Air Force Medical Service 4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test

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  • 1/124 Questions

    While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

    • Physicians
    • Supervisors
    • Every Airman
    • Health and Wellness staff
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Healthcare Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This practice test for Air Force Medical Service 4N051 CDC Set A focuses on the application of medical doctrine. It assesses understanding of doctrine types and guides commanders on asset utilization. It's essential for those in Air Force medical command roles.

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  • 2. 

    What is the purpose of documenting training?

    • Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.

    • Document the number of personnel and the hours they work

    • Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board

    • Establish patient care guielines for civilian practice

    Correct Answer
    A. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.
    Explanation
    The purpose of documenting training is to keep a record of an individual's capability, scope of practice, and strengths and weaknesses. This documentation helps in assessing and evaluating the skills and knowledge of the personnel, which can be used for various purposes such as performance reviews, career development, and identifying areas for improvement. It also serves as evidence of training completion and compliance with regulatory requirements.

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  • 3. 

    Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?

    • District sales and maintenance representative

    • Base supply and equipment maintentance

    • Biomedical equipment repair technician

    • Original equipment manufacturer

    Correct Answer
    A. Biomedical equipment repair technician
    Explanation
    To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, so they would have the most up-to-date knowledge on procedures and policies related to equipment issues. District sales and maintenance representatives may have information on equipment sales and general maintenance, but may not have the specific expertise needed for troubleshooting and repairs. Base supply and equipment maintenance may have some information, but it is likely more focused on general maintenance rather than specific procedures. The original equipment manufacturer may also have information, but the biomedical equipment repair technician would be more accessible and knowledgeable in most cases.

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  • 4. 

    When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

    • No care or treatment was accomplished

    • There is no follow up care required

    • There were no complications

    • The outcome was positive

    Correct Answer
    A. No care or treatment was accomplished
    Explanation
    If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is a crucial part of healthcare as it provides a record of the care provided to the patient. Without proper documentation, it is difficult to track the progress of the patient's treatment, ensure follow-up care, identify any complications that may have occurred, or determine the outcome of the treatment. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was carried out.

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  • 5. 

    What nerve is the pathway to vision?

    • Posterior

    • Anterior

    • Sclera

    • Optic

    Correct Answer
    A. Optic
    Explanation
    The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret the images we see.

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  • 6. 

    Pigmentation is attributed to...

    • Melanin

    • Dermal cells

    • Subcutaneous cells

    • Sebaceous gland secretions

    Correct Answer
    A. Melanin
    Explanation
    Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It protects the skin from harmful UV radiation and helps in determining our skin tone. Melanin production can be influenced by various factors such as genetics, exposure to sunlight, and hormonal changes. Dermal cells, subcutaneous cells, and sebaceous gland secretions do not directly contribute to pigmentation.

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  • 7. 

    Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

    • Each individual

    • Unit supervisor

    • Group comander

    • Account custodian

    Correct Answer
    A. Each individual
    Explanation
    Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility is not limited to any specific rank or position, but rather applies to all individuals within the Air Force.

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  • 8. 

    What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

    • None. Once an item is ordered, you must receive it when it arrives.

    • Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO

    • Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.

    • None. It is always better to have extra supplies on hand

    Correct Answer
    A. Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO
    Explanation
    The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This implies that the custodian should communicate with the MEMO (presumably a system or department responsible for managing orders) to request the cancellation of the order for the item that is no longer needed.

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  • 9. 

    What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

    • Collect patient demographic information

    • Determine the health of the local population

    • Aid manpower in determining allocation requests

    • Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients
    Explanation
    Customer service surveys in a medical treatment facility serve the purpose of collecting feedback from patients. These surveys allow the facility to understand the patients' experiences, satisfaction levels, and areas for improvement. By analyzing the feedback, the facility can identify ways to enhance their services and provide better care to their patients. This helps in improving patient satisfaction and overall quality of care provided by the facility.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

    • Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness

    • Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety

    • Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider

    • Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patient's fear

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety
    Explanation
    Remaining honest and in control helps to decrease a patient's anxiety because it creates a sense of trust and security. Patients often feel stressed and anxious when they are unsure about their condition or treatment. By being honest and transparent, healthcare providers can provide reassurance and alleviate the patient's fears. Additionally, remaining in control and composed helps to create a calming environment, which can further reduce the patient's stress levels.

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  • 11. 

    When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do?

    • No team members will work extra hours

    • Be able to do the job of every other team member

    • Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice

    • Make sure all patients have appointments on the day requested

    Correct Answer
    A. Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice
    Explanation
    Each member of the PCM team must contribute at their highest level of scope of practice. This means that they should utilize their skills, knowledge, and expertise to the fullest extent in order to achieve the team goal. This ensures that each team member is actively participating and making a valuable contribution based on their specific role and responsibilities within the team. By doing so, the team can effectively work together and maximize their collective efforts to achieve success.

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  • 12. 

    You are double-checking the doctor's orders before going into one of your patients', Mrs. Jones, room.  What would it mean for Mrs. Jones if the doctor's orders are written as NPO?

    • May walk around as desired

    • Should increase her fluid intake

    • May not have anything to eat or drink

    • May not get out of bed without assistance

    Correct Answer
    A. May not have anything to eat or drink
    Explanation
    If the doctor's orders are written as NPO, it would mean that Mrs. Jones is not allowed to have anything to eat or drink.

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  • 13. 

    The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as...

    • Interphase

    • Metaphase

    • Cell differentiation

    • Cytoplasmic

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell differentiation
    Explanation
    Cell differentiation is the correct answer because it refers to the complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics. During cell differentiation, cells become specialized and acquire specific structures and functions that allow them to carry out specific tasks in the body. This process is crucial for the development and maintenance of multicellular organisms, as it ensures that different cell types can perform their specialized functions efficiently.

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  • 14. 

    What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

    • Patella

    • Fibula

    • Femur

    • Tibia

    Correct Answer
    A. Patella
    Explanation
    The triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint is called the patella. It is commonly known as the kneecap and acts as a protective covering for the knee joint. The patella plays an important role in the extension of the leg and provides leverage to the thigh muscles.

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  • 15. 

    By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likeyly to prevent?

    • Equipment damage and injury to a patient

    • Injury to a patient and buying new technology

    • Reporting damamge and buying new technology

    • Reporting damamge to the commander and logisitcs

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment damage and injury to a patient
    Explanation
    By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel understand the safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.

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  • 16. 

    What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

    • Cancel the order

    • Complain to the commander

    • Wait another 15 days then follow up

    • Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order
    Explanation
    If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This is because MEMO personnel are responsible for managing and tracking orders, so they would have the necessary information to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order or complaining to the commander may be premature actions without first verifying the status of the order. Waiting another 15 days may further delay the resolution of the issue, so it is best to involve the appropriate personnel as soon as possible.

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  • 17. 

    Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

    • Administration

    • Chaperone

    • Supervisory

    • Appointing

    Correct Answer
    A. Chaperone
    Explanation
    Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is responsible for ensuring the safety, privacy, and comfort of the patient during the examination or treatment. They provide support and act as a witness to prevent any potential misconduct or inappropriate behavior. Their presence helps maintain professionalism and protects both the provider and the patient.

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  • 18. 

    Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?

    • Prevent lawsuits

    • Develop job satisfaction

    • Ensure promotion below-the-zone

    • Positively influence the patient's visit

    Correct Answer
    A. Positively influence the patient's visit
    Explanation
    Developing excellent customer service is important for the 4N0XX because it can positively influence the patient's visit. By providing exceptional customer service, the 4N0XX can create a positive and welcoming environment for patients, which can contribute to their overall satisfaction and experience. This can lead to better patient outcomes, increased patient loyalty, and improved reputation for the organization. Additionally, satisfied patients are more likely to comply with medical advice and treatment plans, ultimately benefiting their health and well-being.

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  • 19. 

    Who is considered the patient advocate?

    • Clinic representative only

    • Officer-in-charge only

    • Facility representative only

    • Every staff member

    Correct Answer
    A. Every staff member
    Explanation
    Every staff member is considered the patient advocate because in a healthcare setting, all staff members have a responsibility to advocate for the best interests and well-being of the patients. This includes not only the clinic representative, officer-in-charge, and facility representative, but also nurses, doctors, technicians, and other healthcare professionals. Each staff member plays a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive the highest quality of care and their rights are protected.

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  • 20. 

    Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services?

    • Family practice clinic

    • Internal medicine clinic

    • The MTF commander

    • The patient advocate

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient advocate
    Explanation
    The patient advocate is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services. They are trained to assist and support patients in navigating the healthcare system, ensuring that their needs and concerns are addressed. They can provide information, clarify procedures, and advocate for the patient's rights and preferences.

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  • 21. 

    How should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider is he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?

    • Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity

    • Inform the caller the doctor is busy and ask them to try to call back later

    • Inform the caller the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours

    • Knock on the door and the inform the physician he or she has a telephone call

    Correct Answer
    A. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity
    Explanation
    When the provider is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold, the best course of action is to take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity. This ensures that the provider receives the message and can address it when they are available. Informing the caller that the doctor is busy or not taking calls during appointment hours may not be helpful as it does not provide a solution or alternative. Knocking on the door and informing the physician about the call may disrupt the ongoing patient consultation.

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  • 22. 

    What four components make up the PCM team?

    • Provider, nurse, medical technician and mental health technician

    • Provider, nurse, medical technician and health services management technician

    • Nurse, medical technician, and health services management technician and mental health technician

    • Nurse, medical technician, dental technician and mental health technician

    Correct Answer
    A. Provider, nurse, medical technician and health services management technician
    Explanation
    The PCM team consists of a provider, a nurse, a medical technician, and a health services management technician. These four components work together to provide comprehensive healthcare services to patients. The provider is responsible for diagnosing and treating patients, while the nurse assists with patient care and medication administration. The medical technician performs various medical tests and procedures, and the health services management technician handles administrative tasks and ensures smooth operations within the healthcare facility.

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  • 23. 

    It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure...

    • Each team member enjoys going to work each day

    • Each member can take leave on the requested days

    • The best care is provided to our customers

    • The team earns new medical technology

    Correct Answer
    A. The best care is provided to our customers
    Explanation
    A health care team needs to work in harmony in order to provide the best care to their customers. When team members work well together, they can effectively communicate and collaborate, leading to better patient outcomes. By working in harmony, the team can ensure that they are providing the highest level of care and meeting the needs of their customers. This includes coordinating treatments, sharing information, and supporting each other in delivering quality care. Ultimately, the goal is to prioritize the well-being and satisfaction of the patients, which can only be achieved through a cohesive and harmonious team effort.

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  • 24. 

    What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?

    • 20 percent

    • 50 percent

    • 70 percent

    • 90 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 70 percent
    Explanation
    70 percent of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This means that the majority of malfunctions in medical equipment are caused by mistakes or errors made by the operator, rather than any inherent issues with the equipment itself. This highlights the importance of proper training and education for medical professionals to minimize errors and improve patient safety.

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  • 25. 

    Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must...

    • Receive a briefing on responsibilities

    • Conduct a physical inverntory of equipment

    • Document his/her experience for the commander to review

    • Review the files to establish when equipment was procured

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a physical inverntory of equipment
    Explanation
    Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is important to ensure that all equipment is present, accounted for, and in good working condition. By conducting a physical inventory, the custodian can compare the actual equipment with the records and identify any discrepancies or missing items. This helps in maintaining accurate records, preventing loss or theft of equipment, and ensuring that the equipment is ready for use when needed.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?

    • Smiling

    • Laughing

    • Talking too much

    • Identifying commonalities

    Correct Answer
    A. Talking too much
    Explanation
    Talking too much can be considered a barrier to effective communication because it can prevent others from expressing their thoughts and ideas. When one person dominates a conversation by talking excessively, it can hinder the exchange of information and create a one-sided communication dynamic. This can lead to misunderstandings, lack of engagement, and a breakdown in effective communication. It is important to strike a balance and allow for active listening and participation from all parties involved in order to have effective communication.

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  • 27. 

    If a patient has an emrgency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, you should...

    • Provide the patient care and then determine eligibility

    • Determine eligibility first and provide treatment only if they are eligible

    • Inform the patient that they will be billed for the visit and ensure they agree to pay

    • Have the patient wait and ask a provider to see them at the end of scheduled patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide the patient care and then determine eligibility
    Explanation
    If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, it is important to prioritize their immediate medical needs. Providing the patient with care first ensures that their health and safety are addressed promptly. Once the patient's condition stabilizes, you can then proceed to determine their eligibility for further treatment or coverage. This approach prioritizes the patient's well-being and ensures that necessary care is not delayed due to administrative processes.

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  • 28. 

    What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

    • Plasma

    • Platelets

    • Leukocytes

    • Erythrocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets adhere to the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. This clotting process is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes do not play a direct role in clotting.

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  • 29. 

    Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

    • The Environmental Pretection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.

    • An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities.

    • An automotive designeer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.

    • A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.

    Correct Answer
    A. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.
    Explanation
    Tactical Doctrine refers to the ability to choose specific qualities to fit individual needs. A car buyer best exemplifies this because they have the freedom to select a car with specific qualities such as speed or safety factors that align with their personal preferences and requirements. This choice allows them to tailor their purchase to their individual needs, making them the best example of Tactical Doctrine.

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  • 30. 

    What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?

    • First

    • Second

    • Third

    • Fifth

    Correct Answer
    A. First
    Explanation
    The figure in an Air Force Specialty Code that identifies career grouping is "First." This suggests that the first figure in the code represents the career grouping of the individual within the Air Force.

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  • 31. 

    Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • 3-level

    • 5-level

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey. This implies that the supervisor is in charge of overseeing and ensuring that the survey is completed. The other options, such as the commander, 3-level, and 5-level, do not have the same level of responsibility or authority as the supervisor in this context.

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  • 32. 

    Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health cre worker and clarifying the reason for the appoinment or hospitalization?

    • Preinteractive

    • Introductory

    • Working

    • Termination

    Correct Answer
    A. Introductory
    Explanation
    The introductory phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization. This phase is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire patient-provider relationship and helps establish trust and understanding between the two parties. It involves gathering important information about the patient's medical history, current symptoms, and concerns, and introducing the healthcare worker's role and responsibilities. This phase is essential for effective communication and collaboration throughout the patient's healthcare journey.

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  • 33. 

    What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?

    • Reduce the number of lawsuits

    • Provide an unbiased third party

    • To determine the correct treatment plan

    • To approve funding for off-base treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide an unbiased third party
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program is to provide an unbiased third party. This means that the program aims to have someone who is not directly involved in the patient's care or the healthcare system to act as an advocate for the patient. This unbiased third party can help ensure that the patient's needs and concerns are heard and addressed, and can provide support and guidance throughout the healthcare process.

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  • 34. 

    How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial?

    • At the back of the body or body part

    • Toward the back of the body or body part

    • Away from the midline of the body or body part

    • Toward the head or area of the body that is closer to the head

    Correct Answer
    A. Away from the midline of the body or body part
    Explanation
    The term "anatomical lateral position" refers to a position that is away from the midline of the body or body part. This means that it is located on the outer side or away from the center. On the other hand, the term "medial" refers to a position that is towards the midline of the body or body part. It is located on the inner side or closer to the center. Therefore, the anatomical lateral position differs from the term medial by indicating a position that is away from the midline, while medial indicates a position that is towards the midline.

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  • 35. 

    What substance does a melanocyte produce?

    • Sebum

    • Melanin

    • Adipose

    • Pigmentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Melanin
    Explanation
    Melanocytes are specialized cells in the skin that produce a pigment called melanin. Melanin is responsible for determining the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It provides protection against the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun by absorbing and scattering the UV rays. Melanin also plays a role in the healing of wounds and acts as a natural defense mechanism against certain skin conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is Melanin.

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  • 36. 

    How is doctrine applied?

    • Authoritative but not directive

    • Not authoritative

    • Directive but not authoritative

    • Directive and outhoritative

    Correct Answer
    A. Authoritative but not directive
    Explanation
    Doctrine is applied in an authoritative but not directive manner. This means that while doctrine carries weight and is considered to be authoritative, it does not provide specific instructions or directives on how to implement it. Instead, it serves as a guiding principle or framework that individuals or organizations can interpret and apply in a way that best suits their specific circumstances or needs. This allows for flexibility and adaptability while still maintaining the overall authority and importance of the doctrine.

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  • 37. 

    What type of tissue can change its shape?

    • Muscle

    • Nervous

    • Epithelial

    • Connective

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle
    Explanation
    Muscle tissue is capable of changing its shape due to its unique contractile properties. This tissue is made up of specialized cells called muscle fibers that can contract and relax, allowing for movement and shape change. This ability to change shape is essential for various physiological processes such as movement, maintaining posture, and organ function. Nervous tissue, epithelial tissue, and connective tissue do not possess the same contractile properties as muscle tissue and therefore cannot change shape in the same way.

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  • 38. 

    Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act affect?

    • Patients handling their information

    • Anyone handling patient information

    • Medical staff handling patient information

    • Administrative staff handling patient information

    Correct Answer
    A. Anyone handling patient information
    Explanation
    The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone who handles patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also patients themselves who handle their own information. HIPAA sets guidelines and regulations to ensure the privacy and security of patient health information, and it applies to all individuals and organizations that handle this information, regardless of their specific role or position.

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  • 39. 

    What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body?

    • Ribosomes

    • Centrosomes

    • Cilia and flagella

    • Endoplasmic reticulum

    Correct Answer
    A. Ribosomes
    Explanation
    Ribosomes play an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body. They are responsible for protein synthesis, where they read the genetic information from the DNA and use it to assemble amino acids into proteins. Ribosomes can be found in the cytoplasm of the cell as well as on the rough endoplasmic reticulum, where they produce proteins that are either used within the cell or exported to other parts of the body. Therefore, ribosomes are essential for the functioning of cells and the overall functioning of the body.

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  • 40. 

    Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

    • Nervous

    • Epithelial

    • Smooth muscle

    • Cardiac muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac muscle
    Explanation
    Cardiac muscle tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both tissues have a striped or striated appearance due to the arrangement of protein filaments within the muscle cells. This striation is responsible for the coordinated contraction and relaxation of the muscle fibers, allowing them to generate force and movement. Unlike smooth muscle and epithelial tissue, which do not have a striated appearance, cardiac muscle shares this characteristic with skeletal muscle tissue.

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  • 41. 

    How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure that all equipment is functioning properly and to identify any potential issues or safety hazards. Daily inspections allow for immediate action to be taken if any problems are detected, minimizing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular inspections also help to maintain the longevity and efficiency of the equipment, ensuring that it remains in good working condition.

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  • 42. 

    Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

    • Recommends step by step actions

    • Directs the actions of commanders

    • Guides commanders in using assets

    • Changes faster than Air Force guidance

    Correct Answer
    A. Guides commanders in using assets
    Explanation
    Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. In the medical field, there are various resources and assets available that need to be utilized effectively. Medical Doctrine provides a set of principles and guidelines that commanders can follow to make informed decisions about the allocation and utilization of these assets. It ensures that commanders have a systematic approach in managing medical resources, which ultimately leads to better patient care and overall operational effectiveness.

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  • 43. 

    How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan is comprised of two parts. This suggests that there are two distinct components or sections within the plan.

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  • 44. 

    What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

    • Inspect, store, and remove

    • Inspect, remove, and report

    • Report, remove, and repair

    • Remove, store, and repair

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspect, remove, and report
    Explanation
    When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the three actions to remember are to inspect the equipment, remove it if necessary, and report any issues found. Inspecting the equipment helps to identify any visible discrepancies or defects. If any issues are found, the equipment should be removed to prevent further use or potential harm. Finally, reporting the discrepancies ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to address and resolve the issues.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

    • Telling the truth

    • Respect for others

    • The duty to do no harm

    • Being faithful to do good

    Correct Answer
    A. The duty to do no harm
    Explanation
    Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the importance of avoiding harm or causing the least possible harm to others. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being and safety of their patients. This principle is closely related to the Hippocratic Oath, which includes the commitment to "do no harm." By adhering to nonmaleficence, healthcare providers strive to prevent harm and minimize any potential risks or negative outcomes for their patients.

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  • 46. 

    Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?

    • 15 days

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 60 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    Patients who are treated without initial proof of eligibility are required to sign a statement stating that they will provide eligibility documentation within 30 days. This means that they have a month to gather and submit the necessary documentation to prove their eligibility for the treatment they received. This allows the healthcare provider to continue providing the necessary care while ensuring that the patient provides the required documentation within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 47. 

    What fluid acts as joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartialge within the joint?

    • Gomphosis

    • Synovial

    • Mucosal

    • Blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Synovial
    Explanation
    Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the moving parts of the joint, allowing smooth and pain-free movement. Additionally, synovial fluid provides essential nutrients and oxygen to the cartilage, helping to maintain its health and function.

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  • 48. 

    When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?

    • When the Airman arrives at the first duty station

    • When the rank of Master Sergeant has been attained

    • When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level

    • When the Airman is upgraded from the 5-skill level to the 7-skill level

    Correct Answer
    A. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level
    Explanation
    The AETC Form 156, Student Training Report may be removed from the Individual Training Record when the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This suggests that once the Airman has reached a certain level of skill and proficiency in their training, the need for the training report is no longer necessary and can be removed from their record.

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  • 49. 

    When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, you should...

    • Make them an appointment and worry about the details later

    • Tell the patient that you will not see them until they can prove eligibility

    • Tell the patient to have a seat and have them seen on a space available basis

    • Have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment
    Explanation
    When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, it is important to have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment. This is because the eligibility of the patient should not be the main concern when it comes to providing medical care. The priority should be to assess the patient's medical condition and determine the level of risk involved. By having a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment, the patient can receive the necessary care while ensuring that their medical needs are addressed appropriately.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Wigginsjrw

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