Security Forces CDC Volume 4

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1. To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on

Explanation

To perform a transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, it is necessary to first place the rifle on safe. This ensures that the firearm is in a safe and secure position before transitioning to the handgun. By placing the rifle on safe, the risk of accidental discharge is minimized, allowing for a smooth and controlled transition to the handgun.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces CDC Volume 4 - Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Security Forces CDC Volume 4', assesses knowledge in integrated defense, risk analysis, legal review of entry procedures, incident reporting, nuclear weapon safety, and LACE report coding. It is essential for professionals aiming to enhance security and defense skills.

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2. In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?

Explanation

In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required but the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is employed. The high crawl involves moving forward on hands and knees, with the body raised off the ground to minimize contact and increase speed. This technique allows for faster movement while still maintaining a relatively low profile, making it suitable for situations where speed is necessary but a more cautious approach is required.

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3. What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?

Explanation

When caught in an assault, the first course of action is to immediately return fire and take a covered position. This means engaging the enemy by shooting back and finding a safe place to protect oneself from further harm. This response prioritizes self-defense and safety by retaliating against the attacker while seeking protection from their gunfire.

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4. What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?

Explanation

A depression is a terrain feature that refers to a low point in the ground or a sinkhole. It is a geographical formation characterized by a concave shape, where the land sinks below the surrounding area. Depressions can be caused by various factors such as erosion, tectonic activity, or the dissolution of underlying rocks. They can vary in size and depth, and often collect water, forming lakes or marshes. Depressions play an important role in the hydrological cycle and can have a significant impact on the surrounding ecosystem.

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5. Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

Explanation

Penetration attacks involve an insider threat. This type of attack occurs when someone with authorized access to a system or network intentionally breaches security measures to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Insiders may exploit their knowledge, privileges, or access rights to carry out malicious activities, such as stealing sensitive information, sabotaging systems, or disrupting operations. Therefore, penetration attacks are a common method used by insiders to compromise the security of an organization.

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6. How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?

Explanation

Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to suit the needs and objectives of the particular unit and the mission they are undertaking. Factors such as the location, weather conditions, and number of personnel assigned may also be taken into consideration when tailoring the inspections, but the primary focus should be on meeting the specific unit and mission requirements.

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7. When should security forces perform checks of their individual issued items?

Explanation

Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items daily to ensure that all equipment is accounted for and in proper working condition. Daily checks help to identify any missing or malfunctioning items promptly, allowing for immediate action to be taken to rectify the situation. Regular checks also promote accountability and readiness among security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond effectively to any security threats or emergencies.

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8. What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?

Explanation

ID Risk Management is the analytical process used to achieve integrated defense (ID). It involves identifying and assessing potential threats and risks, developing strategies to mitigate them, and implementing measures to monitor and control the risks. By employing ID Risk Management, organizations can effectively integrate their defense systems and resources to protect against various threats and ensure the overall security and resilience of their operations.

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9. What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?

Explanation

An index contour line shows an increase in elevation when going from a lower to an upper contour line. This means that the land is getting higher as you move along the contour lines.

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10. What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

Explanation

Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion involves the use of force, threats, or intimidation to compel someone to act against their will. In this scenario, if insurgents are unable to convince or persuade locals to support their cause or remain neutral, they may resort to coercive tactics such as violence, blackmail, or intimidation to achieve their objectives.

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11. Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?

Explanation

The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that promotes international cooperation and addresses global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide membership of countries and plays a central role in coordinating and facilitating international efforts to tackle global challenges. The United Nations is recognized as a symbol of global unity and serves as a platform for countries to come together and work towards common goals.

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12. Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt?

Explanation

During a short halt, drivers will typically remain in their vehicles. This is because a short halt implies a temporary stop, where the driver may need to quickly resume driving. Staying inside the vehicle allows the driver to maintain control and be ready to continue the journey without delay. It also ensures the safety of the driver and other passengers by keeping them inside the protective structure of the vehicle.

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13. Who signals for rollout after a long after a long halt and movement commences?

Explanation

The convoy commander signals for rollout after a long halt and movement commences. This is because the convoy commander is responsible for overseeing the movement and coordination of the entire convoy. They have the authority to give commands and instructions to the drivers and other personnel in the convoy. Therefore, it is their role to signal when it is time to resume movement after a long halt.

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14. The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use

Explanation

A ruler is the easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line because it provides a straight edge that can be aligned with the two points being measured. The ruler has clearly marked units of measurement, allowing for accurate and precise measurements. A compass is used for drawing circles, a protractor is used for measuring angles, and tick marks do not provide a straight edge or units of measurement. Therefore, a ruler is the most suitable tool for measuring distance in a straight line.

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15. The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of

Explanation

The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and functionality are directly influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device, so it relies on capturing and amplifying available light to provide visibility in low-light or dark conditions. Therefore, the more light there is, the better the performance of the AN/PVS-14 will be.

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16. How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

Explanation

The US military has been called upon to defeat insurgencies for more than two centuries. This suggests that the US has a long history of dealing with insurgent threats and has been involved in counterinsurgency operations for a significant amount of time. This answer implies that the US military's experience in combating insurgencies spans over 200 years.

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17. What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

Explanation

Operational capability refers to the ability of a terrorist group to carry out attacks effectively. This includes factors such as their access to resources, training, and technology. The question is asking about the factor that focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This aligns with the concept of operational capability, as it encompasses the group's ability to plan and execute attacks in a sophisticated and impactful manner.

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18. On the AN?PVS-14 monocular night vision device (MNVD) , what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

Explanation

The correct answer is compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This allows the operator to determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides a crucial navigational tool for the user, enhancing their situational awareness and overall effectiveness in the field.

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19. What desired effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?

Explanation

The desired effect achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television is to detect potential threats or intrusions. These systems are designed to identify any suspicious activity or unauthorized access, allowing for timely response and intervention. By detecting such incidents, security measures can be taken to prevent further harm or damage.

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20. What desired effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

Explanation

Threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan ensures that friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force in order to defend. This means that the desired effect achieved through this type of planning is to protect and safeguard friendly forces from any potential threats or attacks. By having a coordinated and well-prepared defense plan, the friendly forces can effectively respond and counter any hostile actions, ensuring their own safety and security.

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21. Selection of team movement techniques is based on

Explanation

The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader must consider the probability of encountering the enemy and the urgency to move quickly while planning the team's movement. This decision is crucial in ensuring the team's safety and achieving their objectives effectively.

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22. Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?

Explanation

The Department of Justice is the lead agency for domestic terrorism within the US because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting individuals involved in criminal activities, including acts of terrorism. The department's agencies, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), work together to investigate and prevent domestic terrorist threats, gather intelligence, and ensure the safety and security of the nation.

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23. To avoid adverse effect on operations, effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

Explanation

To avoid any negative impact on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the ambassador. The ambassador is the highest-ranking diplomatic representative of a country and is responsible for maintaining relationships and addressing issues with other nations. By involving the ambassador, commanders can ensure that sovereignty issues are handled appropriately and in accordance with diplomatic protocols. Senators, governors, and congressmen may have their own roles and responsibilities within the government, but when it comes to sovereignty issues, the ambassador is the most suitable point of contact.

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24. What is the most common means of giving fire commands?

Explanation

Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they provide a clear and visible method of communication, especially in situations where sound or radio communications may not be effective or reliable. Visual signals can be easily understood and interpreted by individuals, allowing for quick and efficient communication of fire commands. Additionally, visual signals can be used in various environments, including during daytime or nighttime, making them a versatile and widely used method for giving fire commands.

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25. What threat level consist of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

Explanation

Threat Level ll consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units. This level indicates a higher level of threat compared to Threat Level l, suggesting the presence of more organized and capable adversaries. These forces operate in a less conventional manner, making them more difficult to predict and counter.

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26. When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS?

Explanation

The principle of "release" is not one of the principles of STRESS when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points. STRESS is an acronym that stands for Search, Tag, Report, Evacuate, Safeguard, and Segregate. These principles outline the steps to be followed during the processing of DCPs. While searching, tagging, reporting, evacuating, safeguarding, and segregating are all important steps, the principle of releasing the captives, detainees, or prisoners is not mentioned in the STRESS acronym.

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27. To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from

Explanation

To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from left to right and bottom to top. This means that you start by identifying the horizontal line or column on the grid, moving from left to right, and then locate the vertical line or row, moving from bottom to top. This method ensures accurate plotting of the coordinate on the map.

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28. What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

Explanation

A valley is a stretched out groove in the land that is usually formed by streams and rivers. It is a low-lying area between hills or mountains, often with a river or stream running through it. Valleys are typically formed through the process of erosion, as water flows through the land and gradually wears away the surrounding rock and soil. This creates a long, narrow depression in the landscape, which is known as a valley.

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29. Personnel assigned to the Priority ll routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority II routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that individuals in this category require evacuation within one day. The urgency of evacuation for Priority II personnel suggests that they may be in a situation where their safety or health is at risk and swift action is necessary to ensure their well-being.

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30. How many days are the majority of the security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of the security forces unit type codes are capable of existing without support for 5 days.

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31. How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify?

Explanation

A six-digit refined grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you want to identify. This means that the coordinate will provide a fairly accurate location, allowing you to narrow down your search area to within 100 meters of the desired point.

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32. What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?

Explanation

The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This means that when the ground appears to slope upward, objects will appear farther away than they actually are. This illusion can be caused by various factors such as the angle of the slope, the perspective of the observer, and the surrounding environment. It is important for the observer to be aware of this illusion in order to accurately determine the actual distance to objects.

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33. What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence , legal, or medical services?

Explanation

Active supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists through various means such as providing financial support, intelligence, legal aid, or medical services. These individuals play a crucial role in the functioning of terrorist organizations by enabling the operational activities of the terrorists. While they may not directly commit violent acts themselves, their support and assistance contribute to the overall effectiveness and impact of terrorist activities.

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34. Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

Explanation

The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. As a legal advisor, they ensure that the procedures comply with all applicable laws and regulations. They assess the procedures to ensure that they are legally sound and protect the rights of individuals entering the installation. This review is crucial to prevent any legal issues or violations that may arise from improper entry procedures.

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35. Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) will up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through the installation command post. This means that any incidents that need to be reported will be sent to the command post at the installation level for further action or dissemination to higher headquarters if necessary. The command post is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall operations and security of the installation, making it the appropriate agency to handle these reportable incidents.

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36. Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

Explanation

Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicators for the enemy to avoid because it makes the target stand out and easily distinguishable from its surroundings. This can be particularly challenging for the enemy to avoid as it draws attention and makes it easier to detect and target the object.

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37. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for attention?

Explanation

To perform the hand and arm signal for attention, one must extend their arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal, with the palm facing front. Then, they should wave their arm to and from the head several times. This signal is commonly used to gain someone's attention or to signal for help in a situation.

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38. Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages

Explanation

The defense force commander is responsible for determining what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages. As the highest-ranking officer in the defense force, they have the authority to make decisions regarding staffing and resource allocation. They are in charge of overseeing the overall operations and ensuring that the defense force is able to function effectively, even in times of limited resources. The defense force commander's role includes making strategic decisions to prioritize essential positions and allocate resources accordingly.

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39. Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for the overall foreign policy of the United States. This includes coordinating with foreign governments, providing assistance to US citizens abroad, and addressing international security issues such as terrorism. The Department of State works closely with other agencies, such as the Department of Defense and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, to respond to and prevent terrorist incidents outside the US.

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40. Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?

Explanation

The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. This formation is characterized by the team members forming a V-shaped pattern, with the team leader at the front point of the V. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and maneuverability, as well as providing cover and mutual support for the team members. It also facilitates communication and coordination within the team, making it an effective formation for tactical movements and engagements.

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41. Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures ?

Explanation

The base defense operations center is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. These measures are crucial for ensuring the effective coordination and control of military operations. They involve the use of maps, charts, and other visual aids to display and communicate relevant information about the operational environment. By assigning these measures, the base defense operations center helps to enhance situational awareness and facilitate decision-making processes within the organization.

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42. What type of fire control measures do security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?

Explanation

Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures as a means to control their defenders. This involves directly engaging the enemy with weapons and firepower to neutralize or eliminate the threat. Direct fire control measures are typically used in close combat situations where immediate and precise response is required. This can include small arms fire, grenades, or other direct fire weapons.

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43. The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

Explanation

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it implies an unintentional and unplanned event. It suggests that the action of getting rid of the weapon or component was not intended or desired, and therefore can be classified as an accidental occurrence.

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44. What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?

Explanation

The color code yellow in a LACE report indicates that there is greater than 33 percent availability. This means that there is a significant amount of availability, but it is not at its maximum capacity.

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45. Personnel assigned to the Priority ll priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This indicates that these individuals are in a moderately urgent situation and need to be relocated promptly. Evacuating them within 4 hours ensures their safety and minimizes any potential risks or hazards they may be facing.

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46. How many random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?

Explanation

The question is asking for the minimum number of random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) that are required daily. The correct answer is "at least three," which means that a minimum of three random antiterrorist measures should be chosen from higher force protection conditions on a daily basis. This ensures a higher level of security and readiness against potential terrorist threats.

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47. Aaerial ports of debarkation, border crossings , and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key

Explanation

The given options are all related to different types of issues. "Terrain issues" refers to challenges related to the physical characteristics of the land, "logistical issues" pertain to problems in managing and coordinating resources for transportation, and "transportation issues" involve difficulties in moving people or goods from one place to another. However, "sovereignty issues" are concerns related to the authority and control over a particular territory or area. In this context, the examples provided - aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation - all involve issues of sovereignty, as they relate to the control and regulation of entry and exit points into a country or region.

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48. If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is non-DoD agencies. When countries do not use the English alphabet, it would be necessary to establish a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names. Since this task falls outside the scope of the Department of Defense (DoD), non-DoD agencies would be responsible for setting this standard. These agencies would have the expertise and knowledge required to address the linguistic and cultural variations involved in establishing a uniform spelling system for names in non-English alphabets.

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49. Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?

Explanation

A crew-served weapons operator primarily uses alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as machine guns or mortars, require a team of individuals to operate effectively. These weapons are heavy and require stability, so the operator needs to assume different positions to provide support, cover fire, and engage targets from various angles. By using alternate fighting positions, the crew-served weapons operator can maximize their effectiveness and adapt to different combat scenarios.

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50. What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols?

Explanation

The most common types of reconnaissance patrols are area, route, and zone. Area patrols are conducted to gather information about a specific area, such as terrain features, enemy positions, and potential obstacles. Route patrols are conducted along a specific route to gather information about the conditions and potential threats along that route. Zone patrols are conducted to gather information about a specific zone, which could be an area of interest or an assigned sector. These types of patrols are essential for gathering intelligence and ensuring the success of military operations.

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51. What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation? 

Explanation

The threat level assessment indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. This suggests that the threat level is high.

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52. What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes?

Explanation

Offset formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes. In this formation, vehicles are positioned slightly to the side of each other, creating a diagonal line. This allows the convoy to take up more space on the road, making it difficult for other vehicles to pass through. Additionally, the offset formation provides better visibility for the convoy, allowing them to monitor and react to any potential threats or obstacles more effectively.

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53. What terrain feature is a short , continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge? 

Explanation

A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground that juts out from the side of a ridge. It is a terrain feature that is commonly found in mountainous areas. Spur formations are created through erosion and can provide natural barriers or vantage points.

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54. What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called?

Explanation

The center of the protractor circle, from where all directions are measured, is called the index mark. It is the reference point that allows for accurate measurement and alignment of angles using a protractor.

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55. When is the bounding over watch movement technique used?

Explanation

The bounding overwatch movement technique is used when enemy contact is expected. This technique involves one element of a unit moving while the other element provides covering fire and security. It allows for the advancement of the unit while maintaining a defensive posture and readiness to engage the enemy. This technique is particularly useful in situations where there is a high likelihood of encountering enemy forces, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the unit's movement.

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56. What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?

Explanation

The first step in navigating using terrain association is to orient your map. This involves aligning the map with the actual terrain by using landmarks or a compass to determine the correct direction. By orienting the map, you can accurately identify your location and plan your route based on the surrounding features and terrain.

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57. What are the two types of ambushes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Point and area" because these are the two types of ambushes commonly used in military tactics. A point ambush involves attacking the enemy at a specific location, such as a chokepoint or a key target. An area ambush, on the other hand, involves attacking the enemy in a larger designated area, often using multiple firing positions to surround and overwhelm the enemy. Both types of ambushes are effective strategies for catching the enemy off guard and inflicting maximum damage.

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58. Which defense advanced global positioning system receiver (DAGR) mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?

Explanation

The standby mode in the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) reduces power usage but does not track satellites. In this mode, the receiver is still operational but it conserves power by not actively searching for or tracking satellite signals. This mode is useful when the receiver needs to be on but not actively used for navigation or tracking purposes, allowing for longer battery life or power conservation.

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59. What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

Explanation

An intergovernmental organization is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments. This type of agency allows governments to collaborate and work together on various issues of common interest, such as political, economic, social, or environmental matters. Intergovernmental organizations serve as platforms for member states to discuss and negotiate policies, coordinate actions, and address global challenges collectively. They facilitate international cooperation and promote diplomacy among nations. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations (UN), World Health Organization (WHO), and International Monetary Fund (IMF).

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60. Contour lines are the most common method of showing

Explanation

Contour lines are the most common method of showing relief and elevation on a standard topographic map. They are used to represent the shape and steepness of the land by connecting points of equal elevation. By closely spaced contour lines, we can identify steep slopes, while widely spaced contour lines indicate flatter areas. These lines help in understanding the topography of an area and provide valuable information for navigation, land surveying, and other geographical purposes.

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61. Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a

Explanation

Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that an NGO is an organization that is not affiliated with any government, operates independently, and does not aim to generate profits. Instead, its primary objective is to provide services or assistance to the community or specific causes. The NGO sector plays a crucial role in addressing social issues and promoting development around the world.

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62. What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?

Explanation

A threat level l is considered a peacetime threat that increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities.

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63. Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground?

Explanation

The method that allows you to locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground is called intersection. In this method, you take measurements or observations from two known points and then draw lines or extend them until they intersect at the unknown point. By finding the point of intersection, you can determine the location of the unknown point.

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64. Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map?

Explanation

Resection is the method that allows you to locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map. This technique involves taking bearings from two known points on the map and then using those bearings to determine your own position. By measuring the angle between the known points and the back azimuth, you can accurately determine your location on the map.

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65. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Line Formation?

Explanation

To perform the hand and arm signal for Line Formation, the correct action is to extend the arms parallel to the ground. This means that both arms should be stretched out straight and level with the ground. This signal is used to indicate to others that a line formation is to be formed or maintained.

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66. Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP) ?

Explanation

The installation commander must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP). This is because the installation commander is responsible for overseeing all activities and operations on the installation, including defense plans. They have the authority and knowledge to assess and approve the IDP based on the specific needs and requirements of the installation. The Staff Judge Advocate may provide legal advice and guidance, but the final approval rests with the installation commander. The defense force commander and air force office of investigation may have roles in implementing the IDP, but they do not have the ultimate authority to approve it.

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67. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is

Explanation

When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is the aiming point. This is because the aiming point is the specific point on the target that the shooter aims at in order to hit it accurately. By focusing on the aiming point, the shooter can ensure that their shots are directed towards the intended target, increasing the chances of hitting it accurately. Spacing, reference point, and range determination are also important factors in delivering accurate fire, but the aiming point is the most crucial element in achieving precision.

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68. What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads?

Explanation

Staggered formation is the only convoy movement formation that can be used on multilane roads. In this formation, vehicles are spaced out in a zigzag pattern, with one vehicle positioned slightly ahead and to the side of the vehicle behind it. This allows for better visibility and maneuverability, as well as minimizing the risk of collision with other vehicles on the road. The staggered formation is particularly suitable for multilane roads where there is more space for vehicles to spread out and maintain their positions.

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69. What is the defense advanced global positioning system receivers (DAGR) primary function?

Explanation

The primary function of the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receivers (DAGR) is to navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information. DAGR receivers are designed to provide accurate positioning and navigation capabilities to military personnel in various terrains and environments. They use stored waypoint positions to guide users through different terrains, allowing them to navigate safely and efficiently.

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70. An azimuth is defined as a

Explanation

An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line. It is used in navigation and surveying to determine the direction of a point relative to a reference point. By measuring the angle between the north base line and the point of interest, the azimuth can be determined. This information is crucial for accurately locating and navigating to specific points on a map or in the field.

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71. Which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely?

Explanation

When speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely, the most suitable movement technique is traveling. Traveling involves moving quickly and continuously without stopping to engage with any potential adversaries. This technique is commonly used when the priority is to cover a large distance in a short amount of time, while minimizing the risk of encountering enemy forces.

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72. The first step in risk analysis is asset

Explanation

In risk analysis, the first step is to assess the criticality of the assets involved. Criticality assessment involves determining the importance and impact of each asset on the overall functioning of the system or organization. This helps in identifying the assets that are most crucial and require the highest level of protection and mitigation measures. By conducting a criticality assessment, organizations can prioritize their resources and efforts towards protecting the most critical assets, thereby reducing the potential risks and vulnerabilities.

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73. What direction is always the first shadow mark when using the shadow-tip method?

Explanation

When using the shadow-tip method, the first shadow mark will always be in the west direction. This is because the shadow-tip method involves placing a stick or object in the ground and observing the direction of its shadow. In the northern hemisphere, the sun moves from east to west, so the first shadow mark will be towards the west.

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74. The defense advanced global positioning system receiver (DAGR) provides the user position,

Explanation

The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) provides the user with velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities. This means that the DAGR can not only determine the user's speed or velocity, but also provide accurate time reporting and assist in navigation tasks. This makes it a valuable tool for military and defense applications where precise positioning and navigation are crucial.

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75. Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the

Explanation

The correct answer is "primary sector from farthest to closest." This means that machine gunners prioritize targeting groups of five or more targets in the primary sector, which is the area that is farthest away from them and gradually moves closer. This strategy allows them to effectively engage and neutralize threats in a systematic manner, starting with those that pose the greatest risk from a distance.

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76. You can find the sheet name of a map in the

Explanation

The correct answer is "center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin" because it accurately describes the location where the sheet name of a map can be found. The center of the top margin indicates that the sheet name is positioned in the middle of the top edge of the map, while the lower left area margin specifies that it is also located in the lower left corner of the map. This answer provides clear and specific information about the placement of the sheet name on the map.

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77. What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?

Explanation

Units must develop a common operating picture about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain. This means that they need to have a comprehensive understanding of the AOR, including its religious practices, the behavior and preferences of local leaders, the cultural norms of the local population, and the geographical features of the area. By developing a common operating picture, units can effectively plan and execute their operations while taking into account these important factors, ultimately enhancing their effectiveness in the AOR.

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78. Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility , leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to

Explanation

Leaders establish en route rally points every 400 meters based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility. This distance allows for effective communication and coordination between units, ensuring that they stay on track and maintain situational awareness. Rally points serve as checkpoints where units can regroup, reorient themselves, and receive further instructions if necessary. By spacing them at regular intervals of 400 meters, leaders can ensure that units are not too far apart, minimizing the risk of getting lost or separated in challenging environments.

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79. What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes , obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector?

Explanation

A zone reconnaissance patrol involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector. This type of reconnaissance patrol focuses on gathering comprehensive information about a specific area, including all aspects that may affect military operations. By conducting a zone reconnaissance patrol, military forces can gather critical intelligence to plan and execute missions effectively within the designated sector.

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80. During bounding over watch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the over watching team?

Explanation

During bounding overwatch, the bounding team should not move more than 150 meters forward of the overwatching team. This is because the purpose of bounding overwatch is to provide mutual support and maintain a line of sight between the teams. If the bounding team moves too far forward, they may lose visual contact with the overwatching team and compromise the effectiveness of their support. Therefore, it is important to maintain a distance of no more than 150 meters between the two teams during bounding overwatch.

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81. Which one do you like?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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Which one do you like?
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