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1. Which type of information would you not transmit over unsecure radios?

Explanation

Mode 1 and 2 codes are not transmitted over unsecure radios because they are used for military identification purposes. Revealing these codes could compromise the security and effectiveness of military operations. Transmitting track altitude, track number, and track heading and speed may not pose the same level of risk and can be shared over unsecure radios.

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About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz '1C5 CDC Vol 3' tests knowledge on air surveillance techniques, including data trail analysis, target tracking initiation, and secure communication protocols. It prepares learners for roles in air surveillance, enhancing skills in radar operation and security compliance.

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2. Which type of tell provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units?

Explanation

A forward tell is a type of communication that provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units. This means that information is being relayed in a direction that moves from lower level units to higher level units. It allows for the flow of information and updates to be shared with those in higher positions of authority or decision-making.

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3. Which type of identification is given to a track that meets some, but not all hostile criteria?

Explanation

A track that meets some, but not all hostile criteria is given the identification of "suspect". This means that there are certain factors or behaviors that raise suspicions or doubts about the track's intentions or potential threats, but it does not fully meet the criteria to be classified as "hostile". The term "suspect" is used to indicate that further monitoring or investigation is required to determine the track's true nature or intentions.

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4. Which activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) uses manipulation, distortion, or falsification to mislead the adversary?

Explanation

Deception is the activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) that uses manipulation, distortion, or falsification to mislead the adversary. This involves intentionally providing false information or misleading signals to confuse and deceive the enemy, making them believe in false scenarios or taking wrong actions. It is a strategic tactic used in warfare or military operations to gain an advantage over the opponent by creating confusion and uncertainty.

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5. Small aircrafts containing a propulsion system that can be programmed to maneuver and change altitude are known as

Explanation

Small aircrafts with a programmable propulsion system that can maneuver and change altitude are called decoys. Decoys are typically used to distract or mislead enemy radar systems or missiles by imitating the flight patterns of real aircraft. They are designed to divert attention away from the actual targets and protect the main aircraft or assets.

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6. Which flowchart would you use to systematically go through a sequence of identification (ID) methods to classify airborne tracks?

Explanation

The ID matrix is the correct flowchart to use in order to systematically go through a sequence of identification (ID) methods to classify airborne tracks. An ID matrix is a tool that provides a structured approach to identify and classify objects based on specific criteria. It allows for a step-by-step process of elimination and comparison to determine the correct classification of airborne tracks. The other options mentioned, such as operations tasking link, airspace control order, and checklist, do not provide a systematic approach for identification and classification.

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7. Which person would a surveillance technician coordinate with if a track did not reappear?

Explanation

A surveillance technician would coordinate with an air surveillance technician if a track did not reappear. This is because an air surveillance technician specializes in monitoring and tracking aircraft movements, so they would be the appropriate person to work with in order to locate a missing track. The other options, such as an electronic protection technician, mission crew commander, or data system technician, would not have the specific expertise or responsibility for tracking aircraft.

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8. Which type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?

Explanation

A lateral tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks. This means that it allows the stations to be aware of the tracks that are coming up next, enabling them to prepare and coordinate their operations accordingly.

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9. What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions?

Explanation

The standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions is tactical. Tactical control refers to the authority and responsibility for planning, directing, and coordinating the employment of military forces and assets in the execution of assigned missions or tasks. It involves making decisions and taking actions on the battlefield or during training exercises to achieve specific objectives. Tactical control is typically exercised by commanders at the operational level, who are responsible for the immediate execution of missions and the coordination of forces in the field.

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10. Which theater air control system (TACS) unit is capable of data link operations but has no inherent surveillance radar capabilities?

Explanation

The Air Operations Center (AOC) is the correct answer because it is a theater air control system (TACS) unit that is capable of data link operations but does not have inherent surveillance radar capabilities. The AOC is responsible for planning, directing, and executing joint air operations in a theater of operations, and it relies on inputs from other units, such as AWACS, for radar surveillance information. However, the AOC itself does not have its own surveillance radar.

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11. Which message type outlines duties, functions, and parameters for link operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Operational tasking data link (OPTASKLINK). OPTASKLINK is a message type that provides information about duties, functions, and parameters for link operations. It outlines the tasks and responsibilities related to data link operations and helps in coordinating and managing communication between different entities. This message type is crucial for ensuring effective and efficient link operations in various operational scenarios.

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12. When would you not mention anything about an electronic attack (EA)?

Explanation

When communicating over nonsecure radios or telephones, mentioning anything about an electronic attack (EA) would not be appropriate. This is because nonsecure communication channels are vulnerable to interception and compromise, and discussing sensitive information such as EA could potentially expose the operation to adversaries. Therefore, it is important to refrain from mentioning anything about an EA over nonsecure radios or telephones to maintain operational security.

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13. The modular control equipment (MCE) data links consist of Link 11,

Explanation

The correct answer is Link 11B, Link 16, Army tactical data link–1 (ATDL–1), and Link–1. This is because the question asks for the data links that are included in the modular control equipment (MCE) data links. The given answer includes all the data links mentioned in the options, which are Link 11B, Link 16, ATDL–1, and Link–1.

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14. What combines active defense, passive defense, and command and control (C2) systems to defend against threats?

Explanation

AADP combines active defense, passive defense, and command and control (C2) systems to defend against threats.

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15. Which document outlines duties functions and parameters for tactical link operations?

Explanation

The document that outlines duties, functions, and parameters for tactical link operations is OPTASKLINK. This document provides guidance and instructions for the use of tactical links, ensuring that all parties involved understand their roles and responsibilities in operating and maintaining these links. It helps to establish clear communication protocols and procedures to ensure effective and efficient tactical link operations. ATO, ACO, and Special tactical instructions may also contain related information, but OPTASKLINK specifically focuses on tactical link operations.

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16. Which tactics terminology indicates the missile has been defeated?

Explanation

The term "trashed" in tactics terminology indicates that the missile has been defeated. This implies that the missile has been destroyed or rendered ineffective, possibly through defensive measures or countermeasures.

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17. The five levels of continuum of control are close, autonomous,

Explanation

The correct answer is "broadcast, tactical, and advisory." The explanation for this answer is that the five levels of continuum of control are categorized as broadcast, tactical, and advisory. These levels represent different degrees of control and decision-making authority. The broadcast level involves the dissemination of information to all units involved. The tactical level involves the coordination and execution of specific actions based on the information received. The advisory level provides guidance and recommendations to assist in decision-making.

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18. Which type of device is designed to home in on a radar signal?

Explanation

Missiles are designed to home in on a radar signal. They are equipped with guidance systems that allow them to detect and track radar signals emitted by a target. Once the radar signal is detected, the missile adjusts its course to intercept the target accurately. Decoys, angels, and flares do not have the capability to home in on radar signals.

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19. Who submits daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level?

Explanation

Combatant commands submit daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level. These commands are responsible for the overall planning and execution of military operations in a specific geographic or functional area. They receive intelligence from various sources and compile it into DISUMs, which provide a comprehensive overview of the intelligence situation in their respective areas of responsibility. These DISUMs are then shared with higher-level commands and national intelligence agencies to inform decision-making and support military operations.

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20. A data link architecture is defined as

Explanation

The correct answer is "the overall design of the communications system forming the multi-tactical network (MTN)." This answer accurately describes what a data link architecture is. It refers to the design of the communications system that forms the multi-tactical network, which suggests that it encompasses the various components and protocols involved in transmitting data over the network. The other options do not fully capture the concept of data link architecture and are therefore incorrect.

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21. Which data link transmission methods are used across great distances?

Explanation

High frequency (HF) and satellite communications (SATCOM) are used across great distances because they have the capability to transmit signals over long ranges. HF transmissions can travel long distances by bouncing off the ionosphere, allowing for communication over vast areas. SATCOM, on the other hand, uses satellites in geostationary orbit to relay signals, enabling communication across continents and even globally. Both methods are reliable and effective for long-distance communication.

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22. Special instructions (SPINS) are published

Explanation

The correct answer is "baseline, weekly, and daily". This means that special instructions are published on a baseline, weekly, and daily basis. A baseline refers to a starting point or reference point, so special instructions are published periodically based on this reference point. Additionally, they are published on a weekly and daily basis, indicating that there are regular updates and communication of these instructions throughout the week and on a daily basis.

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23. What tactical data link (TDL) is capable of operating in the full duplex mode and is primarily used between ground-based units?

Explanation

Link 11B is a tactical data link (TDL) that operates in full duplex mode and is primarily used between ground-based units. It provides real-time exchange of tactical information, such as track data, mission assignments, and command and control messages, between ground-based platforms. This TDL is specifically designed for ground-based operations and is widely used by military forces for effective communication and coordination in tactical scenarios.

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24. Which characteristic does a jamming transmitter not use to jam a radar?

Explanation

A jamming transmitter does not use the characteristic of reflecting or absorbing the radar signal to jam a radar. Instead, it uses other methods such as creating many false and confusing targets, blocking the radar's receiver with high concentrated power, or masking some or all targets appearing on the radar's indicator.

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25. Which is an advantage of a barrage jammer?

Explanation

A barrage jammer is advantageous because it covers a wide band of frequencies simultaneously. This means that it can disrupt multiple communication or radar systems operating on different frequencies at the same time. By jamming a wide range of frequencies, it can effectively create interference and disrupt the enemy's ability to communicate or detect targets. This makes it a versatile and powerful tool for electronic warfare.

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26. When can you use enemy frequencies?

Explanation

Enemy frequencies can be used as a last resort and with the concurrence of your intelligence officer because in such situations, it is assumed that all other frequencies are being jammed or compromised. By using enemy frequencies, you can communicate without revealing anything of intelligence value to the enemy. This ensures that critical information can still be passed while minimizing the risk of the enemy gaining any valuable intelligence.

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27. What must you not do when using "radio discipline" as a countermeasure?

Explanation

When using "radio discipline" as a countermeasure, one must not speak quickly in order to pass as much information as possible. This is because speaking quickly can lead to unclear communication and misunderstandings, which can be detrimental in critical situations. It is important to adhere strictly to authorized operating procedures and carefully pronounce the words of the phonetic alphabet to ensure clear and effective communication.

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28. The brevity code that represents "have quick time of day signal" is called

Explanation

The brevity code "mickey" represents "have quick time of day signal." Brevity codes are used to convey information quickly and efficiently in various fields, such as military and aviation. Each code is a short and easily recognizable term or phrase that stands for a specific message. In this case, "mickey" is the code used to indicate the presence of a quick time of day signal.

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29. Which modes are normally only associated with military aircraft?

Explanation

Modes 1, 2, and 4 are normally only associated with military aircraft. Mode 1 is used for identification purposes, Mode 2 is used for military aircraft identification and altitude reporting, and Mode 4 is used for secure identification and encryption. Therefore, these modes are typically used exclusively by military aircraft.

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30. Which brevity system is used by pilot and controller to convey messages in a few words?

Explanation

Brevity codes are used by pilots and controllers to convey messages in a few words. These codes are a set of standardized phrases or abbreviations that are used to communicate quickly and efficiently in situations where time is crucial, such as during air traffic control or military operations. By using brevity codes, pilots and controllers can convey important information concisely, reducing the risk of miscommunication and ensuring clear and effective communication.

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31. Which North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) instruction specifies the responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic?

Explanation

NORAD instruction 10-15 specifies the responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic within the North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) system. This instruction provides guidance for how air traffic is identified, categorized, and classified within the NORAD system, ensuring efficient and effective management of airspace.

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32. What is a data trail?

Explanation

A data trail refers to a series of consecutive radar returns that follow a specific pattern in terms of direction and speed. This means that the radar is consistently detecting and tracking an object or target that is moving in a predictable manner. The consecutive returns indicate that the object is continuously being tracked by the radar system, allowing for the collection of data on its movement and trajectory.

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33. What piece of equipment is used at the air operations center (AOC) to monitor and interface on a near-real-time basis with tactical units?

Explanation

The air defense system integrator (ADSI) is the piece of equipment used at the air operations center (AOC) to monitor and interface on a near-real-time basis with tactical units. It helps in integrating and coordinating air defense operations by providing real-time information and communication capabilities. The ADSI allows the AOC to effectively monitor and communicate with tactical units, ensuring efficient and coordinated air defense operations.

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34. What is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being jammed?

Explanation

If you realize that you are being jammed, the first thing you should do is alert other crew members. This is important because it allows everyone on the team to be aware of the situation and take necessary actions to address the jamming. By alerting other crew members, you can coordinate efforts to counter the jamming, protect sensitive information, and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the mission or operation.

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35. When designing your data link architecture, what must you consider to allow overlapping coverage and to also prevent multiple instances of track duplication?

Explanation

To allow overlapping coverage and prevent multiple instances of track duplication in data link architecture, a data link filter plan must be considered. This plan helps in filtering and managing the data link messages, ensuring that only relevant and necessary information is transmitted and received. By implementing a data link filter plan, redundant or duplicate tracks can be eliminated, improving the efficiency and accuracy of the data link system. This plan helps in optimizing the use of available bandwidth and resources, ensuring seamless communication and coordination between different entities in the network.

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36. Which electromagnetic interference (EMI) report does the engineering installation squadron (EIS) or the major command (MAJCOM)-designated point of contact submit?

Explanation

The engineering installation squadron (EIS) or the major command (MAJCOM)-designated point of contact submits the closing electromagnetic interference (EMI) report. This report is submitted after the completion of the installation or engineering project, indicating that all EMI issues have been resolved and the project is ready for closure.

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37. What is the final step in the identification process?

Explanation

The final step in the identification process is classification. This step involves analyzing the available data and information to determine the identity of the object or entity being investigated. It may involve comparing the characteristics of the object with known patterns or profiles to make a definitive classification. This step is crucial in order to accurately identify and understand the nature of the object or entity in question.

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38. Which type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling agency loses radar capability?

Explanation

When the controlling agency loses radar capability, the type of control that uses a radio monitor mode is advisory. In this mode, the controlling agency provides guidance and recommendations to the pilot, but the final decision-making authority rests with the pilot. This allows the pilot to make informed decisions based on the information provided by the controlling agency, even without radar capability.

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39. Which tell priority is an emergency track?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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40. During what air tasking planning cycle stage is the joint force component commander responsible for redirecting air assets to respond to moving targets or changing priorities?

Explanation

During the execution planning and force execution stage of the air tasking planning cycle, the joint force component commander is responsible for redirecting air assets to respond to moving targets or changing priorities. This stage involves the actual implementation of the air tasking order and the coordination of resources to carry out the planned missions. It requires flexibility and adaptability to adjust the allocation of air assets based on the evolving situation on the ground.

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41. Which brevity word would you use to positively denote known enemy aircraft?

Explanation

The brevity word "bandit" is used to positively denote known enemy aircraft. This term is commonly used in military aviation to quickly communicate the presence of hostile aircraft. It allows pilots to alert each other and air traffic control about potential threats in a concise and efficient manner. The term "bandit" helps to distinguish between friendly and enemy aircraft, enabling effective coordination and response during combat operations.

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42. Which type of control is informative and not directive in nature?

Explanation

Broadcast control is informative and not directive in nature because it involves the dissemination of information to a wide audience without providing specific instructions or guidance. It is typically used to share important updates, announcements, or news to a large group of people. Unlike tactical control, which involves giving specific instructions and directions, or advisory control, which provides guidance and recommendations, broadcast control simply provides information without any specific direction or guidance.

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43. At which time do aircrews learn to present safe passage procedures?

Explanation

Aircrews learn to present safe passage procedures after becoming airborne because it is during the flight that they have a clear understanding of the current weather conditions, air traffic control instructions, and any other relevant information that may affect the safe passage of the aircraft. Additionally, once the aircraft is in the air, the crew can assess the overall situation and make necessary adjustments to ensure safe passage for themselves and other aircraft in the airspace.

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44. Which tactical data links (TDL) are typically used by the Army to receive data link inputs?

Explanation

The Army typically uses Link 11B and Link 16 tactical data links to receive data link inputs.

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45. Which type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?

Explanation

Infrared weapons systems are typically used in a stern tactic. This means that the weapons are deployed from the rear of the target, allowing for surprise attacks and minimizing the chances of retaliation. By using infrared technology, which detects heat signatures, the attacker can effectively target the enemy from behind without being easily detected. This tactic is often employed in military operations to gain a strategic advantage over the opponent.

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46. Normally how many minutes does the identification process occur within?

Explanation

The identification process normally occurs within either 2 or 5 minutes.

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47. Which procedure assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identificationand reporting purposes?

Explanation

The procedure that assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identification and reporting purposes is called initiation. This step marks the start of the process and sets the target on its path towards identification and reporting. Identification, correlation, and reporting are all important steps in the overall process, but initiation is the specific step that kickstarts the process by assigning a track number to the target.

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48. Which option is not an effective jamming measure?

Explanation

Recorded music or foreign language broadcasts are not effective jamming measures because they do not disrupt or interfere with the intended communication. Jamming measures are typically designed to interfere with or block the transmission of signals, making it difficult for the intended message to be received. Recorded music or foreign language broadcasts may be distracting or annoying, but they do not effectively disrupt or block communication signals.

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49. When your communications are being jammed, what should you remember to do when you go to an alternate frequency?

Explanation

When your communications are being jammed and you go to an alternate frequency, it is important to change your call sign. This is because the jammer may still be monitoring the original frequency and can track your movements based on your call sign. Changing your call sign helps to maintain your operational security and prevents the jammer from easily identifying and tracking your communication.

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50. Who is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE)?

Explanation

The Joint forces commander is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE) because they are responsible for overseeing military operations in a specific theater of operations. They have the authority to establish and enforce ROE to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the forces under their command. The President, Secretary of Defense, and Unified command commander may have influence and decision-making power, but the Joint forces commander ultimately holds the final authority in theater ROE.

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51. The ability of a radar set to be tuned rapidly from one frequency to another frequency is what we call

Explanation

Frequency agility refers to the ability of a radar set to quickly and easily change frequencies. This is important because different frequencies may be more effective in different situations or environments. By being able to rapidly tune from one frequency to another, the radar set can adapt and optimize its performance based on the specific conditions it is facing. This allows for greater flexibility and effectiveness in radar operations.

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52. During peacetime, which method of identification may be used to classify tracks as friendly based on a specified ground speed or computed true air speed behavior?

Explanation

During peacetime, tracks can be classified as friendly based on their track behavior. This means that their movement patterns, such as ground speed or computed true air speed, can be used to identify them as friendly. This method of identification is likely used when visual identification or previous identification methods are not feasible or reliable.

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53. Which operator action uses the intersection of two or more radar electronic attack (EA) strobes to determine the position of a jammer?

Explanation

Triangulation is the operator action that uses the intersection of two or more radar electronic attack (EA) strobes to determine the position of a jammer. Triangulation involves measuring the angles between the radar and the jammer from multiple locations, allowing the operator to calculate the precise location of the jammer. This technique is commonly used in radar systems to locate and track jammers or other electronic threats.

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54. Which mission set of the air tasking order (ATO) contains the aircraft call sign and the standard conventional load?

Explanation

The mission set of the air tasking order (ATO) that contains the aircraft call sign and the standard conventional load is the "mission aircraft" set. This set includes all the necessary information about the specific aircraft, such as its call sign and the standard conventional load it carries. It is important for effective mission planning and coordination.

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55. Which data link tool is used to request certain data that was purged or dropped locally from one or more command and control (C2) interface units?

Explanation

A data update request is a tool used to request certain data that was purged or dropped locally from one or more command and control (C2) interface units. This tool allows users to retrieve specific data that may have been deleted or removed from the system. It is used to update the data and ensure that the most recent information is available for analysis and decision-making.

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56. Within how many hours must you report electromagnetic interference (EMI) incidents?

Explanation

You must report electromagnetic interference incidents within 24 hours. This ensures that any potential issues caused by the interference can be promptly addressed and resolved. Reporting incidents promptly allows for a quicker response and mitigation of any potential negative impacts on electronic devices or systems.

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57. What is the preferred way of submitting an electromagnetic interference (EMI) report?

Explanation

The preferred way of submitting an electromagnetic interference (EMI) report is via electronic message. This method allows for quick and efficient communication of the report, ensuring that it reaches the intended recipient in a timely manner. It also eliminates the need for physical copies and certified mail, reducing paper waste and the risk of documents getting lost or delayed in the mail. Electronic messages can be easily stored and accessed digitally, making it convenient for both the sender and the receiver to refer back to the report if needed.

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58. Which is not a sub-network of the joint data network (JDN)?

Explanation

The domestic events network is not a sub-network of the joint data network (JDN) because it is focused on domestic events, such as events happening within a country or region, rather than being a part of the larger joint data network. The JDN is likely a network that connects various organizations or entities for the purpose of sharing data and intelligence, and the domestic events network does not fit within this scope.

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59. When experiencing communications jamming, what must you not do?

Explanation

When experiencing communications jamming, it is important not to consider all interference as unintentional unless you can positively identify it to be jamming. This means that you should not assume that any interference you encounter is accidental or unintentional, as it could potentially be intentional jamming designed to disrupt communication. Instead, you should be cautious and consider the possibility of jamming if you encounter any suspicious or disruptive interference.

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60. What responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?

Explanation

Electronic support (ES) is the correct answer because it refers to the capability of intercepting, identifying, and locating sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy. This is done for the purpose of threat recognition, which aligns with the given question. Electronic attack (EA) involves using electromagnetic energy to attack enemy systems, electronic warfare (EW) encompasses all aspects of using electromagnetic energy in warfare, and electronic protection (EP) focuses on protecting friendly systems from electronic threats.

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61. Which devices are used as a countermeasure for infrared (IR) receivers aboard interceptor aircraft or against IR seeking missiles?

Explanation

Flares are used as a countermeasure for infrared (IR) receivers aboard interceptor aircraft or against IR seeking missiles. Flares are small pyrotechnic devices that produce a bright light and heat signature, diverting the attention of heat-seeking missiles away from the aircraft. By deploying flares, the aircraft can confuse or distract the missile's infrared sensors, increasing the chances of evading a lock-on and avoiding being hit.

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62. Which type of tactic is performed during peacetime rules of engagement (ROE) when an intercept is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace?

Explanation

During peacetime rules of engagement (ROE), a stern attack tactic is performed when an intercept is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace. In a stern attack, the interceptor aircraft positions itself behind the target aircraft and maintains a steady pursuit. This tactic is used to monitor and control the target aircraft, ensuring it complies with regulations and does not pose a threat to national security.

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63. How many series of air tasking orders (ATO) are in various stages of progress at any time?

Explanation

There are five series of air tasking orders (ATO) in various stages of progress at any given time. This implies that there are multiple ongoing ATOs being worked on simultaneously, with each series representing a different set of tasks and objectives.

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64. During safe passage procedures, corridors for returning aircraft are established in order to provide safe entry when

Explanation

During safe passage procedures, corridors for returning aircraft are established in order to provide safe entry when one or more unit(s) is/are not under site control. This means that there may be situations where certain units or aircraft are not under the direct control or supervision of the site or base personnel. In order to ensure the safe passage of these aircraft, specific corridors are designated to guide them back to the site without any potential risks or conflicts with other units or aircraft. This helps to maintain safety and prevent any accidents or incidents during the return of these aircraft.

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65. What is the primary feed to support generation of the common tactical picture (CTP)?

Explanation

The primary feed to support generation of the common tactical picture (CTP) is the Joint data network (JDN). The JDN is a network that allows for the sharing of data and information between different military units and organizations. It is specifically designed to support the coordination and collaboration necessary for generating a comprehensive and accurate common tactical picture. By utilizing the JDN, all relevant parties can have access to real-time data and information, enabling them to make informed decisions and effectively coordinate their actions.

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66. Which voice communications net provides signal intelligence (SIGINT) information between interfacing units?

Explanation

The Voice Product Net (VPN) is the voice communications net that provides signal intelligence (SIGINT) information between interfacing units. This net is specifically designed for the transmission of SIGINT data and is used to exchange intelligence information between different units. It allows for the sharing of real-time intelligence and facilitates coordination and collaboration between units involved in SIGINT operations.

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67. Why is it important to locate the position of a jammer?

Explanation

Locating the position of a jammer is important so that interceptor aircraft can be directed to neutralize the jammer. This allows for immediate action to be taken in order to counteract the interference caused by the jammer. By directing interceptor aircraft to the jammer's position, it becomes possible to effectively eliminate the source of the jamming and restore normal electronic communication.

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68. Which timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating in the Link 11 environment?

Explanation

Polling is the timing architecture normally used if a unit is operating in the Link 11 environment. In polling, the unit sends out a request to each device in the network in a sequential manner, one at a time, to check if they have any data to transmit. This ensures that each device gets a fair chance to transmit its data and prevents collisions in the network. It is a commonly used method in environments where multiple devices need to share a single communication channel.

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69. Which voice communications net is used by the interface control officer (ICO) to manage the data link architecture?

Explanation

The interface control officer (ICO) is responsible for managing the data link architecture. The data link coordination net (DCN) is the voice communications net used by the ICO for this purpose. This net allows the ICO to coordinate and manage the data link communications between different systems and platforms. It facilitates the exchange of information and ensures smooth and efficient data link operations.

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70. Which document contains specific voice coordination frequencies used for troubleshooting and coordinating data-link operations?

Explanation

OPORD annex K contains specific voice coordination frequencies used for troubleshooting and coordinating data-link operations. This document provides detailed instructions and information on how to effectively communicate and coordinate data-link operations using specific voice frequencies. It is an essential resource for troubleshooting and ensuring smooth communication in data-link operations.

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71. Which document tends to become historical and statistical over the passage of time?

Explanation

DISUM stands for Document Summary, which is a document that provides a summary of information related to a particular topic or event. Over time, as new information becomes available and the topic or event evolves, the DISUM document may become historical and statistical in nature. This is because it captures and records data and information that can be used for analysis and research purposes. As time passes, the DISUM document becomes a valuable resource for historians and statisticians to study and understand the past.

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72. Which communications medium is used by Link 11 participants for beyond-the-horizon nets?

Explanation

Link 11 participants use high frequency (HF) as their communications medium for beyond-the-horizon nets. HF signals have the ability to travel long distances by bouncing off the ionosphere, allowing for communication beyond the line of sight. Ultrahigh frequency (UHF), very high frequency (VHF), and super high frequency (SHF) are not suitable for beyond-the-horizon communication as their signals are limited by the curvature of the Earth and cannot easily penetrate obstacles.

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73. Which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?

Explanation

Directed energy (DE) is the correct answer because it is the umbrella term that encompasses technologies capable of producing concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles. This includes technologies such as lasers, particle beams, and high-power microwaves. Directed energy weapons and systems fall under this category, which can be used for various purposes such as communication, defense, and destruction.

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74. Who approves the joint force air component commander's (JFACC) course of action (COA)?

Explanation

The Joint forces commander approves the joint force air component commander's (JFACC) course of action (COA). The JFACC is responsible for planning and executing air operations in a joint force, and their COA outlines the specific actions and strategies to be implemented. The Joint forces commander, who is in charge of the overall joint force, has the authority to review and approve the JFACC's COA to ensure it aligns with the overall mission and objectives of the joint force.

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75. Which type of communications jamming causes a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine?

Explanation

Sweep-through communications jamming causes a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine. This type of jamming involves rapidly changing the frequency of the jamming signal, creating a sweeping effect that resembles the sound of an aircraft engine. It is used to disrupt or block communication signals by transmitting a wide range of frequencies, making it difficult for the targeted communication system to receive or transmit messages effectively.

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76. Which type of communications jamming may be mistaken for a receiver or atmospheric interference?

Explanation

Noise is a type of communications jamming that can be mistaken for receiver or atmospheric interference. Noise refers to any unwanted random signals or disturbances that can disrupt the communication signal. It can occur due to various factors such as electrical interference, background radiation, or other sources of interference. Since noise is unpredictable and random, it can often be misinterpreted as interference from the receiver or atmospheric conditions, leading to confusion and difficulty in identifying the actual cause of the disruption.

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77. What is a form of intentional interference that does not affect radar circuits, but concerns the transmission or retransmission of actual or simulated navigational signals to confuse navigation?

Explanation

Meaconing is a form of intentional interference that involves the transmission or retransmission of actual or simulated navigational signals to confuse navigation. Unlike radar circuits, it does not affect radar circuits directly. This technique is used to deceive navigational systems by broadcasting false signals, leading to incorrect positioning and navigation for the targeted entity.

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78. Which parameter must be used when voice telling tracks?

Explanation

When voice telling tracks, it is necessary to preface the altitude with its source. This means that before stating the altitude, the source of the altitude information should be mentioned. This is important because different sources may provide different altitude measurements, and it is crucial for accurate communication to specify the source of the altitude being mentioned.

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79. Who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi-service force environment to the combat plans division?

Explanation

In a multi-service force environment, the combat plans division is responsible for coordinating and planning military operations. The preplanned request is typically submitted by the army, as they are the branch of the military that focuses on ground operations and has the most direct involvement in combat situations. The navy, air force, and marine corps may also submit requests, but the army is the primary branch responsible for submitting preplanned requests in this context.

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80. Which characteristic does not affect chaff's screening ability?

Explanation

The range does not affect chaff's screening ability because it refers to the distance between the radar and the chaff, and it does not directly impact the chaff's ability to scatter or reflect radar signals. The degree it resonates at the given radar frequency, evenness of dispersal, and relative density are all factors that can affect chaff's screening ability as they determine how effectively the chaff can confuse or deceive radar systems.

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81. Frequency agility is most successful against a

Explanation

Frequency agility refers to the ability of a communication system to rapidly change its operating frequency. A manually tuned spot jammer is one that is adjusted manually to jam a specific frequency. In contrast, a sequential spot jammer, barrage jammer, and sweep jammer are all types of jammers that operate by sequentially or continuously jamming a range of frequencies. Therefore, frequency agility would be most successful against a manually tuned spot jammer because it can quickly change frequencies to avoid being jammed.

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82. The usage of electronic or mechanical devices that reduces the effectiveness of enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems are known as an electronic

Explanation

Electronic attack (EA) refers to the use of electronic or mechanical devices to interfere with or disrupt enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems. This can include jamming enemy communications, radar, or other electronic systems, as well as deceiving or confusing enemy sensors. By disrupting the enemy's electronic capabilities, EA aims to degrade their ability to effectively conduct warfare.

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83. Which report is not a type of an electromagnetic interference (EMI) report?

Explanation

The report that is not a type of an electromagnetic interference (EMI) report is "cancellation". This is because the other options - initial, closing, and supplemental - are all types of EMI reports, while cancellation does not fall under this category.

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84. Which document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track identification?

Explanation

The operations order is the document that provides detailed circumstances and criteria for track identification. It outlines the specific tasks and objectives of an operation, including the identification of tracks or targets. It provides information on how to identify and track specific entities, such as aircraft or vehicles, based on predetermined circumstances and criteria. This document is essential for ensuring effective and coordinated operations.

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85. What supplements numerous procedures and airspaces usages contained in other portions of the air tasking order (ATO)?

Explanation

SPINS stands for Special Instructions. It is a supplement that provides additional guidance and procedures to be followed by aircrews during specific operations. It complements the information provided in other portions of the air tasking order (ATO) by specifying special instructions and considerations that need to be taken into account. SPINS helps to ensure that all aircrews operate in a coordinated and efficient manner, enhancing the overall effectiveness of the mission.

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86. In control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS), denial is accomplished using all of the following electronic attack techniques except

Explanation

Denial in the control of the electromagnetic spectrum refers to preventing the enemy from using or accessing certain frequencies or signals. Electronic attack techniques such as degradation, disruption, and deception are used to achieve this denial. Degradation involves reducing the quality or effectiveness of enemy communications, disruption refers to interrupting or jamming enemy signals, and deception involves misleading or confusing the enemy. However, detection does not directly contribute to denying the enemy access to the electromagnetic spectrum but rather helps in identifying and locating enemy signals.

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87. Whose guidance ensures that air operations effectively support the force objectives, while still retaining flexibility in execution, to adjust to the dynamics of military operations?

Explanation

The joint forces air component commander is responsible for ensuring that air operations effectively support the force objectives while maintaining flexibility. They coordinate and integrate air operations across multiple branches of the military to achieve the desired outcomes. This role requires a deep understanding of military operations and the ability to adapt to changing dynamics on the battlefield.

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88. Which is an advantage of a sweep jammer?

Explanation

A sweep jammer has the advantage of being able to sequentially jam several radars operating at different frequencies. This means that it can target and disrupt multiple radars that are operating on different frequency bands, making it a versatile and effective tool for jamming. By jamming radars on different frequencies, the sweep jammer can effectively disrupt enemy communication and surveillance systems, providing a tactical advantage in military operations.

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89. How many steps are in the identification process once a track is established?

Explanation

Once a track is established, there are two steps in the identification process. This suggests that the process is relatively simple and straightforward, involving only two distinct stages.

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90. The type of communications jamming you probably will encounter more frequently than others are

Explanation

Spark jamming is a type of communications jamming that involves the use of intermittent high-powered electrical discharges to disrupt or interfere with communication signals. This type of jamming is commonly encountered because it is relatively easy to implement and can be effective in disrupting a wide range of communication systems. Spark jamming generates random bursts of interference that can disrupt the reception of signals, making it difficult for the intended recipient to receive or decode the information being transmitted.

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91. What is the tactical data link (TDL) for airborne platforms that uses ultrahigh frequency (UHF) radio for line-of-sight (LOS) nets?

Explanation

Link 11 is the tactical data link (TDL) for airborne platforms that uses ultrahigh frequency (UHF) radio for line-of-sight (LOS) nets.

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92. Who provides the capabilities required to meet the area air defense plan (AADP)?

Explanation

The component commander is responsible for providing the capabilities required to meet the area air defense plan (AADP). This means that they are in charge of coordinating and deploying the necessary resources and forces to defend a specific area against air threats. The component commander works closely with other commanders and forces to ensure that the AADP is effectively executed.

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93. Who designates the airspace control authority?

Explanation

The joint forces commander (JFC) designates the airspace control authority. This means that the person in charge of the joint forces, who is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all military operations, has the authority to designate who will be in control of the airspace. This decision is important as it determines who will have the responsibility for managing and regulating the use of airspace during military operations.

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94. Which document provides the details of the approved requests for fire support coordination measures?

Explanation

The ACO (Airspace Control Order) document provides the details of the approved requests for fire support coordination measures. The ACO outlines the specific procedures and guidelines for coordinating and controlling airspace during military operations. It includes information on the approved requests for fire support coordination measures, such as the location, timing, and type of support requested. The ACO ensures effective communication and coordination between different units involved in fire support and helps to prevent any potential conflicts or accidents in the airspace.

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Which type of information would you not transmit over unsecure radios?
Which type of tell provides reports from lower echelon units to higher...
Which type of identification is given to a track that meets some, but...
Which activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS) uses...
Small aircrafts containing a propulsion system that can be programmed...
Which flowchart would you use to systematically go through a sequence...
Which person would a surveillance technician coordinate with if a...
Which type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information...
What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational...
Which theater air control system (TACS) unit is capable of data link...
Which message type outlines duties, functions, and parameters for link...
When would you not mention anything about an electronic attack (EA)?
The modular control equipment (MCE) data links consist of Link 11,
What combines active defense, passive defense, and command and control...
Which document outlines duties functions and parameters for tactical...
Which tactics terminology indicates the missile has been defeated?
The five levels of continuum of control are close, autonomous,
Which type of device is designed to home in on a radar signal?
Who submits daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national...
A data link architecture is defined as
Which data link transmission methods are used across great distances?
Special instructions (SPINS) are published
What tactical data link (TDL) is capable of operating in the full...
Which characteristic does a jamming transmitter not use to jam a...
Which is an advantage of a barrage jammer?
When can you use enemy frequencies?
What must you not do when using "radio discipline" as a...
The brevity code that represents "have quick time of day...
Which modes are normally only associated with military aircraft?
Which brevity system is used by pilot and controller to convey...
Which North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) instruction specifies...
What is a data trail?
What piece of equipment is used at the air operations center (AOC) to...
What is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being...
When designing your data link architecture, what must you consider to...
Which electromagnetic interference (EMI) report does the engineering...
What is the final step in the identification process?
Which type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling...
Which tell priority is an emergency track?
During what air tasking planning cycle stage is the joint force...
Which brevity word would you use to positively denote known enemy...
Which type of control is informative and not directive in nature?
At which time do aircrews learn to present safe passage procedures?
Which tactical data links (TDL) are typically used by the Army to...
Which type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?
Normally how many minutes does the identification process occur...
Which procedure assigns a track number to a target and begins...
Which option is not an effective jamming measure?
When your communications are being jammed, what should you remember to...
Who is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE)?
The ability of a radar set to be tuned rapidly from one frequency to...
During peacetime, which method of identification may be used to...
Which operator action uses the intersection of two or more radar...
Which mission set of the air tasking order (ATO) contains the aircraft...
Which data link tool is used to request certain data that was purged...
Within how many hours must you report electromagnetic interference...
What is the preferred way of submitting an electromagnetic...
Which is not a sub-network of the joint data network (JDN)?
When experiencing communications jamming, what must you not do?
What responds to searches that consist of the interception,...
Which devices are used as a countermeasure for infrared (IR) receivers...
Which type of tactic is performed during peacetime rules of engagement...
How many series of air tasking orders (ATO) are in various stages of...
During safe passage procedures, corridors for returning aircraft are...
What is the primary feed to support generation of the common tactical...
Which voice communications net provides signal intelligence (SIGINT)...
Why is it important to locate the position of a jammer?
Which timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating...
Which voice communications net is used by the interface control...
Which document contains specific voice coordination frequencies used...
Which document tends to become historical and statistical over the...
Which communications medium is used by Link 11 participants for...
Which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated...
Who approves the joint force air component commander's (JFACC) course...
Which type of communications jamming causes a sound somewhat like an...
Which type of communications jamming may be mistaken for a receiver or...
What is a form of intentional interference that does not affect radar...
Which parameter must be used when voice telling tracks?
Who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a...
Which characteristic does not affect chaff's screening ability?
Frequency agility is most successful against a
The usage of electronic or mechanical devices that reduces the...
Which report is not a type of an electromagnetic interference (EMI)...
Which document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track...
What supplements numerous procedures and airspaces usages contained in...
In control of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS), denial is...
Whose guidance ensures that air operations effectively support the...
Which is an advantage of a sweep jammer?
How many steps are in the identification process once a track is...
The type of communications jamming you probably will encounter more...
What is the tactical data link (TDL) for airborne platforms that uses...
Who provides the capabilities required to meet the area air defense...
Who designates the airspace control authority?
Which document provides the details of the approved requests for fire...
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