CDC 2r051 Unit Review Exercises

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Multiple choice question. Choose the best answer.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

    • A.

      Abort.

    • B.

      Break.

    • C.

      Cannibalization.

    • D.

      Mission capability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mission capability.
    Explanation
    Mission capability is the rate used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance. This term refers to the ability of a system or equipment to perform its intended mission or function. It takes into account factors such as maintenance, availability of spare parts, and overall operational readiness. By measuring mission capability, organizations can assess the readiness of their air and space assets and determine if they are capable of fulfilling their intended missions.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not a level of maintenance?

    • A.

      Base.

    • B.

      Depot.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Base" because it is not a level of maintenance. The other options, Depot, Intermediate, and Organizational, are all recognized levels of maintenance in different industries. Base maintenance refers to the maintenance activities that are conducted at the main operating base or facility, which is typically a higher level of maintenance than organizational or intermediate, but it is not considered a separate level in the same way as the other options.

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  • 3. 

    What is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs?

    • A.

      Base.

    • B.

      Depot.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    B. Depot.
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs. Depot maintenance involves extensive repairs and overhauls that cannot be performed at lower levels of maintenance. It typically requires specialized equipment, facilities, and highly skilled personnel. This level of maintenance is often conducted at centralized repair facilities or depots, where the necessary resources and expertise are available to handle complex repairs and ensure the highest quality of work.

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  • 4. 

    The two-level maintenance (2LM) approach seeks to modify or eliminate what level of maintenance?

    • A.

      Base.

    • B.

      Depot.

    • C.

      Intermediate.

    • D.

      Organizational.

    Correct Answer
    C. Intermediate.
    Explanation
    The two-level maintenance (2LM) approach seeks to modify or eliminate the intermediate level of maintenance. This means that the focus is on streamlining and improving the processes and procedures at the intermediate level, which is responsible for more complex repairs and maintenance tasks. By doing so, the goal is to reduce the need for this level of maintenance and potentially shift some of the responsibilities to the organizational level or even eliminate the need for an intermediate level altogether. This can lead to cost savings and increased efficiency in the maintenance process.

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  • 5. 

    Which maintenance category consists of time compliance technical order (TCTO) actions which can be accomplished with the skills possessed by a unit?

    • A.

      Off-equipment, Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • B.

      On-equipment, AFMC

    • C.

      Off-equipment, operating command

    • D.

      On-equipment, operating command

    Correct Answer
    D. On-equipment, operating command
    Explanation
    On-equipment, operating command is the correct answer because it refers to maintenance actions that can be performed by the unit itself, using the skills and resources available within the operating command. This means that the maintenance can be done without relying on external support or assistance from AFMC.

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  • 6. 

    Which maintenance category includes correcting discrepancies discovered during flight?

    • A.

      Unscheduled.

    • B.

      Preventive.

    • C.

      Debriefing.

    • D.

      Scheduled.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unscheduled.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Unscheduled. Unscheduled maintenance refers to the maintenance activities that are performed to correct discrepancies or issues that are discovered during a flight. These discrepancies can range from minor malfunctions to more serious problems that need immediate attention. Unscheduled maintenance is typically unplanned and can occur at any time, depending on the nature of the issue. It is essential to address these discrepancies promptly to ensure the safety and efficiency of the aircraft.

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  • 7. 

    The primary objective to minimize the length of time that an aircraft is out of commission due to a scheduled inspection is what inspection concept?

    • A.

      Isochronal.

    • B.

      Periodic.

    • C.

      Phased.

    • D.

      Depot.

    Correct Answer
    C. Phased.
    Explanation
    The objective of minimizing the length of time that an aircraft is out of commission due to a scheduled inspection aligns with the concept of a phased inspection. Phased inspections are conducted in a sequence, allowing for shorter downtime as only specific components or systems are inspected at each phase. This approach ensures that the aircraft can return to service quickly while still undergoing necessary inspections.

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  • 8. 

    Which inspection method is defined as a “thorough and searching inspection of the entire aircraft?”

    • A.

      Major.

    • B.

      Minor.

    • C.

      Preflight.

    • D.

      Thruflight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Major.
    Explanation
    A major inspection is defined as a thorough and searching inspection of the entire aircraft. This type of inspection involves a detailed examination of all components and systems to ensure they are in proper working order and meet the required standards. It is typically conducted at regular intervals or after a certain number of flight hours to ensure the overall safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    Which inspection method is used when maintenance or operational requirements call for the inspection to be performed at the equipment location?

    • A.

      Preventive.

    • B.

      In-place.

    • C.

      Delayed.

    • D.

      In-dock.

    Correct Answer
    B. In-place.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In-place." This inspection method is used when maintenance or operational requirements call for the inspection to be performed at the equipment location. It means that the inspection is carried out without moving the equipment from its current position. This method is often chosen when it is not practical or necessary to move the equipment to a different location for inspection.

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  • 10. 

    All aircraft, no matter what inspection concept applies, are required to have how many calendar inspections?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
    Explanation
    All aircraft, regardless of the inspection concept, are required to have two calendar inspections. This means that there are specific intervals of time in which certain inspections must be conducted on the aircraft. These inspections are necessary to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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  • 11. 

    Which inspection status is affected by the 30 or 90 day inspection?

    • A.

      Preflight.

    • B.

      Thruflight.

    • C.

      Hourly postflight.

    • D.

      Home station check.

    Correct Answer
    D. Home station check.
    Explanation
    The 30 or 90 day inspection affects the Home station check. This inspection is conducted every 30 or 90 days, depending on the specific aircraft and maintenance requirements. It involves a comprehensive inspection of the aircraft's systems, components, and structures to ensure their airworthiness and compliance with regulations. The Home station check is crucial for maintaining the aircraft's overall safety and operational readiness.

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  • 12. 

    The maintenance management section tasked with accomplishing a maintenance capabilities assessment, known as the “First Look”, is the?

    • A.

      Maintenance management production

    • B.

      Maintenance management analysis

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center

    • D.

      Maintenance supply liaison.

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance management analysis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance management analysis. This is because the task of accomplishing a maintenance capabilities assessment, known as the "First Look," falls under the responsibility of the maintenance management analysis section. This section is responsible for analyzing and evaluating the maintenance operations and capabilities of an organization to identify areas of improvement and ensure efficient maintenance processes.

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  • 13. 

    The three parts that compose maintenance capability are airframe, personnel, and

    • A.

      Facility.

    • B.

      Security.

    • C.

      Readiness.

    • D.

      Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility.
    Explanation
    The three parts that compose maintenance capability are airframe, personnel, and facility. Facility refers to the physical infrastructure and resources required for maintenance operations. This includes hangars, workshops, tools, equipment, and storage areas. Without a suitable facility, maintenance tasks cannot be performed efficiently and effectively. The airframe refers to the structure of the aircraft, and personnel refers to the skilled individuals who carry out the maintenance tasks. However, without a proper facility, these two components alone would not be sufficient to maintain the aircraft.

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  • 14. 

    What factor reduces airframe availability when computing for airframe capability?

    • A.

      Mission capability rate.

    • B.

      Attrition rate.

    • C.

      Maintenance.

    • D.

      Turn.

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance.
    Explanation
    Maintenance reduces airframe availability when computing for airframe capability. This is because during maintenance, the aircraft is taken out of service for repairs, inspections, and other necessary maintenance tasks. This downtime reduces the availability of the airframe for missions or operations, impacting its overall capability.

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  • 15. 

    Which computation includes attrition rate as one of the factors when determining airframe capability?

    • A.

      Sortie capability

    • B.

      Projected sortie losses

    • C.

      Initial sortie capability

    • D.

      First turn aircraft available

    Correct Answer
    B. Projected sortie losses
    Explanation
    Projected sortie losses includes attrition rate as one of the factors when determining airframe capability. This computation takes into account the expected number of sorties that will be lost due to various factors, including attrition. By factoring in attrition rate, it provides a more accurate assessment of the airframe's capability to perform missions effectively.

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  • 16. 

    Which logistics indicator shows a unit’s ability to keep equipment in a ready status?

    • A.

      System reliability

    • B.

      Airframe capability

    • C.

      Base level repair capability

    • D.

      Maintenance scheduling effectiveness

    Correct Answer
    A. System reliability
    Explanation
    System reliability is the correct answer because it refers to the ability of a unit to keep its equipment in a ready status. This indicator measures the overall performance and dependability of the system, ensuring that the equipment is consistently available and operational when needed. It takes into account factors such as maintenance effectiveness, equipment availability, and downtime. A high system reliability indicates that the unit is proficient in maintaining its equipment and ensuring readiness.

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  • 17. 

    If repair is not authorized at base level who forwards the item to contract maintenance or Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) depot?

    • A.

      Supply.

    • B.

      Workcenter.

    • C.

      Maintenance analysis

    • D.

      Plans and scheduling

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply.
    Explanation
    Supply is the correct answer because they are responsible for managing and coordinating the repair and maintenance of items. If repair is not authorized at the base level, Supply will forward the item to either contract maintenance or the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) depot for further repair and maintenance.

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  • 18. 

    Each maintenance unit should strive for a base repair capability rate of

    • A.

      90 percent

    • B.

      95 percent

    • C.

      97 percent

    • D.

      100 percent

    Correct Answer
    D. 100 percent
    Explanation
    Each maintenance unit should strive for a base repair capability rate of 100 percent because this means that the unit is able to repair all equipment or systems that are in need of repair. A base repair capability rate of 100 percent indicates that the unit has the necessary resources, skills, and efficiency to complete all repairs successfully. This ensures that equipment downtime is minimized and that operations can continue without interruption. Striving for a 100 percent base repair capability rate demonstrates a commitment to excellence and the highest level of maintenance effectiveness.

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  • 19. 

    Which maintenance codes are used to compute the base level capability rate?

    • A.

      Action taken

    • B.

      System status

    • C.

      Aircraft status

    • D.

      System capability

    Correct Answer
    A. Action taken
    Explanation
    Maintenance codes are used to record the actions taken during maintenance activities. These codes provide information about the specific tasks performed on an aircraft or system. By analyzing the actions taken, maintenance personnel can determine the effectiveness of their maintenance procedures and identify areas for improvement. The base level capability rate is a measure of the overall performance and reliability of the aircraft or system. Therefore, the maintenance codes used to compute the base level capability rate would be those that indicate the actions taken during maintenance.

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  • 20. 

    Which action taken codes are used to compute base repair capability rates?

    • A.

      A, F, G, K, L, V, Z.

    • B.

      A, F, G, K, L, B, P.

    • C.

      A, F, G, K, L, Z.

    • D.

      A, F, B, G, K, L.

    Correct Answer
    C. A, F, G, K, L, Z.
    Explanation
    The action taken codes A, F, G, K, L, and Z are used to compute base repair capability rates. These codes likely represent specific actions or tasks related to repair capabilities. The inclusion of these codes in the computation suggests that they are essential for determining the base repair capability rates.

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  • 21. 

    Where can you get the information required for computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates?

    • A.

      Analysis report

    • B.

      Inspection schedule

    • C.

      Monthly Maintenance Plan

    • D.

      Monthly Maintenance Summary

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly Maintenance Plan
    Explanation
    The information required for computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates can be obtained from the Monthly Maintenance Plan. This document outlines the planned maintenance activities for a specific period, including the schedule, tasks, and resources allocated for each maintenance task. By analyzing the Monthly Maintenance Plan, one can determine how well the scheduled maintenance activities are being executed and measure the effectiveness of the maintenance scheduling process.

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  • 22. 

    Delayed discrepancies are referred to as

    • A.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting defer (AWD).

    • B.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM).

    • C.

      Awaiting defer (AWD) or awaiting maintenance (AWM)

    • D.

      Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting deferred discrepancy (ADD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Awaiting parts (AWP) or awaiting maintenance (AWM).
  • 23. 

    If they are not able to schedule or combine deferred discrepancies with more extensive maintenance actions, maintenance schedulers should

    • A.

      Defer the discrepancies for 5 calendar days

    • B.

      Defer the discrepancies for 7 calendar days

    • C.

      Routinely schedule the aircraft to have delays worked

    • D.

      Defer the discrepancies until there are more discrepancies to work

    Correct Answer
    C. Routinely schedule the aircraft to have delays worked
    Explanation
    Maintenance schedulers should routinely schedule the aircraft to have delays worked. This means that they should prioritize addressing and resolving any discrepancies or issues with the aircraft that may cause delays in its operation. By doing so, they can ensure that the aircraft is in optimal condition and minimize the chances of further delays or disruptions in its schedule.

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  • 24. 

    What mission capability status code is the sum of not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) and reflects total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply?

    • A.

      Fully mission capable (FMC).

    • B.

      Partial mission capable (PMC).

    • C.

      Not mission capable both (NMCB).

    • D.

      Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS).
    Explanation
    The mission capability status code that reflects the total not mission capable (NMC) aircraft limitations due to supply is Total not mission capable supply (TNMCS). This code includes both the not mission capable supply (NMCS) and not mission capable both (NMCB) categories, providing a comprehensive assessment of the aircraft's inability to perform its mission due to supply issues.

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  • 25. 

    What deviation category is used when an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather?

    • A.

      Local.

    • B.

      Chargeable.

    • C.

      Nonchargeable.

    • D.

      Higher headquarters.

    Correct Answer
    C. Nonchargeable.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft is cancelled due to bad weather, it falls under the nonchargeable deviation category. This means that the cancellation is not attributed to any fault or responsibility of the pilot or the aircraft, but rather to external factors beyond their control, such as adverse weather conditions. Nonchargeable deviations are typically not counted against the pilot or the aircraft and do not result in any penalties or consequences.

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  • 26. 

    The total number of cancellations can be obtained from the

    • A.

      Daily Flying Schedule

    • B.

      Operational Event Report

    • C.

      Monthly Maintenance Plan

    • D.

      Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR).

    Correct Answer
    D. Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR).
    Explanation
    The Accomplishment Utilization Report (AUR) provides information on the total number of cancellations. It is a comprehensive report that tracks the utilization of resources and accomplishments in various areas of operation. This report would contain data specifically related to cancellations, allowing for an accurate count of the total number of cancellations. The other options mentioned, such as the Daily Flying Schedule, Operational Event Report, and Monthly Maintenance Plan, may provide useful information but may not specifically focus on cancellations.

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  • 27. 

    When computing for the Flying Scheduling Effectiveness rate, what is subtracted from the total number of scheduled sorties?

    • A.

      Total deviations

    • B.

      Number of cancelled takeoffs

    • C.

      Total chargeable deviations only

    • D.

      Total nonchargeable deviations only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Total deviations
    Explanation
    When computing for the Flying Scheduling Effectiveness rate, the total number of scheduled sorties is subtracted from the total deviations. This means that any deviations from the scheduled sorties, whether they are chargeable or nonchargeable, are taken into account when calculating the rate.

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  • 28. 

    If the number of deviations increases, the flying scheduling effectiveness rate will

    • A.

      Go up

    • B.

      Go down

    • C.

      Not be used

    • D.

      Remain the same.

    Correct Answer
    B. Go down
    Explanation
    If the number of deviations increases, it means that there are more disruptions or deviations from the planned schedule. This would likely result in a decrease in the flying scheduling effectiveness rate because the deviations would cause delays, cancellations, or other issues that affect the efficiency of the scheduling process. Therefore, the effectiveness rate is expected to go down as the number of deviations increases.

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  • 29. 

    When used for the departure reliability rate, the standard for on-time departure is within

    • A.

      10 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    • B.

      14 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    • C.

      20 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    • D.

      24 minutes of the scheduled departure time.

    Correct Answer
    B. 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time. This means that for a flight to be considered on-time, it must depart within 14 minutes of the scheduled departure time. This standard allows for a small window of flexibility, recognizing that minor delays can occur due to various factors such as boarding, weather conditions, or air traffic control. By setting a 14-minute threshold, airlines can measure and improve their departure reliability rate while still accounting for some unforeseen circumstances.

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  • 30. 

    You can apply the departure reliability rate to which of the following?

    • A.

      Base.

    • B.

      Sortie.

    • C.

      Supply.

    • D.

      Mission.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base.
    Explanation
    The departure reliability rate can be applied to the "Base" option. This rate measures the likelihood of a departure from a specific location being reliable or on time. In this context, the departure reliability rate would assess the reliability of departures from a base, indicating how often departures from that location are on time or as scheduled.

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  • 31. 

    When we compute utilization under the flying hour program, the two ways we compute for the utilization (UTE) rate are

    • A.

      Sortie and hourly

    • B.

      Program and actual.

    • C.

      Effective and ineffective

    • D.

      Authorized and chargeable

    Correct Answer
    A. Sortie and hourly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sortie and hourly". When computing utilization under the flying hour program, the utilization (UTE) rate can be calculated using two methods: sortie and hourly. The sortie method measures the utilization based on the number of sorties or flights completed, while the hourly method calculates utilization based on the number of hours flown. Both methods provide different perspectives on the aircraft's usage and can be used to assess its efficiency and effectiveness in different ways.

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  • 32. 

    What is the definition of aircraft availability?

    • A.

      The historical percentage of sorties lost to causes outside of unit control.

    • B.

      The percentage of a fleet in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status.

    • C.

      The percentage of a fleet not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status.

    • D.

      A measure of the health of the air mobility system and reflects the percentage of on-time departures.

    Correct Answer
    C. The percentage of a fleet not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status.
    Explanation
    Aircraft availability refers to the percentage of a fleet that is not in a depot possessed or non-mission capable status. This means that the aircraft is ready and available for use, and not undergoing maintenance or repairs. This metric is important in determining the readiness and operational capability of a fleet, as a higher percentage of available aircraft indicates a more efficient and effective air force or aviation system.

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  • 33. 

    What factor represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control?

    • A.

      Abort.

    • B.

      Spare.

    • C.

      Attrition.

    • D.

      Utilization.

    Correct Answer
    C. Attrition.
    Explanation
    Attrition represents a historical percentage of scheduled sorties lost to causes outside of unit control. Attrition refers to the reduction or loss of aircraft or personnel over time due to factors such as accidents, mechanical failures, or other unforeseen circumstances. In this context, attrition specifically refers to the loss of scheduled sorties, which are missions or flights, that are unable to be completed due to factors beyond the control of the unit.

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  • 34. 

    If you have 100 sorties required to fly for the month and the attrition rate is 8 percent, how many total sorties do you show on the flying schedule?

    • A.

      92

    • B.

      98

    • C.

      109

    • D.

      115

    Correct Answer
    C. 109
    Explanation
    If the attrition rate is 8 percent, it means that 8 percent of the sorties will not be completed. To find the total number of sorties on the flying schedule, we need to subtract the attrition rate from 100 percent and then multiply it by the required number of sorties. In this case, 100 percent minus 8 percent is 92 percent. Multiplying 92 percent by 100 sorties gives us 92. Therefore, the total number of sorties on the flying schedule is 92.

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  • 35. 

    Spares are used to compensate for which unit controlled factors?

    • A.

      Maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts.

    • B.

      Operations additions, operations aborts, and operations cancellations.

    • C.

      Scheduling additions, training sorties, and higher headquarters tasking.

    • D.

      Maintenance additions, flight test additions, and higher headquarters additions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts.
    Explanation
    Spares are used to compensate for maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts. This means that when there are cancellations or aborts in maintenance or supply operations, spares are used to fill in the gaps and ensure that the necessary equipment or materials are still available. Spares help to minimize the impact of these factors on the overall operations and ensure that the unit can continue functioning effectively.

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  • 36. 

    In determining the spare factor, what do you compare to the number of historical sorties scheduled?

    • A.

      Number of flyable aircraft

    • B.

      Number of non-flyable aircraft

    • C.

      Number of 1st sortie logistics losses

    • D.

      Number of 2nd sortie logistics losses

    Correct Answer
    C. Number of 1st sortie logistics losses
    Explanation
    The spare factor is determined by comparing the number of 1st sortie logistics losses to the number of historical sorties scheduled. This means that the number of times there were logistical losses during the first sortie is compared to the total number of sorties that were scheduled in the past. This comparison helps to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the logistics operations during the first sortie.

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  • 37. 

    What code is used in the computation of the break rate?

    • A.

      Fix Code 3

    • B.

      Cap Code 3.

    • C.

      Landing Code 3.

    • D.

      Not reparable this station (NRTS) Code 3.

    Correct Answer
    C. Landing Code 3.
    Explanation
    The code used in the computation of the break rate is "Landing Code 3." This suggests that the break rate is calculated based on the number of landings, possibly indicating the frequency of breaks or failures during the landing process.

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  • 38. 

    A more accurate description of a 20 percent break rate is that two out of 10

    • A.

      Aircraft will break

    • B.

      Aircraft will not break

    • C.

      Aircraft landed with a landing Code 3

    • D.

      Sorties landed with a landing Code 3

    Correct Answer
    D. Sorties landed with a landing Code 3
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that a more accurate description of a 20 percent break rate is that sorties landed with a landing Code 3. This means that out of every 10 sorties, 2 will have a landing Code 3, indicating some kind of issue or problem with the aircraft upon landing.

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  • 39. 

    Which rate is used to measure speed of repair and equipment maintainability?

    • A.

      Fix rate

    • B.

      Break rate

    • C.

      Utilization rate.

    • D.

      Mission capable rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fix rate
    Explanation
    The fix rate is used to measure the speed of repair and equipment maintainability. This rate represents the efficiency and effectiveness of the repair process, indicating how quickly equipment can be fixed and returned to service. A higher fix rate suggests a faster repair time and better equipment maintainability, while a lower fix rate indicates longer repair times and poorer maintainability.

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  • 40. 

    When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, what maintenance status code is entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      Partial mission capable (PMC).

    • B.

      Fully mission capable (FMC).

    • C.

      Not mission capable (NMC).

    • D.

      Cap code 3.

    Correct Answer
    C. Not mission capable (NMC).
    Explanation
    When an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status, it means that the aircraft is not mission capable. Therefore, the maintenance status code entered in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) would be "Not mission capable (NMC)".

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  • 41. 

    What are the three time frames used in the fix rate formula?

    • A.

      2, 4, or 8 hours

    • B.

      4, 6, or 8 hours.

    • C.

      4, 8, or 10 hours.

    • D.

      4, 8, or 12 hours

    Correct Answer
    D. 4, 8, or 12 hours
    Explanation
    The fix rate formula uses three time frames: 4, 8, or 12 hours. These time frames are used to calculate the fixed rate for a certain period of time.

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  • 42. 

    The total abort rate is a combination of

    • A.

      Air and ground abort

    • B.

      Air abort, late takeoff, and ground abort

    • C.

      Air abort, total deviations, and ground abort.

    • D.

      Air abort, ground abort, and maintenance cancellation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and ground abort
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "air and ground abort". This means that the total abort rate includes both air aborts and ground aborts. Air abort refers to a situation where an aircraft has to abort its takeoff or landing due to a problem or emergency in the air. Ground abort, on the other hand, refers to a situation where an aircraft has to abort its takeoff due to a problem or emergency on the ground. By considering both air and ground aborts, the total abort rate provides a comprehensive measure of the number of aborted flights.

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  • 43. 

    High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of

    • A.

      Available aircraft

    • B.

      Available spare parts.

    • C.

      Qualified supervisors

    • D.

      Thorough troubleshooting

    Correct Answer
    D. Thorough troubleshooting
    Explanation
    High repeat and recur rates may indicate a lack of thorough troubleshooting. This means that the issue is not being properly identified and resolved, leading to the problem recurring or repeating. If the troubleshooting process is not thorough enough, the root cause of the issue may not be addressed, resulting in the same problem happening again. Therefore, a lack of thorough troubleshooting can contribute to high repeat and recur rates.

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  • 44. 

    Base supply uses which rate to indicate depot support?

    • A.

      Break.

    • B.

      Utilization.

    • C.

      Mission capable

    • D.

      Cannibalization.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cannibalization.
    Explanation
    Base supply uses the rate of cannibalization to indicate depot support. Cannibalization refers to the practice of taking parts or components from one piece of equipment to use them in another, in order to keep it operational. This rate indicates the extent to which this practice is being employed in the depot to support the maintenance and repair of equipment.

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  • 45. 

    What action taken code means “removed for cannibalization”?

    • A.

      C

    • B.

      R

    • C.

      T

    • D.

      U

    Correct Answer
    C. T
    Explanation
    The action taken code "T" stands for "removed for cannibalization". This means that the item or part has been taken out of service or inventory in order to be used for repairing or replacing another item or part. Cannibalization is a common practice in industries where spare parts may be scarce or expensive, and it allows for the reuse of components to minimize costs and downtime.

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  • 46. 

    Computation of the cannibalization rate includes the number of

    • A.

      Sorties flown

    • B.

      Scheduled sorties

    • C.

      Sorties flown minus deviations

    • D.

      Scheduled sorties minus sorties flown

    Correct Answer
    A. Sorties flown
    Explanation
    The cannibalization rate is calculated by considering the number of sorties flown. This means that the rate is determined based on the actual number of sorties that have been completed. The other options provided, such as scheduled sorties or sorties flown minus deviations, are not relevant in determining the cannibalization rate. Therefore, the correct answer is "sorties flown".

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  • 47. 

    When computing mean time to repair (MTTR), what item do you ignore when accounting for repair hours?

    • A.

      Crew size

    • B.

      Equipment.

    • C.

      Action taken code (ATC).

    • D.

      First position of work unit code (WUC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Crew size
    Explanation
    When computing mean time to repair (MTTR), crew size is ignored when accounting for repair hours. This means that the calculation of MTTR does not take into consideration the number of people in the crew who are involved in the repair process. The focus is solely on the time it takes to complete the repair task, regardless of the size of the crew performing it.

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  • 48. 

    When computing for on- and off-equipment mean time to repair (MTTR), the first position of the

    • A.

      Action taken codes (ATC) is equal to zero

    • B.

      Work unit code (WUC) is equal to zero

    • C.

      WUC is not equal to zero.

    • D.

      ATC is not equal to zero.

    Correct Answer
    C. WUC is not equal to zero.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is WUC is not equal to zero. This is because the mean time to repair (MTTR) is calculated based on the work unit code (WUC). If the WUC is not equal to zero, it means that there is a specific work unit that needs to be performed in order to repair the equipment. This indicates that the MTTR will be affected by the specific work unit, making it different from the on- and off-equipment MTTR when the WUC is equal to zero.

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  • 49. 

    What are the two types of failure indicated by mean time between failure (MTBF)?

    • A.

      Critical and non-critical

    • B.

      Failure and non-failure

    • C.

      Inherent and induced.

    • D.

      Inherent and critical

    Correct Answer
    C. Inherent and induced.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Inherent and induced." Mean time between failure (MTBF) is a measure of the reliability of a system or component. Inherent failures are those that occur due to internal factors or design flaws, while induced failures are caused by external factors such as environmental conditions or human error. By considering both inherent and induced failures, MTBF provides a comprehensive understanding of the reliability and potential failure modes of a system.

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  • 50. 

    In the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) what is the maximum number of days allowed for calculating the mean time between failure (MTBF)?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      180

    Correct Answer
    D. 180
    Explanation
    In the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS), the maximum number of days allowed for calculating the mean time between failure (MTBF) is 180. This means that when analyzing the data in IMDS, the system considers a maximum time period of 180 days to calculate the average time between failures. This allows for a comprehensive analysis of the system's reliability and performance over a significant period of time.

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