5 Level CDC Test (2A654)_vol 1_edc 05

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5 Level CDC Test (2A654)_vol 1_edc 05 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What does the 3rd character in an AFSC identify?

    • A.

      Career Field

    • B.

      Skill Level

    • C.

      Functional Area

    • D.

      Specific Expertise

    Correct Answer
    B. Skill Level
    Explanation
    The 3rd character in an AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) identifies the skill level. The AFSC is a code used by the United States Air Force to identify a specific job or career field. The skill level indicates the proficiency and experience level of the individual in that particular career field.

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  • 2. 

    (002) How are tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) identified as upgrade requirements?

    • A.

      They are assigned

    • B.

      With an asterisk

    • C.

      They will be highlighted

    • D.

      Tasks in the STS do not require identification

    Correct Answer
    A. They are assigned
    Explanation
    Tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) are identified as upgrade requirements by being assigned to the trainee. This means that the trainee is given specific tasks to complete as part of their training, which are considered necessary for them to progress and upgrade their skills. This ensures that trainees are actively engaged in their training and are able to demonstrate competency in the identified tasks before moving on to the next level of training.

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  • 3. 

    (003) What are your responsibilities concerning sealant, in addition to its application?

    • A.

      Inspect and determine shelf life of sealants

    • B.

      Verify and determine service life of sealants, and dispose of them according to OSHA standards

    • C.

      Handle, label, and dispose of sealant according to OSHA standards

    • D.

      Inspect, verify, and determine shelf and service life of sealants

    Correct Answer
    D. Inspect, verify, and determine shelf and service life of sealants
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to inspect, verify, and determine the shelf and service life of sealants. This means that in addition to applying sealants, it is also the responsibility to regularly inspect and verify the condition of sealants, as well as determine their shelf life (how long they can be stored before they expire) and service life (how long they can effectively perform their intended function). This ensures that only sealants that are within their usable lifespan are used, and any expired or deteriorated sealants are not used, promoting safety and effectiveness.

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  • 4. 

    (004) What are the three types of wings?

    • A.

      Medical, Maintenance, Missile Support

    • B.

      Operational, Air Base, Specialized Mission

    • C.

      Staff, Controller, Services

    • D.

      Mission Support, Logistics, Intelligence

    Correct Answer
    B. Operational, Air Base, Specialized Mission
    Explanation
    The three types of wings mentioned in the answer are Operational, Air Base, and Specialized Mission. These types of wings are commonly found in military organizations and are responsible for different functions. Operational wings are involved in combat operations and executing missions. Air Base wings focus on the management and support of air bases, including infrastructure and logistics. Specialized Mission wings are responsible for specific tasks or operations, such as intelligence gathering or reconnaissance.

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  • 5. 

    (005) Who is viewed as the technical authority and advisor in each duty section?

    • A.

      Squadron Commander

    • B.

      Flight Chief

    • C.

      Section Chief

    • D.

      Workcenter Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    C. Section Chief
    Explanation
    The Section Chief is viewed as the technical authority and advisor in each duty section. They are responsible for overseeing the operations and activities of their respective sections, providing guidance and expertise to their subordinates, and ensuring that all tasks and responsibilities are carried out effectively and efficiently. They serve as a point of contact for any technical issues or questions that arise within the section and are responsible for making decisions and providing solutions based on their knowledge and experience in the field.

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  • 6. 

    (006) Who administers the squadron safety program?

    • A.

      Squadron Commander

    • B.

      Flight Chief

    • C.

      Section Chief

    • D.

      Workcenter Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The squadron safety program is administered by the Squadron Commander. As the highest-ranking officer in the squadron, the Squadron Commander is responsible for overseeing all aspects of the squadron's operations, including safety. They are in charge of setting safety policies, implementing safety procedures, and ensuring that all personnel are trained and aware of safety protocols. The Squadron Commander's role is crucial in maintaining a safe and secure environment for all squadron members.

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  • 7. 

    (007) What product includes scheduled events such as flight schedules, aircraft inspections, time changes, and TCTOs?

    • A.

      Monthly maintenance plan

    • B.

      Maintenance operations

    • C.

      Maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP)

    • D.

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly maintenance plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Monthly maintenance plan. A monthly maintenance plan includes scheduled events such as flight schedules, aircraft inspections, time changes, and Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTOs). This plan helps to ensure that all necessary maintenance tasks are scheduled and completed in a timely manner, allowing for efficient and effective maintenance operations.

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  • 8. 

    (008) Which of the following is a dynamic inspection system designed to improve aircraft combat capability?

    • A.

      Monthly maintenance plan

    • B.

      Maintenance operations

    • C.

      Maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP)

    • D.

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) is a dynamic inspection system that is designed to improve aircraft combat capability. It focuses on standardizing maintenance procedures and evaluating the effectiveness of these procedures. By implementing MSEP, aircraft maintenance can be more efficient and consistent, leading to improved combat readiness and overall aircraft performance.

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  • 9. 

    (009) Which inspection requires skills, equipment, and facilities beyond your normal duties?

    • A.

      Phased

    • B.

      Periodic

    • C.

      Programmed depot maintenance (PDM)

    • D.

      Isochronal

    Correct Answer
    C. Programmed depot maintenance (PDM)
    Explanation
    Programmed depot maintenance (PDM) requires skills, equipment, and facilities beyond normal duties because it involves a comprehensive and extensive inspection of equipment or systems. PDM is a planned maintenance activity that is conducted at designated maintenance depots to ensure the overall health and readiness of the equipment. This type of inspection often involves disassembling, repairing, and reassembling complex systems or components, which requires specialized skills, tools, and facilities that may not be available in regular maintenance operations.

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  • 10. 

    (010) Which inspection is applicable to any aircraft which is scheduled for an immediate turnaround?

    • A.

      Hourly post flight

    • B.

      Thru-flight

    • C.

      End-of-runway

    • D.

      Preflight

    Correct Answer
    B. Thru-flight
    Explanation
    Thru-flight inspection is applicable to any aircraft scheduled for an immediate turnaround. This inspection is conducted between flights and includes a visual check of the aircraft's exterior, fuel levels, and general condition. It ensures that the aircraft is safe and ready for the next flight without requiring extensive maintenance or repairs.

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  • 11. 

    (011) Which inspection does the HPO inspection augment?

    • A.

      Isochronal

    • B.

      Phased

    • C.

      BPO

    • D.

      PDM

    Correct Answer
    C. BPO
    Explanation
    The HPO inspection augments the Phased inspection.

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  • 12. 

    (012) Which inspections are included in the isochronal inspection system?

    • A.

      Major, Calendar, and Depot

    • B.

      HPO, BPO, and Phased

    • C.

      Major, Minor, and BPO

    • D.

      Major, Minor, and HSC

    Correct Answer
    D. Major, Minor, and HSC
    Explanation
    The isochronal inspection system includes major, minor, and HSC inspections. Major inspections are comprehensive checks that involve extensive disassembly and inspection of aircraft components. Minor inspections are less extensive and focus on specific areas or systems. HSC (Horizontal Stabilizer Check) inspections specifically target the horizontal stabilizer, which is an important component for stability and control of the aircraft. These inspections are all part of the isochronal inspection system, which is a planned maintenance program that ensures the aircraft is thoroughly inspected and maintained at regular intervals.

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  • 13. 

    (013) When is an acceptace inspection performed?

    • A.

      During special inspections

    • B.

      On all newly-assigned aircraft

    • C.

      When an aircraft is transferred from one Air Force unit to another

    • D.

      Every 30- and 90-days

    Correct Answer
    B. On all newly-assigned aircraft
    Explanation
    An acceptance inspection is performed on all newly-assigned aircraft. This inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft meets all the necessary requirements and is in a satisfactory condition before it is put into service. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems, components, and documentation to verify its airworthiness and readiness for operational use. This inspection is crucial to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft and to prevent any potential issues or defects from causing problems during flight operations.

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  • 14. 

    (014) The pre-inspection phase consists of_____.

    • A.

      Pre-inspection meeting, aircraft preparation, and inspection area preparation

    • B.

      Major, Minor, and HSC inspection concepts

    • C.

      Look, Fix, Post-inspection

    • D.

      Aircraft preparation, inspection area preparation, and post-inspection phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-inspection meeting, aircraft preparation, and inspection area preparation
    Explanation
    The pre-inspection phase involves several key activities that need to be completed before conducting an inspection. These activities include holding a pre-inspection meeting to discuss the objectives and scope of the inspection, ensuring that the aircraft is properly prepared for inspection by checking its systems and components, and preparing the inspection area by ensuring that it is clean, organized, and equipped with the necessary tools and equipment. These activities are essential in ensuring that the inspection process runs smoothly and effectively.

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  • 15. 

    (015) Which red maintenance symbol indicates the condition of the equipment is unknown?

    • A.

      Info note

    • B.

      Red X

    • C.

      Red diagonal

    • D.

      Red dash

    Correct Answer
    D. Red dash
    Explanation
    The red dash maintenance symbol indicates that the condition of the equipment is unknown. This symbol is used when there is uncertainty about the status or functionality of the equipment. It serves as a warning to exercise caution and not to rely on the equipment until its condition is verified.

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  • 16. 

    (016) What type of discrepancies do not require documentation on AFTO Form 781A?

    • A.

      Info notes

    • B.

      Warning tags

    • C.

      Battle damage

    • D.

      All discrepancies need to be documented

    Correct Answer
    C. Battle damage
    Explanation
    Battle damage is an exception to the rule and does not require documentation on AFTO Form 781A. This means that if there is any battle damage found, it does not need to be recorded on the form. However, all other discrepancies such as info notes and warning tags should be documented on the form.

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  • 17. 

    (017) Which form are integral fuel tank leaks documented on?

    • A.

      AFTO Form 244

    • B.

      AFTO Form 427

    • C.

      AFTO Form 781K

    • D.

      AFTO Form 781H

    Correct Answer
    B. AFTO Form 427
    Explanation
    Integral fuel tank leaks are documented on AFTO Form 427. This form is used to record all fuel system maintenance actions and inspections, including any leaks or repairs to integral fuel tanks. It provides a detailed record of the maintenance history and helps ensure that all necessary repairs are completed and documented properly.

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  • 18. 

    (018) What percentage of accidents is due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods?

    • A.

      1%

    • B.

      2%

    • C.

      3%

    • D.

      4%

    Correct Answer
    B. 2%
    Explanation
    According to the given information, the percentage of accidents that are due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods, is 2%.

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  • 19. 

    (019) Which are two types of distracters found in the workcenter?

    • A.

      Despondent and displacement

    • B.

      External and despondent

    • C.

      Internal and external

    • D.

      Despondent and internal

    Correct Answer
    C. Internal and external
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal and external. Distracters are factors that can distract or divert attention away from the task at hand. Internal distracters refer to distractions that originate within an individual, such as personal thoughts, emotions, or physical discomfort. External distracters, on the other hand, come from the environment and can include noise, interruptions, or visual distractions. Therefore, the workcenter can be affected by both internal and external distracters.

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  • 20. 

    (020) An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of three or more personnel. This mishap would be classified as--

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    B. Class B
    Explanation
    An accident resulting in the hospitalization of three or more personnel is classified as Class B. This classification indicates that the accident caused a significant injury or illness that required medical treatment beyond first aid and may result in temporary or permanent disability. Class B accidents are considered serious and require investigation to determine the cause and prevent future incidents.

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  • 21. 

    (021) Where should a personnel-static-discharge plate be mounted?

    • A.

      At the door before entering the open repair area

    • B.

      At each entrance/exit of the open fuel repair area

    • C.

      At the entrance of work stands used during fuel system repair

    • D.

      At each grounding point in the open repair area

    Correct Answer
    C. At the entrance of work stands used during fuel system repair
    Explanation
    A personnel-static-discharge plate should be mounted at the entrance of work stands used during fuel system repair. This is because work stands are commonly used in fuel system repair, and they can accumulate static electricity. By placing the discharge plate at the entrance of these work stands, it helps to safely dissipate any static electricity that may have built up, reducing the risk of sparks or ignition in the fuel system repair area.

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  • 22. 

    (022) What is the minimum safe distance from the jet engine exhaust?

    • A.

      50 feet

    • B.

      100 feet

    • C.

      200 feet

    • D.

      300 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 200 feet
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance from the jet engine exhaust is 200 feet. This distance is necessary to prevent individuals from being exposed to the high temperatures, strong winds, and potential debris that are produced by the engine exhaust. Being too close to the exhaust can pose a significant risk to personal safety, so it is important to maintain a safe distance of at least 200 feet.

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  • 23. 

    (023) Which is the most difficult class of foreign object damage (FOD) to control?

    • A.

      Metal

    • B.

      Stone

    • C.

      Organic

    • D.

      Miscellaneous

    Correct Answer
    B. Stone
    Explanation
    Stone is the most difficult class of foreign object damage (FOD) to control because it is hard, dense, and can cause significant damage to aircraft engines and other components. Unlike metal or organic materials, stones are not easily detectable and can be ingested into the engine, leading to costly repairs and potential safety hazards. Additionally, stones can be found in various environments, making it challenging to completely eliminate the risk of FOD from stones.

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  • 24. 

    (025) Which fuel spill is considered a ground mishap and requires response by the senior fire official on the installation?

    • A.

      Class I

    • B.

      Class II

    • C.

      Class III

    • D.

      Class IV

    Correct Answer
    C. Class III
    Explanation
    A Class III fuel spill is considered a ground mishap and requires response by the senior fire official on the installation. This classification refers to spills of flammable liquids such as gasoline, diesel fuel, and aviation fuel. These types of spills can pose a significant fire hazard and require immediate attention and expertise to ensure proper containment and cleanup. Therefore, the senior fire official is responsible for coordinating the response and ensuring the safety of personnel and property.

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  • 25. 

    (024) What is "volatility"?

    • A.

      The changing of a liquid to a gas

    • B.

      Conductivity

    • C.

      The explosive limit

    • D.

      The rate at which fuel vaporizes

    Correct Answer
    D. The rate at which fuel vaporizes
    Explanation
    Volatility refers to the rate at which a substance, in this case fuel, vaporizes. It measures how quickly a liquid turns into a gas. This is an important characteristic to consider in industries such as fuel production and storage, as it determines how easily a substance can ignite and how quickly it can evaporate.

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  • 26. 

    (026) Which are the 3 hazards associated with compressed air?

    • A.

      Air pressure, flying particles, and noise

    • B.

      Air pressure, compressed gas, and FOD

    • C.

      Nitrogen, external distracters, and compressed gasses

    • D.

      FOD, air pressure, and flying particles

    Correct Answer
    A. Air pressure, flying particles, and noise
    Explanation
    Compressed air can be hazardous due to the high air pressure it generates. This pressure can cause injury if it comes into contact with the body or if it is released suddenly. Additionally, compressed air can carry flying particles, such as dust or debris, which can also cause injury if they come into contact with the eyes or skin. Lastly, the release of compressed air can produce loud noise levels, which can be harmful to hearing if proper protection is not worn.

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  • 27. 

    (027) Respirator training must be documented on--

    • A.

      AF Form 44

    • B.

      AF Form 55

    • C.

      AF Form 623

    • D.

      AFTO Form 244

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Respirator training must be documented on AF Form 55 because this form is specifically designed for documenting individual training and qualification records. It provides a standardized format for recording information related to respirator training, including the date of training, type of respirator used, and the individual's level of proficiency. By using AF Form 55, organizations can easily track and verify that their personnel have received the necessary training and are qualified to use respirators safely and effectively.

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  • 28. 

    (028) When are the white cotton coveralls worn?

    • A.

      During wet fuel operations, fuel foam removal/installation, and during fuel tank/cell entry

    • B.

      After the completion of wet fuel operations

    • C.

      They can be worn for both wet fuel operations and after the completion thereof

    • D.

      White cotton coveralls may never be worn by Aircraft Fuel Systems personnel

    Correct Answer
    B. After the completion of wet fuel operations
  • 29. 

    (029) What should you do to a self-contained emergency eyewash station before beginning any fuel systems maintenance?

    • A.

      Check the expiration date

    • B.

      Place the unit directly outside the repair area

    • C.

      Flush the unit

    • D.

      Ensure the unit is filled with fresh water

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensure the unit is filled with fresh water
    Explanation
    Before beginning any fuel systems maintenance, it is important to ensure that the self-contained emergency eyewash station is filled with fresh water. This is because the eyewash station is designed to provide immediate flushing of the eyes in case of any chemical or fuel-related accidents. If the unit is not filled with fresh water, it will not be able to effectively flush the eyes and provide the necessary first aid. Therefore, ensuring that the unit is filled with fresh water is crucial for the safety and well-being of the individuals working on the fuel systems.

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  • 30. 

    (030) Which is a complete listing of technical orders (TOs) for a specific weapons system?

    • A.

      List of applicable pages

    • B.

      Alphabetical index TO

    • C.

      List of applicable publications (LOAP)

    • D.

      Cross reference table

    Correct Answer
    C. List of applicable publications (LOAP)
    Explanation
    The List of Applicable Publications (LOAP) is a complete listing of technical orders (TOs) for a specific weapons system. It provides a comprehensive list of all the relevant publications that pertain to the particular weapons system, including all the necessary technical orders. This list is essential for anyone working with or maintaining the weapons system, as it ensures that all the required publications are readily accessible and available for reference.

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  • 31. 

    (031) What type of operations and maintenance (O&M) TO enables you to isolate a malfunctioning component?

    • A.

      General vehicle (GV)

    • B.

      Job guide (JG)

    • C.

      Checklists (CL)

    • D.

      Troubleshooting (TS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Troubleshooting (TS)
    Explanation
    Troubleshooting (TS) enables you to isolate a malfunctioning component during operations and maintenance (O&M). It involves identifying and resolving problems in a systematic way, using various techniques such as diagnostic tests, analysis, and logical reasoning. By following troubleshooting procedures, technicians can identify the specific component that is causing the malfunction and take appropriate actions to fix or replace it. This helps in minimizing downtime and ensuring the smooth functioning of the system.

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  • 32. 

    (032) What 3 TCTO categories are authorized?

    • A.

      Immediate, Urgent, Routine

    • B.

      Immediate, Emergency, Routine

    • C.

      Emergency, Urgent, Routine

    • D.

      Emergency, Interim, Routine

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediate, Urgent, Routine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Immediate, Urgent, Routine. These three categories of Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTOs) are authorized for implementation. Immediate TCTOs are required to be accomplished within 24 hours to prevent injury or damage to personnel or equipment. Urgent TCTOs are required to be accomplished within 10 calendar days to prevent injury or damage to personnel or equipment. Routine TCTOs are required to be accomplished within 60 calendar days and are not time-critical.

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  • 33. 

    (033) Which TO gives detailed information on how to correctly complete AFTO forms?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-5-18

    • C.

      00-20-1

    • D.

      00-20-3

    Correct Answer
    C. 00-20-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-20-1. This TO (Technical Order) provides detailed information on how to correctly complete AFTO (Aerospace Force Technical Order) forms. It is likely that this TO specifically covers the procedures, guidelines, and instructions for accurately filling out AFTO forms, ensuring that all necessary information is recorded correctly.

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  • 34. 

    (034) Which inspections are sequence charts primarily used for?

    • A.

      Work cards

    • B.

      Checklists

    • C.

      Phase

    • D.

      Scheduled

    Correct Answer
    D. Scheduled
    Explanation
    Sequence charts are primarily used for scheduled inspections. These inspections are planned and conducted at specific intervals or predetermined times. Sequence charts help in organizing and visualizing the tasks and steps that need to be followed during these scheduled inspections. They provide a clear and systematic representation of the sequence of actions and procedures to be followed, ensuring that all necessary steps are completed in the correct order. This helps in ensuring the efficiency and effectiveness of the inspection process.

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  • 35. 

    (035) What does the 1st part of a TO number identify?

    • A.

      Type

    • B.

      Category

    • C.

      Figure

    • D.

      Index

    Correct Answer
    B. Category
    Explanation
    The 1st part of a TO number identifies the category.

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  • 36. 

    (036) Which part of the Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) is rarely used?

    • A.

      Part 3

    • B.

      Part 5

    • C.

      Part 7

    • D.

      Part 9

    Correct Answer
    C. Part 7
    Explanation
    Part 7 of the Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) is rarely used.

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  • 37. 

    (037) What form is used to recommend a change in a TO?

    • A.

      AFTO Form 979

    • B.

      AFTO Form 22

    • C.

      AFTO Form 350

    • D.

      TO change recommendations are transmitted via e-mail messages

    Correct Answer
    B. AFTO Form 22
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 22 is used to recommend a change in a TO. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is the correct form to use when suggesting a change in a technical order.

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  • 38. 

    (038) The AF Supply System is different from civilian supply systems because it--

    • A.

      Requires more flexibility.

    • B.

      Deals with many more customers.

    • C.

      Is not as concerned with economy of operation.

    • D.

      Receives its supplies from many different vendors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Requires more flexibility.
    Explanation
    The AF Supply System is different from civilian supply systems because it requires more flexibility. This implies that the AF Supply System needs to be adaptable and responsive to changing demands and conditions. It suggests that the system may need to accommodate various types of supplies, equipment, and resources in order to meet the unique needs of the Air Force. This requirement for flexibility sets it apart from civilian supply systems, which may be more focused on efficiency and cost-effectiveness.

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  • 39. 

    (039) Which supply element is the first point in the process of obtaining materiel from supply?

    • A.

      Retail sales

    • B.

      Demand processing

    • C.

      Customer service

    • D.

      Equipment management

    Correct Answer
    B. Demand processing
    Explanation
    Demand processing is the first point in the process of obtaining materiel from supply. This involves analyzing and determining the quantity and type of materiel needed by the customer or user. It includes activities such as collecting and reviewing demand data, forecasting requirements, and initiating procurement actions to fulfill the demand. Demand processing is crucial in ensuring that the correct amount of materiel is available to meet the needs of the customer or user.

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  • 40. 

    (040) Who allocates the money to buy Air Force property?

    • A.

      The President

    • B.

      The Department of Defense (DOD)

    • C.

      Congress

    • D.

      Headquarters United States Air Force

    Correct Answer
    C. Congress
    Explanation
    Congress is responsible for allocating the money to buy Air Force property. As the legislative branch of the United States government, Congress has the power to appropriate funds for various purposes, including the military. This includes determining the budget for the Department of Defense, which in turn allocates funds for the purchase of Air Force property. The President and the Department of Defense may have input and influence in the process, but ultimately it is Congress that has the authority to allocate the necessary funds.

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  • 41. 

    (041) The repair cycle of a supply asset begins when--

    • A.

      An item is removed as unserviceable from an aircraft.

    • B.

      An item is returned to supply as serviceable/unserviceable.

    • C.

      A demand is made on supply for a replacement item.

    • D.

      An unserviceable item is removed from the aircraft and a demand is made for a replacement.

    Correct Answer
    D. An unserviceable item is removed from the aircraft and a demand is made for a replacement.
    Explanation
    The repair cycle of a supply asset begins when an unserviceable item is removed from the aircraft and a demand is made for a replacement. This indicates that the item is no longer in working condition and needs to be repaired or replaced. The demand for a replacement item suggests that the repair cycle is initiated to address the unserviceability and ensure that the aircraft has the necessary equipment to function properly.

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  • 42. 

    (001) Which AF specialty code identified your highest usable skill in terms of total AF requirements?

    • A.

      PAFSC

    • B.

      2AFSC

    • C.

      CAFSC

    • D.

      DAFSC

    Correct Answer
    C. CAFSC
    Explanation
    The CAFSC (Career Air Force Specialty Code) identifies an individual's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements. This code is used to categorize and classify personnel based on their skills and qualifications, ensuring that they are assigned to the appropriate roles and responsibilities within the Air Force.

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  • 43. 

    (005) Who manages the resources necessary to accomplish the mission/workload?

    • A.

      Maintenance superintendent

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      MXG/CC

    • D.

      Flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The maintenance superintendent is responsible for managing the resources necessary to accomplish the mission/workload. This includes overseeing the allocation of personnel, equipment, and materials needed for maintenance tasks. They work closely with the squadron commander, MXG/CC, and flight chief to ensure that the necessary resources are available and properly utilized to meet the mission requirements.

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  • 44. 

    (022) What should you use to prevent other maintainers from inadvertent operation of devices such as landing gear & flight control surfaces?

    • A.

      Warning tags, AFTO Form 1492

    • B.

      Danger tags, AFTO Form 979

    • C.

      Red streamers, AFTO Form 1495

    • D.

      Red tags, AFTO Form 1775

    Correct Answer
    A. Warning tags, AFTO Form 1492
    Explanation
    To prevent other maintainers from inadvertently operating devices such as landing gear and flight control surfaces, warning tags should be used in conjunction with AFTO Form 1492. Warning tags serve as a visual reminder and alert others to the potential danger or risk associated with operating the devices. AFTO Form 1492 is likely a form that provides specific instructions or procedures for properly handling and operating the devices, further ensuring that only authorized personnel are aware of and capable of operating them.

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  • 45. 

    (024) What is the definition of "vaporizing"?

    • A.

      The rate of volatility

    • B.

      The level of combustion

    • C.

      To change from liquid to gas

    • D.

      To burn raw

    Correct Answer
    C. To change from liquid to gas
    Explanation
    Vaporizing refers to the process of changing a substance from its liquid state to a gaseous state. This occurs when the substance is heated or when the pressure is reduced. During vaporization, the molecules of the substance gain enough energy to overcome the intermolecular forces holding them together in the liquid phase, resulting in the formation of a gas. This process is commonly observed when water boils and turns into steam.

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  • 46. 

    (041) Which form documents a repair action has been accomplished on a repair cycle item as a result of a maintenance turnaround (TRN)?

    • A.

      DD Form 1575

    • B.

      DD Form 1348-1

    • C.

      AFTO Form 350

    • D.

      AFTO Form 349

    Correct Answer
    C. AFTO Form 350
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 350 is the correct answer because it is the form that documents a repair action that has been accomplished on a repair cycle item as a result of a maintenance turnaround (TRN). This form is used by the United States Air Force to record maintenance actions and provide a historical record of repairs. It includes information such as the date of the repair, the work accomplished, and the personnel involved.

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  • 47. 

    (026) Air pressure of___can drive particles into the eyes & face with the force of shrapnel.

    • A.

      30 psi

    • B.

      40 psi

    • C.

      50 psi

    • D.

      60 psi

    Correct Answer
    B. 40 psi
    Explanation
    Air pressure of 40 psi can drive particles into the eyes and face with the force of shrapnel. This means that when the air pressure reaches 40 psi, it becomes strong enough to propel particles with a force similar to that of shrapnel, which can cause serious injury to the eyes and face.

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  • 48. 

    (028) When accomplishing sealant repair on curing-type sealant inside an integral tank, what equipment is required?

    • A.

      Goggles

    • B.

      Barrier cream

    • C.

      Approved coveralls

    • D.

      Head covering

    Correct Answer
    D. Head covering
    Explanation
    When accomplishing sealant repair on curing-type sealant inside an integral tank, a head covering is required. This is because a head covering protects the individual from any potential hazards or contaminants that may be present during the repair process. It helps to ensure the safety and well-being of the person performing the repair.

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  • 49. 

    (031) A job guide is an example of--

    • A.

      A methods & procedures technical order (MPTO)

    • B.

      An operations & maintenance (O&M) TO

    • C.

      A checklist

    • D.

      An abbreviated to

    Correct Answer
    B. An operations & maintenance (O&M) TO
    Explanation
    A job guide is an example of an operations & maintenance (O&M) TO because it provides instructions and guidance on how to perform specific tasks related to the operation and maintenance of a system or equipment. It outlines the steps, procedures, and best practices to ensure the smooth functioning and upkeep of the system or equipment.

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  • 50. 

    (035) If the aircraft TO number only has 3 parts, what does the 3rd part identify?

    • A.

      Type

    • B.

      Category

    • C.

      Subsystem

    • D.

      Model

    Correct Answer
    A. Type
    Explanation
    The third part of the aircraft TO number identifies the type of the aircraft.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 06, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 30, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Darla Laubacher
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