Security Forces CDC's Volume 3

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1. How is the claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan

Explanation

The claymore is employed as part of the base defense obstacle plan to stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks. By strategically placing claymore mines, the aim is to hinder the enemy's progress and buy time for defensive measures to be implemented. The claymore's explosive power and directional fragmentation make it an effective tool for inflicting casualties and causing chaos among enemy forces, ultimately impeding their ability to launch successful attacks.

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About This Quiz
Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz titled 'Security Forces Cdc's volume 3' assesses knowledge on military defense tactics, focusing on the creation and use of range cards, sectors of fire, and target... see morereference points. It is designed for security force personnel to enhance strategic defensive skills. see less

2. What does the acronym TRP stand for?

Explanation

TRP stands for Target Reference Point. This acronym is commonly used in military and tactical contexts to refer to a specific location or point that serves as a target for various operations or maneuvers. It provides a clear and identifiable reference for troops or units to focus their efforts on during missions or exercises.

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3. The front and rear sites for the m9 pistol are

Explanation

The correct answer is fixed. This means that the front and rear sights of the M9 pistol cannot be adjusted or moved. They are permanently fixed in place.

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4. The accronym s.p.o.r.t.s  stands for?

Explanation

The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, squeeze". This is because the acronym "s.p.o.r.t.s" is formed by taking the first letter of each word in the answer option.

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5. Which type of round is used for fragmentation and blast effect

Explanation

High explosives are commonly used for fragmentation and blast effects. When detonated, high explosives release a large amount of energy in a short period of time, resulting in a powerful explosion. This explosion creates a shockwave that can cause fragmentation of surrounding objects, such as buildings or vehicles, and produce a blast effect that can cause damage or injury. Therefore, high explosives are the most suitable type of round for achieving fragmentation and blast effects.

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6. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

Two range cards are prepared for each position.

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7. What is the standard round with the m4 rifle

Explanation

The standard round with the M4 rifle is the M855 ball. This round is a 5.56x45mm NATO cartridge that is commonly used by the military. It is known for its accuracy and reliability, making it a popular choice for the M4 rifle. The M855 ball round is designed to penetrate targets effectively and has a steel penetrator at the tip to enhance its armor-piercing capabilities.

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8. What are target reference points?

Explanation

Target reference points are either natural or manmade features that are used to quickly locate targets. These points serve as landmarks or indicators that help individuals or systems identify the location of a specific target.

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9. The primary purpose of preventative maintinance is to keep weapons

Explanation

The primary purpose of preventative maintenance is to ensure that weapons are cleaned and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent the buildup of dirt, debris, and rust, which can affect the performance and lifespan of the weapons. Proper lubrication also helps to reduce friction and wear on the moving parts, allowing the weapons to operate smoothly and reliably. By keeping the weapons cleaned and properly lubricated, their overall condition and functionality can be maintained, similar to how they were when they were new.

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10. How many meters is the max range for the m9

Explanation

The correct answer is 1800. This indicates that the maximum range for the M9 is 1800 meters.

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11. Under what condition would you use mk19 ammo in the m203

Explanation

The correct answer is "under no circumstance." This means that under no situation or condition would you use mk19 ammo in the m203. This suggests that using mk19 ammo in the m203 is strictly prohibited and should never be done.

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12. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a

Explanation

The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when employed in an uncontrolled role. This means that it is set up to be triggered by the unsuspecting enemy, causing a lethal force to be unleashed. In this context, the claymore functions as a hidden explosive device that is designed to inflict maximum damage on the enemy.

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13. Where should the claymore firing position be located

Explanation

The claymore firing position should be located in a foxhole and covered position because this provides better protection and concealment for the operator. Being in a foxhole allows the operator to have a lower profile, making it harder for the enemy to spot them. Additionally, being in a covered position provides protection from enemy fire and reduces the chances of being detected. This strategic placement increases the effectiveness of the claymore and improves the operator's safety.

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14. On the m9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

Explanation

The correct answer is "loaded chamber indicator." On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is to indicate whether there is a round in the chamber. This is important for the user to know if the pistol is loaded or not. The extractor also serves the function of extracting the spent casing after firing. However, in this context, the primary purpose mentioned is the loaded chamber indicator.

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15. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenandes

Explanation

The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed by the blast or shrapnel. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat and can cause significant damage within this range.

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16. When is programming cable used with the base station

Explanation

A programming cable is used with the base station when there is a need for external programming of the portable radio communications (PRC) 139. This suggests that the base station is capable of programming the PRC 139 through the use of a programming cable, allowing for customization and configuration of the portable radio communications device.

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17. Where would you sketch in the magnetic north data in on your range card?

Explanation

The magnetic north data is typically included in the marginal data section of a range card. This section is specifically designed to provide important information that may be needed quickly, such as magnetic north data, grid conversions, or other relevant data. Placing the magnetic north data in this section allows for easy access and ensures that it is readily available when needed.

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18. What are the target reference points used for?

Explanation

The target reference points are used to control direct-fire weapons, but they can also be used for indirect fire weapons. This means that they serve as a guide or reference for aiming and directing both types of weapons.

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19. What type of ammo is used in the m4 but has no primer

Explanation

The correct answer is m199 dummy. This type of ammo is used in the M4 but does not have a primer. A dummy round is typically used for training purposes or for testing the feeding and extraction of a firearm. It is designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition but does not contain any propellant or primer, making it safe for training exercises.

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20. Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision equipment (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams are

Explanation

The optimal employment capabilities of close precision equipment (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams include response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams are skilled in quickly reacting to threats or situations, providing cover and support from a vantage point, conducting thorough observation and surveillance, and identifying potential threats or targets. These capabilities make them valuable assets in tactical operations, as they can effectively respond to enemy actions and gather critical intelligence for the team.

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21. The final protective line is the line that?

Explanation

The final protective line refers to a defensive line that is established to provide a last line of defense against enemy forces. It is typically positioned in front of friendly troops and is used to engage and suppress the enemy with grazing fire. Grazing fire is a type of fire that is directed horizontally and close to the ground, making it effective in preventing enemy advancement and causing casualties. Therefore, the correct answer is "Shoots grazing fire across your sector front."

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22. How many operating positions does the m4 stock have

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the M4 stock has four operating positions. The operating positions refer to the different adjustable lengths or settings that the stock can be set to. This allows the user to customize the length of the stock to their preference and shooting style.

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23. What is the function of the forward assist?

Explanation

The forward assist is used to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. This means that if the bolt does not fully close or is not in the correct position, the forward assist can be used to push the bolt forward and ensure it is properly locked in place. This is important in situations where quick and immediate action is required, such as during combat or other high-pressure situations.

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24. What are the 3 common charateristics that hand granandes share

Explanation

Hand grenades typically have a short employment range, meaning they can only be thrown a relatively short distance. They also have a small casualty radius, which means the area of effect where the grenade can cause harm is limited. Additionally, hand grenades are designed with a delay element that allows the person throwing the grenade to have a safe distance before it explodes. These characteristics make hand grenades effective for close-quarters combat and allow for safer handling and throwing.

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25. When should hard wire lines be inspected

Explanation

Hard wire lines should be inspected before installation to ensure they are in proper working condition and meet safety standards. Additionally, daily inspections are necessary after installation to identify any potential issues or damage that may have occurred during use. Regular inspections help to prevent accidents, ensure the efficient functioning of the lines, and minimize downtime.

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26. Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications

Explanation

Brevity codes are necessary for effective communications because they provide a concise and efficient way to convey information. By using short and standardized codes, individuals can quickly and accurately communicate complex messages without the need for lengthy explanations. This is particularly important in situations where time is limited or where clear and precise communication is crucial, such as in emergency situations or military operations. Brevity codes allow for streamlined and effective communication, ensuring that messages are understood and acted upon in a timely manner.

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27. The mk19 has little effect on which type of targets

Explanation

The MK19 has little effect on main battle tanks. This suggests that the MK19, which is a type of weapon, is not very effective against heavily armored vehicles like main battle tanks. It may be more suitable for engaging unarmored or lightly armored targets, as well as armored personnel carriers.

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28. What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunction in the radio

Explanation

Submersion in 6 inches of water can cause rusting and malfunction in the radio. Water can seep into the internal components of the radio, leading to corrosion and damage. Rust can interfere with the proper functioning of the radio's circuits and connections, causing malfunctions or complete failure. Therefore, submersion in water is likely to be the main cause of rusting and malfunction in the radio.

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29. Range cards are a record of?

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide important information such as the distance to the target, the type of ammunition used, and any adjustments that need to be made for accurate firing. Range cards are essential for military personnel and marksmen to ensure precision and effectiveness in their shooting. They serve as a reference for future engagements and help in maintaining consistency and improving accuracy during training and combat scenarios.

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30. The final step in laying a mine is to turn the legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a

Explanation

The final step in laying a mine is to turn the legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a 45 degree angle. This angle is likely chosen because it provides stability and ensures that the mine is securely anchored to the ground. A 45 degree angle allows the legs to be spread wide enough to provide stability, while also preventing the mine from being easily dislodged or tipped over.

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31. After prolong firing the barrel of the mk19 will

Explanation

The correct answer is "not overheat". The MK19 is a belt-fed automatic grenade launcher that is designed to withstand prolonged firing without overheating. It is equipped with a heat shield and cooling fins on the barrel to dissipate heat and prevent overheating. Therefore, even after prolonged firing, the barrel of the MK19 will not overheat.

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32. Which channel on the analog portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use

Explanation

Channel 1 on the AN/PRC 139 analog portable radio communication is reserved for priority use.

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33. How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?

Explanation

A range card typically includes two sectors of fire. These sectors represent the areas where the weapon or unit is able to engage targets effectively. By dividing the area into two sectors, it allows for better target acquisition and engagement, as well as providing a clear understanding of the boundaries of fire for the unit.

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34. How can the m72 law be employed and fired

Explanation

The correct answer is "shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling". This answer suggests that the M72 LAW (Light Anti-Tank Weapon) can be employed and fired from various positions, including shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling. This implies that the weapon is versatile and can be used effectively in different combat scenarios and positions depending on the situation.

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35. How many meters in the kill radius for an explosive round

Explanation

The correct answer is 5. This suggests that the kill radius for an explosive round is 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed by the blast.

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36. When would you fire in your secondary sector of fire?

Explanation

The correct answer is when ordered to fire there. This means that you would only fire in your secondary sector of fire if you have been specifically instructed or given orders to do so. It is important to follow orders and instructions in a military or tactical setting to maintain coordination and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the operation.

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37. What type of ammo does the m203 fire

Explanation

The M203 fires 40mm low velocity ammunition.

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38. The claymore mine is used primarily as a

Explanation

The claymore mine is used primarily as a defensive weapon. It is a directional explosive device that is designed to be set up and triggered by the defender, facing the direction of the anticipated enemy attack. When triggered, it releases a lethal blast of shrapnel in a specific direction, effectively halting or slowing down enemy advances and providing cover for the defender. Its purpose is to defend a specific area or position from enemy forces, making it a defensive weapon.

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39. M882 ammo is used against what tupe of target

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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40. If the trigger arming handle fails to stay in the arm position check

Explanation

To ensure that the trigger arming handle stays in the arm position, it is important to check if the launcher is fully extended. If the launcher is not fully extended, it may cause the trigger arming handle to fail in staying in the arm position. Therefore, checking the launcher for full extension is necessary to ensure proper functioning of the trigger arming handle.

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41. The two detanator wells on top of the claymore allow for

Explanation

The two detonator wells on top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be set up to be detonated by either one or two detonators, providing flexibility in its use.

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42. What is a hot loop

Explanation

A hot loop refers to a continuous line that is connected to every phone and switchboard. This allows for immediate communication and connectivity between all devices on the loop. It ensures that there is a constant connection between various communication points, making it efficient and reliable for transmitting information.

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43. To remove the antenna from the reciever on an analog /portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 you must

Explanation

To remove the antenna from the receiver on an AN/PRC 139 radio, you need to turn the antenna counter clockwise. This means rotating the antenna in the opposite direction of the clock's hands when facing it. This action will loosen the antenna from its connection point, allowing you to remove it.

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44. The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using

Explanation

The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using a broken or dashed line on the boundary. This helps to visually represent the area where the weapon system can engage targets effectively. The broken or dashed line indicates that the sector is not continuous and there may be gaps or limitations in the firing coverage.

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45. In meters what is the max eff range for the m240 bravo for a point target with tripod

Explanation

The maximum effective range for the M240 Bravo with a tripod for a point target is 800 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the weapon may significantly decrease.

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46. The min and max grade before being considered for marksman is

Explanation

The correct answer is Sra-MSgt because the question is asking for the minimum and maximum grade range that someone must have before being considered for the marksman position. In this given range, the minimum grade is Senior Airman (Sra) and the maximum grade is Master Sergeant (MSgt). Therefore, individuals must hold a rank between Sra and MSgt to be eligible for the marksman position.

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47. The first step in connecting the the line to the TA 312 is

Explanation

To connect the line to the TA 312, the first step is to strip away one inch of insulation from the ends of the 2 wires. This is necessary in order to expose the conductive parts of the wires and ensure proper electrical connection.

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48. The information included in the marginal date section of the range card is position #

Explanation

The marginal data section of the range card includes information about the weapon, unit, call sign/date, meters each circle represents, and sensor ID numbers. This information is important for accurately recording and referencing the range data during operations.

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49. What ball is the standard cartridge with the m9

Explanation

The correct answer is m882. The M882 ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9 pistol.

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50. Leaders should position weapons where they

Explanation

Leaders should position weapons where they can protect their own forces, avoid detection from the enemy, and surprise the enemy with lethal fire. This means finding strategic locations that provide cover and concealment, as well as allowing for effective engagement without being easily targeted or destroyed by the enemy. By doing so, leaders can maximize the chances of success during engagements and maintain a tactical advantage over the enemy.

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51. When employed in a physical security the m870 is effecttive because

Explanation

The M870 is effective in physical security because it can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment. This suggests that the weapon is suitable for protecting valuable and important assets, as it can provide a high level of security in these areas.

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52. For effective coverage of the entire front of a position place mines in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than

Explanation

To effectively cover the entire front of a position with mines, it is recommended to place them in a line. The mines should be spaced no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than 45 meters. This spacing ensures that there is enough distance between the mines to cover the entire front of the position, while also preventing them from being too spread out and leaving gaps in the coverage.

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53. The mk19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for

Explanation

The correct answer is "point and area targets." The explanation for this is that the mk19 is a weapon system that is known for its ability to provide controlled and accurate fire. It is specifically designed to engage and neutralize both point targets, which are individual specific targets, and area targets, which are wider targets that encompass a larger area. This versatility allows the mk19 to effectively engage a variety of targets, making it a valuable asset in combat situations.

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54. What is the max number of meters  50 cal machine gun

Explanation

The correct answer is 6764. This suggests that the maximum number of meters for a 50 cal machine gun is 6764.

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55. How are designated marksman employed

Explanation

Designated marksman can be employed either individually or as a pair depending on the situation and the decision made by the CSF (Commander's Support Force). This means that they have the flexibility to operate on their own or work together with another marksman, depending on the mission requirements and tactical considerations. The decision on whether to employ them individually or as a pair would be based on factors such as the mission objectives, the terrain, the enemy situation, and the available resources.

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56. The m2 is very effective, versitaile weapon that is

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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57. The m2 is most effectively employed when

Explanation

The M2 is most effectively employed on a mobile platform because it allows for greater flexibility and maneuverability. Being able to move the M2 to different locations quickly and easily increases its effectiveness in various combat scenarios. Additionally, a mobile platform provides better protection and cover for the gunner, ensuring their safety while operating the weapon.

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58. After the conductors have been cut how many inches should they be staggered when splicing the wire

Explanation

When splicing the wire after the conductors have been cut, they should be staggered by 6 inches.

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59. How many meters for the m249 max effective range for an area target

Explanation

The correct answer is 800 meters. The max effective range for an area target with the M249 is 800 meters.

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60. In meters what is the max eff range of the m870 shotgun using "00" buck shot

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buck shot is 68 meters. This means that the shotgun is most effective in hitting targets accurately within a range of 68 meters when using "00" buck shot ammunition.

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61. What is the first step in errecting the antenna mast

Explanation

The first step in erecting an antenna mast is selecting an unobstructed site. This is important because the antenna needs a clear line of sight to function properly. By choosing a site without any obstructions such as trees, buildings, or other structures, the antenna will be able to receive and transmit signals effectively. This step ensures that the antenna can operate at its maximum potential without any hindrances.

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62. How many personnel are required to errect the assembled antenna mast

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because erecting an assembled antenna mast typically requires at least two personnel to safely handle and position the mast. One person can stabilize the mast while the other person guides it into place. Having two personnel ensures that the mast is properly erected and reduces the risk of accidents or damage.

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63. How is the final protection line (FPL) sketched in on your sector?

Explanation

The final protection line (FPL) is sketched in as a thick dark line that extends out to the weapon grazing fire distance. Additionally, the top of the line is capped with an arrow. This indicates the boundary beyond which friendly forces should not cross in order to avoid being exposed to enemy fire.

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64. What is RX IF bandwith programmable for

Explanation

The RX IF bandwidth is programmable for the frequency ranges of 136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz. This means that the receiver can be adjusted to receive signals within these frequency ranges by programming the IF (Intermediate Frequency) bandwidth.

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65. What is one of the caises of failure for the push to talk (PTT) button on the portable radio

Explanation

Dirt can be one of the causes of failure for the push to talk (PTT) button on a portable radio. Dirt can accumulate over time and interfere with the proper functioning of the button, causing it to become unresponsive or malfunction. Regular cleaning and maintenance can help prevent dirt buildup and ensure the smooth operation of the PTT button.

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66. The hand grenande safety clip prevents the safety lever from

Explanation

The hand grenade safety clip is designed to prevent the safety lever from springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed. This means that even if the safety pin is removed by accident, the safety clip will still keep the safety lever in place, ensuring that the grenade does not become armed. This is an important safety feature to prevent accidental detonation of the grenade.

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67. The sights of the at4 resemble the sights of what other weapon

Explanation

The sights of the AT4 resemble the sights of the M16. This means that the two weapons have similar or identical sight systems, allowing for easier transition and familiarity for users who are already trained on the M16.

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68. Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than how many meters above the ground

Explanation

Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than 1 meter above the ground. This means that the projectile travels very close to the ground, causing it to skim or graze the surface. Grazing fire is often used in military tactics to target enemies who are hiding behind cover or in trenches, as the low trajectory of the projectile can still reach them.

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69. What type of m249 ammo is used during dry fire exercises

Explanation

During dry fire exercises, live ammunition is not used for safety reasons. Instead, dummy ammunition is used, specifically the m199 dummy round. This type of ammo does not contain any explosive or propellant, making it safe to use for training purposes. It allows soldiers to practice their firing techniques, weapon handling, and target acquisition without the risk of accidental discharge or injury.

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70. How is dead space determined on the final protective line (FPL)

Explanation

Dead space on the final protective line (FPL) is determined by having your buddy walk the FPL. Dead space refers to areas where the enemy can approach without being engaged by direct fire. By having someone walk the FPL, they can identify any areas where the line of sight is obstructed or where there are blind spots that need to be addressed. This helps ensure that the FPL provides effective coverage and minimizes the risk of the enemy infiltrating undetected.

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71. If a misfire occcurs how many sec. do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder

Explanation

If a misfire occurs, it is important to wait for a few seconds before removing the launcher from your shoulder. This is because there may still be a delay in the firing mechanism, and removing the launcher too soon could result in accidental discharge and potential harm. Waiting for 10 seconds allows for a safe period to ensure that the misfire is resolved before handling the launcher.

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72. When aiming mines with slit type peep sight and knife-edge sight how many inches to the rear of the sight do you position your eye

Explanation

When aiming mines with a slit type peep sight and knife-edge sight, you position your eye 6 inches to the rear of the sight.

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73. When confronted with a culvert obstacle whilr running field wire, the wire

Explanation

When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire should be passed through the culvert if possible. This means that instead of running the wire around or over the culvert, it should be routed through it. This is the best option because it allows the wire to be protected and prevents it from being damaged. Running the wire around or over the culvert may expose it to potential hazards or damage. Therefore, passing it through the culvert is the most suitable solution.

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74. One of these rules to remember when using the authentication sheet is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "always transmit letters not numbers". This rule suggests that when using the authentication sheet, it is important to only transmit letters and not numbers. This implies that numbers should not be used as part of the authentication process and only letters should be transmitted for authentication purposes.

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75. Which statement is a step in base station installation

Explanation

Installing the power supply is a step in base station installation because the power supply is essential for providing electricity to the base station equipment. Without a power supply, the base station would not be able to function properly. Therefore, installing the power supply is a necessary step in the overall installation process.

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76. When installing the power supply, select a flat surface

Explanation

When installing the power supply, it is recommended to select a flat surface that is 6ft away from the base station. This distance ensures that the power supply is not too close to the base station, which could potentially cause interference or other issues. By placing it 6ft away, it allows for proper spacing and optimal functioning of both the power supply and the base station.

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77. Which statement best describes the m72 law

Explanation

The statement "requires little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenance" best describes the M72 Law. This suggests that the M72 Law is a low-maintenance weapon that does not require much effort from the user, except for regular visual inspections and some maintenance work.

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78. What factors influence employment actions of the m2

Explanation

The correct answer is mission, terrain, target engagement, and rules of engagement. These factors are crucial in determining employment actions for the M2. The mission defines the purpose and objective of the M2's actions. The terrain affects the M2's mobility and positioning. Target engagement refers to identifying and engaging specific targets. Rules of engagement provide guidelines and limitations for the use of force. Considering all these factors ensures effective and appropriate employment of the M2.

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79. Supressive fire from mortars allow patrols to

Explanation

Suppressive fire from mortars allows patrols to advance closer to their objective because it provides covering fire that suppresses enemy forces and reduces their ability to engage or impede the patrol's movement. By suppressing the enemy, the patrol can move forward with less risk and gain ground towards their objective.

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80. How many meters is the avg person capable of throwing a hand granande

Explanation

The given answer states that the average person is capable of throwing a hand grenade up to 40 meters. This implies that the average person has the physical strength and ability to throw a hand grenade a distance of 40 meters.

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81. If you decide not to fire the m136 at4 what must you do immediatlely

Explanation

If you decide not to fire the M136 AT4, you must immediately replace the transport safety pin. This is necessary to ensure that the launcher remains safe and secure during transport and storage. The transport safety pin is designed to prevent accidental firing of the weapon, so replacing it is crucial to maintain safety protocols.

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82. How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before requiring re  supply

Explanation

The QFEBJ can sustain operations for 5 calendar days before requiring a re-supply.

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83. When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry the squad leader should position weapons

Explanation

The squad leader should position weapons on the most likely dismounted avenue of approach first because when the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, it is important to prioritize their potential routes of attack. By positioning weapons on the most likely dismounted avenue of approach, the squad leader can effectively cover and engage the enemy infantry, maximizing the squad's defensive capabilities. This ensures that the squad is prepared and ready to counter the primary threat they are facing.

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84. The mk19 is most effectively employed as a

Explanation

The mk19 is a type of weapon that is most effectively used as a mobile suppressive firing platform covering a specific area. This means that it is designed to be mounted on a vehicle or carried by troops and used to provide continuous and intense firepower to suppress enemy targets within a specific area. Its mobility allows it to quickly reposition and adapt to changing battlefield conditions, making it a valuable asset in combat situations.

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85. What type of cartridge is used in the m4 carbine has no projectile

Explanation

The M200 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine and does not have a projectile. This means that it is a blank cartridge, which is commonly used in military training exercises and simulations. Blank cartridges do not contain a bullet or projectile, but they still produce a loud noise and muzzle flash when fired, making them useful for training purposes.

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86. Where is the ground reciever transmitter installed in the base station

Explanation

The ground receiver transmitter is installed on the left side of the base station.

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87. How many meters is the max. effective range for a point target

Explanation

The maximum effective range for a point target is 150 meters. This means that a point target can be effectively engaged and hit accurately within a range of 150 meters. Beyond this distance, the accuracy and effectiveness of hitting the target may decrease.

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88. Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are

Explanation

The correct answer is "speedy and simplistic." Signal operating instructions (SOI) are designed to provide quick and easy-to-understand communication guidelines for base defense forces. By being speedy, the instructions can be quickly accessed and understood, allowing for efficient communication. By being simplistic, the instructions are kept concise and straightforward, ensuring that they can be easily followed and implemented.

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89. The m24 is effective against point targets on how many meters

Explanation

The M24 is effective against point targets at a distance of 800 meters.

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90. To operate the ta 312/pt in the lb mode you must

Explanation

To operate the TA 312/PT in the LB mode, you need to place the internal/external switch in the "int" position. This means that the switch should be set to internal communication mode. This allows the device to function properly for communication purposes.

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91. After you locate your grounding site and dig your hole , driving the grounding rod until the

Explanation

The correct answer is that the top of the rod should be about 3 inches above the bottom of the hole. This is because the grounding rod needs to be driven deep enough into the ground to ensure proper grounding. By having the top of the rod positioned 3 inches above the bottom of the hole, it allows for sufficient contact with the surrounding soil, which helps to effectively dissipate electrical charges and prevent electrical hazards.

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92. How many rounds is the m252 mortar max rate of fire per minute per tube

Explanation

The M252 mortar has a maximum rate of fire of 12 rounds per minute per tube. This means that each tube of the M252 mortar can fire up to 12 rounds in a minute.

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93. Leaders select fixed positions that provide the mk19 team the oppurtunity

Explanation

The correct answer is "dismount and utilize the accuracy of the T&E mechanism". This means that the leaders choose positions where the mk19 team can get off their vehicle and use the T&E (Traverse and Elevation) mechanism for increased accuracy. This suggests that the T&E mechanism is more effective when the team is dismounted rather than mounted on the vehicle.

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94. During inital power up how many seconds will the freq fill device execute a display segment

Explanation

During the initial power up, the frequency fill device will execute a display segment for 1 second.

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95. The only inderect fire weapon in the sf arsenol is

Explanation

The correct answer is the m240b machine gun. This is because the other options listed, such as the mk 19 grenade launcher, m252 81mm mortar, and m2 machine gun, are all direct fire weapons. The m240b machine gun, on the other hand, is an indirect fire weapon, meaning it is capable of firing projectiles at targets that are not in direct line of sight.

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96. One of the elements of signal operating (SOI) is

Explanation

Signal operating instructions (SOI) are comprehensive documents that provide detailed guidance for the operation of a signal system. These instructions include information on the layout, configuration, and operation of the signals, as well as any specific procedures or protocols that need to be followed. The term "complete" in this context suggests that the supplemental instructions provided in the SOI are thorough and cover all necessary aspects of signal operation, ensuring that operators have all the information they need to carry out their tasks accurately and safely.

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97. When operating the sb22 the operator uses the generator hand wheel to

Explanation

The operator uses the generator hand wheel to signal the call party when the call is extended. This means that when the operator extends a call, they can use the hand wheel to generate a ringing sound at the call party's end, indicating that the call is being connected.

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98. Why should you recover field wire after an operation

Explanation

Recovering field wire after an operation ensures that you won't have to figure out which wires are being used. By collecting the wire, you can keep track of the wires that are available for future operations and avoid confusion or potential hazards. This also allows for better organization and efficiency in future deployments.

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99. When deployed the m252 81mm mortar team consists of how many people

Explanation

The correct answer is 8. When deployed, the M252 81mm mortar team consists of eight people. This includes a team leader, gunner, assistant gunner, ammunition bearer, and four additional crew members. Each member has a specific role and responsibility in operating the mortar effectively and efficiently.

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100. Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacles are called

Explanation

A final protective line refers to the area that cannot be covered by fire from a given position due to obstacles. It is the last line of defense that provides protection against enemy forces. This term is commonly used in military tactics and strategies to ensure that all possible areas are covered and protected.

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After prolong firing the barrel of the mk19 will
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How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?
How can the m72 law be employed and fired
How many meters in the kill radius for an explosive round
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What type of ammo does the m203 fire
The claymore mine is used primarily as a
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What ball is the standard cartridge with the m9
Leaders should position weapons where they
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The m2 is very effective, versitaile weapon that is
The m2 is most effectively employed when
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How many meters for the m249 max effective range for an area target
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How many personnel are required to errect the assembled antenna mast
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What type of m249 ammo is used during dry fire exercises
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How many meters is the max. effective range for a point target
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The m24 is effective against point targets on how many meters
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After you locate your grounding site and dig your hole , driving the...
How many rounds is the m252 mortar max rate of fire per minute per...
Leaders select fixed positions that provide the mk19 team the...
During inital power up how many seconds will the freq fill device...
The only inderect fire weapon in the sf arsenol is
One of the elements of signal operating (SOI) is
When operating the sb22 the operator uses the generator hand wheel to
Why should you recover field wire after an operation
When deployed the m252 81mm mortar team consists of how many people
Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of...
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