New CDC Quiz Vol. 2 (3S051) Edit Code 03

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  • 1/100 Questions

    How many months’ minimum time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?

    • 0.
    • 6.
    • 12.
    • 24.
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About This Quiz

New CDC Quiz Vol. 2 (3S051) Edit Code 03 assesses knowledge on military personnel management topics such as special duty assignments, humanitarian requests, and out-processing procedures. It is crucial for personnel preparing for special duties or assignments.

New CDC Quiz Vol. 2 (3S051) Edit Code 03 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many special duty application(s) may be submitted for consideration at a time?

    • One.

    • Three.

    • Five.

    • Eight.

    Correct Answer
    A. One.
    Explanation
    Only one special duty application may be submitted for consideration at a time. This suggests that individuals are limited to submitting one application for special duty, implying that they cannot submit multiple applications simultaneously.

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  • 3. 

    To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which is not a criterion?

    • The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.

    • The member’s presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem.

    • A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements.

    • The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem.

    Correct Answer
    A. The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete." This statement is not a criterion for substantiating a humanitarian assignment request. The other options mention criteria that are important for substantiating the request, such as the member's presence being essential, a vacancy existing at the new duty station, and the problem being more severe than usual. However, the timeframe of the member's assignment completion is not mentioned as a criterion.

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  • 4. 

    The virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist must be completed

    • Prior to purchasing a plane ticket.

    • Prior to final out-processing.

    • Prior to scheduling TMO pick-up.

    • Three weeks after they receive the relocation notification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to final out-processing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "prior to final out-processing." This means that the virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist needs to be completed before the final out-processing takes place. Final out-processing is typically the last step before leaving a location or organization, so it is important to complete the vOP checklist before this step to ensure that all necessary tasks and requirements are fulfilled before departure.

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  • 5. 

    An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must meet these requirements except

    • Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.

    • A signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate.

    • The retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location.

    • A memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents’ names and birthdates, overseas (OS) travel destination, and reason for request.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.
    Explanation
    An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must meet several requirements. These include providing a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate, having the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location, and submitting a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents’ names and birthdates, overseas (OS) travel destination, and reason for request. However, proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location is not a requirement for the DTDP application.

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  • 6. 

    What opportunity does the join spouse assignment program allow for military couples?

    • Be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence.

    • Decide on which member gets to stay and which member has to leave.

    • Opportunity to stay at any base of your preference.

    • Decline orders if you don’t like the assignment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence.
    Explanation
    The join spouse assignment program allows military couples to be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence. This means that they can live together and be in close proximity to each other, which is important for maintaining their relationship and family life. This program recognizes the importance of supporting military couples and their need to be together, even when they are assigned to different bases or units. By allowing them to be stationed near each other, the program helps to alleviate some of the challenges and hardships that can arise from being separated due to military assignments.

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  • 7. 

    If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to the member’s bonus eligibility?

    • Member is not eligible.

    • Eligible after reclassification.

    • Eligible after completing six months.

    • Eligible when there is an increase in bonus amount.

    Correct Answer
    A. Member is not eligible.
    Explanation
    If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, the member is not eligible for the bonus.

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  • 8. 

    Whose responsibility is it to monitor and follow the progress of the out-processing checklist as it routes through the base agencies?

    • Member.

    • Supervisor.

    • First shirt.

    • Squadron commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Member.
    Explanation
    The responsibility to monitor and follow the progress of the out-processing checklist as it routes through the base agencies lies with the member. This means that it is the individual's duty to ensure that the checklist is being completed and that all necessary steps are being taken to properly process their departure. The member is expected to actively engage in the process and stay informed about the progress of their out-processing checklist.

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  • 9. 

    Who prepares the AF Form 100?

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • Wing command personnel.

    • Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

    • Squadron command staff.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
    Explanation
    The AF Form 100 is prepared by the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). This form is used for various purposes such as documenting performance reports, awards, decorations, and other personnel actions. The AFPC is responsible for managing personnel programs and policies for the Air Force, so it makes sense that they would be the ones preparing this form.

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  • 10. 

    Which form is used to record qualifying active duty service?

    • DD Form 214.

    • DD Form 899.

    • AF Form 910.

    • AF Form 911.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 214.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 214. This form is used to record qualifying active duty service. It is a document issued by the Department of Defense that provides a summary of a service member's military career, including dates of service, awards received, and other pertinent information. It is commonly used to verify military service for benefits, employment, and other purposes.

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  • 11. 

    Promotion eligibility status (PES) codes are updated in what system to identify ineligibility conditions?

    • Personnel Concept III (PC-III).

    • Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

    • Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

    • Joint Operation Planning and Execution system (JOPES).

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS). This system is used to update Promotion eligibility status (PES) codes in order to identify ineligibility conditions.

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  • 12. 

    Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist but elects separation?

    • 1A.

    • 1J.

    • 1K.

    • 1M.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1J.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1J. This reenlistment (RE) code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist but chooses to separate from the military. It indicates that the member has voluntarily elected to separate rather than reenlist.

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  • 13. 

    What is the maximum number of days of leave can an Airman sell during his or her career?

    • 15.

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60.
    Explanation
    An Airman can sell a maximum of 60 days of leave during his or her career. This means that they can choose to receive payment for up to 60 days of unused leave instead of taking time off. Selling leave can provide financial benefits for the Airman, especially if they have accumulated a significant amount of unused leave. It also allows the Airman to have more flexibility in managing their time off and can be a useful option for those who prefer to work continuously without taking extended breaks.

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  • 14. 

    Any questionable data with Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) must be resolved with the

    • Member.

    • Supervisor.

    • Verifying official (VO).

    • Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verifying official (VO).
    Explanation
    In the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS), any questionable data needs to be resolved with the verifying official (VO). The VO is responsible for verifying and updating the eligibility of individuals for military benefits. They have the authority to review and correct any discrepancies or errors in the system. Therefore, it is the VO's role to address any issues or concerns regarding the data in DEERS.

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  • 15. 

    Family Member Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to insurable

    • Spouses only.

    • Children only.

    • Parents of sponsor.

    • Spouses and children.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spouses and children.
    Explanation
    FSGLI expands the coverage of SGLI to include both spouses and children. This means that not only the servicemember but also their spouse and children are eligible for life insurance coverage. The coverage is extended to both the spouse and the children of the servicemember, providing them with financial protection in the event of the servicemember's death.

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  • 16. 

    If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he or she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?

    • Critical.

    • Restricted.

    • Controlled.

    • Responsible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical.
    Explanation
    If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, they would be considered to be in a critical personnel reliability program (PRP) position. This indicates that their role is of utmost importance and requires a high level of trust and reliability. They would be responsible for handling and operating nuclear weapons, making it crucial for them to meet stringent security and reliability standards to ensure the safety and security of these weapons.

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  • 17. 

    What is the minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator?

    • 3-skill, GS–3.

    • 5-skill, GS–5.

    • 7-skill, GS–7.

    • 9-skill, GS–9.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5-skill, GS–5.
    Explanation
    The minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator is 5-skill, GS–5. This means that individuals need to have at least a skill level of 5 and be at the GS–5 grade level in order to qualify for this position.

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  • 18. 

    Which AF form is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation?

    • 973.

    • 100.

    • 907.

    • 899.

    Correct Answer
    A. 100.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100. The AF form 100 is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation.

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  • 19. 

    The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers (NCO) that are

    • Highly qualified.

    • Experienced.

    • Proficient.

    • On-time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Highly qualified.
    Explanation
    The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure that the career force has professional noncommissioned officers (NCO) who are highly qualified. This means that the program aims to retain NCOs who possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and expertise to effectively perform their duties and contribute to the overall success of the military. By prioritizing highly qualified NCOs, the SRP helps maintain a skilled and competent workforce, which is essential for the military's operational readiness and mission accomplishment.

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  • 20. 

    First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment consideration?

    • 40 (64 for six-year enlistees).

    • 36 (60 for six-year enlistees).

    • 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).

    • 30 (54 for six-year enlistees).

    Correct Answer
    A. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).
    Explanation
    First-term Airmen who complete 33 months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment consideration. For six-year enlistees, they need to complete 57 months to be eligible for selective reenlistment consideration.

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  • 21. 

    What is the maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone?

    • $30,000.

    • $60,000.

    • $75,000.

    • $90,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. $90,000.
    Explanation
    The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is $90,000. This means that if a service member qualifies for an SRB, they can receive up to $90,000 as a bonus for reenlisting.

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  • 22. 

    To avoid fraud, most customer support elements require how many forms of identification before processing an ID card?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • None.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.
    Explanation
    Most customer support elements require two forms of identification before processing an ID card to ensure the authenticity of the request and prevent fraud. This additional layer of verification helps to confirm the identity of the individual and minimize the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of personal information. Having multiple forms of identification also adds an extra level of security and reduces the chances of fraudulent activities.

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  • 23. 

    A line-of-duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and the

    • Member.

    • Squadron.

    • Dependents.

    • Military installation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Member.
    Explanation
    A line-of-duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the member by ensuring that they receive the necessary benefits and support if they are injured or killed while performing their duties. This determination helps to establish whether the member was acting within the scope of their duties and whether their actions were in line with military regulations. It also helps to determine the appropriate level of compensation and support that the member and their family should receive. This protects the member by ensuring that they are treated fairly and provided with the necessary resources in case of any unfortunate incidents.

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  • 24. 

    What is the three-character code that identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified in the personnel data system?

    • Special experience identifier (SEI).

    • Rules of engagement (ROE).

    • Unit line number (ULN).

    • Course of action (COA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Special experience identifier (SEI).
    Explanation
    The three-character code that identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified in the personnel data system is the Special Experience Identifier (SEI). This code is used to distinguish individuals who have unique qualifications or skills that are not captured by other identifiers in the system. It allows for a more detailed categorization of personnel and helps in assigning them to specialized roles or tasks based on their specific expertise.

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  • 25. 

    The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to

    • Ensure accurate input of current data before the Airman arrives.

    • Assist the military personnel section (MPS) in creating valid position numbers.

    • Outline the MPS in-processing requirements.

    • Help Defense Finance Accounting Service (DFAS) determine pay transactions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Outline the MPS in-processing requirements.
    Explanation
    The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to outline the MPS in-processing requirements. This means that it provides a clear and detailed list of the tasks and procedures that need to be completed by the military personnel section (MPS) when a new Airman arrives. The IDA worksheet ensures that the MPS has a clear understanding of what needs to be done in terms of paperwork, documentation, and other administrative tasks to properly process the Airman into their new duty assignment.

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  • 26. 

    Who processes Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) applications?

    • Verifying official (VO).

    • Military personnel specialist.

    • Military member.

    • Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verifying official (VO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Verifying official (VO)". In the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS), the Verifying Official (VO) is responsible for processing applications. They are in charge of verifying the eligibility of individuals for benefits and enrollment in the system. This role requires expertise in understanding the eligibility criteria and ensuring that all necessary documentation is provided for accurate processing. The VO plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the DEERS system.

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  • 27. 

    At which grade will commanders initiate withdrawal action when a member is unable to perform tasks associated with his or her skill/qualification level?

    • Only officers.

    • Only enlisted.

    • Officers or enlisted.

    • E1 – E6 only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Officers or enlisted.
    Explanation
    Commanders will initiate withdrawal action when a member, whether an officer or enlisted, is unable to perform tasks associated with his or her skill/qualification level. This means that regardless of rank or position, if an individual is unable to meet the required standards, the commanders have the authority to initiate withdrawal action.

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  • 28. 

    Special experience identifiers (SEI) provide a quick way to identify those individuals who

    • Are looking for a new assignment that does not require extensive technical knowledge in any field.

    • Are wanting to gain specialized experience in a new field and need extensive training.

    • Already have the experience to meet assignment requirements.

    • Do not have experience, but can fill the critical manning requirement with training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Already have the experience to meet assignment requirements.
    Explanation
    SEI is a tool used to identify individuals who already possess the necessary experience to meet assignment requirements. This means that they do not require extensive technical knowledge or training in any specific field, as they already have the experience needed for the job.

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  • 29. 

    Award of a specific decoration should be based on an individual’s

    • Grade.

    • Retirement.

    • Reassignment.

    • Level of responsibility and manner of performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Level of responsibility and manner of performance.
    Explanation
    The award of a specific decoration should be based on an individual's level of responsibility and manner of performance. This means that the decoration should be given to someone who has demonstrated a high level of responsibility in their role and has performed exceptionally well. It implies that the individual has shown dedication, competence, and professionalism in their work, which makes them deserving of the decoration. The grade, retirement, and reassignment of an individual are not relevant factors in determining the award of a decoration.

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  • 30. 

    Which form is used to initiate a control roster (CR) action?

    • SF 1058.

    • DD Form 1058.

    • AETCI 1058.

    • AF IMT 1058.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 1058.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF IMT 1058. This form is used to initiate a control roster (CR) action. The other options (SF 1058, DD Form 1058, AETCI 1058) are not the correct forms for initiating a control roster action.

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  • 31. 

    Humanitarian assignment or deferment requests that usually warrant approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?

    • Problems associated with child care arrangement.

    • The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.

    • The recent death of the member’s spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks’ or more gestation.

    • A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age.

    Correct Answer
    A. The recent death of the member’s spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks’ or more gestation.
    Explanation
    Humanitarian assignment or deferment requests are typically approved when they involve the recent death of the member's spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks' or more gestation. This is because such a traumatic event can have a significant impact on the member's emotional well-being and ability to fulfill their military duties. Providing support and understanding in these circumstances is crucial for the member's overall welfare.

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  • 32. 

    Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?

    • AF Form 100.

    • AF Form 973.

    • DD Form 1610.

    • AF Form 899.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1610.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 1610. The question is asking which order is not completed within the orders processing application (OPA). OPA is a system used for processing orders, and the other forms listed (AF Form 100, AF Form 973, and AF Form 899) are all likely to be completed within this system. However, DD Form 1610 is not typically used within the Air Force, so it would not be completed within OPA.

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  • 33. 

    Which assignment availability code (AAC) is used to update a member who has received an Article 15?

    • 10.

    • 12.

    • 14.

    • 16.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12.
    Explanation
    An Article 15 is a form of nonjudicial punishment in the U.S. military. The assignment availability code (AAC) is used to indicate the eligibility of a member for assignment or reassignment. In this case, the correct answer is 12 because an Article 15 typically results in a temporary restriction on assignment options for the member.

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  • 34. 

    Which assignment limitation code (ALC) is used to update a conscientious objector?

    • J.

    • K.

    • L.

    • M.

    Correct Answer
    A. K.
    Explanation
    ALC K is used to update a conscientious objector.

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  • 35. 

    Which integrated subsystem does the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) program use to make promotion selections?

    • Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.

    • Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.
    Explanation
    The Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) program uses the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file to make promotion selections. The MilPDS promotion file contains the necessary data and information about each airman's qualifications, performance, and potential for promotion. This file is used to evaluate and score airmen based on various factors such as time in service, time in grade, promotion fitness examination scores, and decorations. The WAPS program then uses this information to determine which airmen are eligible and most deserving of promotion.

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  • 36. 

    Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman’s date of original grade?

    • 1 and 3.

    • 3 and 6.

    • 6 and 12.

    • 12 and 18.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 and 6.
    Explanation
    Within 3 to 6 months after the effective date of the demotion, the demotion authority can restore an Airman's date of original grade.

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  • 37. 

    Which is not an ineligibility condition for promotion?

    • Absent without leave (AWOL).

    • Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander.

    • Declined promotion testing.

    • Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).
    Explanation
    Selected to permanent change of station (PCS) is not an ineligibility condition for promotion. PCS refers to a transfer of a military member to a different location or base. It does not affect their eligibility for promotion as it is a routine administrative action. On the other hand, being absent without leave (AWOL), being denied selection for reenlistment by the commander, and declining promotion testing can all be considered as ineligibility conditions for promotion as they indicate a lack of commitment or failure to meet certain criteria.

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  • 38. 

    When an Airman has been nonselected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, which code is updated in the personnel data system?

    • 1R.

    • 2X.

    • 3C.

    • 4E.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2X.
    Explanation
    When an Airman has been nonselected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, the code that is updated in the personnel data system is 2X.

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  • 39. 

    When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?

    • Date of original entry on active duty.

    • Date entered into delayed enlistment.

    • Date completed basic military training.

    • Date agreed to sign up for active duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. Date of original entry on active duty.
    Explanation
    The total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflects the date of original entry on active duty when there is no break in active duty service. This means that the TAFMSD represents the date when the member first entered active duty, regardless of any subsequent events such as delayed enlistment, completion of basic military training, or agreement to sign up for active duty.

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  • 40. 

    The Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in what type of skills?

    • Critical.

    • Balanced.

    • Overmanned.

    • Undermanned.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical.
    Explanation
    The Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in critical skills. This means that these skills are in high demand and there is a shortage of personnel with these skills in the Air Force. The SRB program aims to retain Airmen with critical skills by offering them financial incentives to reenlist.

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  • 41. 

    Credit is given for overseas service performed in which branch of service?

    • Army and Air Force only.

    • Navy and Marines only.

    • Air Force only.

    • All branches.

    Correct Answer
    A. All branches.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All branches." This means that credit is given for overseas service performed in all branches of the military, including the Army, Air Force, Navy, and Marines.

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  • 42. 

    If errors are discovered on any of the documentation for an overseas tour, then the military personnel section (MPS) must thoroughly research and verify the errors prior to submitting a correction of records to

    • Finance.

    • The legal office.

    • Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • Headquarters, Air Force (HAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) because they are responsible for handling the correction of records for military personnel. They have the authority and resources to thoroughly research and verify any errors found on the documentation for an overseas tour before submitting the corrections. Finance, the legal office, and Headquarters, Air Force (HAF) may not have the necessary expertise or jurisdiction to handle this task.

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  • 43. 

    Within how many days must members retrieve and surrender an ID card from dependents who are longer eligible to the nearest card issuing activity?

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    • 90.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30.
    Explanation
    Members must retrieve and surrender an ID card from dependents who are no longer eligible within 30 days to the nearest card issuing activity. This ensures that the ID cards are properly accounted for and prevents any unauthorized use of the cards by ineligible individuals.

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  • 44. 

    When a member is covered under full time Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI), the member’s Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) coverage is

    • Covered for only 120 days at a time.

    • Covered only if they have a spouse.

    • Full time as well.

    • Not covered at all.

    Correct Answer
    A. Full time as well.
    Explanation
    When a member is covered under full time Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI), their Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) coverage is also covered full time. This means that the member's TSGLI coverage is in effect as long as they are covered under SGLI, providing protection in the event of a traumatic injury. There is no mention of the coverage being limited to a specific duration or dependent on having a spouse, so these options can be ruled out.

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  • 45. 

    The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for

    • E5 and E6.

    • Officers only.

    • E1 through E4 only.

    • All active duty members who participate in ADSC-incurring events.

    Correct Answer
    A. All active duty members who participate in ADSC-incurring events.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all active duty members who participate in ADSC-incurring events." This means that any active duty member who takes part in events that result in an active duty service commitment (ADSC) will be subject to this commitment. It applies to all ranks, including E5 and E6 officers, as well as E1 through E4 enlisted personnel.

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  • 46. 

    Passports are provided by the government at whose expense?

    • The state in which they pay taxes.

    • Member and government.

    • Government.

    • Member.

    Correct Answer
    A. Government.
    Explanation
    Passports are provided by the government because it is the responsibility of the government to issue and maintain official documents for its citizens. The government bears the expenses of producing passports as it is a crucial identification document required for international travel and serves as proof of citizenship. Members and taxpayers contribute to the funds of the government through taxes, but it is ultimately the government that covers the costs of passport issuance.

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  • 47. 

    The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for monitoring and updating the following data except?

    • Report identifiers (RI).

    • Special experience identifiers (SEI).

    • Special duty identifiers (SDI).

    • Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) scores.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) scores.
    Explanation
    The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for monitoring and updating various data related to military personnel. This includes report identifiers (RI), special experience identifiers (SEI), and special duty identifiers (SDI). However, they are not responsible for monitoring and updating Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) scores. WAPS scores are typically managed and updated by the promotion board or a separate promotion authority.

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  • 48. 

    Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) denies a member’s reenlistment?

    • 2A.

    • 2B.

    • 2F.

    • 2G.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2A. This reenlistment (RE) code is used when Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) denies a member's reenlistment. This code indicates that the member is not eligible for reenlistment due to reasons determined by HQ AFPC.

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  • 49. 

    The career status bonus (CSB) election is effective the date the Airman reaches how many years of service?

    • 13.

    • 14.

    • 15.

    • 16.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15.
    Explanation
    The career status bonus (CSB) election becomes effective when an Airman reaches 15 years of service. This means that after completing 15 years in the Air Force, the Airman is eligible to elect the CSB. The CSB is a financial incentive offered to Airmen who agree to serve for an additional period of time, typically between 15 and 20 years, in exchange for a lump sum payment. By reaching 15 years of service, the Airman has met the eligibility criteria to make this election.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 28, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 28, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 13, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Dwdeason
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