Security Forces CDC's Volume 3

100 Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Range cards are a record of?
    • A. 

      Range Data

    • B. 

      Training

    • C. 

      Firing Data

    • D. 

      Call signs

  • 2. 
    How many range cards are prepared for each position?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 3. 
    What does the acronym TRP stand for?
    • A. 

      Team rexonnaissance patrol

    • B. 

      Total refference point

    • C. 

      Traffic relief point

    • D. 

      Target reference point

  • 4. 
    When would you fire in your secondary sector of fire?
    • A. 

      When your primary field of fire is blocked

    • B. 

      When you see friendly forces

    • C. 

      When ordered to fire there

    • D. 

      To test fire your weapon

  • 5. 
    How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 6. 
    The final protective line is the line that?
    • A. 

      Sets up your mortars

    • B. 

      Plans all team movements

    • C. 

      Places your sniper weapons

    • D. 

      Shoots grazing fire across your sector front

  • 7. 
    What are target reference points?
    • A. 

      Natural features used to quickly locate targets

    • B. 

      Synthetic features used to quickly locate targets

    • C. 

      Manmade features used to quickly locate targets

    • D. 

      Natural or manmade features used to quickly locate targets

  • 8. 
    What are the target reference points used for?
    • A. 

      Controls direct-fire weapons but may be used for indirect fire weapons

    • B. 

      Constructs direct-fire weapons position

    • C. 

      Constructs positions for inirect fire only

    • D. 

      Controls weapon positions

  • 9. 
    The information included in the marginal date section of the range card is position #
    • A. 

      Unit, weapon type, north azimuth, ID numbers

    • B. 

      Weapon, magnetic north, back azimuth, sensor id points

    • C. 

      Weapons, sensor ID number, south azimuth grid, and dates

    • D. 

      Weapon, unit, call sign/date,meters each circle represents, sensor ID numbers

  • 10. 
    Where would you sketch in the magnetic north data in on your range card?
    • A. 

      Par one

    • B. 

      Regional data block

    • C. 

      Marginal data section

    • D. 

      Where you can locate it quickly

  • 11. 
    How is the final protection line (FPL) sketched in on your sector?
    • A. 

      Double dash dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance

    • B. 

      Thick dark line with dashes out to your weapon grazing fire distance

    • C. 

      Light line out to your weapon grazing fire distance and capping the top with an arrow

    • D. 

      Thick dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance and capping the top with an arrow

  • 12. 
    How is dead space determined on the final protective line (FPL)
    • A. 

      By walking the perimeter

    • B. 

      Having your buddy walk the fpl

    • C. 

      Running the fpl

    • D. 

      Having your budy walk the principal direction of fire (PDF)

  • 13. 
    The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using
    • A. 

      Solid line on boundary

    • B. 

      Dashes only on the boundry

    • C. 

      Dark line on the boundry only

    • D. 

      Broken or dashed line on the boundry

  • 14. 
    How many operating positions does the m4 stock have
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 15. 
    What is the function of the forward assist?
    • A. 

      Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures

    • B. 

      Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures

    • C. 

      Unlock the bolt and secure the charging handle

    • D. 

      Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures

  • 16. 
    The accronym s.p.o.r.t.s  stands for?
    • A. 

      Slap, push, open, recall, and squeeze

    • B. 

      Smooth, open, recoil, tap by squeezing

    • C. 

      Slap, pull, observe, release, squeeze

    • D. 

      Slap, push, tap, observe, rab, and squeeze

  • 17. 
    The primary purpose of preventative maintinance is to keep weapons
    • A. 

      Cleaned and properly lubricated

    • B. 

      Clean and dry and lubricated

    • C. 

      Parts completly oiled

    • D. 

      In like new condition

  • 18. 
    What is the standard round with the m4 rifle
    • A. 

      M856 tracer

    • B. 

      M855 ball

    • C. 

      M199 dummy

    • D. 

      M193 ball

  • 19. 
    What type of ammo is used in the m4 but has no primer
    • A. 

      M193 ball

    • B. 

      N196 tracer

    • C. 

      M199 dummy

    • D. 

      M200 ball

  • 20. 
    What type of cartridge is used in the m4 carbine has no projectile
    • A. 

      M193

    • B. 

      M199

    • C. 

      M200

    • D. 

      M855

  • 21. 
    How many meters is the max range for the m9
    • A. 

      600

    • B. 

      800

    • C. 

      1100

    • D. 

      1800

  • 22. 
    The front and rear sites for the m9 pistol are
    • A. 

      Fixed

    • B. 

      Elevated

    • C. 

      Calibrated

    • D. 

      Adjustable

  • 23. 
    On the m9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
    • A. 

      Loaded chamber indicator

    • B. 

      Reset the firing pin block

    • C. 

      Chambering

    • D. 

      Releasing slide

  • 24. 
    What ball is the standard cartridge with the m9
    • A. 

      M882

    • B. 

      M862

    • C. 

      M856

    • D. 

      M855

  • 25. 
    M882 ammo is used against what tupe of target
    • A. 

      Antiperssonel vehicle

    • B. 

      Perssonell

    • C. 

      Vehicles

    • D. 

      Tanks

  • 26. 
    What type of ammo does the m203 fire
    • A. 

      High explosive dual purpose only

    • B. 

      40mm low velocity

    • C. 

      42mm high velocity

    • D. 

      Combo of high/low velocity

  • 27. 
    How many meters is the max. effective range for a point target
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      350

    • C. 

      250

    • D. 

      150

  • 28. 
    How many meters in the kill radius for an explosive round
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 29. 
    Under what condition would you use mk19 ammo in the m203
    • A. 

      Under no circumstance

    • B. 

      When directed

    • C. 

      Emergencies

    • D. 

      Last resort

  • 30. 
    What type of m249 ammo is used during dry fire exercises
    • A. 

      M856 tracer

    • B. 

      M855 ball

    • C. 

      M199 dummy

    • D. 

      M200 blank

  • 31. 
    How many meters for the m249 max effective range for an area target
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      400

    • C. 

      600

    • D. 

      800

  • 32. 
    In meters what is the max eff range for the m240 bravo for a point target with tripod
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      800

    • C. 

      1100

    • D. 

      1800

  • 33. 
    In meters what is the max eff range of the m870 shotgun using "00" buck shot
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      68

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      88

  • 34. 
    When employed in a physical security the m870 is effecttive because
    • A. 

      It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment

    • B. 

      Entry controllers can stop or slow down vehicles

    • C. 

      Of its close quarter capabilities

    • D. 

      Of its psychological effect

  • 35. 
    How are designated marksman employed
    • A. 

      Individually

    • B. 

      As a pair

    • C. 

      Idividually or as a pair

    • D. 

      As determined by the csf

  • 36. 
    Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision equipment (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams are
    • A. 

      Squad leader

    • B. 

      Support element sniper

    • C. 

      Reconnissance and close precision support

    • D. 

      Response, overwatch, screening, and reconninssance

  • 37. 
    The min and max grade before being considered for marksman is
    • A. 

      Amm-Sra

    • B. 

      Sra-SSgt

    • C. 

      SSgt-Tsgt

    • D. 

      Sra-MSgt

  • 38. 
    The m24 is effective against point targets on how many meters
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      600

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      1000

  • 39. 
    What are the 3 common charateristics that hand granandes share
    • A. 

      Mid range employment and delay for throwing

    • B. 

      Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing

    • C. 

      Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

    • D. 

      Medium employment range, short casuallty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

  • 40. 
    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenandes
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      15

  • 41. 
    How many meters is the avg person capable of throwing a hand granande
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 42. 
    The hand grenande safety clip prevents the safety lever from
    • A. 

      Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed

    • B. 

      Accidentaly breaking loose if dropped inadvertently

    • C. 

      Accidentaly arming the grenande when removed

    • D. 

      Springing open if the safety pin is damaged

  • 43. 
    How can the m72 law be employed and fired
    • A. 

      Shoulder, sitting, and only prone position

    • B. 

      Sitting kneeling, and over barricade

    • C. 

      Standing kneeling and over barricade

    • D. 

      Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling

  • 44. 
    Which statement best describes the m72 law
    • A. 

      Requires low maintanance and inspections monthly

    • B. 

      High maintanince weapon that requires periodic maintenence

    • C. 

      Light weight anti armor weapon requring maintenence on a quarterly basis

    • D. 

      Reqiures little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenence

  • 45. 
    If the trigger arming handle fails to stay in the arm position check
    • A. 

      Safety handle

    • B. 

      Firing spring

    • C. 

      Launcher for dents

    • D. 

      To see if the launcher is fully extended

  • 46. 
    If a misfire occcurs how many sec. do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 47. 
    The sights of the at4 resemble the sights of what other weapon
    • A. 

      M16

    • B. 

      M4

    • C. 

      M240b

    • D. 

      M249 saw

  • 48. 
    If you decide not to fire the m136 at4 what must you do immediatlely
    • A. 

      De cock the launcher

    • B. 

      Replace the transport safety strap

    • C. 

      Replace transport safety pin

    • D. 

      Remove spent ammmo cartridge

  • 49. 
    The claymore mine is used primarily as a
    • A. 

      Offensive weapon

    • B. 

      Deffensive weapon

    • C. 

      Passive defense weapon

    • D. 

      Active defense weapon

  • 50. 
    When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a
    • A. 

      Lethal force weapon

    • B. 

      Mine or booby trap

    • C. 

      Active force multiplyer

    • D. 

      Precision engagement weapon

  • 51. 
    The two detanator wells on top of the claymore allow for
    • A. 

      Single or multiple priming

    • B. 

      Multiple or duel priming

    • C. 

      Single or dual priming

    • D. 

      Single, dual, and multiple priming

  • 52. 
    How is the claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan
    • A. 

      Reduce the enemies mobility only

    • B. 

      Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks

    • C. 

      Direct enemy formations for counter attack

    • D. 

      Channel forces for reengagment at later time

  • 53. 
    For effective coverage of the entire front of a position place mines in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than
    • A. 

      45meters

    • B. 

      55meters

    • C. 

      65meters

    • D. 

      75meters

  • 54. 
    The final step in laying a mine is to turn the legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a
    • A. 

      45 degree angle

    • B. 

      60 degree angle

    • C. 

      90 degree angle

    • D. 

      120 degree angle

  • 55. 
    When aiming mines with slit type peep sight and knife-edge sight how many inches to the rear of the sight do you position your eye
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 56. 
    Where should the claymore firing position be located
    • A. 

      BDOC and open postion

    • B. 

      Foxhole and covered position

    • C. 

      Command center

    • D. 

      Control center

  • 57. 
    After prolong firing the barrel of the mk19 will
    • A. 

      Melt

    • B. 

      Overheat

    • C. 

      Not overheat

    • D. 

      Become pitted inside

  • 58. 
    How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before requiring re  supply
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 59. 
    The mk19 is most effectively employed as a
    • A. 

      Static firing platform covering a specific area

    • B. 

      Monunted firing platform covering a specific area

    • C. 

      Mobile supressive firing platform covering a specific area

    • D. 

      Unmounted supressive firing platform covering a specific area

  • 60. 
    The mk19 has little effect on which type of targets
    • A. 

      Unarmored

    • B. 

      Light armored

    • C. 

      Main battle tanks

    • D. 

      Armored personell carriers

  • 61. 
    The mk19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for
    • A. 

      Point and area targers

    • B. 

      Mounted targets

    • C. 

      Fixed targets

    • D. 

      Static targets

  • 62. 
    The m2 is very effective, versitaile weapon that is
    • A. 

      Air cooled and blow back operated

    • B. 

      Belt fed, recoil operated, and air cooled

    • C. 

      Mag fed, air cooled, recoil operated

    • D. 

      Recoil operated, aor cooled, and blow back operated

  • 63. 
    What is the max number of meters  50 cal machine gun
    • A. 

      1800

    • B. 

      2212

    • C. 

      3600

    • D. 

      6764

  • 64. 
    The m2 is most effectively employed when
    • A. 

      In the free gun position

    • B. 

      In the fixed static position

    • C. 

      On a mobile platform

    • D. 

      Positioned on the ground

  • 65. 
    What factors influence employment actions of the m2
    • A. 

      Mission, terrain, and rules of engagment only

    • B. 

      Rules of engagment, collateral damage, and mission

    • C. 

      Mission, terrain, target engagment, rules of engagment

    • D. 

      Terrain, rules of engagment, and capacity for collateral damage

  • 66. 
    Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than how many meters above the ground
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 67. 
    When deployed the m252 81mm mortar team consists of how many people
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 68. 
    How many rounds is the m252 mortar max rate of fire per minute per tube
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 69. 
    Which type of round is used for fragmentation and blast effect
    • A. 

      Training

    • B. 

      Illumination

    • C. 

      HIgh explosive

    • D. 

      Red/ white phosphurus

  • 70. 
    The only inderect fire weapon in the sf arsenol is
    • A. 

      M240b machine gun

    • B. 

      Mk 19 grenande launcher

    • C. 

      M252 81mm mortar

    • D. 

      M2 machine gun

  • 71. 
    Supressive fire from mortars allow patrols to
    • A. 

      Counterattack

    • B. 

      Retrograde and regroup

    • C. 

      Advance closer to their object

    • D. 

      Retreat before the fire is lifted or shifted

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Protect, avoid detection, and suprise enemy with lethal fire

    • B. 

      Have the greatest probability of success during engagement

    • C. 

      Believe they will not be destroyed in a fire fight

    • D. 

      Have no chane of being targeted by the enemy

  • 73. 
    When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry the squad leader should position weapons
    • A. 

      To cover obstacles

    • B. 

      To tie in with adjacent units

    • C. 

      Most likely mounted ave of approach list

    • D. 

      On most likey dismounted ave of approach first

  • 74. 
    Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacles are called
    • A. 

      Grazing fire

    • B. 

      Dead space

    • C. 

      Final protective line

    • D. 

      Principle direction of fire

  • 75. 
    Leaders select fixed positions that provide the mk19 team the oppurtunity
    • A. 

      Dismount and utilize the the accuracy of the T&E mechanism

    • B. 

      Mount and utilize the T&E mechansim for stability

    • C. 

      Select positions of primary concern

    • D. 

      Establish final protective lines

  • 76. 
    The first step in connecting the the line to the TA 312 is
    • A. 

      Strip away one inch of instalation from the ends of the 2 wires

    • B. 

      Seat the handset firmly in the retainingcradle

    • C. 

      Adjust buzzer volume control knob to loud

    • D. 

      Turn the int ext switch to int

  • 77. 
    To operate the ta 312/pt in the lb mode you must
    • A. 

      Remove h60/pt from cradle and wait for the operator to answer

    • B. 

      Press the press to talk switch and release to listen

    • C. 

      Place the int/ext switch int int position

    • D. 

      Ensure the int/ext switch is on ext

  • 78. 
    When operating the sb22 the operator uses the generator hand wheel to
    • A. 

      Ring forward or ring back when extending off telephone circuts

    • B. 

      Provide connection for the operators telephone set

    • C. 

      Signal the call party when the call is extended

    • D. 

      Answer incoming calls

  • 79. 
    After you locate your grounding site and dig your hole , driving the grounding rod until the
    • A. 

      Middle of the rod is about 1inch above the bottom of the hole

    • B. 

      Top of the rod is about 3inch above the bottom of the hole

    • C. 

      Bottom of the rod is about 1inch above the bottom of the hole

    • D. 

      Top of the rod is about 3 inches above the bottom of the hole

  • 80. 
    When should hard wire lines be inspected
    • A. 

      Before installation and daily when installed

    • B. 

      Twice daily after installation

    • C. 

      Four times a week

    • D. 

      Before burial

  • 81. 
    When confronted with a culvert obstacle whilr running field wire, the wire
    • A. 

      Should always be run around the culvert

    • B. 

      Should be run over the culvert when possible

    • C. 

      Should be passed thro a culvert if possible

    • D. 

      Could be put on top to reduce the possibility being damaged

  • 82. 
    What is a hot loop
    • A. 

      Special line designated for emergencies only

    • B. 

      Special line established for the command post

    • C. 

      Contiuous line of field wire laid out on the perimeter

    • D. 

      Continuous line connected to every phone and switchboard

  • 83. 
    Why should you recover field wire after an operation
    • A. 

      So the next deployment squad doesnt use it

    • B. 

      Leaving the wire makes future operations easier

    • C. 

      So the enemy cant use it or interfere with other operations

    • D. 

      So that you wont have to figure out which wires are being used

  • 84. 
    After the conductors have been cut how many inches should they be staggered when splicing the wire
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 85. 
    Which channel on the analog portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 86. 
    To remove the antenna from the reciever on an analog /portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 you must
    • A. 

      Turn the antenna clockwise

    • B. 

      Loosen the antenna from the top

    • C. 

      Turn the antenna counter clockwise

    • D. 

      Loosen the antenna from the bottom

  • 87. 
    During inital power up how many seconds will the freq fill device execute a display segment
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

  • 88. 
    What is RX IF bandwith programmable for
    • A. 

      133-154 MHz and 203-270 MHz reciever

    • B. 

      136-174 MHz and 403-470 MHz reciever

    • C. 

      139-194 MHz and 603-670 MHz reciever

    • D. 

      154-214 MHz and 803-870 MHz reciever

  • 89. 
    Which statement is a step in base station installation
    • A. 

      Finding a good ground location

    • B. 

      Inspecting the strap assembly

    • C. 

      Installing the power supply

    • D. 

      Setting up the operations tent

  • 90. 
    When installing the power supply, select a flat surface
    • A. 

      Near the external loud speaker

    • B. 

      10 feet from the generator unit

    • C. 

      Next to the battery recharger

    • D. 

      6ft from the base station

  • 91. 
    Where is the ground reciever transmitter installed in the base station
    • A. 

      On top

    • B. 

      Left side

    • C. 

      Right side

    • D. 

      Center slot

  • 92. 
    When is programming cable used with the base station
    • A. 

      For headset use

    • B. 

      In desert climates

    • C. 

      When using giant voice connections

    • D. 

      For external programming of the portable radio communications (PRC) 139

  • 93. 
    What is one of the caises of failure for the push to talk (PTT) button on the portable radio
    • A. 

      Lack of power

    • B. 

      Operator error

    • C. 

      Dry circuts

    • D. 

      Dirt

  • 94. 
    What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunction in the radio
    • A. 

      Submersion in 6inch of water

    • B. 

      Dead batteries

    • C. 

      Bad antennas

    • D. 

      Weapons oil

  • 95. 
    What is the first step in errecting the antenna mast
    • A. 

      Selecting wooded area

    • B. 

      Assembling the antenna mast anchors

    • C. 

      Selecting an unobstructed site

    • D. 

      Camoflauging the the antenna

  • 96. 
    How many personnel are required to errect the assembled antenna mast
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      5

  • 97. 
    One of the elements of signal operating (SOI) is
    • A. 

      Accurate supplemental instuructions

    • B. 

      Complete supplemental instuructions

    • C. 

      Brief supplemental instuructions

    • D. 

      Clear supplemental instuructions

  • 98. 
    Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are
    • A. 

      Fairly accurate and speedy

    • B. 

      Concise and accurate

    • C. 

      Speedy and in depth

    • D. 

      Speedy and simplistic

  • 99. 
    Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications
    • A. 

      Brevity codes

    • B. 

      Authentic transmissions

    • C. 

      Localized decoding procedures

    • D. 

      Localized encoding procedures

  • 100. 
    One of these rules to remember when using the authentication sheet is to
    • A. 

      Transmit letters and mumbers

    • B. 

      Always transmit letters not numbers

    • C. 

      Remember the last letter you recieve must be even and set

    • D. 

      Remember that the first three letters you pass or recieve must be set letters