Air Force Medical Service 4N051 CDC Set A Practice Test
- 1.
How is doctrine applied?
- A.
Authoritative but not directive
- B.
Not authoritative
- C.
Directive but not authoritative
- D.
Directive and outhoritative
Correct Answer
A. Authoritative but not directiveExplanation
Doctrine is applied in an authoritative but not directive manner. This means that while doctrine carries weight and is considered to be authoritative, it does not provide specific instructions or directives on how to implement it. Instead, it serves as a guiding principle or framework that individuals or organizations can interpret and apply in a way that best suits their specific circumstances or needs. This allows for flexibility and adaptability while still maintaining the overall authority and importance of the doctrine.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is the primary guite used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish the mission?
- A.
AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine
- B.
AFDD 1-1, Leadership and Force Development
- C.
AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services
- D.
AFDD 2-8, Command and Control
Correct Answer
C. AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services -
- 3.
Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
- A.
Recommends step by step actions
- B.
Directs the actions of commanders
- C.
Guides commanders in using assets
- D.
Changes faster than Air Force guidance
Correct Answer
C. Guides commanders in using assetsExplanation
Medical Doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. In the medical field, there are various resources and assets available that need to be utilized effectively. Medical Doctrine provides a set of principles and guidelines that commanders can follow to make informed decisions about the allocation and utilization of these assets. It ensures that commanders have a systematic approach in managing medical resources, which ultimately leads to better patient care and overall operational effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What type of doctine guides organization and emplayment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
- A.
Basic
- B.
Tactical
- C.
Operational
- D.
Foundational
Correct Answer
C. OperationalExplanation
Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. This type of doctrine focuses on the overall strategy and planning of military operations, providing guidance on how to achieve specific objectives in a given operational environment. It helps commanders make decisions on the allocation of resources and the coordination of forces to ensure successful mission execution. Operational doctrine is essential for effective military operations and ensures that forces are aligned and coordinated to achieve desired outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
- A.
The Environmental Pretection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.
- B.
An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities.
- C.
An automotive designeer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.
- D.
A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.
Correct Answer
D. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.Explanation
Tactical Doctrine refers to the ability to choose specific qualities to fit individual needs. A car buyer best exemplifies this because they have the freedom to select a car with specific qualities such as speed or safety factors that align with their personal preferences and requirements. This choice allows them to tailor their purchase to their individual needs, making them the best example of Tactical Doctrine.Rate this question:
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- 6.
With which of the following is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statemtnes airmen should be familiar?
- A.
Competency
- B.
Use of Force
- C.
Force Health Protection
- D.
Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service
Correct Answer
B. Use of ForceExplanation
The answer is "Use of Force" because the question asks for a statement that is not one of the three Foundational Doctrine statements that airmen should be familiar with. The other three options, Competency, Force Health Protection, and Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service, are all examples of Foundational Doctrine statements that airmen should be familiar with.Rate this question:
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- 7.
While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
- A.
Physicians
- B.
Supervisors
- C.
Every Airman
- D.
Health and Wellness staff
Correct Answer
C. Every AirmanExplanation
Every Airman is responsible for maintaining their own individual health and fitness. While commanders have overall responsibility for the well-being of their personnel, it is ultimately up to each individual Airman to take care of their own health and fitness. This includes staying physically active, eating a balanced diet, and seeking medical attention when needed. By taking personal responsibility for their health and fitness, Airmen can contribute to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine is accomplished?
- A.
Competency
- B.
Prevention
- C.
Force Health Protection
- D.
Roles and Responsibilities
Correct Answer
A. CompetencyExplanation
When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the specific Air Force Medical Service Doctrine that is accomplished is competency. Competency refers to the ability to perform tasks and duties effectively and efficiently, based on one's knowledge and skills. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service, competency is crucial for providing high-quality medical care and ensuring the well-being of service members. By combining professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how, individuals in the Air Force Medical Service can demonstrate their competency in delivering healthcare services.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fifth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure in an Air Force Specialty Code that identifies career grouping is "First." This suggests that the first figure in the code represents the career grouping of the individual within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The Career Field Education and Training Plan is comprised of two parts. This suggests that there are two distinct components or sections within the plan.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Specialty Training Standard?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The Specialty Training Standard can be found in the second part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
- A.
Individual Training Record
- B.
Master Training Plan
- C.
AF Form 1098
- D.
AF Form 797
Correct Answer
B. Master Training PlanExplanation
The Master Training Plan would contain the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for enlisted members within an assigned area. It is a comprehensive document that provides a roadmap for training and development, ensuring that all necessary skills and knowledge are covered. The plan helps in organizing and tracking training activities, ensuring that enlisted members receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively. The Individual Training Record, AF Form 1098, and AF Form 797 may contain information related to training, but they do not provide the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks as the Master Training Plan does.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience identifier?
- A.
Aerospace Medical Technician
- B.
Aeromedical Evacuation Technician
- C.
Squadron Medical Element Technician
- D.
Independent Duty Medical Technician
Correct Answer
B. Aeromedical Evacuation TechnicianExplanation
Aeromedical Evacuation Technicians are identified by a Special Experience identifier because they have specialized training and experience in providing medical care and transportation for patients during aeromedical evacuations. They are responsible for ensuring the safe and efficient transfer of patients from one medical facility to another, often in a military or emergency setting. This requires knowledge and skills in areas such as patient assessment, emergency medical procedures, and the operation of medical equipment in transport vehicles.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?
- A.
Nurse
- B.
Administration technician
- C.
Aerospace medical service craftsman
- D.
Aerospace medical service journeymen
Correct Answer
D. Aerospace medical service journeymen -
- 15.
When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the...
- A.
Novice to the apprentice
- B.
Apprentice to the journeyman
- C.
Journeyman to craftsman
- D.
Craftsman to technician
Correct Answer
B. Apprentice to the journeymanExplanation
The trainee is transitioning from being an apprentice to becoming a journeyman. This means that they have already acquired basic skills and knowledge in patient care and customer service, and are now starting to develop leadership and management skills. As a journeyman, they will continue to refine their skills and gain more experience in their field.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?
- A.
Prevent lawsuits
- B.
Develop job satisfaction
- C.
Ensure promotion below-the-zone
- D.
Positively influence the patient's visit
Correct Answer
D. Positively influence the patient's visitExplanation
Developing excellent customer service is important for the 4N0XX because it can positively influence the patient's visit. By providing exceptional customer service, the 4N0XX can create a positive and welcoming environment for patients, which can contribute to their overall satisfaction and experience. This can lead to better patient outcomes, increased patient loyalty, and improved reputation for the organization. Additionally, satisfied patients are more likely to comply with medical advice and treatment plans, ultimately benefiting their health and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
- A.
Chief Nurse
- B.
Command Chief
- C.
Career Field Manager
- D.
Medical Group Commander
Correct Answer
A. Chief NurseExplanation
The Chief Nurse may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory. This is because the Chief Nurse is responsible for overseeing the nursing staff and ensuring that they are properly trained and assigned to appropriate job roles. By requesting a 4N0X1 Job Inventory, the Chief Nurse can assess the skills and qualifications of the nursing staff and make necessary adjustments or recommendations for job assignments within the 4N0X1 career field.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
- A.
Six months
- B.
Three years
- C.
Year
- D.
Five Years
Correct Answer
B. Three yearsExplanation
The 4N0XX Job Inventory is normally completed every three years. This suggests that individuals in the 4N0XX career field are required to update and review their job inventory every three years. This could be necessary to ensure that their skills and qualifications are up to date and relevant to the job requirements. By completing the job inventory regularly, it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the individual's capabilities and helps in identifying any areas where additional training or development may be needed.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?
- A.
Commander
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
3-level
- D.
5-level
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey. This implies that the supervisor is in charge of overseeing and ensuring that the survey is completed. The other options, such as the commander, 3-level, and 5-level, do not have the same level of responsibility or authority as the supervisor in this context.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the purpose of documenting training?
- A.
Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.
- B.
Document the number of personnel and the hours they work
- C.
Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board
- D.
Establish patient care guielines for civilian practice
Correct Answer
A. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.Explanation
The purpose of documenting training is to keep a record of an individual's capability, scope of practice, and strengths and weaknesses. This documentation helps in assessing and evaluating the skills and knowledge of the personnel, which can be used for various purposes such as performance reviews, career development, and identifying areas for improvement. It also serves as evidence of training completion and compliance with regulatory requirements.Rate this question:
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- 21.
On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard?
- A.
AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations
- B.
AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training
- C.
AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS
- D.
AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action, Military Personnel Daya System (MILPDS)
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQSExplanation
AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS, is the correct form to document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard. This form is used to document additional training requirements or qualifications beyond what is already outlined in the standard. It allows for the documentation of specialized training that may be unique to a particular duty position.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?
- A.
When the Airman arrives at the first duty station
- B.
When the rank of Master Sergeant has been attained
- C.
When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level
- D.
When the Airman is upgraded from the 5-skill level to the 7-skill level
Correct Answer
C. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill levelExplanation
The AETC Form 156, Student Training Report may be removed from the Individual Training Record when the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This suggests that once the Airman has reached a certain level of skill and proficiency in their training, the need for the training report is no longer necessary and can be removed from their record.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card be filed in the Individual Training Record?
- A.
Part 2, Section A
- B.
Part 3, Section C
- C.
Part 5, Section A
- D.
Part 6, Section B
Correct Answer
D. Part 6, Section BExplanation
The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card would be filed in Part 6, Section B of the Individual Training Record.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?
- A.
Ensure there are refreshments available
- B.
Ask how many people will be attending
- C.
Evaluate learning through performance or tests
- D.
Confirm whether the commander will be attending
Correct Answer
D. Confirm whether the commander will be attendingExplanation
When conducting in-service training, it is important to confirm whether the commander will be attending. This is because the presence of the commander can significantly impact the training session. Their attendance can demonstrate the importance and support for the training, which can motivate the participants to take it more seriously. Additionally, the commander's presence allows them to observe and assess the training firsthand, which can help in evaluating its effectiveness and making any necessary improvements.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
- A.
UMD
- B.
UMPR
- C.
CFETP
- D.
MEPRS
Correct Answer
D. MEPRSExplanation
MEPRS stands for Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. It is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. MEPRS provides detailed information on the cost of providing healthcare services, as well as performance data related to the utilization of resources. This information helps in making informed decisions regarding the allocation of manpower, budget, and other resources within the medical field.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?
- A.
Hours and section
- B.
Type and section
- C.
Hours and AFSC
- D.
Type and AFSC
Correct Answer
B. Type and sectionExplanation
Activities are grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System based on the type of activity and the section it belongs to. This grouping allows for better organization and analysis of data, as it helps to categorize and identify different types of activities within specific sections. By grouping activities based on type and section, it becomes easier to track and monitor performance, expenses, and other relevant information related to medical activities.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
- A.
UMD
- B.
ACR
- C.
UMPR
- D.
MEPRS
Correct Answer
C. UMPRExplanation
The correct answer is UMPR. UMPR stands for Unit Manning Personnel Report. This tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center. It provides information about the manpower allocation and distribution within a unit, allowing for effective management and tracking of personnel resources.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?
- A.
Manpower Standard
- B.
Manning Assistance
- C.
Manpower Requirement
- D.
Manpower Authorization
Correct Answer
D. Manpower AuthorizationExplanation
Manpower Authorization is the correct answer because it refers to a funded manpower requirement that clearly defines the position in terms of function organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristic needed. It ensures that the necessary resources, such as personnel and funding, are allocated to fulfill the specific requirements of a position. Manpower Standard, Manning Assistance, and Manpower Requirement do not encompass all the aspects mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?
- A.
USAFMS
- B.
MAJCOM
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Medical group commander
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOMExplanation
MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. MAJCOM is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping the forces under its command. In the context of the question, MAJCOM would have the authority to approve or disapprove an Authorization Change Request. The other options, USAFMS, Squadron commander, and Medical group commander, do not have the same level of authority as MAJCOM in approving or disapproving such requests.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
- A.
Each individual
- B.
Unit supervisor
- C.
Group comander
- D.
Account custodian
Correct Answer
A. Each individualExplanation
Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly managed and protected. This responsibility is not limited to any specific rank or position, but rather applies to all individuals within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is the disignated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained, and discipline of supply use?
- A.
Supervisors
- B.
Commanders
- C.
Property custodians
- D.
Medical Equipment Management Office personnel
Correct Answer
B. CommandersExplanation
Commanders are the designated individuals responsible for ensuring adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, maintaining records, and disciplining supply use. As leaders within the medical facility, commanders have the authority and responsibility to oversee the management of medical supplies and equipment. They are accountable for ensuring that there is enough storage space available, maintaining accurate records of inventory, and enforcing discipline in the use of supplies. Commanders play a crucial role in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the medical supply system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likeyly to prevent?
- A.
Equipment damage and injury to a patient
- B.
Injury to a patient and buying new technology
- C.
Reporting damamge and buying new technology
- D.
Reporting damamge to the commander and logisitcs
Correct Answer
A. Equipment damage and injury to a patientExplanation
By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel know how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of damage. Additionally, proper training also ensures that the personnel understand the safety protocols and procedures, minimizing the chances of injury to a patient.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?
- A.
20 percent
- B.
50 percent
- C.
70 percent
- D.
90 percent
Correct Answer
C. 70 percentExplanation
70 percent of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. This means that the majority of malfunctions in medical equipment are caused by mistakes or errors made by the operator, rather than any inherent issues with the equipment itself. This highlights the importance of proper training and education for medical professionals to minimize errors and improve patient safety.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?
- A.
Backorder report
- B.
Activity issue/turn-in summary
- C.
Custodial action/custodian report listing
- D.
Medical equipment review and authroization activity
Correct Answer
B. Activity issue/turn-in summaryExplanation
The correct answer is "Activity issue/turn-in summary". This report is generated through DMLSS and provides information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a specific section. It helps in tracking the movement of supplies and equipment within the organization and ensures proper accountability.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?
- A.
None. Once an item is ordered, you must receive it when it arrives.
- B.
Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO
- C.
Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.
- D.
None. It is always better to have extra supplies on hand
Correct Answer
B. Attempt to cancel the order through the MEMOExplanation
The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through the MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This implies that the custodian should communicate with the MEMO (presumably a system or department responsible for managing orders) to request the cancellation of the order for the item that is no longer needed.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
- A.
Cancel the order
- B.
Complain to the commander
- C.
Wait another 15 days then follow up
- D.
Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order
Correct Answer
D. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the orderExplanation
If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This is because MEMO personnel are responsible for managing and tracking orders, so they would have the necessary information to investigate the status of the backordered item. Cancelling the order or complaining to the commander may be premature actions without first verifying the status of the order. Waiting another 15 days may further delay the resolution of the issue, so it is best to involve the appropriate personnel as soon as possible.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?
- A.
Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list
- B.
When they have completed Phase II supply training
- C.
Upon being assinged as property custodian
- D.
The first day of the new fiscal year
Correct Answer
A. Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator listExplanation
A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that they have acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed on the document. It is a formal process that signifies the transfer of accountability to the new custodian.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must...
- A.
Receive a briefing on responsibilities
- B.
Conduct a physical inverntory of equipment
- C.
Document his/her experience for the commander to review
- D.
Review the files to establish when equipment was procured
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a physical inverntory of equipmentExplanation
Before taking over an equipment account, the equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment. This is important to ensure that all equipment is present, accounted for, and in good working condition. By conducting a physical inventory, the custodian can compare the actual equipment with the records and identify any discrepancies or missing items. This helps in maintaining accurate records, preventing loss or theft of equipment, and ensuring that the equipment is ready for use when needed.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?
- A.
When the new fiscal year begins
- B.
When MEMO personnel give permission
- C.
When a new property custodian takes over
- D.
When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL
Correct Answer
D. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRLExplanation
The AF Form 601 may be destroyed when the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL. This implies that the form is only necessary for tracking items that are currently on the CRL (Customer Request List). Once an item is added to or removed from the CRL, there is no longer a need to keep the form, as it is no longer relevant to the current inventory.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
A. DailyExplanation
Equipment inspections are usually conducted daily to ensure that all equipment is functioning properly and to identify any potential issues or safety hazards. Daily inspections allow for immediate action to be taken if any problems are detected, minimizing the risk of accidents or breakdowns. Regular inspections also help to maintain the longevity and efficiency of the equipment, ensuring that it remains in good working condition.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?
- A.
Inspect, store, and remove
- B.
Inspect, remove, and report
- C.
Report, remove, and repair
- D.
Remove, store, and repair
Correct Answer
B. Inspect, remove, and reportExplanation
When looking for discrepancies with equipment, the three actions to remember are to inspect the equipment, remove it if necessary, and report any issues found. Inspecting the equipment helps to identify any visible discrepancies or defects. If any issues are found, the equipment should be removed to prevent further use or potential harm. Finally, reporting the discrepancies ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to address and resolve the issues.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
- A.
AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt only
- B.
AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing
- C.
Activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report
- D.
Activity issue/turn-in summary only
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listingExplanation
The primary source for recording equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing. This form is used to document the temporary issue of equipment and any actions taken by the custodian or repair personnel. It provides a record of the equipment's status and any repairs or maintenance performed on it. Additionally, the custodian actions/custodial report listing can also be used to track the repair history of the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?
- A.
District sales and maintenance representative
- B.
Base supply and equipment maintentance
- C.
Biomedical equipment repair technician
- D.
Original equipment manufacturer
Correct Answer
C. Biomedical equipment repair technicianExplanation
To obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns, it is best to contact a biomedical equipment repair technician. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, so they would have the most up-to-date knowledge on procedures and policies related to equipment issues. District sales and maintenance representatives may have information on equipment sales and general maintenance, but may not have the specific expertise needed for troubleshooting and repairs. Base supply and equipment maintenance may have some information, but it is likely more focused on general maintenance rather than specific procedures. The original equipment manufacturer may also have information, but the biomedical equipment repair technician would be more accessible and knowledgeable in most cases.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
- A.
Telling the truth
- B.
Respect for others
- C.
The duty to do no harm
- D.
Being faithful to do good
Correct Answer
C. The duty to do no harmExplanation
Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the importance of avoiding harm or causing the least possible harm to others. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being and safety of their patients. This principle is closely related to the Hippocratic Oath, which includes the commitment to "do no harm." By adhering to nonmaleficence, healthcare providers strive to prevent harm and minimize any potential risks or negative outcomes for their patients.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following defines fidelity?
- A.
Fairness
- B.
Telling the truth
- C.
The duty to do no harm
- D.
Acting in a responsible manner
Correct Answer
D. Acting in a responsible mannerExplanation
Fidelity refers to the quality of being faithful, loyal, and committed. Acting in a responsible manner aligns with the concept of fidelity as it implies taking ownership of one's actions, being accountable, and fulfilling obligations. By acting responsibly, individuals demonstrate their commitment and loyalty towards their duties and responsibilities, thereby upholding the principle of fidelity.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?
- A.
UMD
- B.
STS
- C.
MTF
- D.
UPMR
Correct Answer
B. STSExplanation
The correct answer is STS. STS stands for Specialty Training Standard, which is a document that outlines the specific tasks and responsibilities that individuals in the 4N0X1 career field are trained and authorized to perform. It defines the scope of practice for these individuals and ensures that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to carry out their duties effectively and safely.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What are patient responsibilities designed to do?
- A.
Protect the patient
- B.
Protect other patients
- C.
Protect the patient and healthcare workers
- D.
Protect other patients and health care workers
Correct Answer
D. Protect other patients and health care workersExplanation
Patient responsibilities are designed to ensure the safety and well-being of not only the patient themselves but also other patients and healthcare workers. By following their responsibilities, patients can help prevent the spread of infections or diseases to others in the healthcare setting. This includes practices such as proper hand hygiene, adhering to isolation protocols, and following healthcare provider instructions. By doing so, patients contribute to creating a safe and healthy environment for everyone involved in their care.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Each medical treatment facility must develop a local poilcy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
- A.
Administration
- B.
Chaperone
- C.
Supervisory
- D.
Appointing
Correct Answer
B. ChaperoneExplanation
Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for the responsibility of a chaperone. A chaperone is responsible for ensuring the safety, privacy, and comfort of the patient during the examination or treatment. They provide support and act as a witness to prevent any potential misconduct or inappropriate behavior. Their presence helps maintain professionalism and protects both the provider and the patient.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?
- A.
Depression
- B.
Acceptance
- C.
Denial
- D.
Anger
Correct Answer
A. DepressionExplanation
During the depression stage of the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because during this stage, the individual may experience feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and isolation. By allowing them to express their thoughts and emotions, it can provide them with a sense of relief and support. It also helps them process their grief and begin to heal.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?
- A.
DD Form 2500
- B.
DD Form 2005
- C.
DD Form 93-975
- D.
DD Form 93-552a
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 2005Explanation
DD Form 2005 is used to inform the patient about the purpose and uses of the information collected in their medical record. This form ensures that the patient is aware of how their medical information will be used and allows them to give consent for specific uses of their information. It is important for patients to be informed about the purposes and uses of their medical record information in order to maintain transparency and protect their privacy rights.Rate this question:
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 11, 2012Quiz Created by
Wigginsjrw
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