Security Forces CDC Volume 4

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Security Forces CDC Volume 4 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?

    • A.

      ID Threat Risk

    • B.

      ID Principle of Risk

    • C.

      ID Risk Management

    • D.

      ID Principles of Critical

    Correct Answer
    C. ID Risk Management
    Explanation
    ID Risk Management is the analytical process used to achieve integrated defense (ID). It involves identifying and assessing potential threats and risks, developing strategies to mitigate them, and implementing measures to monitor and control the risks. By employing ID Risk Management, organizations can effectively integrate their defense systems and resources to protect against various threats and ensure the overall security and resilience of their operations.

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  • 2. 

    The first step in risk analysis is asset

    • A.

      Risk assessment

    • B.

      Threat assessment

    • C.

      Criticality assessment

    • D.

      Vulnerability assessment

    Correct Answer
    C. Criticality assessment
    Explanation
    In risk analysis, the first step is to assess the criticality of the assets involved. Criticality assessment involves determining the importance and impact of each asset on the overall functioning of the system or organization. This helps in identifying the assets that are most crucial and require the highest level of protection and mitigation measures. By conducting a criticality assessment, organizations can prioritize their resources and efforts towards protecting the most critical assets, thereby reducing the potential risks and vulnerabilities.

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  • 3. 

    Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

    • A.

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • B.

      Installation Commander

    • C.

      Defense Force Commander

    • D.

      Air Force Office of Investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff Judge Advocate
    Explanation
    The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. As a legal advisor, they ensure that the procedures comply with all applicable laws and regulations. They assess the procedures to ensure that they are legally sound and protect the rights of individuals entering the installation. This review is crucial to prevent any legal issues or violations that may arise from improper entry procedures.

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  • 4. 

    Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?

    • A.

      Site security control

    • B.

      Security forces

    • C.

      Higher headquarters

    • D.

      Installation command post

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation command post
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) will up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through the installation command post. This means that any incidents that need to be reported will be sent to the command post at the installation level for further action or dissemination to higher headquarters if necessary. The command post is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall operations and security of the installation, making it the appropriate agency to handle these reportable incidents.

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  • 5. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

    • A.

      Accident

    • B.

      Incident

    • C.

      Mistake

    • D.

      Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it implies an unintentional and unplanned event. It suggests that the action of getting rid of the weapon or component was not intended or desired, and therefore can be classified as an accidental occurrence.

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  • 6. 

    What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?

    • A.

      Less than 33 percent available

    • B.

      Less than 66 percent available

    • C.

      Greater than 33 percent available

    • D.

      Greater than 66 percent available

    Correct Answer
    C. Greater than 33 percent available
    Explanation
    The color code yellow in a LACE report indicates that there is greater than 33 percent availability. This means that there is a significant amount of availability, but it is not at its maximum capacity.

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  • 7. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority ll priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This indicates that these individuals are in a moderately urgent situation and need to be relocated promptly. Evacuating them within 4 hours ensures their safety and minimizes any potential risks or hazards they may be facing.

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  • 8. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority ll routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      18

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    D. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority II routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that individuals in this category require evacuation within one day. The urgency of evacuation for Priority II personnel suggests that they may be in a situation where their safety or health is at risk and swift action is necessary to ensure their well-being.

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  • 9. 

    Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP) ?

    • A.

      Staff Judge Advocate

    • B.

      Installation commander

    • C.

      Defense force commander

    • D.

      Air force office of investigation

    Correct Answer
    B. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP). This is because the installation commander is responsible for overseeing all activities and operations on the installation, including defense plans. They have the authority and knowledge to assess and approve the IDP based on the specific needs and requirements of the installation. The Staff Judge Advocate may provide legal advice and guidance, but the final approval rests with the installation commander. The defense force commander and air force office of investigation may have roles in implementing the IDP, but they do not have the ultimate authority to approve it.

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  • 10. 

    Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages

    • A.

      Flight chief

    • B.

      Operations officer

    • C.

      Flight commander

    • D.

      Defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    D. Defense force commander
    Explanation
    The defense force commander is responsible for determining what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages. As the highest-ranking officer in the defense force, they have the authority to make decisions regarding staffing and resource allocation. They are in charge of overseeing the overall operations and ensuring that the defense force is able to function effectively, even in times of limited resources. The defense force commander's role includes making strategic decisions to prioritize essential positions and allocate resources accordingly.

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  • 11. 

    How many days are the majority of the security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The majority of the security forces unit type codes are capable of existing without support for 5 days.

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  • 12. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • A.

      Standoff

    • B.

      Penetration

    • C.

      Chemical , biological

    • D.

      Information operation

    Correct Answer
    B. Penetration
    Explanation
    Penetration attacks involve an insider threat. This type of attack occurs when someone with authorized access to a system or network intentionally breaches security measures to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Insiders may exploit their knowledge, privileges, or access rights to carry out malicious activities, such as stealing sensitive information, sabotaging systems, or disrupting operations. Therefore, penetration attacks are a common method used by insiders to compromise the security of an organization.

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  • 13. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • A.

      Department of State

    • B.

      Department of Justice

    • C.

      Department of Defense

    • D.

      Federal Bureau of Investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for the overall foreign policy of the United States. This includes coordinating with foreign governments, providing assistance to US citizens abroad, and addressing international security issues such as terrorism. The Department of State works closely with other agencies, such as the Department of Defense and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, to respond to and prevent terrorist incidents outside the US.

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  • 14. 

    Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?

    • A.

      Department of State

    • B.

      Department of Justice

    • C.

      Department of Defense

    • D.

      Federal Bureau of Investigation

    Correct Answer
    B. Department of Justice
    Explanation
    The Department of Justice is the lead agency for domestic terrorism within the US because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting individuals involved in criminal activities, including acts of terrorism. The department's agencies, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), work together to investigate and prevent domestic terrorist threats, gather intelligence, and ensure the safety and security of the nation.

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  • 15. 

    What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence , legal, or medical services?

    • A.

      Passive supporter

    • B.

      Active supporters

    • C.

      Hardcore leadership

    • D.

      Active operational cadre

    Correct Answer
    B. Active supporters
    Explanation
    Active supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists through various means such as providing financial support, intelligence, legal aid, or medical services. These individuals play a crucial role in the functioning of terrorist organizations by enabling the operational activities of the terrorists. While they may not directly commit violent acts themselves, their support and assistance contribute to the overall effectiveness and impact of terrorist activities.

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  • 16. 

    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation? 

    • A.

      Significant

    • B.

      Moderate

    • C.

      High

    • D.

      Low

    Correct Answer
    C. High
    Explanation
    The threat level assessment indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. This suggests that the threat level is high.

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  • 17. 

    What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

    • A.

      Activity

    • B.

      Intentions

    • C.

      Operational capability

    • D.

      Operational environment

    Correct Answer
    C. Operational capability
    Explanation
    Operational capability refers to the ability of a terrorist group to carry out attacks effectively. This includes factors such as their access to resources, training, and technology. The question is asking about the factor that focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This aligns with the concept of operational capability, as it encompasses the group's ability to plan and execute attacks in a sophisticated and impactful manner.

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  • 18. 

    What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?

    • A.

      Threat Level l

    • B.

      Threat Level ll

    • C.

      Threat Level lll

    • D.

      Threat Level lV

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat Level l
    Explanation
    A threat level l is considered a peacetime threat that increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities.

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  • 19. 

    What threat level consist of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

    • A.

      Threat Level l

    • B.

      Threat Level ll

    • C.

      Threat Level lll

    • D.

      Threat Level lV

    Correct Answer
    B. Threat Level ll
    Explanation
    Threat Level ll consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units. This level indicates a higher level of threat compared to Threat Level l, suggesting the presence of more organized and capable adversaries. These forces operate in a less conventional manner, making them more difficult to predict and counter.

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  • 20. 

    What desired effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?

    • A.

      Anticipate

    • B.

      Deter

    • C.

      Detect

    • D.

      Warn

    Correct Answer
    C. Detect
    Explanation
    The desired effect achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television is to detect potential threats or intrusions. These systems are designed to identify any suspicious activity or unauthorized access, allowing for timely response and intervention. By detecting such incidents, security measures can be taken to prevent further harm or damage.

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  • 21. 

    What desired effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

    • A.

      Warn

    • B.

      Defeat

    • C.

      Delay

    • D.

      Defend

    Correct Answer
    D. Defend
    Explanation
    Threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan ensures that friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force in order to defend. This means that the desired effect achieved through this type of planning is to protect and safeguard friendly forces from any potential threats or attacks. By having a coordinated and well-prepared defense plan, the friendly forces can effectively respond and counter any hostile actions, ensuring their own safety and security.

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  • 22. 

    How many random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?

    • A.

      At least one

    • B.

      At least two

    • C.

      At least three

    • D.

      At least four

    Correct Answer
    C. At least three
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the minimum number of random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) that are required daily. The correct answer is "at least three," which means that a minimum of three random antiterrorist measures should be chosen from higher force protection conditions on a daily basis. This ensures a higher level of security and readiness against potential terrorist threats.

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  • 23. 

    How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

    • A.

      Less than one century

    • B.

      Less than two centuries

    • C.

      Within last 50 years

    • D.

      More than two centuries

    Correct Answer
    D. More than two centuries
    Explanation
    The US military has been called upon to defeat insurgencies for more than two centuries. This suggests that the US has a long history of dealing with insurgent threats and has been involved in counterinsurgency operations for a significant amount of time. This answer implies that the US military's experience in combating insurgencies spans over 200 years.

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  • 24. 

    What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

    • A.

      Bribery

    • B.

      Coercion

    • C.

      Persuasion

    • D.

      Encouragement

    Correct Answer
    B. Coercion
    Explanation
    Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion involves the use of force, threats, or intimidation to compel someone to act against their will. In this scenario, if insurgents are unable to convince or persuade locals to support their cause or remain neutral, they may resort to coercive tactics such as violence, blackmail, or intimidation to achieve their objectives.

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  • 25. 

    What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?

    • A.

      Insurgency picture

    • B.

      Counterinsurgency picture

    • C.

      Common operating picture

    • D.

      Operational environmental picture

    Correct Answer
    C. Common operating picture
    Explanation
    Units must develop a common operating picture about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain. This means that they need to have a comprehensive understanding of the AOR, including its religious practices, the behavior and preferences of local leaders, the cultural norms of the local population, and the geographical features of the area. By developing a common operating picture, units can effectively plan and execute their operations while taking into account these important factors, ultimately enhancing their effectiveness in the AOR.

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  • 26. 

    Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a

    • A.

      Government supported, self-governing, non-profit organization

    • B.

      Government supported, self-governing, for profit organization

    • C.

      Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization

    • D.

      Private, self-governing, for-profit organization

    Correct Answer
    C. Private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization
    Explanation
    Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that an NGO is an organization that is not affiliated with any government, operates independently, and does not aim to generate profits. Instead, its primary objective is to provide services or assistance to the community or specific causes. The NGO sector plays a crucial role in addressing social issues and promoting development around the world.

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  • 27. 

    What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

    • A.

      Multinational corporation

    • B.

      Governmental organization

    • C.

      Host nation security council

    • D.

      Intergovernmental organization

    Correct Answer
    D. Intergovernmental organization
    Explanation
    An intergovernmental organization is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments. This type of agency allows governments to collaborate and work together on various issues of common interest, such as political, economic, social, or environmental matters. Intergovernmental organizations serve as platforms for member states to discuss and negotiate policies, coordinate actions, and address global challenges collectively. They facilitate international cooperation and promote diplomacy among nations. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations (UN), World Health Organization (WHO), and International Monetary Fund (IMF).

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  • 28. 

    Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?

    • A.

      United nations

    • B.

      World health organization

    • C.

      North atlantic treaty organization

    • D.

      International refugee organization

    Correct Answer
    A. United nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that promotes international cooperation and addresses global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide membership of countries and plays a central role in coordinating and facilitating international efforts to tackle global challenges. The United Nations is recognized as a symbol of global unity and serves as a platform for countries to come together and work towards common goals.

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  • 29. 

    To avoid adverse effect on operations, effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

    • A.

      Senators

    • B.

      Governors

    • C.

      Ambassador

    • D.

      Congressman

    Correct Answer
    C. Ambassador
    Explanation
    To avoid any negative impact on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the ambassador. The ambassador is the highest-ranking diplomatic representative of a country and is responsible for maintaining relationships and addressing issues with other nations. By involving the ambassador, commanders can ensure that sovereignty issues are handled appropriately and in accordance with diplomatic protocols. Senators, governors, and congressmen may have their own roles and responsibilities within the government, but when it comes to sovereignty issues, the ambassador is the most suitable point of contact.

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  • 30. 

    Aaerial ports of debarkation, border crossings , and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key

    • A.

      Terrain issues

    • B.

      Logistical issues

    • C.

      Sovereignty issues

    • D.

      Transportation issues

    Correct Answer
    C. Sovereignty issues
    Explanation
    The given options are all related to different types of issues. "Terrain issues" refers to challenges related to the physical characteristics of the land, "logistical issues" pertain to problems in managing and coordinating resources for transportation, and "transportation issues" involve difficulties in moving people or goods from one place to another. However, "sovereignty issues" are concerns related to the authority and control over a particular territory or area. In this context, the examples provided - aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation - all involve issues of sovereignty, as they relate to the control and regulation of entry and exit points into a country or region.

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  • 31. 

    If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the

    • A.

      Defense force commander

    • B.

      Non-DoD agencies

    • C.

      Local commander

    • D.

      DOD agencies

    Correct Answer
    B. Non-DoD agencies
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is non-DoD agencies. When countries do not use the English alphabet, it would be necessary to establish a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names. Since this task falls outside the scope of the Department of Defense (DoD), non-DoD agencies would be responsible for setting this standard. These agencies would have the expertise and knowledge required to address the linguistic and cultural variations involved in establishing a uniform spelling system for names in non-English alphabets.

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  • 32. 

    Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?

    • A.

      Sniper

    • B.

      Rifleman

    • C.

      Grenadier

    • D.

      Crew-served weapons operator

    Correct Answer
    D. Crew-served weapons operator
    Explanation
    A crew-served weapons operator primarily uses alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as machine guns or mortars, require a team of individuals to operate effectively. These weapons are heavy and require stability, so the operator needs to assume different positions to provide support, cover fire, and engage targets from various angles. By using alternate fighting positions, the crew-served weapons operator can maximize their effectiveness and adapt to different combat scenarios.

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  • 33. 

    What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?

    • A.

      Greater distance

    • B.

      Shorter distance

    • C.

      Equal distance

    • D.

      Real distance

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater distance
    Explanation
    The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This means that when the ground appears to slope upward, objects will appear farther away than they actually are. This illusion can be caused by various factors such as the angle of the slope, the perspective of the observer, and the surrounding environment. It is important for the observer to be aware of this illusion in order to accurately determine the actual distance to objects.

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  • 34. 

    Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility , leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to

    • A.

      500 meters

    • B.

      400 meters

    • C.

      300 meters

    • D.

      200 meters

    Correct Answer
    B. 400 meters
    Explanation
    Leaders establish en route rally points every 400 meters based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility. This distance allows for effective communication and coordination between units, ensuring that they stay on track and maintain situational awareness. Rally points serve as checkpoints where units can regroup, reorient themselves, and receive further instructions if necessary. By spacing them at regular intervals of 400 meters, leaders can ensure that units are not too far apart, minimizing the risk of getting lost or separated in challenging environments.

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  • 35. 

    Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures ?

    • A.

      Flight

    • B.

      Squadron

    • C.

      Command post

    • D.

      Base defense operations center

    Correct Answer
    D. Base defense operations center
    Explanation
    The base defense operations center is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. These measures are crucial for ensuring the effective coordination and control of military operations. They involve the use of maps, charts, and other visual aids to display and communicate relevant information about the operational environment. By assigning these measures, the base defense operations center helps to enhance situational awareness and facilitate decision-making processes within the organization.

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  • 36. 

    What type of fire control measures do security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?

    • A.

      Direct

    • B.

      Indirect

    • C.

      Sustained

    • D.

      Suppressive

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct
    Explanation
    Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures as a means to control their defenders. This involves directly engaging the enemy with weapons and firepower to neutralize or eliminate the threat. Direct fire control measures are typically used in close combat situations where immediate and precise response is required. This can include small arms fire, grenades, or other direct fire weapons.

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  • 37. 

    What is the most common means of giving fire commands?

    • A.

      Sound

    • B.

      Visual signals

    • C.

      Airman-initiated

    • D.

      Radio communications

    Correct Answer
    B. Visual signals
    Explanation
    Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they provide a clear and visible method of communication, especially in situations where sound or radio communications may not be effective or reliable. Visual signals can be easily understood and interpreted by individuals, allowing for quick and efficient communication of fire commands. Additionally, visual signals can be used in various environments, including during daytime or nighttime, making them a versatile and widely used method for giving fire commands.

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  • 38. 

    What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?

    • A.

      Throw hand grenades

    • B.

      Look for the enemy and return fire

    • C.

      Immediately return fire and assault the enemy

    • D.

      Immediately return fire and take a covered position

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position
    Explanation
    When caught in an assault, the first course of action is to immediately return fire and take a covered position. This means engaging the enemy by shooting back and finding a safe place to protect oneself from further harm. This response prioritizes self-defense and safety by retaliating against the attacker while seeking protection from their gunfire.

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  • 39. 

    Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the

    • A.

      Secondary sector from farthest to closest

    • B.

      Secondary sector from closet to farthest

    • C.

      Primary sector from closest to farthest

    • D.

      Primary sector from farthest to closest

    Correct Answer
    D. Primary sector from farthest to closest
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "primary sector from farthest to closest." This means that machine gunners prioritize targeting groups of five or more targets in the primary sector, which is the area that is farthest away from them and gradually moves closer. This strategy allows them to effectively engage and neutralize threats in a systematic manner, starting with those that pose the greatest risk from a distance.

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  • 40. 

    Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

    • A.

      Sound

    • B.

      Movement

    • C.

      Regularity of outline

    • D.

      Contrast with the background

    Correct Answer
    D. Contrast with the background
    Explanation
    Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicators for the enemy to avoid because it makes the target stand out and easily distinguishable from its surroundings. This can be particularly challenging for the enemy to avoid as it draws attention and makes it easier to detect and target the object.

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  • 41. 

    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is

    • A.

      Spacing

    • B.

      Aiming point

    • C.

      Reference point

    • D.

      Range determination

    Correct Answer
    B. Aiming point
    Explanation
    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is the aiming point. This is because the aiming point is the specific point on the target that the shooter aims at in order to hit it accurately. By focusing on the aiming point, the shooter can ensure that their shots are directed towards the intended target, increasing the chances of hitting it accurately. Spacing, reference point, and range determination are also important factors in delivering accurate fire, but the aiming point is the most crucial element in achieving precision.

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  • 42. 

    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of

    • A.

      Air

    • B.

      Light

    • C.

      Terrain

    • D.

      Atmospheric pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Light
    Explanation
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and functionality are directly influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device, so it relies on capturing and amplifying available light to provide visibility in low-light or dark conditions. Therefore, the more light there is, the better the performance of the AN/PVS-14 will be.

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  • 43. 

    On the AN?PVS-14 monocular night vision device (MNVD) , what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

    • A.

      Compass

    • B.

      Tethering cord

    • C.

      De-mist shield

    • D.

      Sacrificial window

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass
    Explanation
    The correct answer is compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This allows the operator to determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides a crucial navigational tool for the user, enhancing their situational awareness and overall effectiveness in the field.

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  • 44. 

    How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?

    • A.

      Location

    • B.

      Weather conditions

    • C.

      Number of personnel assigned

    • D.

      Specific unit and mission requirments

    Correct Answer
    D. Specific unit and mission requirments
    Explanation
    Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to suit the needs and objectives of the particular unit and the mission they are undertaking. Factors such as the location, weather conditions, and number of personnel assigned may also be taken into consideration when tailoring the inspections, but the primary focus should be on meeting the specific unit and mission requirements.

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  • 45. 

    When should security forces perform checks of their individual issued items?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Bi-monthly

    • D.

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items daily to ensure that all equipment is accounted for and in proper working condition. Daily checks help to identify any missing or malfunctioning items promptly, allowing for immediate action to be taken to rectify the situation. Regular checks also promote accountability and readiness among security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond effectively to any security threats or emergencies.

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  • 46. 

    In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?

    • A.

      Roll

    • B.

      High crawl

    • C.

      Low crawl

    • D.

      Spider crawl

    Correct Answer
    B. High crawl
    Explanation
    In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required but the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is employed. The high crawl involves moving forward on hands and knees, with the body raised off the ground to minimize contact and increase speed. This technique allows for faster movement while still maintaining a relatively low profile, making it suitable for situations where speed is necessary but a more cautious approach is required.

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  • 47. 

    Selection of team movement techniques is based on

    • A.

      The ability of the team leader to control the team

    • B.

      Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

    • C.

      Patrol objectives

    • D.

      The enemy threat

    Correct Answer
    B. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
    Explanation
    The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader must consider the probability of encountering the enemy and the urgency to move quickly while planning the team's movement. This decision is crucial in ensuring the team's safety and achieving their objectives effectively.

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  • 48. 

    Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?

    • A.

      File

    • B.

      Wedge

    • C.

      Bounding

    • D.

      Traveling

    Correct Answer
    B. Wedge
    Explanation
    The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. This formation is characterized by the team members forming a V-shaped pattern, with the team leader at the front point of the V. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and maneuverability, as well as providing cover and mutual support for the team members. It also facilitates communication and coordination within the team, making it an effective formation for tactical movements and engagements.

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  • 49. 

    When is the bounding over watch movement technique used?

    • A.

      When speed is essential

    • B.

      When enemy contact is expected

    • C.

      When enemy contact is not likely

    • D.

      During dense vegetation or limited visibility

    Correct Answer
    B. When enemy contact is expected
    Explanation
    The bounding overwatch movement technique is used when enemy contact is expected. This technique involves one element of a unit moving while the other element provides covering fire and security. It allows for the advancement of the unit while maintaining a defensive posture and readiness to engage the enemy. This technique is particularly useful in situations where there is a high likelihood of encountering enemy forces, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the unit's movement.

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  • 50. 

    During bounding over watch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the over watching team?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      200

    Correct Answer
    C. 150
    Explanation
    During bounding overwatch, the bounding team should not move more than 150 meters forward of the overwatching team. This is because the purpose of bounding overwatch is to provide mutual support and maintain a line of sight between the teams. If the bounding team moves too far forward, they may lose visual contact with the overwatching team and compromise the effectiveness of their support. Therefore, it is important to maintain a distance of no more than 150 meters between the two teams during bounding overwatch.

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