Security Forces CDC Volume 4

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  • 1/81 Questions

    What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?

    • Throw hand grenades
    • Look for the enemy and return fire
    • Immediately return fire and assault the enemy
    • Immediately return fire and take a covered position
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Security Forces CDC Volume 4', assesses knowledge in integrated defense, risk analysis, legal review of entry procedures, incident reporting, nuclear weapon safety, and LACE report coding. It is essential for professionals aiming to enhance security and defense skills.

Security Forces CDC Volume 4 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?

    • Roll

    • High crawl

    • Low crawl

    • Spider crawl

    Correct Answer
    A. High crawl
    Explanation
    In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required but the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is employed. The high crawl involves moving forward on hands and knees, with the body raised off the ground to minimize contact and increase speed. This technique allows for faster movement while still maintaining a relatively low profile, making it suitable for situations where speed is necessary but a more cautious approach is required.

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  • 3. 

    To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on

    • Safe

    • Fire

    • Semi

    • Burst

    Correct Answer
    A. Safe
    Explanation
    To perform a transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, it is necessary to first place the rifle on safe. This ensures that the firearm is in a safe and secure position before transitioning to the handgun. By placing the rifle on safe, the risk of accidental discharge is minimized, allowing for a smooth and controlled transition to the handgun.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • Standoff

    • Penetration

    • Chemical , biological

    • Information operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Penetration
    Explanation
    Penetration attacks involve an insider threat. This type of attack occurs when someone with authorized access to a system or network intentionally breaches security measures to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. Insiders may exploit their knowledge, privileges, or access rights to carry out malicious activities, such as stealing sensitive information, sabotaging systems, or disrupting operations. Therefore, penetration attacks are a common method used by insiders to compromise the security of an organization.

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  • 5. 

    What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?

    • Hill

    • Saddle

    • Valley

    • Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Depression
    Explanation
    A depression is a terrain feature that refers to a low point in the ground or a sinkhole. It is a geographical formation characterized by a concave shape, where the land sinks below the surrounding area. Depressions can be caused by various factors such as erosion, tectonic activity, or the dissolution of underlying rocks. They can vary in size and depth, and often collect water, forming lakes or marshes. Depressions play an important role in the hydrological cycle and can have a significant impact on the surrounding ecosystem.

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  • 6. 

    What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?

    • ID Threat Risk

    • ID Principle of Risk

    • ID Risk Management

    • ID Principles of Critical

    Correct Answer
    A. ID Risk Management
    Explanation
    ID Risk Management is the analytical process used to achieve integrated defense (ID). It involves identifying and assessing potential threats and risks, developing strategies to mitigate them, and implementing measures to monitor and control the risks. By employing ID Risk Management, organizations can effectively integrate their defense systems and resources to protect against various threats and ensure the overall security and resilience of their operations.

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  • 7. 

    How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?

    • Location

    • Weather conditions

    • Number of personnel assigned

    • Specific unit and mission requirments

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific unit and mission requirments
    Explanation
    Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to suit the needs and objectives of the particular unit and the mission they are undertaking. Factors such as the location, weather conditions, and number of personnel assigned may also be taken into consideration when tailoring the inspections, but the primary focus should be on meeting the specific unit and mission requirements.

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  • 8. 

    When should security forces perform checks of their individual issued items?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Bi-monthly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items daily to ensure that all equipment is accounted for and in proper working condition. Daily checks help to identify any missing or malfunctioning items promptly, allowing for immediate action to be taken to rectify the situation. Regular checks also promote accountability and readiness among security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond effectively to any security threats or emergencies.

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  • 9. 

    What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

    • Bribery

    • Coercion

    • Persuasion

    • Encouragement

    Correct Answer
    A. Coercion
    Explanation
    Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion involves the use of force, threats, or intimidation to compel someone to act against their will. In this scenario, if insurgents are unable to convince or persuade locals to support their cause or remain neutral, they may resort to coercive tactics such as violence, blackmail, or intimidation to achieve their objectives.

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  • 10. 

    What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?

    • Fading in elevation

    • Increase in elevation

    • Decrease in elevation

    • No change in elevation

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase in elevation
    Explanation
    An index contour line shows an increase in elevation when going from a lower to an upper contour line. This means that the land is getting higher as you move along the contour lines.

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  • 11. 

    Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?

    • United nations

    • World health organization

    • North atlantic treaty organization

    • International refugee organization

    Correct Answer
    A. United nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that promotes international cooperation and addresses global issues such as peace and security, human rights, and sustainable development. It has a wide membership of countries and plays a central role in coordinating and facilitating international efforts to tackle global challenges. The United Nations is recognized as a symbol of global unity and serves as a platform for countries to come together and work towards common goals.

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  • 12. 

    Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt?

    • Front of vehicle

    • Remain in vehicle

    • Left side of vehicle

    • Right side of vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain in vehicle
    Explanation
    During a short halt, drivers will typically remain in their vehicles. This is because a short halt implies a temporary stop, where the driver may need to quickly resume driving. Staying inside the vehicle allows the driver to maintain control and be ready to continue the journey without delay. It also ensures the safety of the driver and other passengers by keeping them inside the protective structure of the vehicle.

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  • 13. 

    Who signals for rollout after a long after a long halt and movement commences?

    • Driver

    • Vehicle commander

    • Convoy commander

    • Crew-serve weapon gunner

    Correct Answer
    A. Convoy commander
    Explanation
    The convoy commander signals for rollout after a long halt and movement commences. This is because the convoy commander is responsible for overseeing the movement and coordination of the entire convoy. They have the authority to give commands and instructions to the drivers and other personnel in the convoy. Therefore, it is their role to signal when it is time to resume movement after a long halt.

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  • 14. 

    The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use

    • A ruler

    • A compass

    • A protractor

    • The tick marks

    Correct Answer
    A. A ruler
    Explanation
    A ruler is the easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line because it provides a straight edge that can be aligned with the two points being measured. The ruler has clearly marked units of measurement, allowing for accurate and precise measurements. A compass is used for drawing circles, a protractor is used for measuring angles, and tick marks do not provide a straight edge or units of measurement. Therefore, a ruler is the most suitable tool for measuring distance in a straight line.

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  • 15. 

    How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

    • Less than one century

    • Less than two centuries

    • Within last 50 years

    • More than two centuries

    Correct Answer
    A. More than two centuries
    Explanation
    The US military has been called upon to defeat insurgencies for more than two centuries. This suggests that the US has a long history of dealing with insurgent threats and has been involved in counterinsurgency operations for a significant amount of time. This answer implies that the US military's experience in combating insurgencies spans over 200 years.

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  • 16. 

    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of

    • Air

    • Light

    • Terrain

    • Atmospheric pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Light
    Explanation
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and functionality are directly influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device, so it relies on capturing and amplifying available light to provide visibility in low-light or dark conditions. Therefore, the more light there is, the better the performance of the AN/PVS-14 will be.

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  • 17. 

    Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?

    • Department of State

    • Department of Justice

    • Department of Defense

    • Federal Bureau of Investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Justice
    Explanation
    The Department of Justice is the lead agency for domestic terrorism within the US because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting individuals involved in criminal activities, including acts of terrorism. The department's agencies, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), work together to investigate and prevent domestic terrorist threats, gather intelligence, and ensure the safety and security of the nation.

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  • 18. 

    What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

    • Activity

    • Intentions

    • Operational capability

    • Operational environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational capability
    Explanation
    Operational capability refers to the ability of a terrorist group to carry out attacks effectively. This includes factors such as their access to resources, training, and technology. The question is asking about the factor that focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This aligns with the concept of operational capability, as it encompasses the group's ability to plan and execute attacks in a sophisticated and impactful manner.

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  • 19. 

    What desired effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?

    • Anticipate

    • Deter

    • Detect

    • Warn

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect
    Explanation
    The desired effect achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television is to detect potential threats or intrusions. These systems are designed to identify any suspicious activity or unauthorized access, allowing for timely response and intervention. By detecting such incidents, security measures can be taken to prevent further harm or damage.

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  • 20. 

    What desired effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

    • Warn

    • Defeat

    • Delay

    • Defend

    Correct Answer
    A. Defend
    Explanation
    Threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan ensures that friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force in order to defend. This means that the desired effect achieved through this type of planning is to protect and safeguard friendly forces from any potential threats or attacks. By having a coordinated and well-prepared defense plan, the friendly forces can effectively respond and counter any hostile actions, ensuring their own safety and security.

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  • 21. 

    On the AN?PVS-14 monocular night vision device (MNVD) , what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

    • Compass

    • Tethering cord

    • De-mist shield

    • Sacrificial window

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass
    Explanation
    The correct answer is compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This allows the operator to determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides a crucial navigational tool for the user, enhancing their situational awareness and overall effectiveness in the field.

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  • 22. 

    Selection of team movement techniques is based on

    • The ability of the team leader to control the team

    • Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

    • Patrol objectives

    • The enemy threat

    Correct Answer
    A. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
    Explanation
    The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader must consider the probability of encountering the enemy and the urgency to move quickly while planning the team's movement. This decision is crucial in ensuring the team's safety and achieving their objectives effectively.

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  • 23. 

    To avoid adverse effect on operations, effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

    • Senators

    • Governors

    • Ambassador

    • Congressman

    Correct Answer
    A. Ambassador
    Explanation
    To avoid any negative impact on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the ambassador. The ambassador is the highest-ranking diplomatic representative of a country and is responsible for maintaining relationships and addressing issues with other nations. By involving the ambassador, commanders can ensure that sovereignty issues are handled appropriately and in accordance with diplomatic protocols. Senators, governors, and congressmen may have their own roles and responsibilities within the government, but when it comes to sovereignty issues, the ambassador is the most suitable point of contact.

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  • 24. 

    What is the most common means of giving fire commands?

    • Sound

    • Visual signals

    • Airman-initiated

    • Radio communications

    Correct Answer
    A. Visual signals
    Explanation
    Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they provide a clear and visible method of communication, especially in situations where sound or radio communications may not be effective or reliable. Visual signals can be easily understood and interpreted by individuals, allowing for quick and efficient communication of fire commands. Additionally, visual signals can be used in various environments, including during daytime or nighttime, making them a versatile and widely used method for giving fire commands.

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  • 25. 

    What threat level consist of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

    • Threat Level l

    • Threat Level ll

    • Threat Level lll

    • Threat Level lV

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat Level ll
    Explanation
    Threat Level ll consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units. This level indicates a higher level of threat compared to Threat Level l, suggesting the presence of more organized and capable adversaries. These forces operate in a less conventional manner, making them more difficult to predict and counter.

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  • 26. 

    When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS?

    • Search

    • Tag

    • Release

    • Safeguard

    Correct Answer
    A. Release
    Explanation
    The principle of "release" is not one of the principles of STRESS when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points. STRESS is an acronym that stands for Search, Tag, Report, Evacuate, Safeguard, and Segregate. These principles outline the steps to be followed during the processing of DCPs. While searching, tagging, reporting, evacuating, safeguarding, and segregating are all important steps, the principle of releasing the captives, detainees, or prisoners is not mentioned in the STRESS acronym.

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  • 27. 

    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

    • Hill

    • Saddle

    • Valley

    • Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Valley
    Explanation
    A valley is a stretched out groove in the land that is usually formed by streams and rivers. It is a low-lying area between hills or mountains, often with a river or stream running through it. Valleys are typically formed through the process of erosion, as water flows through the land and gradually wears away the surrounding rock and soil. This creates a long, narrow depression in the landscape, which is known as a valley.

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  • 28. 

    To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from

    • Right to left; bottom to top

    • Right to left; top to bottom

    • Left to right; top to bottom

    • Left to right ; bottom to top

    Correct Answer
    A. Left to right ; bottom to top
    Explanation
    To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from left to right and bottom to top. This means that you start by identifying the horizontal line or column on the grid, moving from left to right, and then locate the vertical line or row, moving from bottom to top. This method ensures accurate plotting of the coordinate on the map.

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  • 29. 

    Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

    • Staff Judge Advocate

    • Installation Commander

    • Defense Force Commander

    • Air Force Office of Investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff Judge Advocate
    Explanation
    The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. As a legal advisor, they ensure that the procedures comply with all applicable laws and regulations. They assess the procedures to ensure that they are legally sound and protect the rights of individuals entering the installation. This review is crucial to prevent any legal issues or violations that may arise from improper entry procedures.

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  • 30. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority ll routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 6

    • 12

    • 18

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority II routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that individuals in this category require evacuation within one day. The urgency of evacuation for Priority II personnel suggests that they may be in a situation where their safety or health is at risk and swift action is necessary to ensure their well-being.

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  • 31. 

    How many days are the majority of the security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The majority of the security forces unit type codes are capable of existing without support for 5 days.

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  • 32. 

    What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence , legal, or medical services?

    • Passive supporter

    • Active supporters

    • Hardcore leadership

    • Active operational cadre

    Correct Answer
    A. Active supporters
    Explanation
    Active supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists through various means such as providing financial support, intelligence, legal aid, or medical services. These individuals play a crucial role in the functioning of terrorist organizations by enabling the operational activities of the terrorists. While they may not directly commit violent acts themselves, their support and assistance contribute to the overall effectiveness and impact of terrorist activities.

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  • 33. 

    What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?

    • Greater distance

    • Shorter distance

    • Equal distance

    • Real distance

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater distance
    Explanation
    The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This means that when the ground appears to slope upward, objects will appear farther away than they actually are. This illusion can be caused by various factors such as the angle of the slope, the perspective of the observer, and the surrounding environment. It is important for the observer to be aware of this illusion in order to accurately determine the actual distance to objects.

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  • 34. 

    How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify?

    • 10 meters

    • 100 meters

    • 1000 meters

    • 10,000 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 meters
    Explanation
    A six-digit refined grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you want to identify. This means that the coordinate will provide a fairly accurate location, allowing you to narrow down your search area to within 100 meters of the desired point.

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  • 35. 

    Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?

    • Site security control

    • Security forces

    • Higher headquarters

    • Installation command post

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation command post
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) will up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through the installation command post. This means that any incidents that need to be reported will be sent to the command post at the installation level for further action or dissemination to higher headquarters if necessary. The command post is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall operations and security of the installation, making it the appropriate agency to handle these reportable incidents.

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  • 36. 

    Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages

    • Flight chief

    • Operations officer

    • Flight commander

    • Defense force commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense force commander
    Explanation
    The defense force commander is responsible for determining what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages. As the highest-ranking officer in the defense force, they have the authority to make decisions regarding staffing and resource allocation. They are in charge of overseeing the overall operations and ensuring that the defense force is able to function effectively, even in times of limited resources. The defense force commander's role includes making strategic decisions to prioritize essential positions and allocate resources accordingly.

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  • 37. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • Department of State

    • Department of Justice

    • Department of Defense

    • Federal Bureau of Investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for the overall foreign policy of the United States. This includes coordinating with foreign governments, providing assistance to US citizens abroad, and addressing international security issues such as terrorism. The Department of State works closely with other agencies, such as the Department of Defense and the Federal Bureau of Investigation, to respond to and prevent terrorist incidents outside the US.

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  • 38. 

    Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures ?

    • Flight

    • Squadron

    • Command post

    • Base defense operations center

    Correct Answer
    A. Base defense operations center
    Explanation
    The base defense operations center is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. These measures are crucial for ensuring the effective coordination and control of military operations. They involve the use of maps, charts, and other visual aids to display and communicate relevant information about the operational environment. By assigning these measures, the base defense operations center helps to enhance situational awareness and facilitate decision-making processes within the organization.

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  • 39. 

    What type of fire control measures do security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?

    • Direct

    • Indirect

    • Sustained

    • Suppressive

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct
    Explanation
    Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures as a means to control their defenders. This involves directly engaging the enemy with weapons and firepower to neutralize or eliminate the threat. Direct fire control measures are typically used in close combat situations where immediate and precise response is required. This can include small arms fire, grenades, or other direct fire weapons.

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  • 40. 

    Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

    • Sound

    • Movement

    • Regularity of outline

    • Contrast with the background

    Correct Answer
    A. Contrast with the background
    Explanation
    Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicators for the enemy to avoid because it makes the target stand out and easily distinguishable from its surroundings. This can be particularly challenging for the enemy to avoid as it draws attention and makes it easier to detect and target the object.

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  • 41. 

    Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?

    • File

    • Wedge

    • Bounding

    • Traveling

    Correct Answer
    A. Wedge
    Explanation
    The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. This formation is characterized by the team members forming a V-shaped pattern, with the team leader at the front point of the V. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and maneuverability, as well as providing cover and mutual support for the team members. It also facilitates communication and coordination within the team, making it an effective formation for tactical movements and engagements.

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  • 42. 

    How do you perform the hand and arm signal for attention?

    • Tap the back of the helmet repeatedly with an open hand

    • Point at the palm of the hand with the index finger of the other hand

    • Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to front; wave the arm to and from the head several times

    • Raise the hand in front of the forehead, palm to the front, and swing the hand and forearm up and down several times in front of the face

    Correct Answer
    A. Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to front; wave the arm to and from the head several times
    Explanation
    To perform the hand and arm signal for attention, one must extend their arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal, with the palm facing front. Then, they should wave their arm to and from the head several times. This signal is commonly used to gain someone's attention or to signal for help in a situation.

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  • 43. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

    • Accident

    • Incident

    • Mistake

    • Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it implies an unintentional and unplanned event. It suggests that the action of getting rid of the weapon or component was not intended or desired, and therefore can be classified as an accidental occurrence.

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  • 44. 

    What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?

    • Less than 33 percent available

    • Less than 66 percent available

    • Greater than 33 percent available

    • Greater than 66 percent available

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater than 33 percent available
    Explanation
    The color code yellow in a LACE report indicates that there is greater than 33 percent availability. This means that there is a significant amount of availability, but it is not at its maximum capacity.

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  • 45. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority ll priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This indicates that these individuals are in a moderately urgent situation and need to be relocated promptly. Evacuating them within 4 hours ensures their safety and minimizes any potential risks or hazards they may be facing.

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  • 46. 

    How many random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?

    • At least one

    • At least two

    • At least three

    • At least four

    Correct Answer
    A. At least three
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the minimum number of random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) that are required daily. The correct answer is "at least three," which means that a minimum of three random antiterrorist measures should be chosen from higher force protection conditions on a daily basis. This ensures a higher level of security and readiness against potential terrorist threats.

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  • 47. 

    Aaerial ports of debarkation, border crossings , and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key

    • Terrain issues

    • Logistical issues

    • Sovereignty issues

    • Transportation issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Sovereignty issues
    Explanation
    The given options are all related to different types of issues. "Terrain issues" refers to challenges related to the physical characteristics of the land, "logistical issues" pertain to problems in managing and coordinating resources for transportation, and "transportation issues" involve difficulties in moving people or goods from one place to another. However, "sovereignty issues" are concerns related to the authority and control over a particular territory or area. In this context, the examples provided - aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation - all involve issues of sovereignty, as they relate to the control and regulation of entry and exit points into a country or region.

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  • 48. 

    If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the

    • Defense force commander

    • Non-DoD agencies

    • Local commander

    • DOD agencies

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-DoD agencies
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is non-DoD agencies. When countries do not use the English alphabet, it would be necessary to establish a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names. Since this task falls outside the scope of the Department of Defense (DoD), non-DoD agencies would be responsible for setting this standard. These agencies would have the expertise and knowledge required to address the linguistic and cultural variations involved in establishing a uniform spelling system for names in non-English alphabets.

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  • 49. 

    Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?

    • Sniper

    • Rifleman

    • Grenadier

    • Crew-served weapons operator

    Correct Answer
    A. Crew-served weapons operator
    Explanation
    A crew-served weapons operator primarily uses alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as machine guns or mortars, require a team of individuals to operate effectively. These weapons are heavy and require stability, so the operator needs to assume different positions to provide support, cover fire, and engage targets from various angles. By using alternate fighting positions, the crew-served weapons operator can maximize their effectiveness and adapt to different combat scenarios.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
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  • Feb 15, 2018
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    Cypressp

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