CDC 2r051 Unit Review Exercises

Reviewed by Editorial Team

The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.

Learn about Our Editorial Process

| By Jollyrogers138

Jollyrogers138

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 148

| Attempts: 148

Quiz Flashcard

Questions

Feedback

During the Quiz End of Quiz

Difficulty

Easy First Hard First Sequential

1/378 Questions

Which of the following is not a level of maintenance?
- Base.
- Depot.
- Intermediate.
- Organizational.

About This Quiz

This CDC 2R051 Unit Review Exercises quiz assesses knowledge crucial for air and space maintenance readiness, focusing on maintenance levels, mission capability, and unscheduled maintenance corrections. It is designed for professionals seeking to enhance their technical skills in military aviation maintenance.

Quiz Preview

2.

Which inspection method is defined as a “thorough and searching inspection of the entire aircraft?”
- Major.
- Minor.
- Preflight.
- Thruflight.
Correct Answer

A. Major.

Explanation

A major inspection is defined as a thorough and searching inspection of the entire aircraft. This type of inspection involves a detailed examination of all components and systems to ensure they are in proper working order and meet the required standards. It is typically conducted at regular intervals or after a certain number of flight hours to ensure the overall safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

Rate this question:
3.

Which inspection method is used when maintenance or operational requirements call for the inspection to be performed at the equipment location?
- Preventive.
- In-place.
- Delayed.
- In-dock.
Correct Answer

A. In-place.

Explanation

The correct answer is "In-place." This inspection method is used when maintenance or operational requirements call for the inspection to be performed at the equipment location. It means that the inspection is carried out without moving the equipment from its current position. This method is often chosen when it is not practical or necessary to move the equipment to a different location for inspection.

Rate this question:
4.

The maintenance management section tasked with accomplishing a maintenance capabilities assessment, known as the “First Look”, is the?
- Maintenance management production
- Maintenance management analysis
- Maintenance operations center
- Maintenance supply liaison.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance management analysis

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance management analysis. This is because the task of accomplishing a maintenance capabilities assessment, known as the "First Look," falls under the responsibility of the maintenance management analysis section. This section is responsible for analyzing and evaluating the maintenance operations and capabilities of an organization to identify areas of improvement and ensure efficient maintenance processes.

Rate this question:
5.

Each maintenance unit should strive for a base repair capability rate of
- 90 percent
- 95 percent
- 97 percent
- 100 percent
Correct Answer

A. 100 percent

Explanation

Each maintenance unit should strive for a base repair capability rate of 100 percent because this means that the unit is able to repair all equipment or systems that are in need of repair. A base repair capability rate of 100 percent indicates that the unit has the necessary resources, skills, and efficiency to complete all repairs successfully. This ensures that equipment downtime is minimized and that operations can continue without interruption. Striving for a 100 percent base repair capability rate demonstrates a commitment to excellence and the highest level of maintenance effectiveness.

Rate this question:
6.

Which action taken codes are used to compute base repair capability rates?
- A, F, G, K, L, V, Z.
- A, F, G, K, L, B, P.
- A, F, G, K, L, Z.
- A, F, B, G, K, L.
Correct Answer

A. A, F, G, K, L, Z.

Explanation

The action taken codes A, F, G, K, L, and Z are used to compute base repair capability rates. These codes likely represent specific actions or tasks related to repair capabilities. The inclusion of these codes in the computation suggests that they are essential for determining the base repair capability rates.

Rate this question:
7.

Delayed discrepancies are referred to as
- Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting defer (AWD).
- Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM).
- Awaiting defer (AWD) or awaiting maintenance (AWM)
- Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting deferred discrepancy (ADD).
Correct Answer

A. Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM).
8.

What mission capability status code is the sum of not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) and reflects total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply?
- Fully mission capable (FMC).
- Partial mission capable (PMC).
- Not mission capable both (NMCB).
- Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).
Correct Answer

A. Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).

Explanation

The mission capability status code that reflects the total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply is Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS). This code includes both the not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) categories, providing a comprehensive assessment of the aircraft's inability to perform its mission due to supply issues.

Rate this question:
9.

What deviation category is used when an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather?
- Local.
- Chargeable.
- Nonchargeable.
- Higher headquarters.
Correct Answer

A. Nonchargeable.

Explanation

When an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather, it falls under the nonchargeable deviation category. This means that the cancellation is not attributed to any fault or responsibility of the pilot or the aircraft, but rather to external factors beyond their control, such as adverse weather conditions. Nonchargeable deviations are typically not counted against the pilot or the aircraft and do not result in any penalties or consequences.

Rate this question:
10.

If the number of deviations increases, the flying scheduling effectiveness rate will
- Go up
- Go down
- Not be used
- Remain the same.
Correct Answer

A. Go down

Explanation

If the number of deviations increases, it means that there are more disruptions or deviations from the planned schedule. This would likely result in a decrease in the flying scheduling effectiveness rate because the deviations would cause delays, cancellations, or other issues that affect the efficiency of the scheduling process. Therefore, the effectiveness rate is expected to go down as the number of deviations increases.

Rate this question:
11.

When used for the departure reliability rate, the standard for on-time departure is within
- 10 minutes of the scheduled departure time.
- 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time.
- 20 minutes of the scheduled departure time.
- 24 minutes of the scheduled departure time.
Correct Answer

A. 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

Explanation

The correct answer is 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time. This means that for a flight to be considered on-time, it must depart within 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time. This standard allows for a small window of flexibility, recognizing that minor delays can occur due to various factors such as boarding, weather conditions, or air traffic control. By setting a 14-minute threshold, airlines can measure and improve their departure reliability rate while still accounting for some unforeseen circumstances.

Rate this question:
12.

What factor represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control?
- Abort.
- Spare.
- Attrition.
- Utilization.
Correct Answer

A. Attrition.

Explanation

Attrition represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control. Attrition refers to the reduction or loss of aircraft or personnel over time due to factors such as accidents, mechanical failures, or other unforeseen circumstances. In this context, attrition specifically refers to the loss of scheduled sorties, which are missions or flights, that are unable to be completed due to factors beyond the control of the unit.

Rate this question:
13.

Spares are used to compensate for which unit controlled factors?
- Maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts.
- Operations additions, operations aborts, and operations cancellations.
- Scheduling additions, training sorties, and higher headquarters tasking.
- Maintenance additions, flight test additions, and higher headquarters additions.
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts.

Explanation

Spares are used to compensate for maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts. This means that when there are cancellations or aborts in maintenance or supply operations, spares are used to fill in the gaps and ensure that the necessary equipment or materials are still available. Spares help to minimize the impact of these factors on the overall operations and ensure that the unit can continue functioning effectively.

Rate this question:
14.

In determining the spare factor, what do you compare to the number of historical sorties scheduled?
- Number of flyable aircraft
- Number of non-flyable aircraft
- Number of 1st sortie logistics losses
- Number of 2nd sortie logistics losses
Correct Answer

A. Number of 1st sortie logistics losses

Explanation

The spare factor is determined by comparing the number of 1st sortie logistics losses to the number of historical sorties scheduled. This means that the number of times there were logistical losses during the first sortie is compared to the total number of sorties that were scheduled in the past. This comparison helps to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the logistics operations during the first sortie.

Rate this question:
15.

What code is used in the computation of the break rate?
- Fix Code 3
- Cap Code 3.
- Landing Code 3.
- Not reparable this station (NRTS) Code 3.
Correct Answer

A. Landing Code 3.

Explanation

The code used in the computation of the break rate is "Landing Code 3." This suggests that the break rate is calculated based on the number of landings, possibly indicating the frequency of breaks or failures during the landing process.

Rate this question:
16.

When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, what maintenance status code is entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
- Partial mission capable (PMC).
- Fully mission capable (FMC).
- Not mission capable (NMC).
- Cap code 3.
Correct Answer

A. Not mission capable (NMC).

Explanation

When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, it means that the aircraft is not mission capable. Therefore, the maintenance status code entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) would be "Not mission capable (NMC)".

Rate this question:
17.

The total abort rate is a combination of
- Air and ground abort
- Air abort, late takeoff, and ground abort
- Air abort, total deviations, and ground abort.
- Air abort, ground abort, and maintenance cancellation.
Correct Answer

A. Air and ground abort

Explanation

The correct answer is "air and ground abort". This means that the total abort rate includes both air aborts and ground aborts. Air abort refers to a situation where an aircraft has to abort its takeoff or landing due to a problem or emergency in the air. Ground abort, on the other hand, refers to a situation where an aircraft has to abort its takeoff due to a problem or emergency on the ground. By considering both air and ground aborts, the total abort rate provides a comprehensive measure of the number of aborted flights.

Rate this question:
18.

High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of
- Available aircraft
- Available spare parts.
- Qualified supervisors
- Thorough troubleshooting
Correct Answer

A. Thorough troubleshooting

Explanation

High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of thorough troubleshooting. This means that the issue is not being properly identified and resolved, leading to the problem recurring or repeating. If the troubleshooting process is not thorough enough, the root cause of the issue may not be addressed, resulting in the same problem happening again. Therefore, a lack of thorough troubleshooting can contribute to high repeat and recur rates.

Rate this question:
19.

What action taken code means “removed for cannibalization”?
- C
- R
- T
- U
Correct Answer

A. T

Explanation

The action taken code "T" stands for "removed for cannibalization". This means that the item or part has been taken out of service or inventory in order to be used for repairing or replacing another item or part. Cannibalization is a common practice in industries where spare parts may be scarce or expensive, and it allows for the reuse of components to minimize costs and downtime.

Rate this question:
20.

Which Cyber/Space/Communications mission performance indicator is a valuable indicator of equipment or system maintainability and speed of repair?
- Utilization rate.
- Operational availability
- Mean time to restore functions (MTTRF).
- Mean time between maintenance (MTBM).
Correct Answer

A. Mean time to restore functions (MTTRF).

Explanation

Mean time to restore functions (MTTRF) is a valuable indicator of equipment or system maintainability and speed of repair. It measures the average time it takes to restore a system or equipment to full functionality after a failure or breakdown. A lower MTTRF indicates that the system or equipment can be repaired quickly, leading to less downtime and higher operational availability. Utilization rate measures the extent to which a system or equipment is being used, while operational availability measures the percentage of time a system or equipment is available for use. Mean time between maintenance (MTBM) measures the average time between maintenance activities.

Rate this question:
21.

Who do you contact to gain access to Logistics, Installations, and Mission Support–Enterprise View (LIMS–EV)?
- LIMS–EV Team
- Comm Help Desk.
- Air Force Portal Team
- Mission Support Help Team
Correct Answer

A. LIMS–EV Team

Explanation

To gain access to Logistics, Installations, and Mission Support–Enterprise View (LIMS–EV), you would contact the LIMS–EV Team. They are the ones responsible for granting access to this system.

Rate this question:
22.

The first step or point of departure in the analysis process is to
- Manipulate the data
- Compare the data
- Collect the data
- Verify the data.
Correct Answer

A. Collect the data

Explanation

In the analysis process, the first step is to collect the data. This involves gathering relevant information and data points that are necessary for the analysis. Without collecting the data, it would not be possible to analyze or draw any meaningful conclusions. Manipulating, comparing, and verifying the data can come later in the analysis process, but collecting the data is the initial and crucial step.

Rate this question:
23.

In which step of the analysis process do you put the data you have collected into a usable form?
- Verify.
- Analyze.
- Compare.
- Manipulate/compute.
Correct Answer

A. Manipulate/compute.

Explanation

In the analysis process, the step of manipulating/computing the data involves organizing and transforming the collected data into a format that can be easily analyzed. This step may include tasks such as cleaning the data, performing calculations, creating variables, and summarizing the data. By manipulating and computing the data, analysts can derive meaningful insights and patterns that can be used for further analysis and decision-making.

Rate this question:
24.

When investigating a problem, why should you continue on even if the problem seems to have disappeared?
- The disappearance may only be temporary.
- It can determine the cost of the action taken
- You might need this information at a later date.
- All investigations must be closed out and the results filed.
Correct Answer

A. The disappearance may only be temporary.

Explanation

Continuing the investigation even if the problem seems to have disappeared is important because the disappearance of the problem may only be temporary. There is a possibility that the problem could resurface in the future, and by continuing the investigation, one can identify the root cause of the problem and implement preventive measures to avoid its recurrence. This proactive approach ensures that the problem is effectively resolved and does not cause further issues.

Rate this question:
25.

One of your responsibilities in the analysis process is to ensure your assessments must be objective and answer specifically
- What you want done
- The purpose of the study
- Why and how a problem is occurring.
- The why, how, when, and where questions
Correct Answer

A. The why, how, when, and where questions

Explanation

In the analysis process, it is important to ensure that assessments are objective and answer specifically to achieve the desired outcome. This involves addressing the why, how, when, and where questions related to the purpose of the study and the problem at hand. By considering these aspects, a comprehensive analysis can be conducted, providing a deeper understanding of the situation and facilitating effective decision-making.

Rate this question:
26.

Which statement best describes a pulse point in a unit?
- A squadron party
- The debriefing section
- An informal group meeting
- Conversion of raw data into meaningful statistics.
Correct Answer

A. The debriefing section

Explanation

A pulse point in a unit refers to the debriefing section. This is where members of the unit come together to discuss and analyze the outcomes of a specific event or mission. It serves as a crucial moment for reflection, learning, and improvement within the unit. The debriefing section allows for open communication, sharing of experiences, and identification of areas that need attention or adjustment. It helps to ensure that the unit is constantly evolving and adapting to achieve better results in the future.

Rate this question:
27.

Which diagram is an essential tool for correlation analysis?
- Histogram.
- Scatter diagram
- Frequency polygon
- Cause and effect diagram
Correct Answer

A. Scatter diagram

Explanation

A scatter diagram is an essential tool for correlation analysis because it helps visualize the relationship between two variables. It plots data points on a graph, with one variable on the x-axis and the other on the y-axis. By examining the pattern of the plotted points, one can determine the strength and direction of the correlation between the variables. This allows for a better understanding of how changes in one variable affect the other, making the scatter diagram a valuable tool for correlation analysis.

Rate this question:
28.

Pie charts are effective when they represent what percentage of the item under consideration?
- 25
- 50
- 75
- 100
Correct Answer

A. 100

Explanation

Pie charts are effective when they represent 100% of the item under consideration because a pie chart is a circular representation that divides the whole into different parts, with each part representing a percentage of the whole. Therefore, when the pie chart represents 100%, it accurately displays the complete distribution of the item being considered.

Rate this question:
29.

Which chart best describes data over a period of time?
- Pie.
- Bar.
- Line.
- Pareto.
Correct Answer

A. Line.

Explanation

A line chart is the best option for describing data over a period of time because it shows the trend and changes in the data over the specified time period. It is particularly useful for visualizing continuous data and identifying patterns or trends. A pie chart is more suitable for showing proportions or percentages of a whole, while a bar chart is better for comparing different categories or groups of data. Pareto chart is used to show the frequency of occurrences in descending order.

Rate this question:
30.

Which statement best describes a special study?
- A methodical review of data
- A referral report for maintenance managers.
- A study initiated by any maintenance personnel
- An investigation and in-depth analysis of any subject.
Correct Answer

A. An investigation and in-depth analysis of any subject.

Explanation

The correct answer is "An investigation and in-depth analysis of any subject." This statement best describes a special study because it implies a thorough examination and exploration of a particular topic or subject matter. It suggests that the study goes beyond surface-level understanding and involves a detailed analysis to gain a comprehensive understanding of the subject.

Rate this question:
31.

Which medium is a formal way of presenting a special study?
- Video.
- Secure line.
- Written report.
- Oral presentation
Correct Answer

A. Written report.

Explanation

A written report is a formal way of presenting a special study because it allows for a structured and organized presentation of information. It provides a detailed analysis and findings of the study, allowing the reader to review and reference the information as needed. Written reports also follow a standardized format, including an introduction, methodology, results, and conclusion, which adds to its formality. Additionally, written reports can be easily shared and distributed among individuals or organizations, making it a preferred medium for formal presentations of special studies.

Rate this question:
32.

What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?
- Abort.
- Break.
- Cannibalization.
- Mission capability.
Correct Answer

A. Mission capability.

Explanation

Mission capability is the correct answer because it refers to the rate at which aircraft and space systems are ready for use in their intended missions. It measures the ability of the maintenance and support system to generate and sustain the required number of aircraft and space systems to support operational requirements. This metric takes into account factors such as maintenance actions, spare parts availability, and overall readiness of the systems.

Rate this question:
33.

The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on
- Preventive maintenance
- Corrective maintenance
- Backshop maintenance
- Depot maintenance
Correct Answer

A. Preventive maintenance

Explanation

Preventive maintenance is the correct answer because it is the primary focus of the maintenance effort. Preventive maintenance involves regularly scheduled inspections, cleaning, and repairs to prevent equipment breakdowns and ensure optimal performance. This proactive approach helps to identify and address potential issues before they escalate, reducing the need for costly corrective maintenance. Backshop maintenance and depot maintenance are specific types of maintenance activities that may be included in the overall preventive maintenance plan, but they are not the primary focus.

Rate this question:
34.

How do maintenance activities prepare to meet wartime requirements?
- Employ and deploy with combat units.
- Train and perform in the battlefield
- Organize and exercise in peacetime
- Train during deployments only.
Correct Answer

A. Organize and exercise in peacetime

Explanation

Maintenance activities prepare to meet wartime requirements by organizing and exercising in peacetime. This means that they establish efficient systems and processes, train their personnel, and conduct exercises to simulate wartime scenarios. By doing so, they ensure that they are well-prepared and capable of effectively supporting combat units during wartime operations. This preparation allows them to maintain and repair equipment, provide necessary supplies, and ensure operational readiness during times of conflict.

Rate this question:
35.

Who is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?
- Supply.
- Quality assurance
- Aircraft maintenance
- Maintenance operations
Correct Answer

A. Maintenance operations

Explanation

Maintenance operations is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG. This includes overseeing and coordinating all maintenance activities, managing personnel, ensuring compliance with regulations and standards, and maintaining the overall effectiveness and readiness of the maintenance group.

Rate this question:
36.

The maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) places what program responsibility on squadron CCs and supervisors?
- Nuclear Surety.
- Weight and Balance
- Vehicle Management
- Dedicated Crew Chief.
Correct Answer

A. Vehicle Management

Explanation

The maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) places the program responsibility of Vehicle Management on squadron CCs and supervisors. This means that the squadron commanders and supervisors are responsible for managing and overseeing the maintenance and operation of vehicles within their squadrons. They are responsible for ensuring that vehicles are properly maintained, serviced, and operated in accordance with regulations and safety standards. This includes tasks such as vehicle inspections, maintenance scheduling, and driver training.

Rate this question:
37.

Who is responsible for directing cannibalization (CANN) on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?
- Technician.
- Flight chief.
- Flightline expediter
- Production supervisor
Correct Answer

A. Production supervisor

Explanation

The production supervisor is responsible for directing cannibalization on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply. This role requires overseeing the process of cannibalization, which involves removing parts from one aircraft to be used on another in order to keep it operational. The production supervisor ensures that this process is carried out efficiently and effectively, working closely with the MOC and supply to coordinate the necessary resources and logistics.

Rate this question:
38.

On what does the section chief perform spot checks for authorized levels?
- Bench stock
- Tool storage
- Reparable parts
- Cannibalization.
Correct Answer

A. Bench stock

Explanation

The section chief performs spot checks for authorized levels on bench stock. This means that the section chief regularly checks the inventory of materials and supplies that are kept readily available for immediate use. This helps ensure that the correct quantity of items is maintained and that there are no shortages or excesses in the stock. Spot checks are conducted to verify that the authorized levels are being followed and that the necessary items are always available when needed.

Rate this question:
39.

Who updates the status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft?
- Flight chief
- Section chief
- Flightline expediter
- Production supervisor
Correct Answer

A. Flightline expediter

Explanation

The Flightline expediter is responsible for updating the status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft. They oversee and coordinate the activities on the flightline, ensuring that all necessary repairs and maintenance are carried out efficiently. This includes keeping track of any cannibalization actions, which involve taking parts from one aircraft to use on another. The Flightline expediter plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of the aircraft fleet by ensuring that the necessary parts are available and that the status of cannibalization actions is accurately recorded.

Rate this question:
40.

What is a two-way communication tool that your commander will use to improve compliance with published guidance?
- Local self-inspection checklist (LSIC).
- Self-assessment checklist (SAC).
- Compliance check list (CCL).
- Air Force Instruction (AFI).
Correct Answer

A. Self-assessment checklist (SAC).

Explanation

A self-assessment checklist (SAC) is a two-way communication tool that allows commanders to improve compliance with published guidance. It enables commanders to assess their own units or organizations and identify areas where they may not be in compliance. By using the SAC, commanders can communicate with their subordinates, provide feedback, and address any issues or concerns related to compliance. This tool promotes a culture of continuous improvement and accountability within the organization.

Rate this question:
41.

Who is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?
- Systems monitor
- Database manager
- Database designer
- Database administrator
Correct Answer

A. Database manager

Explanation

The database manager is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user. As the name suggests, the database manager oversees the overall management and administration of the database system, including troubleshooting and resolving any issues that may arise. They have the expertise and knowledge to handle complex problems and ensure the smooth functioning of the IMDS.

Rate this question:
42.

Which activity is a function of the base network control center (BNCC)?
- Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database administration.
- IMDS database management
- Help desk operation
- Computer contracts
Correct Answer

A. Help desk operation

Explanation

A base network control center (BNCC) is responsible for managing and controlling the network infrastructure of a base or organization. One of the key functions of a BNCC is to provide help desk support to users. This involves assisting users with any technical issues they may encounter, troubleshooting problems, and providing guidance and solutions. Help desk operation is an essential activity of a BNCC as it ensures smooth functioning of the network and helps users in resolving their technical difficulties.

Rate this question:
43.

During the debriefing of a sortie/mission, the debrief section ensure accuracy of aircraft sortie information and
- Validates repeat/recur maintenance repair action.
- Provides expediter mission effectiveness
- Provides Pro Supper aircraft form sets
- Validates time change items
Correct Answer

A. Validates repeat/recur maintenance repair action.

Explanation

The debrief section ensures the accuracy of aircraft sortie information and validates repeat/recur maintenance repair action. This means that during the debriefing, the section checks that all maintenance repair actions were carried out correctly and that any recurring issues have been properly addressed. This helps to ensure the overall effectiveness and safety of future missions.

Rate this question:
44.

Who has the responsibility for final disposition of a discrepancy identified as job following?
- Analysis.
- Debriefing.
- Controlling agency
- Plans and scheduling (P&S).
Correct Answer

A. Controlling agency

Explanation

The controlling agency is responsible for the final disposition of a discrepancy identified as job following. This means that they have the authority and accountability to make decisions and take actions to resolve the discrepancy and ensure that it is properly addressed. The controlling agency is typically the entity or organization that has the overall control and oversight of the job or project, and they have the necessary knowledge and resources to determine the appropriate course of action to resolve the discrepancy.

Rate this question:
45.

Which best describes on-line processing?
- Programs are printed at Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).
- Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe
- Programs are processed by the console operator
- Equipment must remain on at all times.
Correct Answer

A. Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe

Explanation

On-line processing refers to a method of data processing where the equipment, in this case, is under the direct control of the mainframe. This means that the mainframe has direct control and supervision over the equipment, allowing for real-time processing and immediate access to data. This type of processing is commonly used in systems where quick response times and continuous availability of data are essential.

Rate this question:
46.

The basic limitation to batch processing is
- There is always a processing delay
- Error outputs slow down processing time
- Each automated data system (ADS) has to be down to process programs.
- That they have to be processed from a digital subsystem (DS) remote
Correct Answer

A. There is always a processing delay

Explanation

Batch processing is a method of processing data in which a group of transactions is collected and processed together. The basic limitation of batch processing is that there is always a processing delay. This means that there is a time gap between when the transactions are collected and when they are actually processed. This delay can result in slower processing times and can impact the overall efficiency of the system.

Rate this question:
47.

A pseudo file is created for pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) by
- Using program NFS0A0
- Creating the data file in Word document
- Creating the data file directly in demand mode
- Using the pseudo file builder within PSURPB.
Correct Answer

A. Using program NFS0A0

Explanation

The correct answer is using program NFS0A0. This is because program NFS0A0 is specifically mentioned as the method for creating the pseudo file for pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB). The other options mentioned do not specify the creation of the pseudo file for PSURPB.

Rate this question:
48.

What indicator tells you that a pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing?
- A line on the monitor screen says, “PSURPB COMPLETE.”
- The start of entry (SOE) character appears.
- The monitor gives a beep to notify you.
- You receive an E-mail notification
Correct Answer

A. The start of entry (SOE) character appears.

Explanation

The start of entry (SOE) character appearing indicates that the pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing.

Rate this question:
49.

Which support program file ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database?
- TIP File 611.
- 0FS0*DBRUN$.
- VALTAB.
- SUPUR processor
Correct Answer

A. TIP File 611.

Explanation

TIP File 611 ensures that the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database.

Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 29, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
May 29, 2024

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Jun 07, 2018

Quiz Created by
Jollyrogers138

Recent Quizzes

5 Level CDC Test (2A654)_Vol 1_EDC 05 5 Level CDC Test (2A654)_Vol 1_EDC 05

3F351 CDC URE 3 Practice Questions! Trivia 3F351 CDC URE 3 Practice Questions! Trivia

Security Forces CDC Volume 1 Security Forces CDC Volume 1

New CDC Quiz Vol. 2 (3S051) Edit Code 03 New CDC Quiz Vol. 2 (3S051) Edit Code 03

7 Level CDC 2T2 Vol 1 7 Level CDC 2T2 Vol 1

1C5 CDC Vol 3 1C5 CDC Vol 3

Back to top

CDC 2r051 Unit Review Exercises

Which of the following is not a level of maintenance?

Quiz Preview

Which inspection method is defined as a “thorough and searching inspection of the entire aircraft?”

Which inspection method is used when maintenance or operational requirements call for the inspection to be performed at the equipment location?

The maintenance management section tasked with accomplishing a maintenance capabilities assessment, known as the “First Look”, is the?

Each maintenance unit should strive for a base repair capability rate of

Which action taken codes are used to compute base repair capability rates?

Delayed discrepancies are referred to as

What mission capability status code is the sum of not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) and reflects total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply?

What deviation category is used when an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather?

If the number of deviations increases, the flying scheduling effectiveness rate will

When used for the departure reliability rate, the standard for on-time departure is within

What factor represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control?

Spares are used to compensate for which unit controlled factors?

In determining the spare factor, what do you compare to the number of historical sorties scheduled?

What code is used in the computation of the break rate?

When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, what maintenance status code is entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

The total abort rate is a combination of

High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of

What action taken code means “removed for cannibalization”?

Which Cyber/Space/Communications mission performance indicator is a valuable indicator of equipment or system maintainability and speed of repair?

Who do you contact to gain access to Logistics, Installations, and Mission Support–Enterprise View (LIMS–EV)?

The first step or point of departure in the analysis process is to

In which step of the analysis process do you put the data you have collected into a usable form?

When investigating a problem, why should you continue on even if the problem seems to have disappeared?

One of your responsibilities in the analysis process is to ensure your assessments must be objective and answer specifically

Which statement best describes a pulse point in a unit?

Which diagram is an essential tool for correlation analysis?

Pie charts are effective when they represent what percentage of the item under consideration?

Which chart best describes data over a period of time?

Which statement best describes a special study?

Which medium is a formal way of presenting a special study?

What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on

How do maintenance activities prepare to meet wartime requirements?

Who is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?

The maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) places what program responsibility on squadron CCs and supervisors?

Who is responsible for directing cannibalization (CANN) on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?

On what does the section chief perform spot checks for authorized levels?

Who updates the status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft?

What is a two-way communication tool that your commander will use to improve compliance with published guidance?

Who is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?

Which activity is a function of the base network control center (BNCC)?

During the debriefing of a sortie/mission, the debrief section ensure accuracy of aircraft sortie information and

Who has the responsibility for final disposition of a discrepancy identified as job following?

Which best describes on-line processing?

The basic limitation to batch processing is

A pseudo file is created for pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) by

What indicator tells you that a pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing?

Which support program file ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database?