hinder the exchange of information and create a one-sided communication dynamic. This can lead to misunderstandings, lack of engagement, and a breakdown in effective communication. It is important to strike a balance and allow for active listening and participation from all parties involved in order to have effective communication.

Submit
27. If a patient has an emrgency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, you should...

Explanation

If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, it is important to prioritize their immediate medical needs. Providing the patient with care first ensures that their health and safety are addressed promptly. Once the patient's condition stabilizes, you can then proceed to determine their eligibility for further treatment or coverage. This approach prioritizes the patient's well-being and ensures that necessary care is not delayed due to administrative processes.

Submit
28. What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

Explanation

Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets adhere to the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clotting process is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes do not play a direct role in clotting.

Submit
29. Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

Explanation

Tactical Doctrine refers to the ability to choose specific qualities to fit individual needs. A car buyer best exemplifies this because they have the freedom to select a car with specific qualities such as speed or safety factors that align with their personal preferences and requirements. This choice allows them to tailor their purchase to their individual needs, making them the best example of Tactical Doctrine.

Submit
30. What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?

Explanation

The figure in an Air Force Specialty Code that identifies career grouping is "First." This suggests that the first figure in the code represents the career grouping of the individual within the Air Force.

Submit
31. Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey. This implies that the supervisor is in charge of overseeing and ensuring that the survey is completed. The other options, such as the commander, 3-level, and 5-level, do not have the same level of responsibility or authority as the supervisor in this context.

Submit
32. Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health cre worker and clarifying the reason for the appoinment or hospitalization?

Explanation

The introductory phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization. This phase is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire patient-provider relationship and helps establish trust and understanding between the two parties. It involves gathering important information about the patient's medical history, current symptoms, and concerns, and introducing the healthcare worker's role and responsibilities. This phase is essential for effective communication and collaboration throughout the patient's healthcare journey.

Submit
33. What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program is to provide an unbiased third party. This means that the program aims to have someone who is not directly involved in the patient's care or the healthcare system to act as an advocate for the patient. This unbiased third party can help ensure that the patient's needs and concerns are heard and addressed, and can provide support and guidance throughout the healthcare process.

Submit
34. How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial?

Explanation

The term "anatomical lateral position" refers to a position that is away from the midline of the body or body part. This means that it is located on the outer side or away from the center. On the other hand, the term "medial" refers to a position that is towards the midline of the body or body part. It is located on the inner side or closer to the center. Therefore, the anatomical lateral position differs from the term medial by indicating a position that is away from the midline, while medial indicates a position that is towards the midline.

Submit
35. What substance does a melanocyte produce?

Explanation

Melanocytes are specialized cells in the skin that produce a pigment called melanin. Melanin is responsible for determining the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It provides protection against the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun by absorbing and scattering the UV rays. Melanin also plays a role in the healing of wounds and acts as a natural defense mechanism against certain skin conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is Melanin.

Submit
36. How is doctrine applied?

Explanation

Doctrine is applied in an authoritative but not directive manner. This means that while doctrine carries weight and is considered to be authoritative, it does not provide specific instructions or directives on how to implement it. Instead, it serves as a guiding principle or framework that individuals or organizations can interpret and apply in a way that best suits their specific circumstances or needs. This allows for flexibility and adaptability while still maintaining the overall authority and importance of the doctrine.

Submit
37. What type of tissue can change its shape?

Explanation

Muscle tissue is capable of changing its shape due to its unique contractile properties. This tissue is made up of specialized cells called muscle fibers that can contract and relax, allowing for movement and shape change. This ability to change shape is essential for various physiological processes such as movement, maintaining posture, and organ function. Nervous tissue, epithelial tissue, and connective tissue do not possess the same contractile properties as muscle tissue and therefore cannot change shape in the same way.

Submit
38. Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act affect?

Explanation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone who handles patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also patients themselves who handle their own information. HIPAA sets guidelines and regulations to ensure the privacy and security of patient health information, and it applies to all individuals and organizations that handle this information, regardless of their specific role or position.

Submit
39. What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body?

Explanation

Ribosomes play an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body. They are responsible for protein synthesis, where they read the genetic information from the DNA and use it to assemble amino acids into proteins. Ribosomes can be found in the cytoplasm of the cell as well as on the rough endoplasmic reticulum, where they produce proteins that are either used within the cell or exported to other parts of the body. Therefore, ribosomes are essential for the functioning of cells and the overall functioning of the body.

Submit
40. Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

Explanation

Cardiac muscle tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both tissues have a striped or striated appearance due to the arrangement of protein filaments within the muscle cells. This striation is responsible for the coordinated contraction and relaxation of the muscle fibers, allowing them to generate force and movement. Unlike smooth muscle and epithelial tissue, which do not have a striated appearance, cardiac muscle shares this characteristic with skeletal muscle tissue.

Submit
41. How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?

Explanation

Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure that all equipment is functioning properly and to identify any potential issues or safety hazards. Daily inspections allow for immediate action to be taken if any problems are detected, minimizing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular inspections also help to maintain the longevity and efficiency of the equipment, ensuring that it remains in good working condition.

Submit
42. Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

Explanation

Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. In the medical field, there are various resources and assets available that need to be utilized effectively. Medical Doctrine provides a set of principles and guidelines that commanders can follow to make informed decisions about the allocation and utilization of these assets. It ensures that commanders have a systematic approach in managing medical resources, which ultimately leads to better patient care and overall operational effectiveness.

Submit
43. How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?

Explanation

The Career Field Education and Training Plan is comprised of two parts. This suggests that there are two distinct components or sections within the plan.

Submit
44. What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

Explanation

When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the three actions to remember are to inspect the equipment, remove it if necessary, and report any issues found. Inspecting the equipment helps to identify any visible discrepancies or defects. If any issues are found, the equipment should be removed to prevent further use or potential harm. Finally, reporting the discrepancies ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to address and resolve the issues.

Submit
45. Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

Explanation

Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the importance of avoiding harm or causing the least possible harm to others. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being and safety of their patients. This principle is closely related to the Hippocratic Oath, which includes the commitment to "do no harm." By adhering to nonmaleficence, healthcare providers strive to prevent harm and minimize any potential risks or negative outcomes for their patients.

Submit
46. Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?

Explanation

Patients who are treated without initial proof of eligibility are required to sign a statement stating that they will provide eligibility documentation within 30 days. This means that they have a month to gather and submit the necessary documentation to prove their eligibility for the treatment they received. This allows the healthcare provider to continue providing the necessary care while ensuring that the patient provides the required documentation within a reasonable timeframe.

Submit
47. What fluid acts as joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartialge within the joint?

Explanation

Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the moving parts of the joint, allowing smooth and pain-free movement. Additionally, synovial fluid provides essential nutrients and oxygen to the cartilage, helping to maintain its health and function.

Submit
48. When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?

Explanation

The AETC Form 156, Student Training Report may be removed from the Individual Training Record when the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This suggests that once the Airman has reached a certain level of skill and proficiency in their training, the need for the training report is no longer necessary and can be removed from their record.

Submit
49. When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, you should...

Explanation

When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, it is important to have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment. This is because the eligibility of the patient should not be the main concern when it comes to providing medical care. The priority should be to assess the patient's medical condition and determine the level of risk involved. By having a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment, the patient can receive the necessary care while ensuring that their medical needs are addressed appropriately.

Submit
50. You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye.  How should you document this information correctly?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye" because it accurately describes the patient's complaint and specifies that the blurred vision is occurring in the right eye. This documentation is important for the provider to understand the patient's symptoms and determine the appropriate course of action.

Submit
51. What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord?

Explanation

The correct answer is nervous because the spinal cord is a part of the nervous system. It is made up of nervous tissue, which consists of specialized cells called neurons. These neurons transmit signals throughout the body, allowing for communication between the brain and the rest of the body. The spinal cord plays a crucial role in relaying sensory information and coordinating motor responses, making it an integral part of the nervous system.

Submit
52. What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?

Explanation

The substance secreted by the sebaceous gland is called sebum. Sebum is an oily, waxy substance that helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair. It is produced by the sebaceous glands, which are located in the dermis layer of the skin. Sebum helps to keep the skin moisturized and protects it from drying out. It also helps to prevent the hair from becoming dry and brittle. Overall, sebum plays an important role in maintaining the health and integrity of the skin and hair.

Submit
53. What is the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

Explanation

The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called the mitral valve. It is also known as the bicuspid valve due to its two leaflets. This valve prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during ventricular contraction, ensuring that blood flows in one direction, from the atrium to the ventricle. The mitral valve plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the heart by regulating blood flow between these two chambers.

Submit
54. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the...

Explanation

Diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions. During this phase, the heart relaxes and fills with blood, allowing the blood to flow through the arteries. Diastolic blood pressure is an important measure of the health of the cardiovascular system, as it indicates the pressure exerted on the arteries when they are not being actively pumped by the heart. It is typically represented by the bottom number in a blood pressure reading and is an essential component in determining overall blood pressure levels.

Submit
55. Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?

Explanation

MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. MAJCOM is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping the forces under its command. In the context of the question, MAJCOM would have the authority to approve or disapprove an Authorization Change Request. The other options, USAFMS, Squadron commander, and Medical group commander, do not have the same level of authority as MAJCOM in approving or disapproving such requests.

Submit
56. Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?

Explanation

Giving medical advice over the telephone can be problematic for several reasons. Firstly, without physically examining the patient, it is difficult to accurately diagnose their condition. This can lead to inaccurate self-treatment, potentially worsening the situation. Additionally, providing medical advice without proper qualifications and licensing can be legally risky. Only doctors, who have the necessary training and expertise, are legally allowed to give medical advice over the telephone. Therefore, technicians should not give medical advice over the phone to ensure the safety and well-being of the patients.

Submit
57. The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the...

Explanation

The lunula is the white area at the base of the nail plate. It is a visible, crescent-shaped structure that is located near the root of the nail. The nail plate grows outward from this area, and the lunula is often considered to be the "growing part" of the nail. It is composed of cells that are actively dividing and producing new nail material, which then pushes the older cells forward, causing the nail to lengthen. Therefore, the lunula is the correct answer as it accurately describes the white area at the base of the nail where the nail plate grows from.

Submit
58. What type of doctine guides organization and emplayment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

Explanation

Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. This type of doctrine focuses on the overall strategy and planning of military operations, providing guidance on how to achieve specific objectives in a given operational environment. It helps commanders make decisions on the allocation of resources and the coordination of forces to ensure successful mission execution. Operational doctrine is essential for effective military operations and ensures that forces are aligned and coordinated to achieve desired outcomes.

Submit
59. Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience identifier?

Explanation

Aeromedical Evacuation Technicians are identified by a Special Experience identifier because they have specialized training and experience in providing medical care and transportation for patients during aeromedical evacuations. They are responsible for ensuring the safe and efficient transfer of patients from one medical facility to another, often in a military or emergency setting. This requires knowledge and skills in areas such as patient assessment, emergency medical procedures, and the operation of medical equipment in transport vehicles.

Submit
60. When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?

Explanation

A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that they have acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed on the document. It is a formal process that signifies the transfer of accountability to the new custodian.

Submit
61. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?

Explanation

The abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified" when used in ICD-9. This term is used to categorize medical conditions or procedures that do not fit into any other specific category within the coding system. It is a way to identify and code for conditions that may not have a specific code assigned to them.

Submit
62. You would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm of a cell?

Explanation

The nucleus is not found in the cytoplasm of a cell. It is a separate organelle that is enclosed by a nuclear membrane and contains the cell's genetic material, such as DNA. The cytoplasm, on the other hand, refers to the fluid-like substance that fills the cell and contains various organelles, including the centrosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum.

Submit
63. Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?

Explanation

Odors are described as belonging to seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them. This means that there are seven main categories or groups that odors can be classified into. Additionally, odors can also be a combination of two or more of these primary odors. Therefore, the correct answer is that odors belong to seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them.

Submit
64. What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

Explanation

Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they generate most of the cell's energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through a process called cellular respiration. This organelle contains enzymes and proteins that play a crucial role in breaking down nutrients and converting them into usable energy for the cell. Therefore, mitochondria are the primary source of cellular energy.

Submit
65. With which of the following is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statemtnes airmen should be familiar?

Explanation

The answer is "Use of Force" because the question asks for a statement that is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statements that airmen should be familiar with. The other three options, Competency, Force Health Protection, and Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service, are all examples of Foundational Doctrine statements that airmen should be familiar with.

Submit
66. In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Specialty Training Standard?

Explanation

The Specialty Training Standard can be found in the second part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan.

Submit
67. Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
68. What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Activity issue/turn-in summary". This report is generated through DMLSS and provides information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a specific section. It helps in tracking the movement of supplies and equipment within the organization and ensures proper accountability.

Submit
69. Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the...

Explanation

The aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris. The iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil and regulates the amount of light entering the eye. The aqueous humor helps maintain the shape of the eye, provides nutrients to the cornea and lens, and helps remove waste products. It also plays a role in maintaining the intraocular pressure, which is important for the health of the eye. The other options, such as the sclera, macula, and conjunctiva, do not fill the space between the cornea and the iris.

Submit
70. What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is classified as voluntary because it is under conscious control. This means that we can consciously choose to contract or relax these muscles. Additionally, skeletal muscle is striated, which means it has a striped appearance under a microscope. This is due to the arrangement of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle fibers.

Submit
71. When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the...

Explanation

The trainee is transitioning from being an apprentice to becoming a journeyman. This means that they have already acquired basic skills and knowledge in patient care and customer service, and are now starting to develop leadership and management skills. As a journeyman, they will continue to refine their skills and gain more experience in their field.

Submit
72. How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?

Explanation

Activities are grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System based on the type of activity and the section it belongs to. This grouping allows for better organization and analysis of data, as it helps to categorize and identify different types of activities within specific sections. By grouping activities based on type and section, it becomes easier to track and monitor performance, expenses, and other relevant information related to medical activities.

Submit
73. Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibility for follow-up care?

Explanation

Before managed care, the responsibility for follow-up care was shouldered by the patient. This means that it was the patient's responsibility to schedule and attend any necessary follow-up appointments or treatments after receiving initial care. This could include follow-up visits with healthcare providers, taking prescribed medications, or following specific instructions for recovery. Managed care systems have since been implemented to help coordinate and manage follow-up care more effectively, but prior to this, it was primarily the patient's responsibility to ensure their own continued care.

Submit
74. What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?

Explanation

Rods are photoreceptor cells in the retina that are responsible for vision in low light conditions. They are more sensitive to light than cones and are densely packed in the peripheral areas of the retina, which makes them ideal for viewing dimly lit images. Cones, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and function best in bright light. The anterior and posterior portions of the iris are not directly involved in the process of viewing dimly lit images.

Submit
75. Which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof?

Explanation

Sebaceous glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof. These glands are responsible for producing sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and moisturizes the skin and hair. Sebum helps to prevent the skin from drying out and keeps the hair from becoming brittle. It also forms a protective barrier on the skin's surface, preventing moisture loss and helping to make the skin waterproof.

Submit
76. What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?

Explanation

Tendons are the correct answer because they are tough, fibrous connective tissues that attach skeletal muscles to bones. They play a crucial role in transmitting the force generated by muscles to the bones, allowing for movement and stability. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bones to other bones and provide stability to joints. Aponeuroses are sheet-like tendons that attach muscles to other muscles or bones. Visceral muscles are found in the internal organs and are not involved in attaching skeletal muscles to bones.

Submit
77. When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine is accomplished?

Explanation

When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine that is accomplished is competency. Competency refers to the ability to perform tasks and duties effectively and efficiently, based on one's knowledge and skills. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service, competency is crucial for providing high-quality medical care and ensuring the well-being of service members. By combining professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how, individuals in the Air Force Medical Service can demonstrate their competency in delivering healthcare services.

Submit
78. Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?

Explanation

The Master Training Plan would contain the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for enlisted members within an assigned area. It is a comprehensive document that provides a roadmap for training and development, ensuring that all necessary skills and knowledge are covered. The plan helps in organizing and tracking training activities, ensuring that enlisted members receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. The Individual Training Record, AF Form 1098, and AF Form 797 may contain information related to training, but they do not provide the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks as the Master Training Plan does.

Submit
79. What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?

Explanation

The correct answer is STS. STS stands for Specialty Training Standard, which is a document that outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities that individuals in the 4N0X1 career field are trained and authorized to perform. It defines the scope of practice for these individuals and ensures that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to carry out their duties effectively and safely.

Submit
80. Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Records used when providing medical care?

Explanation

The DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Records, is used when providing medical care because it eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document. This form serves as a blanket statement that informs the patient about the privacy rights and protections of their health care records. By having the patient sign this form, it ensures that their consent and understanding of the privacy act is obtained once, rather than having to include a separate privacy act statement with every medical or dental document.

Submit
81. At what age are children required to have their own ID cards?

Explanation

Children are required to have their own ID cards at the age of ten. This is the age at which they are considered old enough to have their own identification for various purposes, such as travel, accessing certain services, or proving their age for age-restricted activities.

Submit
82. Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?

Explanation

Bone ends would have very little compact bone because they are mostly composed of spongy or cancellous bone. This type of bone has a lattice-like structure with many open spaces, which makes it lighter and more flexible than compact bone. The bone ends are responsible for articulating with other bones to form joints, and the spongy bone helps to absorb shock and distribute forces during movement. Therefore, it is not necessary for the bone ends to have a thick layer of compact bone like the outermost portion of the bone.

Submit
83. Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least...

Explanation

Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF quarterly. This means that the MTF receives updated enrollment information from DEERS every three months. This frequency allows for regular updates and ensures that the MTF has the most current information on patients' enrollment status.

Submit
84. Where are nerve and blood vessels contained in the bone?

Explanation

The medullary cavity is the correct answer because it is the central cavity found within long bones, such as the femur or humerus. This cavity contains bone marrow, which consists of both yellow and red marrow. The red marrow is responsible for producing blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Additionally, the medullary cavity also contains nerves and blood vessels that supply nutrients and oxygen to the bone tissue.

Submit
85. Which of the following is the primary guite used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish the mission?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
86. When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?

Explanation

The AF Form 601 may be destroyed when the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. This implies that the form is only necessary for tracking items that are currently on the CRL (Customer Request List). Once an item is added to or removed from the CRL, there is no longer a need to keep the form, as it is no longer relevant to the current inventory.

Submit
87. A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?

Explanation

The term "axis of joint rotation" refers to a line that is perpendicular to the plane of motion. This line represents the axis around which a joint rotates during movement. It is the imaginary line that runs through the center of the joint and determines the direction of movement. This is different from other options like circumduction, which involves a circular movement, range of motion, which refers to the extent of movement, and longitudinal axis, which is a line parallel to the long axis of the body.

Submit
88. Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the...

Explanation

The cochlea is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. When the stapes, one of the three small bones in the middle ear, moves, it causes vibrations in the fluid-filled cochlea. These vibrations stimulate the hair cells in the organ of Corti, which is located within the cochlea. The hair cells then convert the vibrations into electrical signals that are sent to the brain for processing. Therefore, the correct answer is cochlea.

Submit
89. What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?

Explanation

The primary source for recording equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing. This form is used to document the temporary issue of equipment and any actions taken by the custodian or repair personnel. It provides a record of the equipment's status and any repairs or maintenance performed on it. Additionally, the custodian actions/custodial report listing can also be used to track the repair history of the equipment.

Submit
90. Which muscle is attached to the eyelid?

Explanation

The muscle attached to the eyelid is the levator palpebrae superioris. This muscle is responsible for raising the upper eyelid, allowing for opening and closing of the eye. It is located above the eye and is attached to the tarsal plate of the eyelid. When this muscle contracts, it pulls the eyelid upwards, allowing for better vision and protection of the eye. The other options listed, superior oblique, anterior oblique, and lateral rectus, are not directly attached to the eyelid and have different functions in eye movement.

Submit
91. If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for you to use?

Explanation

If you are working in CHCS (Composite Health Care System), the function that would not be available for you to use is outpatient coding. CHCS is a comprehensive electronic health record system used by the Department of Defense, and it includes various functions such as appointment scheduling, results reporting, and entry of lab requests. However, outpatient coding is not typically a function available in CHCS, as it is more commonly associated with medical billing and reimbursement processes.

Submit
92. What part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus and inferior meatus make up?

Explanation

The correct answer is nasal conchae. The nasal conchae are three bony structures located on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. They are responsible for increasing the surface area of the nasal cavity and creating turbulence in the airflow, which helps in the filtration, humidification, and warming of the inhaled air. The superior, middle, and inferior meatuses are spaces located beneath each nasal concha. They help to direct the airflow and distribute the mucus produced by the nasal glands.

Submit
93. On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard?

Explanation

AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS, is the correct form to document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard. This form is used to document additional training requirements or qualifications beyond what is already outlined in the standard. It allows for the documentation of specialized training that may be unique to a particular duty position.

Submit
94. What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?

Explanation

Sesamoid bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied. These small, round bones are found in areas such as the hands, feet, and knees, and they help to reduce friction and provide leverage to the tendons. Due to their location within tendons, they are subjected to frequent pressure and stress, making them the correct answer in this case.

Submit
95. How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?

Explanation

The 4N0XX Job Inventory is normally completed every three years. This suggests that individuals in the 4N0XX career field are required to update and review their job inventory every three years. This could be necessary to ensure that their skills and qualifications are up to date and relevant to the job requirements. By completing the job inventory regularly, it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the individual's capabilities and helps in identifying any areas where additional training or development may be needed.

Submit
96. Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?

Explanation

The nurse is responsible for analyzing the performance and health status of patients in a primary care management team. Nurses are trained to assess and monitor patients' conditions, collect data, and analyze the information to determine the appropriate course of action. They work closely with providers and other healthcare professionals to ensure the overall well-being of patients.

Submit
97. When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics?

Explanation

DEERS stands for Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System. It is the information system that the healthcare provider would rely on to capture, edit, and maintain sponsor/family demographics. DEERS is the official military database that contains information about the eligibility of individuals to receive military benefits such as healthcare. It is used to verify the eligibility of sponsors and their family members for healthcare services. AHLTA, CHCS, and MHS are other information systems used in the military healthcare system, but they do not specifically focus on capturing and maintaining sponsor/family demographics like DEERS does.

Submit
98. If you are trying to determine the depolyment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS optimization?

Explanation

AHLTA is the correct answer because it is a system that supports Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS optimization. AHLTA stands for the Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application and it is the electronic health record system used by the military. It allows for the tracking and management of medical information for service members, including their deployment status. By using AHLTA, one can determine the deployment status of a unit and ensure that Force Health Protection measures are in place, while also optimizing the Military Health System.

Submit
99. During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?

Explanation

During the depression stage of the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because during this stage, the individual may experience feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and isolation. By allowing them to express their thoughts and emotions, it can provide them with a sense of relief and support. It also helps them process their grief and begin to heal.

Submit
100. Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?

Explanation

DD Form 2005 is used to inform the patient about the purpose and uses of the information collected in their medical record. This form ensures that the patient is aware of how their medical information will be used and allows them to give consent for specific uses of their information. It is important for patients to be informed about the purposes and uses of their medical record information in order to maintain transparency and protect their privacy rights.

Submit
101. Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing?

Explanation

Anaphase is the correct answer because during this phase of mitosis, the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This division of the chromatids signifies the division of the nucleus, as each new cell will receive one complete set of chromosomes.

Submit
102. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, use...

Explanation

The correct answer is DOD Regulation 6025.18-R. This regulation provides guidance on the implementation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) within the Department of Defense (DOD). It outlines the requirements and procedures for safeguarding protected health information (PHI) and ensuring compliance with HIPAA regulations. It is the primary source of information for DOD personnel regarding HIPAA and serves as a reference for understanding their responsibilities in protecting patient privacy and maintaining the security of health information.

Submit
103. The valve that leads from the right atrium the right ventricle is the...

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is the valve that separates the right atrium and the right ventricle in the heart. It consists of three leaflets that open and close to allow blood to flow from the atrium to the ventricle and prevent backflow. The aortic valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta, the mitral valve is between the left atrium and the left ventricle, and the pulmonary valve is between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

Submit
104. Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card be filed in the Individual Training Record?

Explanation

The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card would be filed in Part 6, Section B of the Individual Training Record.

Submit
105. What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?

Explanation

The correct answer is UMPR. UMPR stands for Unit Manning Personnel Report. This tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center. It provides information about the manpower allocation and distribution within a unit, allowing for effective management and tracking of personnel resources.

Submit
106. What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

Explanation

MEPRS stands for Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. It is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. MEPRS provides detailed information on the cost of providing healthcare services, as well as performance data related to the utilization of resources. This information helps in making informed decisions regarding the allocation of manpower, budget, and other resources within the medical field.

Submit
107. Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?

Explanation

Manpower Authorization is the correct answer because it refers to a funded manpower requirement that clearly defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristic needed. It ensures that the necessary resources, such as personnel and funding, are allocated to fulfill the specific requirements of a position. Manpower Standard, Manning Assistance, and Manpower Requirement do not encompass all the aspects mentioned in the question.

Submit
108. Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?

Explanation

Being punctual is not a habit of successful PCM teams because successful teams prioritize effective communication, proactive problem-solving, and efficient time management. While being punctual is generally considered a good practice, it is not a defining factor in team success. The ability to communicate effectively, anticipate and address challenges proactively, and manage resources efficiently are more crucial for achieving team goals and delivering successful outcomes.

Submit
109. What type of joint connects the sternum and the first rib?

Explanation

A synchondrosis is a type of joint that connects two bones with hyaline cartilage. In this case, the joint connecting the sternum and the first rib is a synchondrosis. This type of joint allows for limited movement and provides stability to the area.

Submit
110. The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the...

Explanation

The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tubules within the cell that is responsible for transporting molecules. It plays a crucial role in protein synthesis, lipid metabolism, and detoxification. It is connected to the nuclear membrane and extends throughout the cytoplasm, allowing for the movement of molecules within the cell. The other options, such as vesicles, ribosomes, and the Golgi apparatus, have their own specific functions within the cell but do not primarily function as a network of tubules for molecular transport.

Submit
111. The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the...

Explanation

The correct answer is Stratum spinosum. The stratum spinosum is the layer of the epidermis that is located just above the stratum basale, which is the deepest layer. The stratum spinosum is responsible for providing strength and support to the skin. It contains several layers of cells that are connected by desmosomes, giving it a spiny appearance. This layer is also involved in the production of keratin, a protein that helps to protect the skin from damage.

Submit
112. The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the...

Explanation

The perimysium is the correct answer because it is the muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium. The perimysium surrounds bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles and provides support and protection to the muscle fibers within. It also contains blood vessels and nerves that supply the muscle fibers, allowing them to function properly. This layer helps to organize and separate the muscle fibers, ensuring efficient muscle contraction and movement.

Submit
113. Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?

Explanation

The middle meatus is a nasal air passageway located in the middle part of the nasal cavity. It is one of the three meatuses, along with the superior and inferior meatuses, that help to direct and regulate the flow of air through the nasal passages. The middle meatus is important for the drainage of mucus from the frontal, maxillary, and anterior ethmoid sinuses, as well as for the passage of air.

Submit
114. In what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow until it divided again?

Explanation

Interphase is the correct answer because it is the longest phase of the cell cycle where the cell continues to grow and carry out its normal metabolic activities. During interphase, the cell prepares for division by replicating its DNA and organelles. It is a crucial period for the cell to increase in size and accumulate the necessary resources before entering mitosis, which is the phase where the cell actually divides into two daughter cells. Therefore, interphase is the part of the cell life cycle where the cell continues to grow until it divides again.

Submit
115. The auditory ossicles are located in the...

Explanation

The auditory ossicles are a group of three small bones (malleus, incus, and stapes) that are located in the middle ear. These bones play a crucial role in the transmission of sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. They amplify and transmit the sound waves, allowing them to reach the cochlea, which is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is middle ear.

Submit
116. What are patient responsibilities designed to do?

Explanation

Patient responsibilities are designed to ensure the safety and well-being of not only the patient themselves but also other patients and healthcare workers. By following their responsibilities, patients can help prevent the spread of infections or diseases to others in the healthcare setting. This includes practices such as proper hand hygiene, adhering to isolation protocols, and following healthcare provider instructions. By doing so, patients contribute to creating a safe and healthy environment for everyone involved in their care.

Submit
117. What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and the fibula?

Explanation

A syndesmosis joint is a type of joint that connects two bones with the help of ligaments, allowing for limited movement. In this case, the distal end of the tibia and the fibula are joined together by a syndesmosis joint. This joint provides stability and support to the lower leg, while still allowing for some degree of movement.

Submit
118. Which of the following defines fidelity?

Explanation

Fidelity refers to the quality of being faithful, loyal, and committed. Acting in a responsible manner aligns with the concept of fidelity as it implies taking ownership of one's actions, being accountable, and fulfilling obligations. By acting responsibly, individuals demonstrate their commitment and loyalty towards their duties and responsibilities, thereby upholding the principle of fidelity.

Submit
119. The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?

Explanation

The ICD-9 is divided into four sections. This classification system is used to categorize and code diseases, injuries, and other health conditions. The four sections are: 1) Infectious and Parasitic Diseases, 2) Neoplasms, 3) Diseases of the Blood and Blood-Forming Organs, and 4) Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases. Each section contains specific codes and guidelines for classifying different types of conditions, allowing for standardized and consistent documentation and reporting of medical diagnoses.

Submit
120. The epimysium is located beneath the...

Explanation

The epimysium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds a muscle. It provides support and protection to the muscle fibers. The fascia, on the other hand, is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscles, groups of muscles, and other structures like blood vessels and nerves. It helps to separate and compartmentalize different structures in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is fascia, as the epimysium is located beneath it.

Submit
121. Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained, and discipline of supply use?

Explanation

Commanders are the designated individuals responsible for ensuring adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, maintaining records, and disciplining supply use. As leaders within the medical facility, commanders have the authority and responsibility to oversee the management of medical supplies and equipment. They are accountable for ensuring that there is enough storage space available, maintaining accurate records of inventory, and enforcing discipline in the use of supplies. Commanders play a crucial role in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the medical supply system.

Submit
122. Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System?

Explanation

The MPF (Military Personnel Flight) is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System. MPF handles the administrative tasks related to personnel and ensures that individuals meet the eligibility criteria for medical care within the military healthcare system. They verify and update information in the system to ensure accurate and up-to-date eligibility records.

Submit
123. What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?

Explanation

When conducting in-service training, it is important to confirm whether the commander will be attending. This is because the presence of the commander can significantly impact the training session. Their attendance can demonstrate the importance and support for the training, which can motivate the participants to take it more seriously. Additionally, the commander's presence allows them to observe and assess the training firsthand, which can help in evaluating its effectiveness and making any necessary improvements.

Submit
124. Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?

Explanation

The Chief Nurse may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory. This is because the Chief Nurse is responsible for overseeing the nursing staff and ensuring that they are properly trained and assigned to appropriate job roles. By requesting a 4N0X1 Job Inventory, the Chief Nurse can assess the skills and qualifications of the nursing staff and make necessary adjustments or recommendations for job assignments within the 4N0X1 career field.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Wigginsjrw
Cancel
  • All
    All (124)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and...
What is the purpose of documenting training?
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local...
When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the...
What nerve is the pathway to vision?
Pigmentation is attributed to...
Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of...
What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is...
What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical...
Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a...
When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must...
You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of...
The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell...
What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the...
By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor...
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30...
Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that...
Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer...
Who is considered the patient advocate?
Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having...
How should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider...
What four components make up the PCM team?
It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure...
What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are...
Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian...
Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective...
If a patient has an emrgency and you do not know if they are eligible...
What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?
Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following...
What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career...
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?
Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the...
What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?
How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial?
What substance does a melanocyte produce?
How is doctrine applied?
What type of tissue can change its shape?
Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and...
What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins...
Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to...
How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?
Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies...
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a...
What fluid acts as joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for...
When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from...
When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility,...
You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for...
What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord?
What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
What is the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between...
Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?
Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?
The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the...
What type of doctine guides organization and emplayment of forces...
Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience...
When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on...
What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?
You would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm...
Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?
What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?
With which of the following is not one of the three Foundational...
In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you...
Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with...
What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and...
Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the...
What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?
When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily...
How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance...
Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibility for follow-up...
What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit...
Which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and...
What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological...
Where would you find the specific outline of training goals,...
What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career...
Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Records...
At what age are children required to have their own ID cards?
Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?
Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least...
Where are nerve and blood vessels contained in the bone?
Which of the following is the primary guite used by Air Force Medical...
When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?
A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best...
Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the...
What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
Which muscle is attached to the eyelid?
If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for...
What part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus...
On what form would you document specific duty position training that...
What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is...
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of...
When confirming a patient's information, which of the following...
If you are trying to determine the depolyment status of a unit, what...
During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to...
Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of...
Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is...
For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and...
The valve that leads from the right atrium the right ventricle is...
Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians...
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and...
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines...
Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?
What type of joint connects the sternum and the first rib?
The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the...
The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the...
The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the...
Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?
In what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow...
The auditory ossicles are located in the...
What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and the fibula?
Which of the following defines fidelity?
The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?
The epimysium is located beneath the...
Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure...
Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's...
What is a key point that should be considered when conducting...
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
Alert!

Advertisement