Security Forces CDC Volume 1

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1. Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). This legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces. It outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of military personnel, defines offenses and punishments, and establishes the military justice system. The UCMJ ensures discipline, order, and the enforcement of military laws within the armed forces.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces CDC Volume 1 - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on the historical and operational aspects of Security Forces within the Air Force, focusing on milestones like the establishment of training camps, schools, and changes in the field's nomenclature. It is designed for individuals preparing for certifications in security operations.

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2. The Fifth Amendment of the constitution protects against

Explanation

The Fifth Amendment of the constitution protects against self-incrimination. This means that individuals cannot be forced to testify against themselves or provide evidence that could potentially incriminate them in a criminal case. This protection ensures that individuals have the right to remain silent and not be compelled to be a witness against themselves, preserving their right to a fair trial and preventing any coerced confessions or admissions of guilt.

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3. Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, as the handler you must

Explanation

Before releasing a military working dog to search a suspected unoccupied building, it is important for the handler to give a verbal warning stating that they are about to release the dog. This verbal warning serves as a precautionary measure to inform any potential occupants or individuals in the vicinity that the dog is about to be released. It allows them to take necessary actions to avoid any potential harm or conflict with the dog. This ensures the safety of both the dog and any individuals present in the area.

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4. If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator should

Explanation

If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, allowing another investigator to do the interview is the best course of action. This is because a personality conflict can create bias and affect the objectivity of the interview process. By involving another investigator, it ensures that the interviewee is given a fair and unbiased opportunity to present themselves. Additionally, it prevents any potential negative impact on the investigation due to personal conflicts between the interviewee and the initial investigator.

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5. The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success." This answer accurately reflects the mission of all Security Forces (SF). SF personnel are responsible for protecting and defending the Air Force (AF), as well as supporting joint and coalition missions. They are trained to be skilled defenders and are committed to ensuring the success of missions involving the AF, Joint forces, and Coalition forces.

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6. In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?

Explanation

In 1971, the Security Police underwent a split, resulting in the creation of two distinct functions. These functions were law enforcement and security specialties. This suggests that the Security Police was divided into two separate departments or units, with one focusing on law enforcement-related tasks and the other specializing in security-related responsibilities.

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7. What was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC)  in 1997?

Explanation

The Phoenix Raven Program was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997. This program was designed to enhance the security of AMC aircraft and personnel during deployments to high-threat locations. The program involved specially trained Security Forces personnel, known as Phoenix Ravens, who provided security and protection for aircraft and crew members during ground operations. The Phoenix Raven Program played a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of AMC missions in potentially dangerous environments.

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8. When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?

Explanation

When conducting individual searches, it is important to always conduct a precautionary check prior to searching in order to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids. This step allows you to assess the situation and take necessary precautions, such as wearing protective gloves or using other personal protective equipment, before beginning the search. By conducting a precautionary check, you can minimize the risk of coming into contact with potentially harmful substances and ensure your own safety during the search process.

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9. As a security forces member,  what is the primary rule in court testimony?

Explanation

The primary rule in court testimony for a security forces member is to tell the truth. This is important because the purpose of court testimony is to provide accurate and reliable information to the court, ensuring justice is served. By telling the truth, the security forces member can contribute to a fair and just legal process, helping to establish the facts of the case and allowing for an informed decision to be made.

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10. On 2 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

Explanation

On 2 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This school was likely established to provide training and education to individuals who were part of the Air Police, which is now known as the Security Forces. The Air Police School would have taught individuals about law enforcement, security, and other related topics to prepare them for their roles in protecting the base and its personnel.

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11. If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person

Explanation

A person subject to military law who commits an offense overseas can be tried either overseas or stateside. This means that the military has the jurisdiction to prosecute the individual regardless of their location. The decision of where to hold the trial will depend on various factors such as the nature of the offense, the availability of resources, and the agreements between the countries involved. It is important to note that the individual remains subject to the uniform code of military justice (UCMJ) regardless of the location of the trial.

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12. In the security forces' unit S-function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?

Explanation

In the security forces' unit S-function structure, the S-3 branch, which is responsible for operations, is typically the largest. This is because the operations branch is involved in planning and executing missions, coordinating resources, and overseeing the overall operational effectiveness of the unit. As a result, it requires a larger number of personnel compared to other branches such as administration, intelligence, and logistics.

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13. When is military working dog's (MWD) detection ability more effective?

Explanation

Military working dogs' (MWD) detection ability is more effective during darkness or limited visibility. This is because dogs have a heightened sense of smell and hearing, which allows them to rely on these senses more when their vision is impaired. In low light or limited visibility conditions, their ability to detect scents and sounds is enhanced, making them more effective in detecting threats or searching for targets. This is especially useful in military operations conducted at night or in areas with reduced visibility, where MWDs can provide valuable support in detecting hidden dangers or locating individuals.

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14. Under concurrent jurisdiction

Explanation

Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that both levels of government have the power to enforce laws and exercise their jurisdiction in a particular area. It allows for a sharing of power between the state and federal government, where they can both have jurisdiction over the same subject matter. This can lead to potential conflicts or overlapping regulations, but ultimately both levels of government have the authority to enforce laws and make decisions.

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15. What information should leadership brief all personnel on before conducting any exercise?

Explanation

Leadership should brief all personnel on weapon, vehicle, and ground safety before conducting any exercise. This is important because it ensures that everyone is aware of the potential risks and hazards associated with the use of weapons, vehicles, and the exercise area. By providing this information, leadership can help prevent accidents, injuries, and damage to equipment. It also promotes a culture of safety and ensures that personnel are prepared and able to handle any potential safety issues that may arise during the exercise.

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16. Defender's Edge training was developed by

Explanation

The correct answer is "defenders for defenders." This means that the Defender's Edge training program was created by individuals who are defenders themselves, meaning they have firsthand experience and knowledge in the field. This ensures that the training is specifically tailored to the needs and challenges faced by defenders, making it more effective and relevant for their job requirements.

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17. As security forces members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?

Explanation

Team members are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience because they are the individuals who work alongside us, understand the challenges we face, and provide support and assistance in times of stress. They can offer guidance, share experiences, and collaborate with us to overcome difficulties. Having a strong team bond and support system can significantly contribute to our overall resilience and well-being in high-stress situations.

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18. The security forces beret with the Defensor Fortis flash

Explanation

The answer identifies SF (Security Forces) as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. The Defensor Fortis flash on the security forces beret is a distinguishing uniform item that signifies their role and responsibilities. This identification helps to deter aggression and allows foreign forces to recognize them as security personnel. The statement does not mention any direct relation to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam war.

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19. If a same sex security forces member cannot be present during an interview, what should you do?

Explanation

To ensure a fair and unbiased interview process, it is important to have a second investigator present if a same-sex security forces member cannot be available. This is necessary to avoid any potential allegations of misconduct or impropriety during the interview. Having a second investigator helps to maintain transparency and accountability in the interview process, ensuring that all parties involved are treated fairly and that the information gathered is reliable and trustworthy.

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20. As a security forces member, adhering to what systems, of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Code of Conduct and General Orders." As a security forces member, adhering to both the Code of Conduct and General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides guidelines for the behavior and actions of military personnel in various situations, emphasizing loyalty, integrity, and professionalism. General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations within the security forces, covering areas such as duty, discipline, and chain of command. By following both the Code of Conduct and General Orders, security forces members can maintain discipline, unity, and effectiveness in carrying out their missions.

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21. Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?

Explanation

The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol accurately describes our Security Force as it features a falcon, which represents strength and agility, positioned over crossed runways, symbolizing protection and control over the airfield. This combination signifies the security force's role in safeguarding the airfield and its operations.

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22. As a security forces member, prior to testifying in court, you should

Explanation

Prior to testifying in court, it is important for a security forces member to review the entire case file. This allows them to have a comprehensive understanding of the details and evidence involved in the case, ensuring they are well-prepared to provide accurate and informed testimony. By familiarizing themselves with the case file, they can anticipate potential questions and be better equipped to present their testimony effectively. It also helps them to ensure consistency in their statements and avoid any contradictions. Reviewing the entire case file is crucial in maintaining credibility and providing reliable testimony in court.

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23. Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This AFI provides guidelines and regulations for the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel. It outlines the proper conduct and procedures that should be followed when apprehending suspects. It ensures that personnel are aware of their responsibilities and obligations when using force, and emphasizes the importance of using force only when necessary and in accordance with the law. This AFI helps to ensure that the apprehension of suspects is done in a safe, effective, and lawful manner.

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24. What should security forces members be familiar with prior to being assigned as controllers?

Explanation

Security forces members should be familiar with the geography of the base prior to being assigned as controllers. This is important because knowing the layout and terrain of the base allows them to effectively navigate and respond to security threats. Familiarity with the base's geography enables security forces members to quickly identify potential vulnerabilities and develop appropriate security measures. It also helps them in coordinating with other team members and effectively communicating during emergency situations. Overall, understanding the geography of the base is crucial for security forces members to carry out their duties efficiently and ensure the safety of the installation.

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25. What is the purpose of call signs ?

Explanation

Call signs serve the purpose of simplifying and clarifying communications, as well as making them more protected. Call signs are unique identifiers used to distinguish and identify different individuals or entities in communication. By using call signs, messages can be directed specifically to the intended recipient, reducing confusion and ensuring effective communication. Additionally, call signs can enhance security by providing a level of anonymity, making it harder for unauthorized individuals to intercept or interfere with the communication.

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26. Conducting building checks is and excellent form of

Explanation

Conducting building checks is an excellent form of proactive crime prevention. By regularly inspecting buildings and their surroundings, potential security vulnerabilities can be identified and addressed before they can be exploited by criminals. This proactive approach helps to deter criminal activity and create a safer environment for the community.

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27. What is your first responsibility when assuming your post as an installation access controller (IAC)?

Explanation

When assuming the post as an installation access controller (IAC), the first responsibility is to conduct a post changeover. This involves familiarizing oneself with the current status of the post, ensuring all necessary equipment and resources are available, and taking over any ongoing tasks or duties from the previous controller. It is a crucial step in maintaining the continuity and effectiveness of the post's operations.

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28. Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading all f the following forms of identifications except

Explanation

DBIDS is a system that can read retiree identification cards, dependent identification cards, and department of defense-issued identification. However, it is not capable of reading state identification cards.

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29. The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

Explanation

When the government has exclusive jurisdiction, it means that the federal government has complete control and authority over the enforcement of laws on installations. This means that no other entity, such as state or local governments, has any jurisdiction or authority in enforcing laws on these installations. The federal government has the sole responsibility for ensuring compliance with laws and regulations in these areas.

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30. What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?

Explanation

Blood can be considered the single most important source of viruses in the workplace because it can carry various bloodborne pathogens, including viruses such as HIV and hepatitis B. In a healthcare setting or any environment where there is a risk of exposure to blood, proper handling and disposal of blood-contaminated materials are crucial to prevent the transmission of these viruses. Therefore, blood poses a significant risk for viral infections in the workplace.

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31. Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?

Explanation

When you have doubts concerning rights advisement, you should consult the legal office. The legal office is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to individuals in the organization. They are knowledgeable about laws, regulations, and policies related to rights advisement and can provide accurate information and assistance in such matters. They can clarify any doubts or concerns you may have and ensure that your rights are protected and respected.

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32. You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator's race?

Explanation

Issuing a traffic ticket based on the violator's race is a clear violation of the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. Personal attitudes refer to an individual's beliefs, opinions, and biases that should not influence their decision-making process, especially in a professional setting such as law enforcement. This behavior demonstrates a discriminatory mindset and goes against the principles of fairness and equality. It is important for law enforcement officials to remain impartial and treat all individuals equally, regardless of their race or ethnicity.

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33. The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called

Explanation

Operation ENDURING FREEDOM was the military operation launched against the Taliban in December 2001. This operation was a response to the September 11 attacks and aimed to dismantle al-Qaeda and remove the Taliban from power in Afghanistan. The name "ENDURING FREEDOM" reflects the goal of ensuring long-lasting freedom and security in the region by eliminating terrorist threats and promoting stability.

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34. During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy

Explanation

During the Global War on Terrorism, the need for convoy protection and security increased. As a result, a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task emerged, which was the duty of being an escort. This duty involved providing protection and security to convoys, ensuring their safe passage and defending against potential threats. This task required coordination and cooperation with sister services to effectively carry out convoy escort duty.

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35. If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, you should

Explanation

If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, it is important to prioritize their emotional well-being and provide them with the necessary support. Terminating the interview and rescheduling allows the victim to regain their composure and emotional stability before continuing the interview. This ensures that the victim is in a better state to provide accurate and reliable information, while also showing empathy and respect for their emotional state.

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36. Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

Explanation

The US Army has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government. This is because the army is the largest and oldest branch of the US military, with a primary focus on land-based operations. During military government, the army is responsible for maintaining order, providing essential services, and establishing governance in the occupied territory. The air force, coast guard, and navy have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but the army takes the lead in military government operations.

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37. Which is not a required piece of equipment of Security Forces (SF) personnel?

Explanation

Commercial radio is not a required piece of equipment for Security Forces (SF) personnel. While a flashlight, handcuffs with key, and cold/foul weather gear are essential tools for SF personnel, a commercial radio is not typically included in their mandatory equipment list. SF personnel usually rely on military radios or other specialized communication devices for their operations and coordination.

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38. What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC). The Hague and Geneva conventions are international treaties that establish the rules and principles governing armed conflict. These conventions aim to protect civilians and combatants who are no longer taking part in hostilities, such as prisoners of war and the wounded. They also provide guidelines on the conduct of warfare, including the prohibition of certain weapons and tactics. The Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is the body of international law that encompasses these conventions and regulates the behavior of parties involved in armed conflicts.

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39. Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

Explanation

Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective psychological deterrent. These teams are trained to exhibit a strong presence and intimidating behavior, which can deter potential criminals or adversaries from engaging in illegal or harmful activities. The sight of a highly trained and capable dog, along with its handler, can create a sense of fear and hesitation in individuals, thus acting as a deterrent. This psychological aspect of their presence can greatly contribute to maintaining law and order and preventing criminal activities.

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40. At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO) ?

Explanation

Significant heat acclimatization requires at least 3 to 5 days. This is the minimum amount of time needed for the body to adapt to the heat and become more efficient at regulating its temperature. Adequate acclimatization is crucial in preventing heat injuries in the area of operations (AO).

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41. The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

Explanation

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal. Exclusive jurisdiction means that only one entity has authority over a particular area or subject. Concurrent jurisdiction means that multiple entities have authority over the same area or subject. Proprietary jurisdiction refers to the authority of the government installation itself. Reciprocal jurisdiction means that the jurisdiction is shared between different entities based on mutual agreements or treaties.

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42. When conducting building checks, the military working dog is normally

Explanation

During building checks, it is important for the military working dog to be on a leash. This ensures that the dog remains under control and prevents it from running off or getting into potentially dangerous situations. Being on a leash allows the handler to have direct control over the dog's movements and actions, ensuring the safety of both the dog and the surrounding environment.

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43. The goal of any interview is to

Explanation

The goal of any interview is to obtain legally admissible statements. This means that the purpose of conducting an interview is to gather information or statements that can be used as evidence in a court of law. It is important for the statements to be legally admissible to ensure that they hold weight and can be used to support or prove a case.

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44. The purpose of Flight level exercises for security forces members is to

Explanation

Flight level exercises for security forces members are designed to help them stay sharp and put their training into practice. These exercises aim to maintain the skills and readiness of security forces by simulating real-life scenarios and allowing them to apply their training in a controlled environment. By regularly engaging in these exercises, security forces can enhance their abilities, improve their decision-making skills, and ensure they are prepared to effectively respond to any security threats or emergencies that may arise.

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45. Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?

Explanation

The direct approach is primarily used to interrogate. This approach involves asking straightforward questions and expecting direct and immediate responses from the interviewee. It is a more assertive and confrontational approach compared to the indirect or alternating approach. The direct approach aims to gather specific information and elicit clear and concise answers from the interviewee.

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46. Air force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be released

Explanation

When air force personnel are subjects of an investigation, they must be released to their supervisor, first sergeant, or commander. This is because these individuals are responsible for overseeing and managing the personnel within the air force. Releasing them to their spouse may not be appropriate in this situation as it could potentially interfere with the investigation or compromise the integrity of the process. Releasing them to their commander, first sergeant, or staff judge advocate ensures that the proper authorities are aware of the situation and can take appropriate action if necessary.

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47. The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?

Explanation

The success of the 1041st SPS (test) in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP).

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48. What are the types of interview approaches?

Explanation

The types of interview approaches are direct, indirect, and alternating. A direct interview approach involves straightforward and structured questions, where the interviewer asks specific questions to gather information. An indirect interview approach involves asking open-ended questions and allowing the interviewee to share their thoughts and experiences. An alternating interview approach combines both direct and indirect methods, where the interviewer uses a mix of structured and open-ended questions to gather information.

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49. A Stan /Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every

Explanation

The correct answer is 12 months. This means that a Stan/Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every 12 months. This regular inspection ensures that all functional areas are evaluated and monitored on a yearly basis, allowing for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made. This frequency strikes a balance between conducting inspections frequently enough to maintain a high level of operational readiness and efficiency, while also allowing sufficient time for the necessary preparations and evaluations to take place.

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50. Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?

Explanation

In 1942, the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp was established in Camp Ripley, MN.

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51. Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except

Explanation

APS battalions were specifically created to provide security and protection against various threats. They were designed to handle riots, air raids, and parachute attacks. However, they were not intended to defend against light tanks. This suggests that APS battalions were not equipped or trained to effectively counter armored vehicles like light tanks.

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52. Security forces management information systems (SFMIS) users report information only to those with

Explanation

The correct answer is "a valid need to know." This means that SFMIS users are only allowed to report information to individuals who have a legitimate reason or requirement to access that information. This ensures that sensitive or classified information is only shared with authorized personnel who have a specific need to be informed about it.

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53. The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the

Explanation

When approaching buildings, the military working dog team should always approach from the downwind side. This is because the downwind side is the side opposite to the direction of the wind. Approaching from this side helps to minimize the chances of the dog's scent being detected by any potential threats inside the building, as the wind will carry the scent away from the building. This allows the team to maintain an element of surprise and increases their chances of successfully carrying out their mission.

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54. Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms?

Explanation

The frequency of testing and documentation of duress alarms is determined by the MAJCOM/DET.

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55. In what year did the Air Force Approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?

Explanation

The Air Force approved the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield in 1957.

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56. What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols , security patrols , and fixed patrols use?

Explanation

Walking patrols, security patrols, and fixed patrols require a type of land mobile radio that allows them to communicate while on the move. Hand and arm signals and base station remote control are not practical options for patrols that need to communicate over a distance. A base station is a stationary radio unit and would not be suitable for patrols. The most appropriate choice for patrols would be a portable handheld radio, as it allows for easy mobility and communication while on the go.

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57. Which Uniform Code of Military Justice's (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

Explanation

Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article defines the scope of the UCMJ and establishes the individuals who are subject to the military justice system. It outlines that members of the armed forces, including active duty, reserve, and National Guard members, are subject to military jurisdiction. Additionally, it also includes individuals who are prisoners of war and certain civilian employees of the military. Therefore, Article 2 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the subject of military jurisdiction.

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58. In the security forces (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information system (SFMIS)?

Explanation

The S-5 branch is responsible for maintaining the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS). This branch focuses on the planning and programming aspects of the security forces unit. They are responsible for developing and implementing the plans and programs related to the unit's operations. The SFMIS is an important tool for managing and tracking information related to security forces operations, and it falls under the purview of the S-5 branch.

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59. Which uniform code of military justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a security forces (SF) member?

Explanation

Article 92 (2) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives security forces (SF) members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article states that any person who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation issued by a military department or commanding officer may be subject to punishment. As a security forces member, it is crucial to understand and abide by the UCMJ to maintain discipline and ensure the effective execution of duties.

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60. The military working dog's primary mission is to

Explanation

The military working dog's primary mission is to deter, detect, and detain intruders. This means that the dog is trained to discourage potential intruders from entering a certain area, identify and locate any intruders that do attempt to enter, and physically restrain or detain them if necessary. This role serves to enhance security and protect military personnel and assets from potential threats. Additionally, the presence of a trained working dog can also serve as a psychological deterrent, as intruders may be less likely to attempt to breach security knowing that a highly skilled and capable dog is on duty.

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61. Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must

Explanation

Military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This is because in these situations, the dogs need to have the freedom to move quickly and perform their tasks effectively. Keeping them on a leash in other situations ensures better control and prevents them from causing any harm or getting into unnecessary conflicts.

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62. Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) not routinely acquired during occupational and/or other ancillary training venues are called

Explanation

Expeditionary skills training refers to a type of training that focuses on acquiring specific knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) that are not typically obtained through regular occupational or ancillary training. This type of training is designed to prepare individuals for tasks and challenges that they may encounter in expeditionary or remote environments. It aims to equip individuals with the necessary skills to operate effectively and efficiently in such settings.

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63. The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on

Explanation

The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the necessity for a revised doctrine that focused on protecting the entire base. This means implementing a comprehensive system that safeguards not only the weapons systems but also the aircraft, air base, and the entire base itself. The whole-base protective system ensures the safety and security of all assets and personnel within the base, recognizing the importance of a comprehensive defense strategy in modern warfare.

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64. What course must a trainee attend for awarding of he 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code(AFSC) 3P071?

Explanation

The trainee must attend the SF craftsman resident course in order to be awarded the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071.

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65. Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?

Explanation

Operation JUST CAUSE provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam. This operation took place in Panama in December 1989 and aimed to remove General Manuel Noriega from power. The US military faced challenges in urban warfare, including navigating through the densely populated areas of Panama City. The operation involved house-to-house searches, close-quarters combat, and coordination with local law enforcement. The experience gained from Operation JUST CAUSE was crucial in shaping future US military strategies and tactics for urban operations, particularly in the Middle East during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.

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66. Which US military service is the executive agency for level III corrections?

Explanation

The correct answer is Army because the question is asking about the US military service that is responsible for level III corrections. Level III corrections typically refer to maximum-security facilities or prisons. The Army has its own corrections system, known as the United States Army Corrections Command (USACC), which oversees military prisons and correctional facilities. Therefore, the Army is the executive agency for level III corrections in the US military.

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67. The humane treatment / incarceration procedures of confines is the operational responsibility of the

Explanation

The installation commander and defense force commander are responsible for the humane treatment and incarceration procedures of confines. They have the operational responsibility to ensure that the confinement facilities are managed in a way that promotes the well-being and fair treatment of individuals who are incarcerated. This includes implementing appropriate procedures, ensuring the safety and security of the facilities, and addressing any issues or concerns related to the confinement of individuals.

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68. In what year was the name of the career field changed from " Air Police" to "Security Police"?

Explanation

In 1966, the name of the career field was changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police".

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69. Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Bioenvironmental Engineering Section. This section is responsible for routinely testing firing ranges for amounts of lead. They are specifically trained to assess and manage environmental health risks, including monitoring and controlling hazardous substances such as lead. They ensure that firing ranges are safe and comply with regulations to protect the health and safety of personnel and the environment.

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70. Which of the following is not a purpose behind security management and automation resource tracking network (SMARTNet)?

Explanation

The purpose of security management and automation resource tracking network (SMARTNet) is not to increase computer usage. SMARTNet is designed to consolidate programs, maximize efficiency, and reduce resource allocation. Increasing computer usage is not a goal of SMARTNet as it focuses more on optimizing and streamlining resources rather than increasing their usage.

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71. Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?

Explanation

Private citizens may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law. This means that individuals who are not associated with the federal or state government, or civilian companies, have the right to initiate a civil lawsuit under this law. The federal tort law provides a legal avenue for private citizens to seek compensation for damages caused by the negligence or wrongful actions of the federal government or its employees.

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72. In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on

Explanation

In determining whether an individual is a suspect, it is important to base this decision on objective evidence such as circumstances and facts, witnesses and statements, and not on subjective factors like opinion and belief. Opinion and belief can be biased and unreliable, whereas relying on objective evidence ensures a fair and accurate assessment of the situation.

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73. National crime information center (NCIC) training must meet

Explanation

The correct answer is state and Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) requirements. This means that the training for the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) must adhere to the standards and guidelines set by both the state and the FBI. This ensures that the training meets the necessary criteria and is in line with the regulations and protocols established by these authorities. It is important for the NCIC training to meet these requirements to ensure the effective and efficient use of the system for law enforcement purposes.

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74. Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/ written portion of the duty position evaluation (DPE)?

Explanation

The position that requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to pass the verbal/written portion of the DPE is critical. This means that individuals must perform at a high level and meet the required standard in order to successfully pass the evaluation.

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75. What security forces (SF) unit conducted the career field's combat parachute assault?

Explanation

The 786th SFS conducted the career field's combat parachute assault.

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76. What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

Explanation

AF Form 1297 is the correct answer because it is the form used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form is also known as the Temporary Issue Receipt, and it is used to document the temporary issue of equipment, including firearms, to individuals. It serves as a record of accountability and ensures that the individual is responsible for returning the equipment after its temporary use.

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77. What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through he uniform code of military justice (UCMJ)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "military". The standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces is set by the uniform code of military justice (UCMJ), which is a set of laws that governs the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ outlines offenses and punishments applicable to members of the military and ensures discipline and order within the armed forces. It is specifically designed to maintain good order and discipline and protect the rights of service members.

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78. Individuals awaiting the filing of charges , disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as

Explanation

Individuals who are awaiting the filing of charges, disposition of charges, trial by courts-martial, or trial by foreign court are designated as pretrial detainees. This means that they have been arrested or detained but have not yet been convicted of any crime. They are held in custody until their trial or the resolution of their case. The term "pretrial convicts" is incorrect as it implies that they have already been convicted, while "post-trial confinees" refers to individuals who have already been through a trial and have been convicted. "Stand-by detainees" is not a recognized term in this context.

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79. Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the average military working dog detect and respond to intruders?

Explanation

Under ideal conditions, the average military working dog can detect and respond to intruders at a distance of 250 yards or more. This suggests that military working dogs have a highly developed sense of smell and hearing, allowing them to detect potential threats from a significant distance. This capability is crucial in military operations, as it provides early warning and enhances security measures.

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80. Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?

Explanation

In an investigation, victims are normally interviewed to develop facts. This is because victims are the individuals who have directly experienced the incident or crime being investigated. Their accounts and testimonies are crucial in understanding what happened, identifying potential suspects, and gathering evidence. By interviewing victims, investigators can gather firsthand information, uncover details about the incident, and gather evidence that can be used to build a case.

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81. You must complete Phase II training within how many calendar days of completing Phase I training?

Explanation

Phase II training must be completed within 60 calendar days of completing Phase I training. This means that there is a two-month time frame to complete the second phase of training after finishing the first phase. It is important to adhere to this timeline in order to maintain continuity and efficiency in the training process.

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82. Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?

Explanation

Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to the conduct guideline of fulfilling the mission. This means that when dealing with offenders, the focus should be on carrying out the objectives and goals of the organization or institution. Treating offenders with dignity and respect is essential in fulfilling the mission of promoting rehabilitation and ensuring a safe and secure environment. It also reflects the values and principles of fairness, justice, and professionalism in the criminal justice system.

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83. What office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of electronic tactics, techniques and procedures guides (e-TTPG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFSFC. AFSFC stands for Air Force Security Forces Center. This office is responsible for the management, program development, and publication of electronic tactics, techniques, and procedures guides (e-TTPG). They oversee the development and implementation of these guides to ensure that security forces personnel have the necessary resources and information to carry out their duties effectively.

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84. What "S" function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members ?

Explanation

The correct answer is S-3. S-3 function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and Procedures Guides (e-TTPG) to train you and your fellow squadron members.

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85. The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the

Explanation

The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are part of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions. The sympathetic system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, activating the body in times of stress or danger. The parasympathetic system, on the other hand, promotes relaxation and helps restore the body to a calm state after the stressor has passed. Together, these two systems regulate the body's response to stress and maintain balance in various bodily functions.

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86. What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis?

Explanation

AF Form 629, Small Arms Hand Receipt, is the correct answer because it is the document used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent basis. This form serves as a record of the transfer of firearms, ensuring accountability and tracking of the weapons. It includes information such as the type of firearm, serial number, and the name of the individual receiving the weapon. By using AF Form 629, the military can maintain control over the distribution and use of firearms among its personnel.

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87. What are the two types of martial law?

Explanation

The correct answer is qualified and absolute. Qualified martial law refers to a situation where the military is given limited powers to enforce law and order, usually in specific areas or for a specific duration. Absolute martial law, on the other hand, grants the military unrestricted powers and control over all aspects of governance and civilian life. These two types represent different degrees of military intervention and authority in times of emergency or unrest.

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88. Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

Explanation

Absolute martial law exists when military authority completely replaces civil authority. In this type of martial law, the military has complete control over all aspects of governance and law enforcement, with no limitations or restrictions on their power. Civil rights and liberties are often suspended, and the military has the authority to enforce their decisions without any checks or balances from civilian institutions.

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89. When conducting building check, what is the first step you take if you find a building with signs of forced entry?

Explanation

If a building has signs of forced entry, the first step is to take cover in a position that allows you to observe the building. This is the most prudent approach as it ensures your safety while also providing an opportunity to gather information about the situation inside the building. By observing from a safe distance, you can assess the potential threat, look for any suspicious activity or individuals, and determine the appropriate course of action, such as contacting the necessary authorities or requesting backup.

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90. Which type o training is considered universal training regardless of your Air Force Specialty code?

Explanation

Ancillary training is considered universal training regardless of your Air Force Specialty code because it refers to the general skills and knowledge that are applicable to all personnel in the Air Force. This type of training focuses on topics such as basic military skills, physical fitness, and professional development, which are essential for all individuals regardless of their specific job roles. Ancillary training ensures that all Air Force personnel have a common foundation of skills and knowledge, enabling them to effectively contribute to the overall mission and operations of the Air Force.

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91. Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogen is

Explanation

Employee work practices are specific procedures that individuals must follow on the job to reduce their risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. This includes actions such as properly handling and disposing of contaminated materials, using appropriate hand hygiene techniques, and following safe work practices to minimize the risk of exposure. By adhering to these practices, employees can effectively reduce their risk of contracting or spreading bloodborne diseases in the workplace.

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92. When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a

Explanation

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a military government. This means that the occupying power, usually a military force, takes control of all administrative, legislative, and executive functions in the occupied territory. The military government is responsible for maintaining law and order, providing basic services, and making decisions on behalf of the occupied population. This type of government is temporary and intended to restore order until a more permanent solution can be implemented.

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93. What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Complete and frisk." In confinement facilities, two types of searches are used to ensure security and safety. A complete search involves thoroughly checking an individual or their belongings, including body cavities, to ensure no prohibited items are present. Frisk search, on the other hand, is a less invasive search where only the outer clothing and immediate surroundings are checked for any suspicious items. These two types of searches are commonly used to maintain order and prevent contraband from entering the facility.

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94. You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many months after completion of qualification training on your primary weapons(s)?

Explanation

After completing qualification training on your primary weapon(s), it is necessary to complete live-fire sustainment training within five to seven months. This training ensures that individuals maintain their proficiency and skills with their primary weapon(s) over time.

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95. Which confinement facility (CF) or joint regional correctional facility (JRCF) is used to house all male confines with sentences over 10 years?

Explanation

The correct answer is Level 2 CF. This is because Level 2 CF is the confinement facility used to house all male confines with sentences over 10 years. Level 1 RCF and Level 1 CF are not specified for this purpose, and Level 3 CF is not mentioned as an option.

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96. Restrict access to National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data as

Explanation

The correct answer is "FOUO Law Enforcement sensitive." This answer suggests that access to the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data should be restricted to individuals who have been authorized by law enforcement agencies and who have a need to know the sensitive information contained within the NCIC database. This ensures that only those with a legitimate reason to access the data can do so, protecting the confidentiality and integrity of the information.

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97. Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision?

Explanation

The custody classification assigned to confinees who may be assigned to work details outside the facility under continuous escort and supervision is medium. This classification allows for more freedom and responsibility compared to maximum security, but still requires close monitoring to ensure the safety and security of both the confinees and the public. Trustee and minimum custody classifications typically involve even greater levels of trust and freedom, while maximum security is reserved for the most dangerous and high-risk individuals.

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98. Who is responsible to ensure personnel are security forces management information system (SFMIS) trained ?

Explanation

The Installation Defense Force Commander (DFC) is responsible for ensuring that personnel are trained in the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS). This system is crucial for managing security forces and their operations. The DFC oversees the training of personnel and ensures that they are equipped with the necessary skills to effectively use SFMIS. This responsibility falls under their role as the commander of the installation defense force, which includes the overall management and coordination of security forces.

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99. Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/ Eval program?

Explanation

The Security Forces Manager is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/Eval program. This role involves overseeing the evaluation and standardization of security forces personnel, ensuring compliance with regulations and procedures, and maintaining the proficiency and readiness of the security forces unit. The Security Forces Manager plays a crucial role in the effective functioning and performance of the Stan/Eval program within the organization.

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100. Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the

Explanation

Localized training alarm monitors are responsible for receiving and responding to alarms during training exercises. Since they are an integral part of the training process, it is important that their approval comes from a higher authority within the military chain of command. The major command is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple installations or units within a specific geographic area or function. Therefore, their approval is required to ensure that the localized training alarm monitors meet the necessary standards and protocols set by the major command.

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If a personality conflict occurs during an interview, the investigator...
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When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you...
As a security forces member,  what is the primary rule in court...
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If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that...
In the security forces' unit S-function structure, which...
When is military working dog's (MWD) detection ability more...
Under concurrent jurisdiction
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Defender's Edge training was developed by
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The security forces beret with the Defensor Fortis flash
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As a security forces member, prior to testifying in court, you should
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to
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Conducting building checks is and excellent form of
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Defense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS) is capable of reading...
The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on...
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Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what...
You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued...
The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was...
During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought...
If a victim becomes emotionally upset during an interview, you should
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Which is not a required piece of equipment of Security Forces (SF)...
What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva...
Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide...
At least how many days are required for significant heat...
The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
When conducting building checks, the military working dog is normally
The goal of any interview is to
The purpose of Flight level exercises for security forces members is...
Which interview approach is primarily used to interrogate?
Air force personnel who are subjects of an investigation must be...
The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of...
What are the types of interview approaches?
A Stan /Eval inspection of each functional area is conducted every
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Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against...
Security forces management information systems (SFMIS) users report...
The military working dog team should always approach buildings from...
Who determines the frequency of testing and documentation of duress...
In what year did the Air Force Approve the first trial issue of the...
What type of land mobile radio do walking patrols , security patrols ,...
Which Uniform Code of Military Justice's (UCMJ) article states who...
In the security forces (SF) unit S-function structure, which...
Which uniform code of military justice (UCMJ) article gives you the...
The military working dog's primary mission is to
Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
Skills obtained through a tiered training approach and target...
The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine,...
What course must a trainee attend for awarding of he 7-skill level,...
Which operation provided the US military its first significant...
Which US military service is the executive agency for level III...
The humane treatment / incarceration procedures of confines is the...
In what year was the name of the career field changed from " Air...
Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range...
Which of the following is not a purpose behind security management and...
Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?
In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base...
National crime information center (NCIC) training must meet
Which position requires individuals to achieve at least 79 percent to...
What security forces (SF) unit conducted the career field's combat...
What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces...
Individuals awaiting the filing of charges , disposition of charges,...
Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the average military...
Which type of interviewee is normally interviewed to develop facts in...
You must complete Phase II training within how many calendar days of...
Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct...
What office is responsible for the management, program development,...
What "S" function uses Electronic Tactics, Techniques and...
The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the
What document is used for issuing firearms to personnel on a frequent...
What are the two types of martial law?
Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally...
When conducting building check, what is the first step you take if you...
Which type o training is considered universal training regardless of...
Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of...
When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied...
What are the two types of searches used in confinement facilities?
You must complete live-fire sustainment training within how many...
Which confinement facility (CF) or joint regional correctional...
Restrict access to National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data as
Which custody classification is assigned to confinees who may be...
Who is responsible to ensure personnel are security forces management...
Who is responsible for the overall management of the Stan/ Eval...
Localized training alarm monitors receive must be approved by the
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