New CDC Quiz Vol. 2 (3S051) Edit Code 03
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
How many months’ minimum time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?
- A.
0.
- B.
6.
- C.
12.
- D.
24.
Correct Answer
A. 0.Explanation
There is no minimum time on station (TOS) required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA).Rate this question:
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- 2.
How many special duty application(s) may be submitted for consideration at a time?
- A.
One.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Five.
- D.
Eight.
Correct Answer
A. One.Explanation
Only one special duty application may be submitted for consideration at a time. This suggests that individuals are limited to submitting one application for special duty, implying that they cannot submit multiple applications simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 3.
To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which is not a criterion?
- A.
The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.
- B.
The member’s presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem.
- C.
A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements.
- D.
The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem.
Correct Answer
A. The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.Explanation
The correct answer is "The member’s assignment must be within 12 months of being complete." This statement is not a criterion for substantiating a humanitarian assignment request. The other options mention criteria that are important for substantiating the request, such as the member's presence being essential, a vacancy existing at the new duty station, and the problem being more severe than usual. However, the timeframe of the member's assignment completion is not mentioned as a criterion.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Humanitarian assignment or deferment requests that usually warrant approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?
- A.
Problems associated with child care arrangement.
- B.
The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems.
- C.
The recent death of the member’s spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks’ or more gestation.
- D.
A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age.
Correct Answer
C. The recent death of the member’s spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks’ or more gestation.Explanation
Humanitarian assignment or deferment requests are typically approved when they involve the recent death of the member's spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks' or more gestation. This is because such a traumatic event can have a significant impact on the member's emotional well-being and ability to fulfill their military duties. Providing support and understanding in these circumstances is crucial for the member's overall welfare.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist must be completed
- A.
Prior to purchasing a plane ticket.
- B.
Prior to final out-processing.
- C.
Prior to scheduling TMO pick-up.
- D.
Three weeks after they receive the relocation notification.
Correct Answer
B. Prior to final out-processing.Explanation
The correct answer is "prior to final out-processing." This means that the virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist needs to be completed before the final out-processing takes place. Final out-processing is typically the last step before leaving a location or organization, so it is important to complete the vOP checklist before this step to ensure that all necessary tasks and requirements are fulfilled before departure.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?
- A.
AF Form 100.
- B.
AF Form 973.
- C.
DD Form 1610.
- D.
AF Form 899.
Correct Answer
C. DD Form 1610.Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 1610. The question is asking which order is not completed within the orders processing application (OPA). OPA is a system used for processing orders, and the other forms listed (AF Form 100, AF Form 973, and AF Form 899) are all likely to be completed within this system. However, DD Form 1610 is not typically used within the Air Force, so it would not be completed within OPA.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must meet these requirements except
- A.
Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.
- B.
A signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate.
- C.
The retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location.
- D.
A memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents’ names and birthdates, overseas (OS) travel destination, and reason for request.
Correct Answer
A. Proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location.Explanation
An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must meet several requirements. These include providing a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate, having the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location, and submitting a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents’ names and birthdates, overseas (OS) travel destination, and reason for request. However, proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents’ location is not a requirement for the DTDP application.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What opportunity does the join spouse assignment program allow for military couples?
- A.
Be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence.
- B.
Decide on which member gets to stay and which member has to leave.
- C.
Opportunity to stay at any base of your preference.
- D.
Decline orders if you don’t like the assignment.
Correct Answer
A. Be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence.Explanation
The join spouse assignment program allows military couples to be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence. This means that they can live together and be in close proximity to each other, which is important for maintaining their relationship and family life. This program recognizes the importance of supporting military couples and their need to be together, even when they are assigned to different bases or units. By allowing them to be stationed near each other, the program helps to alleviate some of the challenges and hardships that can arise from being separated due to military assignments.Rate this question:
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- 9.
If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he or she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?
- A.
Critical.
- B.
Restricted.
- C.
Controlled.
- D.
Responsible.
Correct Answer
A. Critical.Explanation
If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, they would be considered to be in a critical personnel reliability program (PRP) position. This indicates that their role is of utmost importance and requires a high level of trust and reliability. They would be responsible for handling and operating nuclear weapons, making it crucial for them to meet stringent security and reliability standards to ensure the safety and security of these weapons.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which assignment availability code (AAC) is used to update a member who has received an Article 15?
- A.
10.
- B.
12.
- C.
14.
- D.
16.
Correct Answer
B. 12.Explanation
An Article 15 is a form of nonjudicial punishment in the U.S. military. The assignment availability code (AAC) is used to indicate the eligibility of a member for assignment or reassignment. In this case, the correct answer is 12 because an Article 15 typically results in a temporary restriction on assignment options for the member.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which assignment limitation code (ALC) is used to update a conscientious objector?
- A.
J.
- B.
K.
- C.
L.
- D.
M.
Correct Answer
B. K.Explanation
ALC K is used to update a conscientious objector.Rate this question:
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- 12.
If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to the member’s bonus eligibility?
- A.
Member is not eligible.
- B.
Eligible after reclassification.
- C.
Eligible after completing six months.
- D.
Eligible when there is an increase in bonus amount.
Correct Answer
A. Member is not eligible.Explanation
If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, the member is not eligible for the bonus.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator?
- A.
3-skill, GS–3.
- B.
5-skill, GS–5.
- C.
7-skill, GS–7.
- D.
9-skill, GS–9.
Correct Answer
B. 5-skill, GS–5.Explanation
The minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator is 5-skill, GS–5. This means that individuals need to have at least a skill level of 5 and be at the GS–5 grade level in order to qualify for this position.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The virtual out-processing (vOP) is designed to allow Airman to out-process their unit and task organizations without having to visit each office due to these reasons except
- A.
Reassignment.
- B.
Retirement.
- C.
Separation.
- D.
Emergency leave.
Correct Answer
D. Emergency leave.Explanation
The virtual out-processing (vOP) is a system that enables Airman to complete the necessary administrative tasks required when leaving their unit or task organization. This system eliminates the need for physical visits to different offices, streamlining the out-processing process. Reassignment, retirement, and separation are all valid reasons for an Airman to use the vOP system. However, emergency leave is not a reason for out-processing, as it is a temporary absence due to urgent personal matters and does not involve permanently leaving the unit or task organization.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Whose responsibility is it to monitor and follow the progress of the out-processing checklist as it routes through the base agencies?
- A.
Member.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
First shirt.
- D.
Squadron commander.
Correct Answer
A. Member.Explanation
The responsibility to monitor and follow the progress of the out-processing checklist as it routes through the base agencies lies with the member. This means that it is the individual's duty to ensure that the checklist is being completed and that all necessary steps are being taken to properly process their departure. The member is expected to actively engage in the process and stay informed about the progress of their out-processing checklist.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When does the career development element (CDE) create a relocation folder due to a member’s separation?
- A.
Upon notification of an approved separation.
- B.
When a member first received notification.
- C.
90 days before separation date.
- D.
30 days before separation date.
Correct Answer
A. Upon notification of an approved separation.Explanation
The career development element (CDE) creates a relocation folder upon notification of an approved separation. This means that as soon as a member's separation is officially approved, the CDE initiates the process of creating a relocation folder. This ensures that all necessary documents and information related to the member's relocation are properly organized and prepared in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which AF form is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation?
- A.
973.
- B.
100.
- C.
907.
- D.
899.
Correct Answer
B. 100.Explanation
The correct answer is 100. The AF form 100 is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who prepares the AF Form 100?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- B.
Wing command personnel.
- C.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
- D.
Squadron command staff.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).Explanation
The AF Form 100 is prepared by the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). This form is used for various purposes such as documenting performance reports, awards, decorations, and other personnel actions. The AFPC is responsible for managing personnel programs and policies for the Air Force, so it makes sense that they would be the ones preparing this form.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which form is used to record qualifying active duty service?
- A.
DD Form 214.
- B.
DD Form 899.
- C.
AF Form 910.
- D.
AF Form 911.
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 214.Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 214. This form is used to record qualifying active duty service. It is a document issued by the Department of Defense that provides a summary of a service member's military career, including dates of service, awards received, and other pertinent information. It is commonly used to verify military service for benefits, employment, and other purposes.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Whose responsibility is to ensure that members’ records are current and up-to-date?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
- B.
Military personnel section (MPS).
- C.
Service member.
- D.
Supervisor.
Correct Answer
C. Service member.Explanation
The responsibility to ensure that members' records are current and up-to-date lies with the service member themselves. It is their duty to provide accurate and timely information to the relevant authorities and update their records as necessary. This includes personal details, contact information, and any changes in their status or qualifications. By taking ownership of their records, service members contribute to the overall efficiency and effectiveness of military personnel management.Rate this question:
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- 21.
At least how many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?
- A.
30.
- B.
45.
- C.
60.
- D.
90.
Correct Answer
A. 30.Explanation
The commander notifies the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant at least 30 days in advance. This advance notice allows the officer to prepare for the promotion and make any necessary arrangements or adjustments in their duties and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which agency is responsible for providing an automatic quarterly end-of-month output product to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for below the zone?
- A.
Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
Total force service center (TFSC).
- D.
Personnel systems management (PSM) section.
Correct Answer
D. Personnel systems management (PSM) section.Explanation
The Personnel systems management (PSM) section is responsible for providing an automatic quarterly end-of-month output product to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for below the zone. This means that they are in charge of generating and delivering the necessary information and data to support the career development process for individuals who are eligible for promotion below the zone.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which integrated subsystem does the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) program use to make promotion selections?
- A.
Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
- B.
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.
- D.
Logistics Module (LOGMOD).
Correct Answer
C. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.Explanation
The Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) program uses the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file to make promotion selections. The MilPDS promotion file contains the necessary data and information about each airman's qualifications, performance, and potential for promotion. This file is used to evaluate and score airmen based on various factors such as time in service, time in grade, promotion fitness examination scores, and decorations. The WAPS program then uses this information to determine which airmen are eligible and most deserving of promotion.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman’s date of original grade?
- A.
1 and 3.
- B.
3 and 6.
- C.
6 and 12.
- D.
12 and 18.
Correct Answer
B. 3 and 6.Explanation
Within 3 to 6 months after the effective date of the demotion, the demotion authority can restore an Airman's date of original grade.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initial notification?
- A.
Third.
- B.
Fourth.
- C.
Fifth.
- D.
Sixth
Correct Answer
B. Fourth.Explanation
The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of the fourth month following the date the member received the initial notification.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which is not an ineligibility condition for promotion?
- A.
Absent without leave (AWOL).
- B.
Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander.
- C.
Declined promotion testing.
- D.
Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).
Correct Answer
D. Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).Explanation
Selected to permanent change of station (PCS) is not an ineligibility condition for promotion. PCS refers to a transfer of a military member to a different location or base. It does not affect their eligibility for promotion as it is a routine administrative action. On the other hand, being absent without leave (AWOL), being denied selection for reenlistment by the commander, and declining promotion testing can all be considered as ineligibility conditions for promotion as they indicate a lack of commitment or failure to meet certain criteria.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Promotion eligibility status (PES) codes are updated in what system to identify ineligibility conditions?
- A.
Personnel Concept III (PC-III).
- B.
Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
- C.
Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
- D.
Joint Operation Planning and Execution system (JOPES).
Correct Answer
B. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).Explanation
The correct answer is Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS). This system is used to update Promotion eligibility status (PES) codes in order to identify ineligibility conditions.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers (NCO) that are
- A.
Highly qualified.
- B.
Experienced.
- C.
Proficient.
- D.
On-time.
Correct Answer
A. Highly qualified.Explanation
The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure that the career force has professional noncommissioned officers (NCO) who are highly qualified. This means that the program aims to retain NCOs who possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and expertise to effectively perform their duties and contribute to the overall success of the military. By prioritizing highly qualified NCOs, the SRP helps maintain a skilled and competent workforce, which is essential for the military's operational readiness and mission accomplishment.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Airmen may request a waiver to reenlist or extend if they are ineligible due to all of these reasons except
- A.
Air Force specialty code (AFSC) not commensurate with grade.
- B.
Ten or more days lost time.
- C.
Civil court conviction.
- D.
Insufficient grade.
Correct Answer
B. Ten or more days lost time.Explanation
Airmen may request a waiver to reenlist or extend if they are ineligible due to reasons such as their Air Force specialty code (AFSC) not being commensurate with their grade, a civil court conviction, or insufficient grade. However, they cannot request a waiver if they have ten or more days of lost time.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When an Airman has been nonselected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, which code is updated in the personnel data system?
- A.
1R.
- B.
2X.
- C.
3C.
- D.
4E.
Correct Answer
B. 2X.Explanation
When an Airman has been nonselected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, the code that is updated in the personnel data system is 2X.Rate this question:
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- 31.
When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member’s total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?
- A.
Date of original entry on active duty.
- B.
Date entered into delayed enlistment.
- C.
Date completed basic military training.
- D.
Date agreed to sign up for active duty.
Correct Answer
A. Date of original entry on active duty.Explanation
The total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflects the date of original entry on active duty when there is no break in active duty service. This means that the TAFMSD represents the date when the member first entered active duty, regardless of any subsequent events such as delayed enlistment, completion of basic military training, or agreement to sign up for active duty.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist but elects separation?
- A.
1A.
- B.
1J.
- C.
1K.
- D.
1M.
Correct Answer
B. 1J.Explanation
The correct answer is 1J. This reenlistment (RE) code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist but chooses to separate from the military. It indicates that the member has voluntarily elected to separate rather than reenlist.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) denies a member’s reenlistment?
- A.
2A.
- B.
2B.
- C.
2F.
- D.
2G.
Correct Answer
A. 2A.Explanation
The correct answer is 2A. This reenlistment (RE) code is used when Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) denies a member's reenlistment. This code indicates that the member is not eligible for reenlistment due to reasons determined by HQ AFPC.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the maximum number of days of leave can an Airman sell during his or her career?
- A.
15.
- B.
30.
- C.
45.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
D. 60.Explanation
An Airman can sell a maximum of 60 days of leave during his or her career. This means that they can choose to receive payment for up to 60 days of unused leave instead of taking time off. Selling leave can provide financial benefits for the Airman, especially if they have accumulated a significant amount of unused leave. It also allows the Airman to have more flexibility in managing their time off and can be a useful option for those who prefer to work continuously without taking extended breaks.Rate this question:
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- 35.
First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment consideration?
- A.
40 (64 for six-year enlistees).
- B.
36 (60 for six-year enlistees).
- C.
33 (57 for six-year enlistees).
- D.
30 (54 for six-year enlistees).
Correct Answer
C. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).Explanation
First-term Airmen who complete 33 months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment consideration. For six-year enlistees, they need to complete 57 months to be eligible for selective reenlistment consideration.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An Airman cannot reenlist in their current Air Force specialty code (AFSC) if a Career Job Reservation (CJR) has not been approved by how many months prior to their date of separation (DOS)?
- A.
5.
- B.
6.
- C.
7.
- D.
8.
Correct Answer
A. 5.Explanation
An Airman cannot reenlist in their current Air Force specialty code (AFSC) if a Career Job Reservation (CJR) has not been approved by 5 months prior to their date of separation (DOS). This means that they need to have their CJR approved at least 5 months before their DOS in order to be eligible to reenlist in their current AFSC.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in what type of skills?
- A.
Critical.
- B.
Balanced.
- C.
Overmanned.
- D.
Undermanned.
Correct Answer
A. Critical.Explanation
The Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in critical skills. This means that these skills are in high demand and there is a shortage of personnel with these skills in the Air Force. The SRB program aims to retain Airmen with critical skills by offering them financial incentives to reenlist.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone?
- A.
$30,000.
- B.
$60,000.
- C.
$75,000.
- D.
$90,000.
Correct Answer
D. $90,000.Explanation
The maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is $90,000. This means that if a service member qualifies for an SRB, they can receive up to $90,000 as a bonus for reenlisting.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The career status bonus (CSB) election is effective the date the Airman reaches how many years of service?
- A.
13.
- B.
14.
- C.
15.
- D.
16.
Correct Answer
C. 15.Explanation
The career status bonus (CSB) election becomes effective when an Airman reaches 15 years of service. This means that after completing 15 years in the Air Force, the Airman is eligible to elect the CSB. The CSB is a financial incentive offered to Airmen who agree to serve for an additional period of time, typically between 15 and 20 years, in exchange for a lump sum payment. By reaching 15 years of service, the Airman has met the eligibility criteria to make this election.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The Customer Support Element (CSE) normally disposes of the clearance file within how many days after the member’s report not later than date (RNLTD)?
- A.
120.
- B.
90.
- C.
60.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
B. 90.Explanation
The Customer Support Element (CSE) typically disposes of the clearance file within 90 days after the member's report not later than date (RNLTD). This means that the CSE has a maximum of 90 days to process and complete the necessary paperwork and procedures related to the member's clearance file. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to ensure that all necessary tasks are completed before the member's departure.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to
- A.
Ensure accurate input of current data before the Airman arrives.
- B.
Assist the military personnel section (MPS) in creating valid position numbers.
- C.
Outline the MPS in-processing requirements.
- D.
Help Defense Finance Accounting Service (DFAS) determine pay transactions.
Correct Answer
C. Outline the MPS in-processing requirements.Explanation
The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to outline the MPS in-processing requirements. This means that it provides a clear and detailed list of the tasks and procedures that need to be completed by the military personnel section (MPS) when a new Airman arrives. The IDA worksheet ensures that the MPS has a clear understanding of what needs to be done in terms of paperwork, documentation, and other administrative tasks to properly process the Airman into their new duty assignment.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which form is used to document a member’s active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?
- A.
AF IMT 63.
- B.
AF Form 899.
- C.
AF IMT 330.
- D.
AF IMT 2096.
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 63.Explanation
The AF IMT 63 form is used to document a member's active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS). This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is the correct form to use in order to accurately record and document the ADSC. The other forms listed, AF Form 899, AF IMT 330, and AF IMT 2096, are not specifically designed for documenting ADSC and therefore would not be the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are
- A.
Kept by the member and used for future travel overseas.
- B.
Collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
- C.
Collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM).
- D.
Destroyed by the member.
Correct Answer
B. Collected by the military personnel section (MPS).Explanation
Once a member inprocesses, their no-fee passports are collected by the military personnel section (MPS). This is done to ensure proper record-keeping and accountability of the passports. By collecting the passports, the MPS can keep track of who has a passport and when it was issued. This information is important for various administrative purposes, such as verifying eligibility for overseas travel and coordinating with other military agencies. Additionally, collecting the passports allows for proper security measures to be taken, as the MPS can ensure that the passports are safely stored and protected.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Confirmation of an accession’s arrival to the permanent duty station affects which type of accountability?
- A.
Strength.
- B.
Total force.
- C.
Transient.
- D.
Unit.
Correct Answer
A. Strength.Explanation
When an accession arrives at a permanent duty station, it affects the strength accountability. Strength accountability refers to the number of personnel present at a given duty station. When an accession arrives, it adds to the overall strength of the unit or organization. Therefore, confirmation of an accession's arrival to the permanent duty station affects the strength accountability.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The Individualized Newcomers Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) program does not provide Airman relocating to a new assignment with information on
- A.
Housing.
- B.
Household goods weight limitations.
- C.
Training for new job skills.
- D.
Concurrent and noncurrent travel for family members.
Correct Answer
C. Training for new job skills.Explanation
The INTRO program is designed to provide information and support to Airman relocating to a new assignment. It covers various aspects such as housing, household goods weight limitations, and concurrent and noncurrent travel for family members. However, it does not provide training for new job skills. This means that the program focuses on assisting with the logistics of the relocation rather than helping the Airman acquire new skills for their new job.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which item is not provided by the sponsor prior to the newcomer’s arrival?
- A.
Travel voucher template.
- B.
Welcome letters.
- C.
City map.
- D.
Base guide.
Correct Answer
A. Travel voucher template.Explanation
The correct answer is "Travel voucher template." This means that the sponsor does not provide the travel voucher template before the newcomer's arrival. The other options, such as welcome letters, city map, and base guide, are all items that the sponsor would typically provide prior to the newcomer's arrival.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Guard and reserve personnel qualify for military benefits when they are activated for a period in excess of how many days?
- A.
30.
- B.
60.
- C.
90.
- D.
120.
Correct Answer
A. 30.Explanation
Guard and reserve personnel qualify for military benefits when they are activated for a period in excess of 30 days. This means that if they are called to active duty for a period longer than 30 days, they are eligible for benefits such as healthcare, retirement, and education assistance.Rate this question:
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- 48.
To avoid fraud, most customer support elements require how many forms of identification before processing an ID card?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
None.
Correct Answer
B. 2.Explanation
Most customer support elements require two forms of identification before processing an ID card to ensure the authenticity of the request and prevent fraud. This additional layer of verification helps to confirm the identity of the individual and minimize the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of personal information. Having multiple forms of identification also adds an extra level of security and reduces the chances of fraudulent activities.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If the member is a civilian employee, what documentation is required to get an ID card?
- A.
AF Form 899.
- B.
DD Form 363.
- C.
SF Form 50.
- D.
DD Form 214.
Correct Answer
C. SF Form 50.Explanation
The correct answer is SF Form 50. SF Form 50, also known as the Notification of Personnel Action form, is required to get an ID card for civilian employees. This form is used to document personnel actions such as appointments, promotions, and separations. It provides information about the employee's status and eligibility for benefits, including the issuance of an ID card.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Who processes Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) applications?
- A.
Verifying official (VO).
- B.
Military personnel specialist.
- C.
Military member.
- D.
Supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Verifying official (VO).Explanation
The correct answer is "Verifying official (VO)". In the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS), the Verifying Official (VO) is responsible for processing applications. They are in charge of verifying the eligibility of individuals for benefits and enrollment in the system. This role requires expertise in understanding the eligibility criteria and ensuring that all necessary documentation is provided for accurate processing. The VO plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the DEERS system.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jul 28, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 13, 2018Quiz Created by
Dwdeason
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