Security Forces CDC Volume 1

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Security Forces CDC Volume 1 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Where was the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp established in 1942?

    • A.

      Kelly field, TX

    • B.

      Tinker Field, Ok

    • C.

      Camp Ripley, MN

    • D.

      Camp Lajeune, NC

    Correct Answer
    C. Camp Ripley, MN
    Explanation
    In 1942, the military police (MP) (aviation) training camp was established in Camp Ripley, MN.

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  • 2. 

    Air Police Security (APS) battalions were designed to protect against all of the following except

    • A.

      Riots

    • B.

      Air raids

    • C.

      Light tanks

    • D.

      Parachute attacks

    Correct Answer
    C. Light tanks
    Explanation
    APS battalions were specifically created to provide security and protection against various threats. They were designed to handle riots, air raids, and parachute attacks. However, they were not intended to defend against light tanks. This suggests that APS battalions were not equipped or trained to effectively counter armored vehicles like light tanks.

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  • 3. 

    On 2 September 1950, what was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

    • A.

      Air Police School

    • B.

      Air Leaders School

    • C.

      Corp Training Office

    • D.

      Base Defense Academy

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Police School
    Explanation
    On 2 September 1950, the Air Police School was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This school was likely established to provide training and education to individuals who were part of the Air Police, which is now known as the Security Forces. The Air Police School would have taught individuals about law enforcement, security, and other related topics to prepare them for their roles in protecting the base and its personnel.

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  • 4. 

    In what year did the Air Force Approve the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield?

    • A.

      1943

    • B.

      1945

    • C.

      1950

    • D.

      1957

    Correct Answer
    D. 1957
    Explanation
    The Air Force approved the first trial issue of the security police (SP) shield in 1957.

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  • 5. 

    The security forces beret with the Defensor Fortis flash

    • A.

      Identifies SF to foreign forces as security personnel

    • B.

      Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression

    • C.

      Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide

    • D.

      Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam war

    Correct Answer
    C. Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide
    Explanation
    The answer identifies SF (Security Forces) as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide. The Defensor Fortis flash on the security forces beret is a distinguishing uniform item that signifies their role and responsibilities. This identification helps to deter aggression and allows foreign forces to recognize them as security personnel. The statement does not mention any direct relation to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam war.

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  • 6. 

    In what year was the name of the career field changed from " Air Police" to "Security Police"?

    • A.

      1985

    • B.

      1971

    • C.

      1966

    • D.

      1950

    Correct Answer
    C. 1966
    Explanation
    In 1966, the name of the career field was changed from "Air Police" to "Security Police".

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  • 7. 

    The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP)?

    • A.

      The 1041st SPS (test)

    • B.

      The 4110th SPS (test)

    • C.

      The 1401st SPS

    • D.

      The 1140th SPS

    Correct Answer
    A. The 1041st SPS (test)
    Explanation
    The success of the 1041st SPS (test) in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police (SP).

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  • 8. 

    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for a revised doctrine, specifically one based on

    • A.

      Weapons systems protective concept

    • B.

      Aircraft protection system concept

    • C.

      Air base defense protective system

    • D.

      Whole-base protective system

    Correct Answer
    D. Whole-base protective system
    Explanation
    The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the necessity for a revised doctrine that focused on protecting the entire base. This means implementing a comprehensive system that safeguards not only the weapons systems but also the aircraft, air base, and the entire base itself. The whole-base protective system ensures the safety and security of all assets and personnel within the base, recognizing the importance of a comprehensive defense strategy in modern warfare.

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  • 9. 

    In 1971, Security Police was split into two separate functions; what were these functions?

    • A.

      Police dog units and law enforcement specialties

    • B.

      Law enforcement and security specialties

    • C.

      Security and force protection elements

    • D.

      Security teams and security elements

    Correct Answer
    B. Law enforcement and security specialties
    Explanation
    In 1971, the Security Police underwent a split, resulting in the creation of two distinct functions. These functions were law enforcement and security specialties. This suggests that the Security Police was divided into two separate departments or units, with one focusing on law enforcement-related tasks and the other specializing in security-related responsibilities.

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  • 10. 

    Which operation provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam?

    • A.

      Operation NORIEGA

    • B.

      Operation URGENT FURY

    • C.

      Operation IRAQI FREEDOM

    • D.

      Operation JUST CAUSE

    Correct Answer
    D. Operation JUST CAUSE
    Explanation
    Operation JUST CAUSE provided the US military its first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam. This operation took place in Panama in December 1989 and aimed to remove General Manuel Noriega from power. The US military faced challenges in urban warfare, including navigating through the densely populated areas of Panama City. The operation involved house-to-house searches, close-quarters combat, and coordination with local law enforcement. The experience gained from Operation JUST CAUSE was crucial in shaping future US military strategies and tactics for urban operations, particularly in the Middle East during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM.

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  • 11. 

    What was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC)  in 1997?

    • A.

      Rising Sun Program

    • B.

      Noble Eagle Program

    • C.

      Flying Falcon Program

    • D.

      Phoenix Raven Program

    Correct Answer
    D. Phoenix Raven Program
    Explanation
    The Phoenix Raven Program was the "first in" Security Forces (SF) concept adopted by Air Mobility Command (AMC) in 1997. This program was designed to enhance the security of AMC aircraft and personnel during deployments to high-threat locations. The program involved specially trained Security Forces personnel, known as Phoenix Ravens, who provided security and protection for aircraft and crew members during ground operations. The Phoenix Raven Program played a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of AMC missions in potentially dangerous environments.

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  • 12. 

    The military operation launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001 was called

    • A.

      Operation ENDURING FREEDOM

    • B.

      Operation INSPIRING FREEDOM

    • C.

      Operation IRAQI FREEDOM

    • D.

      Operation NOBLE EAGLE

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
    Explanation
    Operation ENDURING FREEDOM was the military operation launched against the Taliban in December 2001. This operation was a response to the September 11 attacks and aimed to dismantle al-Qaeda and remove the Taliban from power in Afghanistan. The name "ENDURING FREEDOM" reflects the goal of ensuring long-lasting freedom and security in the region by eliminating terrorist threats and promoting stability.

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  • 13. 

    During the Global War on Terrorism, assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task of convoy

    • A.

      Commander duty

    • B.

      Response duty

    • C.

      Escort duty

    • D.

      Driver duty

    Correct Answer
    C. Escort duty
    Explanation
    During the Global War on Terrorism, the need for convoy protection and security increased. As a result, a new nontraditional Security Forces (SF) task emerged, which was the duty of being an escort. This duty involved providing protection and security to convoys, ensuring their safe passage and defending against potential threats. This task required coordination and cooperation with sister services to effectively carry out convoy escort duty.

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  • 14. 

    What security forces (SF) unit conducted the career field's combat parachute assault?

    • A.

      343rd SFS

    • B.

      786th SFS

    • C.

      1041st SPS

    • D.

      1140th SPS

    Correct Answer
    B. 786th SFS
    Explanation
    The 786th SFS conducted the career field's combat parachute assault.

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  • 15. 

    The mission of all Security Forces (SF) is to

    • A.

      Be mission ready, resilient, and air minded

    • B.

      Be knowledgeable in basic police and ground combat skills

    • C.

      Be good followers, great leaders and the most rigorously trained defenders

    • D.

      Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "protect, defend, and fight to enable AF, Joint, and Coalition mission success." This answer accurately reflects the mission of all Security Forces (SF). SF personnel are responsible for protecting and defending the Air Force (AF), as well as supporting joint and coalition missions. They are trained to be skilled defenders and are committed to ensuring the success of missions involving the AF, Joint forces, and Coalition forces.

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  • 16. 

    Which description correctly describes our Security Force symbol?

    • A.

      Falcon over crossed runways

    • B.

      Eagle over crossed runways

    • C.

      Falcon over crossed swords

    • D.

      Eagle over crossed swords

    Correct Answer
    A. Falcon over crossed runways
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol accurately describes our Security Force as it features a falcon, which represents strength and agility, positioned over crossed runways, symbolizing protection and control over the airfield. This combination signifies the security force's role in safeguarding the airfield and its operations.

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  • 17. 

    In the security forces' unit S-function structure, which "S" branch is typically the largest?

    • A.

      S-1/ Administration

    • B.

      S-2/ Intelligence

    • C.

      S-3/ Operations

    • D.

      S-4/ Logistics

    Correct Answer
    C. S-3/ Operations
    Explanation
    In the security forces' unit S-function structure, the S-3 branch, which is responsible for operations, is typically the largest. This is because the operations branch is involved in planning and executing missions, coordinating resources, and overseeing the overall operational effectiveness of the unit. As a result, it requires a larger number of personnel compared to other branches such as administration, intelligence, and logistics.

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  • 18. 

    In the security forces (SF) unit S-function structure, which "S" branch maintains the Security Forces Management Information system (SFMIS)?

    • A.

      S-1/ Administration

    • B.

      S-2/ Intelligence

    • C.

      S-3/ Operations

    • D.

      S-5/ Plans and Programs

    Correct Answer
    D. S-5/ Plans and Programs
    Explanation
    The S-5 branch is responsible for maintaining the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS). This branch focuses on the planning and programming aspects of the security forces unit. They are responsible for developing and implementing the plans and programs related to the unit's operations. The SFMIS is an important tool for managing and tracking information related to security forces operations, and it falls under the purview of the S-5 branch.

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  • 19. 

    What course must a trainee attend for awarding of he 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code(AFSC) 3P071?

    • A.

      Security Forces (SF) leader's course

    • B.

      Supply manager's course

    • C.

      SF craftsman resident course

    • D.

      Security superintendent non-resident course

    Correct Answer
    C. SF craftsman resident course
    Explanation
    The trainee must attend the SF craftsman resident course in order to be awarded the 7-skill level, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3P071.

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  • 20. 

    As a security forces member, adhering to what systems, of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

    • A.

      Code Of Conduct Only

    • B.

      SF General Orders Only

    • C.

      Performance Fitness Examination

    • D.

      Code of Conduct and General Orders

    Correct Answer
    D. Code of Conduct and General Orders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Code of Conduct and General Orders." As a security forces member, adhering to both the Code of Conduct and General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides guidelines for the behavior and actions of military personnel in various situations, emphasizing loyalty, integrity, and professionalism. General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations within the security forces, covering areas such as duty, discipline, and chain of command. By following both the Code of Conduct and General Orders, security forces members can maintain discipline, unity, and effectiveness in carrying out their missions.

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  • 21. 

    Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to which conduct guideline?

    • A.

      Fulfilling the mission

    • B.

      Personal appearance

    • C.

      Off-duty conduct

    • D.

      Attention to duty

    Correct Answer
    A. Fulfilling the mission
    Explanation
    Dealing with offenders in a dignified manner adheres to the conduct guideline of fulfilling the mission. This means that when dealing with offenders, the focus should be on carrying out the objectives and goals of the organization or institution. Treating offenders with dignity and respect is essential in fulfilling the mission of promoting rehabilitation and ensuring a safe and secure environment. It also reflects the values and principles of fairness, justice, and professionalism in the criminal justice system.

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  • 22. 

    You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violator's race?

    • A.

      Seeking favors

    • B.

      Exercising authority

    • C.

      Assistance to others

    • D.

      Personal attitudes

    Correct Answer
    D. Personal attitudes
    Explanation
    Issuing a traffic ticket based on the violator's race is a clear violation of the general conduct guideline of personal attitudes. Personal attitudes refer to an individual's beliefs, opinions, and biases that should not influence their decision-making process, especially in a professional setting such as law enforcement. This behavior demonstrates a discriminatory mindset and goes against the principles of fairness and equality. It is important for law enforcement officials to remain impartial and treat all individuals equally, regardless of their race or ethnicity.

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  • 23. 

    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be according to

    • A.

      AFI 31-301, Air Base Defense

    • B.

      AFI 31-205, The Air Force Corrections Program

    • C.

      AFI 31-206, Security Forces Investigation Program

    • D.

      AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This AFI provides guidelines and regulations for the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel. It outlines the proper conduct and procedures that should be followed when apprehending suspects. It ensures that personnel are aware of their responsibilities and obligations when using force, and emphasizes the importance of using force only when necessary and in accordance with the law. This AFI helps to ensure that the apprehension of suspects is done in a safe, effective, and lawful manner.

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  • 24. 

    At least how many days are required for significant heat acclimatization to prevent heat injuries in the area of operations (AO) ?

    • A.

      1 to 2

    • B.

      3 to 5

    • C.

      6 to 8

    • D.

      9 to 10

    Correct Answer
    B. 3 to 5
    Explanation
    Significant heat acclimatization requires at least 3 to 5 days. This is the minimum amount of time needed for the body to adapt to the heat and become more efficient at regulating its temperature. Adequate acclimatization is crucial in preventing heat injuries in the area of operations (AO).

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  • 25. 

    Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead?

    • A.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Section

    • B.

      Base Hazardous Waste Section

    • C.

      Bioenvironmental Waste Section

    • D.

      Bioenvironmental Health Section

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering Section
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Bioenvironmental Engineering Section. This section is responsible for routinely testing firing ranges for amounts of lead. They are specifically trained to assess and manage environmental health risks, including monitoring and controlling hazardous substances such as lead. They ensure that firing ranges are safe and comply with regulations to protect the health and safety of personnel and the environment.

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  • 26. 

    What is the single most important source of viruses in the workplace?

    • A.

      Sweat

    • B.

      Blood

    • C.

      Syringes

    • D.

      Foreign fluids

    Correct Answer
    B. Blood
    Explanation
    Blood can be considered the single most important source of viruses in the workplace because it can carry various bloodborne pathogens, including viruses such as HIV and hepatitis B. In a healthcare setting or any environment where there is a risk of exposure to blood, proper handling and disposal of blood-contaminated materials are crucial to prevent the transmission of these viruses. Therefore, blood poses a significant risk for viral infections in the workplace.

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  • 27. 

    Specific procedures you must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogen is

    • A.

      Engineering controls

    • B.

      Employee work practices

    • C.

      Personal protective equipment usage

    • D.

      Housekeeping guidelines

    Correct Answer
    B. Employee work practices
    Explanation
    Employee work practices are specific procedures that individuals must follow on the job to reduce their risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. This includes actions such as properly handling and disposing of contaminated materials, using appropriate hand hygiene techniques, and following safe work practices to minimize the risk of exposure. By adhering to these practices, employees can effectively reduce their risk of contracting or spreading bloodborne diseases in the workplace.

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  • 28. 

    When conducting individual searches, what essential step should you take to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids?

    • A.

      Search for weapons first

    • B.

      Always, begin your search at the front pocket

    • C.

      Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching

    • D.

      Start searching for needles with an electromagnetic spectrometer

    Correct Answer
    C. Always, conduct a precautionary check prior to searching
    Explanation
    When conducting individual searches, it is important to always conduct a precautionary check prior to searching in order to protect yourself from exposure to blood or other body fluids. This step allows you to assess the situation and take necessary precautions, such as wearing protective gloves or using other personal protective equipment, before beginning the search. By conducting a precautionary check, you can minimize the risk of coming into contact with potentially harmful substances and ensure your own safety during the search process.

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  • 29. 

    Defender's Edge training was developed by

    • A.

      Defenders for defenders

    • B.

      Medical professionals for defenders

    • C.

      Base services for all AF personnel

    • D.

      Base operations for all AF personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Defenders for defenders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "defenders for defenders." This means that the Defender's Edge training program was created by individuals who are defenders themselves, meaning they have firsthand experience and knowledge in the field. This ensures that the training is specifically tailored to the needs and challenges faced by defenders, making it more effective and relevant for their job requirements.

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  • 30. 

    The stress response system (SRS) is composed of the

    • A.

      Digestive and intestinal systems

    • B.

      Immune and psychological systems

    • C.

      Psychological and emotional systems

    • D.

      Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

    Correct Answer
    D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
    Explanation
    The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are part of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions. The sympathetic system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, activating the body in times of stress or danger. The parasympathetic system, on the other hand, promotes relaxation and helps restore the body to a calm state after the stressor has passed. Together, these two systems regulate the body's response to stress and maintain balance in various bodily functions.

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  • 31. 

    As security forces members dealing with stress, who are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience?

    • A.

      Chaplains

    • B.

      Team members

    • C.

      Family members

    • D.

      Medical personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. Team members
    Explanation
    Team members are our closest allies to strengthen our resilience because they are the individuals who work alongside us, understand the challenges we face, and provide support and assistance in times of stress. They can offer guidance, share experiences, and collaborate with us to overcome difficulties. Having a strong team bond and support system can significantly contribute to our overall resilience and well-being in high-stress situations.

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  • 32. 

    Which legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

    • A.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

    • B.

      US constitution

    • C.

      Federal Statutes

    • D.

      International law

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). This legal document contains military laws that apply to all branches of the US Armed Forces. It outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of military personnel, defines offenses and punishments, and establishes the military justice system. The UCMJ ensures discipline, order, and the enforcement of military laws within the armed forces.

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  • 33. 

    What example of international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?

    • A.

      Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC)

    • B.

      Manual of Courts-Martial (MCM) Title 10 statutes

    • C.

      Rules of Engagement (ROE)

    • D.

      Rules of war

    Correct Answer
    A. Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC). The Hague and Geneva conventions are international treaties that establish the rules and principles governing armed conflict. These conventions aim to protect civilians and combatants who are no longer taking part in hostilities, such as prisoners of war and the wounded. They also provide guidelines on the conduct of warfare, including the prohibition of certain weapons and tactics. The Laws of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is the body of international law that encompasses these conventions and regulates the behavior of parties involved in armed conflicts.

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  • 34. 

    Which Uniform Code of Military Justice's (UCMJ) article states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

    • A.

      Article 77

    • B.

      Article 5

    • C.

      Article 2

    • D.

      Article 1

    Correct Answer
    C. Article 2
    Explanation
    Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article defines the scope of the UCMJ and establishes the individuals who are subject to the military justice system. It outlines that members of the armed forces, including active duty, reserve, and National Guard members, are subject to military jurisdiction. Additionally, it also includes individuals who are prisoners of war and certain civilian employees of the military. Therefore, Article 2 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the subject of military jurisdiction.

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  • 35. 

    If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas that person

    • A.

      Must be tried overseas

    • B.

      Is not subject to the uniform code of military justice (UCMJ)

    • C.

      Can be tried overseas or stateside

    • D.

      May choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority

    Correct Answer
    C. Can be tried overseas or stateside
    Explanation
    A person subject to military law who commits an offense overseas can be tried either overseas or stateside. This means that the military has the jurisdiction to prosecute the individual regardless of their location. The decision of where to hold the trial will depend on various factors such as the nature of the offense, the availability of resources, and the agreements between the countries involved. It is important to note that the individual remains subject to the uniform code of military justice (UCMJ) regardless of the location of the trial.

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  • 36. 

    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

    • A.

      Concurrent, current, proprietary

    • B.

      Exclusive, bilateral, concurrent

    • C.

      Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary and multilateral

    • D.

      Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal

    Correct Answer
    D. Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal
    Explanation
    The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and reciprocal. Exclusive jurisdiction means that only one entity has authority over a particular area or subject. Concurrent jurisdiction means that multiple entities have authority over the same area or subject. Proprietary jurisdiction refers to the authority of the government installation itself. Reciprocal jurisdiction means that the jurisdiction is shared between different entities based on mutual agreements or treaties.

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  • 37. 

    The federal government has sole authority to enforce laws on installations

    • A.

      When the government has exclusive jurisdiction

    • B.

      When partial jurisdiction exists

    • C.

      Under proprietary jurisdiction

    • D.

      Located in overseas areas

    Correct Answer
    A. When the government has exclusive jurisdiction
    Explanation
    When the government has exclusive jurisdiction, it means that the federal government has complete control and authority over the enforcement of laws on installations. This means that no other entity, such as state or local governments, has any jurisdiction or authority in enforcing laws on these installations. The federal government has the sole responsibility for ensuring compliance with laws and regulations in these areas.

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  • 38. 

    Under concurrent jurisdiction

    • A.

      State laws are not enforced

    • B.

      The state has property rights only

    • C.

      The federal government has no authority

    • D.

      Both the state and federal government have authority

    Correct Answer
    D. Both the state and federal government have authority
    Explanation
    Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal government have authority. This means that both levels of government have the power to enforce laws and exercise their jurisdiction in a particular area. It allows for a sharing of power between the state and federal government, where they can both have jurisdiction over the same subject matter. This can lead to potential conflicts or overlapping regulations, but ultimately both levels of government have the authority to enforce laws and make decisions.

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  • 39. 

    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a

    • A.

      Proprietary government

    • B.

      Military government

    • C.

      Nationalist regime

    • D.

      Military state

    Correct Answer
    B. Military government
    Explanation
    When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a military government. This means that the occupying power, usually a military force, takes control of all administrative, legislative, and executive functions in the occupied territory. The military government is responsible for maintaining law and order, providing basic services, and making decisions on behalf of the occupied population. This type of government is temporary and intended to restore order until a more permanent solution can be implemented.

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  • 40. 

    Which US service has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

    • A.

      Air force

    • B.

      Coast guard

    • C.

      Army

    • D.

      Navy

    Correct Answer
    C. Army
    Explanation
    The US Army has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government. This is because the army is the largest and oldest branch of the US military, with a primary focus on land-based operations. During military government, the army is responsible for maintaining order, providing essential services, and establishing governance in the occupied territory. The air force, coast guard, and navy have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but the army takes the lead in military government operations.

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  • 41. 

    What are the two types of martial law?

    • A.

      Qualified and absolute

    • B.

      Absolute and unqualified

    • C.

      Qualified and concurrent

    • D.

      Exclusive and absolute

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified and absolute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is qualified and absolute. Qualified martial law refers to a situation where the military is given limited powers to enforce law and order, usually in specific areas or for a specific duration. Absolute martial law, on the other hand, grants the military unrestricted powers and control over all aspects of governance and civilian life. These two types represent different degrees of military intervention and authority in times of emergency or unrest.

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  • 42. 

    Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

    • A.

      Military law

    • B.

      Exclusive

    • C.

      Qualified

    • D.

      Absolute

    Correct Answer
    D. Absolute
    Explanation
    Absolute martial law exists when military authority completely replaces civil authority. In this type of martial law, the military has complete control over all aspects of governance and law enforcement, with no limitations or restrictions on their power. Civil rights and liberties are often suspended, and the military has the authority to enforce their decisions without any checks or balances from civilian institutions.

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  • 43. 

    What law sets the standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces through he uniform code of military justice (UCMJ)?

    • A.

      Military

    • B.

      Martial

    • C.

      Executive

    • D.

      Concurrent

    Correct Answer
    A. Military
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "military". The standard of behavior for members of the Armed Forces is set by the uniform code of military justice (UCMJ), which is a set of laws that governs the conduct of military personnel. The UCMJ outlines offenses and punishments applicable to members of the military and ensures discipline and order within the armed forces. It is specifically designed to maintain good order and discipline and protect the rights of service members.

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  • 44. 

    Which uniform code of military justice (UCMJ) article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as a security forces (SF) member?

    • A.

      Article 2 (2)

    • B.

      Article 5

    • C.

      Article 92 (2)

    • D.

      Article 134

    Correct Answer
    C. Article 92 (2)
    Explanation
    Article 92 (2) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives security forces (SF) members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article states that any person who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation issued by a military department or commanding officer may be subject to punishment. As a security forces member, it is crucial to understand and abide by the UCMJ to maintain discipline and ensure the effective execution of duties.

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  • 45. 

    Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law?

    • A.

      Federal government

    • B.

      State government

    • C.

      Civilian companies

    • D.

      Private citizens

    Correct Answer
    D. Private citizens
    Explanation
    Private citizens may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law. This means that individuals who are not associated with the federal or state government, or civilian companies, have the right to initiate a civil lawsuit under this law. The federal tort law provides a legal avenue for private citizens to seek compensation for damages caused by the negligence or wrongful actions of the federal government or its employees.

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  • 46. 

    In determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on

    • A.

      Circumstances and facts

    • B.

      Witnesses and statements

    • C.

      Hearsay and rumors

    • D.

      Opinion and belief

    Correct Answer
    D. Opinion and belief
    Explanation
    In determining whether an individual is a suspect, it is important to base this decision on objective evidence such as circumstances and facts, witnesses and statements, and not on subjective factors like opinion and belief. Opinion and belief can be biased and unreliable, whereas relying on objective evidence ensures a fair and accurate assessment of the situation.

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  • 47. 

    Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement, who or what office should you consult?

    • A.

      The legal office

    • B.

      The Air force office of special investigation (AFOSI) office

    • C.

      The base commander

    • D.

      A security forces investigator

    Correct Answer
    A. The legal office
    Explanation
    When you have doubts concerning rights advisement, you should consult the legal office. The legal office is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to individuals in the organization. They are knowledgeable about laws, regulations, and policies related to rights advisement and can provide accurate information and assistance in such matters. They can clarify any doubts or concerns you may have and ensure that your rights are protected and respected.

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  • 48. 

    The Fifth Amendment of the constitution protects against

    • A.

      Self-inspection

    • B.

      Self-infliction

    • C.

      Self-incrimination

    • D.

      Self-determination

    Correct Answer
    C. Self-incrimination
    Explanation
    The Fifth Amendment of the constitution protects against self-incrimination. This means that individuals cannot be forced to testify against themselves or provide evidence that could potentially incriminate them in a criminal case. This protection ensures that individuals have the right to remain silent and not be compelled to be a witness against themselves, preserving their right to a fair trial and preventing any coerced confessions or admissions of guilt.

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  • 49. 

    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

    • A.

      Psychological deterrent

    • B.

      Mobile flight -line force multiplier

    • C.

      Base defense detection capability

    • D.

      Replacement for base sensor systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective psychological deterrent. These teams are trained to exhibit a strong presence and intimidating behavior, which can deter potential criminals or adversaries from engaging in illegal or harmful activities. The sight of a highly trained and capable dog, along with its handler, can create a sense of fear and hesitation in individuals, thus acting as a deterrent. This psychological aspect of their presence can greatly contribute to maintaining law and order and preventing criminal activities.

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  • 50. 

    When is military working dog's (MWD) detection ability more effective?

    • A.

      First thing in the morning

    • B.

      Thirty minutes after every meal

    • C.

      During the day in very busy areas

    • D.

      During darkness or limited visibility

    Correct Answer
    D. During darkness or limited visibility
    Explanation
    Military working dogs' (MWD) detection ability is more effective during darkness or limited visibility. This is because dogs have a heightened sense of smell and hearing, which allows them to rely on these senses more when their vision is impaired. In low light or limited visibility conditions, their ability to detect scents and sounds is enhanced, making them more effective in detecting threats or searching for targets. This is especially useful in military operations conducted at night or in areas with reduced visibility, where MWDs can provide valuable support in detecting hidden dangers or locating individuals.

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