4N051 CDC Practice Test Set B (3)

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4N051 CDC Practice Test Set B (3) - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which statement would be the responsiblity of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

    • A.

      Evaluate patient

    • B.

      Obtain patient's history

    • C.

      Transcribe doctor's orders

    • D.

      Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight

    Correct Answer
    D. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight
    Explanation
    During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, it would be the responsibility of the medical technician to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's current health status and establishing a baseline for further medical interventions. Evaluating the patient, obtaining their history, and transcribing doctor's orders may also be important tasks, but in this specific scenario, the focus is on gathering objective measurements to monitor the patient's condition.

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  • 2. 

    What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

    • A.

      Patient’s condition and the cost of admission per day

    • B.

      Facility policy and the patient’s distance from home

    • C.

      Patient’s condition and the facility policy

    • D.

      Facility policy and patient’s request

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient’s condition and the facility policy
    Explanation
    The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important to assess the level of care and resources needed for their admission. The facility policy outlines the guidelines and procedures that need to be followed for admissions. Both factors play a crucial role in determining the appropriate steps to be taken during the admission process.

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  • 3. 

    While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do?

    • A.

      Call the doctor to order restraints

    • B.

      Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling

    • C.

      Look at the patient’s medications; it could be a side effect

    • D.

      Put restraints on the patient until the physician can be notified

    Correct Answer
    B. Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling. This is the appropriate action to take when a patient is experiencing dizziness and instability. The nurse can then take necessary precautions to ensure the patient's safety, such as providing assistance when moving or walking, using mobility aids, or implementing fall prevention measures. It is important to address the underlying cause of the symptoms rather than immediately resorting to restraints or waiting for the physician to be notified.

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  • 4. 

    Who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer?

    • A.

      Chief Nurse

    • B.

      Both Service Chiefs

    • C.

      Receiving physician

    • D.

      Chief of Hospital Services

    Correct Answer
    B. Both Service Chiefs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Both Service Chiefs. When a patient is being transferred from one service to another, the transfer of patient care is authorized by both service chiefs. This ensures that both services are aware of and agree to the transfer, and allows for a smooth transition of care between services. The service chiefs have the authority to approve and coordinate the transfer, ensuring that the patient's needs are met and the transfer is carried out safely and effectively.

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  • 5. 

    During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how are the patient’s valuables safeguarded?

    • A.

      Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail

    • B.

      Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by overnight mail

    • C.

      An aeromedical evacuation technician signs for the property, and transfers it with the patient

    • D.

      An aeromedical evacuation flight nurse signs for the property, and transfers it with the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail
  • 6. 

    Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period oftime, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

    • A.

      Pass

    • B.

      Discharge

    • C.

      Subsiting elsewhere

    • D.

      Absent without leave

    Correct Answer
    A. Pass
    Explanation
    The statement that allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours, is "Pass".

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  • 7. 

    Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within

    • A.

      4 hours

    • B.

      8 hours

    • C.

      12 hours

    • D.

      24 hours

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within 24 hours. This means that any orders given verbally by a healthcare professional must be reviewed and signed by the physician within a maximum time frame of 24 hours. This ensures that there is proper documentation and accountability for the orders given, and allows for the physician to review and confirm the appropriateness of the orders. It also helps in maintaining accurate medical records and ensuring patient safety.

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  • 8. 

    The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the

    • A.

      Intake and Output flow sheet and the Vital Signs Record

    • B.

      Blood Transfusion record and Doctors Orders

    • C.

      Vital Signs Record and Progress Notes

    • D.

      Progress Notes and Doctors Orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Intake and Output flow sheet and the Vital Signs Record
    Explanation
    A medical technician is responsible for completing various forms in their job. Two of the most common forms they need to complete are the Intake and Output flow sheet and the Vital Signs Record. The Intake and Output flow sheet is used to document the amount of fluids a patient takes in and eliminates, which is important for monitoring their hydration status. The Vital Signs Record is used to record the patient's vital signs such as temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, which provides important information about their overall health and any changes in their condition. These two forms are essential for tracking and monitoring a patient's health status.

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  • 9. 

    What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake andOutput Worksheet?

    • A.

      No documentation is required at shift change

    • B.

      Document all totals in the Remarks section

    • C.

      Document in the Grand Total block

    • D.

      Circle the last accumulated total

    Correct Answer
    D. Circle the last accumulated total
    Explanation
    The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total for that shift is circled to indicate that it is the final tally for that period. This helps to ensure accuracy and clarity when recording and tracking intake and output data.

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  • 10. 

    If an inpatient chart with doctor’s orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day,you would assume the

    • A.

      Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed

    • B.

      Patient is doing well and no problems were noted

    • C.

      Doctor probably changed the orders verbally

    • D.

      Vital signs were not completed

    Correct Answer
    D. Vital signs were not completed
    Explanation
    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, it would be safe to assume that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the healthcare staff being busy, the patient refusing to have their vital signs taken, or any other unforeseen circumstances. It is important to ensure that vital signs are regularly monitored as they provide crucial information about a patient's health status.

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  • 11. 

    Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?

    • A.

      Planning

    • B.

      Assessing

    • C.

      Evaluating

    • D.

      Implementing

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning
    Explanation
    Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a strategy to address the identified nursing problems. It includes setting goals, determining interventions, and creating a timeline for implementation. Through planning, nurses can prioritize and organize their actions to effectively address the patient's needs and achieve desired outcomes. By carefully considering the assessment data and evaluating the effectiveness of interventions, nurses can make informed decisions during the planning process to provide the best possible care for their patients.

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  • 12. 

    Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?

    • A.

      An observable change in patient behavior

    • B.

      A measurable change in the patient’s condition

    • C.

      A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning

    • D.

      A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior

    Correct Answer
    D. A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior
    Explanation
    A client goal in the nursing process refers to a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be specific, achievable, and can be observed or measured. It serves as a guide for planning and implementing nursing interventions to help the patient achieve the desired outcome.

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  • 13. 

    Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively?

    • A.

      Nursing interventions

    • B.

      Nursing diagnosis

    • C.

      Nursing skills

    • D.

      Charting

    Correct Answer
    A. Nursing interventions
    Explanation
    Nursing interventions are actions performed by nurses to help patients reach their goals most effectively. These interventions are based on the nursing diagnosis, which involves assessing the patient's needs and developing a plan of care. Nursing skills are the abilities and knowledge that nurses possess to provide effective care, but they are not specific actions. Charting is the documentation of the patient's condition and the care provided, which is important but does not directly contribute to helping the patient reach their goals. Therefore, nursing interventions are the most appropriate action to help the patient reach their goals effectively.

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  • 14. 

    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient’s concerns prior to surgery?

    • A.

      Sedation

    • B.

      Back massage

    • C.

      Oxygen therapy

    • D.

      Preoperative teaching

    Correct Answer
    D. Preoperative teaching
    Explanation
    Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect, and addressing any questions or concerns, patients can feel more prepared and less anxious about the surgery. This education can also help patients understand the importance of following preoperative instructions, such as fasting or medication restrictions, which can further contribute to a successful surgery and recovery.

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  • 15. 

    What has a significant impact on the patient’s perceived quality of care and treatment?

    • A.

      Credentials of the surgeon

    • B.

      Availability of a smoking lounge

    • C.

      Professionalism and caring attitude

    • D.

      Number of nurses and technicians on staff

    Correct Answer
    C. Professionalism and caring attitude
    Explanation
    The professionalism and caring attitude of healthcare providers have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism by being knowledgeable, skilled, and efficient in their work, it instills confidence in the patient and reassures them that they are receiving competent care. Additionally, a caring attitude, which involves showing empathy, compassion, and respect towards the patient, helps create a positive and supportive environment that enhances the patient's overall experience and satisfaction with their care.

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  • 16. 

    The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to

    • A.

      Reduce recovery time

    • B.

      Dry mucous membranes

    • C.

      Produce an unconscious state

    • D.

      Prevent aspiration during surgery

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry mucous membranes
    Explanation
    The preoperative medication given to the surgery patient is intended to dry mucous membranes. This is important because dry mucous membranes help to reduce the risk of complications during surgery, such as excessive bleeding or infection. By drying the mucous membranes, the patient's airway is kept clear and the surgical site is less likely to become contaminated. This can ultimately contribute to a smoother and safer surgical procedure and aid in the patient's overall recovery.

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  • 17. 

    Which surgical case would likely be performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic?

    • A.

      Hip replacement

    • B.

      Hysterectomy

    • C.

      Appendectomy

    • D.

      Odonectomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Odonectomy
    Explanation
    An odonectomy is the surgical removal of a tooth, typically performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic. This procedure is relatively quick and does not require an overnight stay in the hospital. On the other hand, hip replacement, hysterectomy, and appendectomy are more complex surgeries that often require a longer hospital stay for post-operative care. Therefore, an odonectomy is the most likely surgical case to be performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic.

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  • 18. 

    Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may beremoved?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    Antiembolism stockings are compression stockings that are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. These stockings are typically worn by patients who are immobile or have limited mobility. It is important to keep the stockings on for most of the day to ensure their effectiveness. However, there may be situations where the stockings need to be temporarily removed, such as for bathing or changing clothes. Without provider approval, the maximum amount of time the stockings can be removed is 30 minutes. This is to minimize the risk of blood clots forming during the period when the stockings are not worn.

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  • 19. 

    What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

    • A.

      Isolation is necessary

    • B.

      No precautions are necessary

    • C.

      A lead apron is placed over the patient

    • D.

      Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolation is necessary
    Explanation
    Isolation is necessary for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant because radioisotopes emit radiation, which can be harmful to others. By isolating the patient, the exposure of radiation to other individuals can be minimized, ensuring their safety. This precaution is taken to prevent any potential health risks and to protect others from unnecessary radiation exposure.

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  • 20. 

    When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate anappropriate response to light being flashed on the patient’s eyes?

    • A.

      Onset Provoke Quality Radiation Severity and Time (OPQRST)

    • B.

      Pupils Equal, round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA)

    • C.

      Evaluating extraocular movements (EOM)

    • D.

      Range-of-motion (ROM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Pupils Equal, round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA)
    Explanation
    The examination that would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes is Pupils Equal, round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA). This examination assesses the size, shape, and reaction of the pupils to light. Equal and round pupils that constrict when exposed to light and accommodate when focusing on a near object are considered normal responses. This examination helps to evaluate the functionality of the cranial nerves and the integrity of the visual pathway.

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  • 21. 

    With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient’stransfusion on

    • A.

      A Standard Form 518

    • B.

      A Standard Form 3066

    • C.

      An AF Form 2019

    • D.

      An AF Form 3066

    Correct Answer
    A. A Standard Form 518
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a Standard Form 518. When it comes to blood transfusions, it is important to document the procedure accurately for record-keeping purposes. The Standard Form 518 is a commonly used form for documenting blood transfusions in medical facilities. It allows healthcare professionals to record important information such as the patient's name, blood type, the type and amount of blood transfused, any adverse reactions or complications, and the healthcare provider's signature. This form helps ensure proper documentation and communication between healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care.

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  • 22. 

    What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?

    • A.

      Platelets

    • B.

      Leukocytes

    • C.

      Packed cells

    • D.

      Anticoagulants

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are the component of blood that is involved in the clotting process. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of the injury, preventing excessive bleeding. They also release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a blood clot. Without platelets, the clotting process would be impaired, leading to difficulties in stopping bleeding.

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  • 23. 

    How is whole blood normally supplied?

    • A.

      100 cc units

    • B.

      250 cc units

    • C.

      450 cc units

    • D.

      500 cc units

    Correct Answer
    C. 450 cc units
    Explanation
    Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that the standard supply of whole blood is in units of 450 cubic centimeters.

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  • 24. 

    What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start ofblood products?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products is 30. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Transfusing the blood products within this time frame helps to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and maintain the quality of the blood products.

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  • 25. 

    If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distendedneck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

    • A.

      Continue to monitor, this is a normal side effect

    • B.

      Place the patient on his or her left side

    • C.

      Administer 100 percent oxygen

    • D.

      Stop the transfusion

    Correct Answer
    D. Stop the transfusion
    Explanation
    If a patient receiving a blood transfusion exhibits distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called fluid overload. This occurs when the volume of fluid being transfused is too much for the patient's body to handle. Stopping the transfusion is the first and most important step to prevent further fluid overload. This action allows healthcare providers to assess the patient's condition, provide appropriate interventions, and prevent further harm.

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  • 26. 

    A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing violently or crying incessantly is mostlikely experiencing

    • A.

      Extreme pain

    • B.

      Hyperthermia

    • C.

      Emergence delirium

    • D.

      Electrolyte imbalances

    Correct Answer
    C. Emergence delirium
    Explanation
    Emergence delirium refers to a state of confusion and agitation that can occur as a patient wakes up from anesthesia. It is characterized by symptoms such as restlessness, thrashing, and crying. This can be caused by various factors, including the effects of anesthesia wearing off, the stress of the surgery, and the unfamiliar environment of the recovery room. Extreme pain may also contribute to emergence delirium, as the patient's discomfort can exacerbate their confusion and agitation. Hyperthermia and electrolyte imbalances are less likely to be the primary causes of the patient's symptoms in this scenario.

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  • 27. 

    Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

    • A.

      Modified lateral

    • B.

      Trendelenberg

    • C.

      Semisitting

    • D.

      Supine

    Correct Answer
    C. Semisitting
    Explanation
    Semisitting position is the most suitable position for performing oropharyngeal suctioning. This position allows for better access to the patient's airway and facilitates the removal of secretions or foreign objects. It also helps prevent aspiration and ensures that the patient's head is slightly elevated, promoting better drainage of secretions. The modified lateral, Trendelenberg, and supine positions may not provide the same level of access or drainage as the semisitting position.

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  • 28. 

    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called

    • A.

      Hairline

    • B.

      Pathologic

    • C.

      Congenital

    • D.

      Traumatic

    Correct Answer
    B. Pathologic
    Explanation
    A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when a weakened bone is unable to withstand normal stress or pressure, leading to a break. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells invade the bone and weaken it, making it more susceptible to fractures. Pathologic fractures are different from traumatic fractures, which occur due to an external force or injury, and hairline fractures, which are small cracks in the bone. Congenital fractures are present at birth.

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  • 29. 

    Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as

    • A.

      Infectious

    • B.

      Congenital

    • C.

      Pathologic

    • D.

      Temporary

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital
    Explanation
    Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that they are present at birth and result from abnormalities or developmental issues during fetal development. These deformities are not caused by infections or diseases, but rather by genetic or environmental factors that affect the development of the musculoskeletal system. They are typically not temporary and require medical intervention or treatment to correct or manage.

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  • 30. 

    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems?

    • A.

      Inflammatory disease

    • B.

      Congenital problems

    • C.

      Traumatic injuries

    • D.

      Infecitous disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Traumatic injuries
    Explanation
    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for traumatic injuries. This is because they are often exposed to high-risk situations and physical demands that can result in accidents, falls, or combat-related injuries. Traumatic injuries can include fractures, dislocations, sprains, strains, and other musculoskeletal injuries. These injuries require specialized orthopedic care and treatment to ensure proper healing and restoration of function.

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  • 31. 

    The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients withorthopedic disorders because it

    • A.

      Causes drop foot

    • B.

      Causes venous stasis

    • C.

      Causes external hip rotation

    • D.

      Promotes flexion deformities of the hip

    Correct Answer
    D. Promotes flexion deformities of the hip
    Explanation
    The semi-recumbent position can promote flexion deformities of the hip in patients with orthopedic disorders. This position involves sitting with the knees bent and the hips flexed, which can lead to a shortening of the hip flexor muscles and tightening of the hip joint. Over time, this can result in a flexion contracture, where the hip is unable to fully extend. This can further worsen the patient's orthopedic condition and limit their mobility.

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  • 32. 

    What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness oraching?

    • A.

      Muscular pain

    • B.

      Bone infection

    • C.

      Malignant tumor

    • D.

      Psychosomatic issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscular pain
    Explanation
    If a patient complains of soreness or aching, the most likely orthopedic problem would be muscular pain. This is because soreness and aching are common symptoms of muscle strain or overuse. Muscular pain can occur due to various reasons such as muscle tension, muscle injury, or muscle inflammation. It is a common orthopedic issue that can be treated with rest, pain medication, physical therapy, and other conservative management techniques.

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  • 33. 

    Which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?

    • A.

      Age

    • B.

      Gender

    • C.

      Extent of injury

    • D.

      Circulation of the area

    Correct Answer
    B. Gender
    Explanation
    The healing time of a bone fracture is not determined by gender. Factors such as age, extent of injury, and circulation of the area play a role in the healing process. However, gender does not directly affect the healing time of a bone fracture.

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  • 34. 

    The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missinglimb is referred to as a

    • A.

      Phantom limb pain

    • B.

      Phantom limb sensation

    • C.

      Physiological phenomena

    • D.

      Psychological phenomena

    Correct Answer
    A. Phantom limb pain
    Explanation
    Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This pain is a result of the brain still receiving signals from the nerves that used to be connected to the amputated limb. It is a physiological phenomenon rather than a psychological one, as it is caused by the body's response to the amputation rather than being purely in the mind. The term "phantom limb sensation" refers to the feeling of the presence of the missing limb without the associated pain.

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  • 35. 

    What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputationof a limb?

    • A.

      Suction

    • B.

      Oxygen

    • C.

      NG tube

    • D.

      Tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    D. Tourniquet
    Explanation
    A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb because it is used to control bleeding by applying pressure to the affected area. It helps to prevent excessive blood loss and allows for a more controlled environment during the immediate postoperative period. Additionally, a tourniquet can be used to facilitate the application of a prosthetic limb if necessary. Suction, oxygen, and an NG tube may also be important in postoperative care, but they are not specifically essential for a surgical amputation of a limb.

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  • 36. 

    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

    • A.

      A life-long process

    • B.

      Of no use because they do not fully recover

    • C.

      Continued for 6 months after the injury occurred

    • D.

      Continued for up to 2 years after the final surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. A life-long process
    Explanation
    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a life-long process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and can lead to long-term physical impairments. Therefore, rehabilitation is necessary throughout the patient's life to manage symptoms, improve function, and enhance their quality of life. While some progress may be made in the initial months or years after the injury, full recovery is typically not possible, making ongoing rehabilitation crucial for maintaining the best possible outcomes.

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  • 37. 

    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Cardiac arrest

    • C.

      Disorientation

    • D.

      Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    B. Cardiac arrest
    Explanation
    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because sudden movements or changes in position can put stress on the cardiovascular system, especially in patients with spinal cord injuries. The abrupt movement can disrupt blood flow and put strain on the heart, potentially leading to cardiac arrest. It is important to handle patients with spinal cord injuries with caution and avoid sudden movements to prevent such complications.

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  • 38. 

    During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to

    • A.

      Sustain life

    • B.

      Stop ischemia

    • C.

      Maintain mobility

    • D.

      Monitor vital signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustain life
    Explanation
    During the acute stage of a stroke, the primary goal is to sustain life. This means that the immediate focus is on ensuring that the individual's vital functions, such as breathing and circulation, are supported and maintained. Sustaining life involves providing necessary medical interventions, such as administering oxygen, fluids, and medications, as well as monitoring vital signs to assess the patient's condition. While other goals such as stopping ischemia (lack of blood flow) and maintaining mobility are important, they may be addressed after the priority of sustaining life has been achieved.

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  • 39. 

    During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

    • A.

      Early infancy

    • B.

      Preschool

    • C.

      School age

    • D.

      Adolescence

    Correct Answer
    B. Preschool
    Explanation
    During the preschool stage, children typically experience a heightened sense of separation anxiety. This is because they are becoming more independent and exploring the world around them, but still rely heavily on their caregivers for support and reassurance. The fear of being separated from their primary caregivers can cause significant stress and anxiety for preschool-aged children. This stage is characterized by clinginess, refusal to go to school or daycare, and difficulty separating from parents or caregivers.

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  • 40. 

    Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?

    • A.

      Strictly enforced rules

    • B.

      Use of safety restraints

    • C.

      Changes in daily routine

    • D.

      Established daily rituals and routines

    Correct Answer
    D. Established daily rituals and routines
    Explanation
    Established daily rituals and routines provide a hospitalized child with a sense of control. When a child is in the hospital, their daily life is disrupted, and they may feel a lack of control over their environment. Having established rituals and routines can help provide a sense of predictability and stability, allowing the child to feel more in control of their situation. It provides a sense of familiarity and comfort, which can be particularly important for children who are experiencing stress and anxiety due to their hospitalization.

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  • 41. 

    The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is

    • A.

      Fantasy

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Regression

    • D.

      Displacement

    Correct Answer
    C. Regression
    Explanation
    When children lose their sense of control, they often resort to regression as an adaptive mechanism. Regression refers to reverting back to behaviors and patterns of earlier developmental stages. This can manifest in behaviors such as thumb-sucking, bed-wetting, or seeking comfort from caregivers. By regressing, children are attempting to regain a sense of security and control in a familiar and comforting way.

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  • 42. 

    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be

    • A.

      Hypernatremia

    • B.

      Hyperkalemia

    • C.

      Dehydration

    • D.

      Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    C. Dehydration
    Explanation
    When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous and may require medical intervention to restore fluid balance. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor and address the child's hydration status when caring for them.

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  • 43. 

    Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

    • A.

      The physician needs to suture the child’s face

    • B.

      The child continues to climb out of bed in the night

    • C.

      To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair

    • D.

      You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child

    Correct Answer
    D. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
    Explanation
    Restraining a child is appropriate in situations where there is a risk of harm or injury to the child. The physician needing to suture the child's face is a valid reason for restraining the child to ensure the procedure can be done safely and effectively. The child continuing to climb out of bed in the night is also a valid reason for restraining the child to prevent falls and potential injuries. Similarly, restraining a child to prevent them from falling out of a highchair is appropriate for their safety. However, having other tasks to do and no time to sit with the child is not a valid reason for restraining the child as it does not address any safety concerns or potential harm to the child.

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  • 44. 

    The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally

    • A.

      Less because of frequent daytime naps

    • B.

      More because of insufficient activity

    • C.

      The same as required by all ages

    • D.

      More than for youthful patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Less because of frequent daytime naps
    Explanation
    Elderly patients often experience frequent daytime naps, which can reduce their need for sleep at night. These naps may compensate for any sleep deficits they may have during the day, resulting in a decreased need for sleep during the night. Therefore, the amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally less due to the presence of frequent daytime naps.

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  • 45. 

    The first stage of dying is

    • A.

      Bargaining

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Anger

    • D.

      Denial

    Correct Answer
    D. Denial
    Explanation
    In the first stage of dying, denial is a common response. This is when individuals refuse to accept the reality of their impending death or the death of a loved one. It is a defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with death. They may exhibit behaviors such as avoiding discussions about death, seeking second opinions, or refusing to acknowledge any signs or symptoms of their illness. Denial allows individuals to temporarily distance themselves from the harsh reality and can provide a sense of control and hope.

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  • 46. 

    How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

    • A.

      Explain the importance of nutrition

    • B.

      Ask the patient to try new foods

    • C.

      Cater to the patients customs

    • D.

      Bring a tray full of choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Cater to the patients customs
    Explanation
    Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat familiar and preferred foods. As people age, their taste preferences may change, and they may find comfort in eating foods that are familiar to them. By respecting and accommodating the patient's customs, their appetite can be stimulated as they feel more comfortable and satisfied with their meal choices.

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  • 47. 

    What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into thesurrounding tissues?

    • A.

      Infiltration

    • B.

      Embolism

    • C.

      Phlebitis

    • D.

      Extravasation

    Correct Answer
    D. Extravasation
    Explanation
    Extravasation is the correct answer because it refers to the leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues. This can cause serious side effects such as tissue damage, pain, inflammation, and potential loss of function in the affected area. It is important to monitor patients receiving chemotherapy closely to detect any signs of extravasation and take immediate action to minimize the damage and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • 48. 

    All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed

    • A.

      Environment

    • B.

      Personality

    • C.

      Character

    • D.

      Heredity

    Correct Answer
    B. Personality
    Explanation
    Personality refers to the unique set of traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses a person's thoughts, emotions, and actions, which collectively shape their behavior and interactions with others. Unlike heredity, which refers to the genetic factors inherited from one's parents, personality is influenced by a combination of genetic, environmental, and social factors. While character refers to an individual's moral and ethical values, personality is a broader term that encompasses various aspects of an individual's psychological makeup. Therefore, personality is the most suitable term to describe all that a person is, feels, and does.

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  • 49. 

    What affects an individuals feeling about themselves?

    • A.

      Socioeconomic status

    • B.

      Opinions of others

    • C.

      Self perception

    • D.

      Job title

    Correct Answer
    C. Self perception
    Explanation
    An individual's feeling about themselves is influenced by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how individuals perceive and interpret their own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. It includes their beliefs, values, self-esteem, and self-image. Self-perception plays a crucial role in shaping one's self-confidence, self-worth, and overall self-concept. It is influenced by various factors such as personal experiences, achievements, failures, and self-reflection. Unlike socioeconomic status, opinions of others, or job title, self-perception is an internal factor that individuals have control over and can work on improving to enhance their self-esteem and self-image.

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  • 50. 

    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaninglessactions?

    • A.

      Compulsion

    • B.

      Delusion

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Conflict

    Correct Answer
    A. Compulsion
    Explanation
    A compulsion is a psychiatric term that refers to an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions. It is a repetitive behavior or mental act that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to certain rules. These actions are often performed to reduce anxiety or prevent a feared event from occurring. Compulsions are commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), where individuals experience intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and engage in repetitive behaviors (compulsions) to alleviate distress.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 30, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 04, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    James
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