A CDC 3S071 Vol 3 Exam Sample Test

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1. (006) The Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) vision is to have citizen

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. This answer aligns with the vision statement of the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC), which aims to have its Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. This suggests that the AFRC wants its Airmen to be actively involved in maintaining global security and projecting power worldwide. The other options, b, c, and d, do not accurately reflect the AFRC's vision as they either specify a different group of personnel or suggest a partial engagement rather than full engagement.

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About This Quiz
A CDC 3S071 Vol 3 Exam Sample Test - Quiz

This sample test for CDC 3S071 Volume 3 helps learners understand the structure and responsibilities within the Air Force's personnel management. It assesses knowledge on various Air Staff functions, including manpower, organization, and Airman development.

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2. (007) Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?

Explanation

The Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau was activated to help with Hurricane Katrina because the hurricane caused widespread destruction and required a large-scale response. The Air National Guard is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and is often called upon to assist in disaster relief efforts. They provide support in areas such as search and rescue, transportation, and medical assistance. In the case of Hurricane Katrina, the Air National Guard played a crucial role in providing aid and support to affected areas.

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3. (012) Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?

Explanation

Developing and implementing control measures when dealing with classified material is important to decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. This ensures that unauthorized individuals do not have access to sensitive information, reducing the risk of potential security breaches or unauthorized disclosures. By having control measures in place, such as restricted access, proper storage, and tracking of classified material, organizations can maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the classified information.

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4. (401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States (US), the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your

Explanation

When residing outside the United States, the address where you last resided before leaving is considered your legal state of residence for voting purposes. This means that your voting eligibility and registration will be based on the state where you lived before your departure.

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5. (206) Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the

Explanation

Once an Airman arrives at a base, they are required to report to the military personnel section (MPS). This is because the MPS is responsible for handling all personnel matters, including the processing of new arrivals and ensuring they are properly integrated into the base. The MPS will provide the Airman with necessary paperwork, conduct in-processing procedures, and assist with any administrative needs. The financial services office (FSO) is responsible for handling financial matters, the medical treatment facility (MTF) is responsible for providing medical care, and the unit deployment manager (UDM) is responsible for coordinating deployments and assignments.

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6. (203) American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except

Explanation

American military power plays a vital role in crisis management, maintaining peace, and engaging in conflicts. However, politics is the exception where military power may not have a direct role. While politics can influence military decisions and strategies, it is not solely dependent on military power. Political factors such as diplomacy, negotiations, and international relations also play a significant role in shaping political outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is politics.

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7. (216) Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most efficiently process personnel when the

Explanation

The correct answer is "reception control center is not established." This is because the PERSCO team's role is to coordinate with deployed support agencies and efficiently process personnel. When the reception control center is not established, it means that there is no centralized location or system in place to manage the reception and processing of personnel. In such a situation, the PERSCO team would need to take on the responsibility of coordinating and managing this process.

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8. (404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?

Explanation

The objective "Assist the family with funeral arrangements" is not a Casualty Services Program objective because it does not directly relate to providing casualty representative reports, eliminating delays in providing benefits to the next of kin, or closely tracking casualty reports and notifications. While assisting the family with funeral arrangements may be a supportive action, it is not a primary objective of the program.

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9. (204) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

Explanation

The Air National Guard (ANG) is unique because it has responsibilities at both the federal and state levels. At the federal level, the ANG is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and can be called upon to support federal missions. At the state level, the ANG can be activated by the governor to respond to emergencies and provide support within the state. This dual mission structure allows the ANG to serve both the nation and the local community.

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10. (007) The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and

Explanation

The correct answer is a. state mission. The Air National Guard (ANG) is a reserve component of the United States Air Force, and it has a dual mission. One of its missions is to support the federal government and the Air Force in times of war or national emergencies. The other mission is to support the state and local governments during disasters or emergencies within the state. This means that the ANG plays a crucial role in both national defense and domestic response efforts, making it an essential asset for both federal and state authorities.

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11. (012) It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the

Explanation

The correct answer is "refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior." This is because if an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA), it suggests that they may have something to hide or may not be trustworthy. This behavior raises suspicions and could potentially have negative implications for the squadron.

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12. (012) Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person's level of access to classified information?

Explanation

Completing the four-step authorization process is imperative because each step plays a crucial role in ensuring a thorough "checks and balance" process. This means that each step serves as a necessary measure to verify and validate a person's level of access to classified information. Without completing all four steps, the process would be incomplete and may compromise the security and integrity of the information.

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13. (008) The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a

Explanation

The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the skill level. This means that the code provides information about the level of proficiency and experience required for a particular job within the Air Force. The skill level can range from entry-level positions to higher-level positions that require more advanced skills and knowledge.

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14. (013) When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

Explanation

Couriers must do all of the following except erase laptops and disks completely before transporting. This is because erasing the laptops and disks completely before transporting them would result in the loss of all data, which may be necessary for the intended recipient. Instead, couriers should password protect the laptops, wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible, and mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program.

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15. (406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application?

Explanation

The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is designed to work on all computers as a stand-alone application. This means that it does not require any additional software or dependencies to function properly. It can be used independently and does not rely on any external systems or resources. Microsoft Access is used for storing casualty information, but the DCIPS-Forward application itself is self-sufficient and can operate on its own.

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16. (205) The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

Explanation

The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities. This means that the objective is to distribute the available resources and personnel in a fair and balanced manner across the different AEFs, ensuring that each AEF has the same level of capabilities. This approach aims to enhance the overall effectiveness and readiness of the Air Force by ensuring that all AEFs are equally equipped to fulfill their responsibilities.

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17. (016) How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?

Explanation

Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced on a daily basis. This means that the TRs are managed and generated automatically every day. This frequency allows for accurate and up-to-date records of transactions to be maintained. It ensures that any changes or updates in the transactions are reflected promptly in the registers. By controlling and producing TRs daily, organizations can have a real-time view of their transactions, enabling them to make informed decisions and effectively manage their financial activities.

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18.   (009) What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?

Explanation

Chief master sergeants must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders. They hold the highest enlisted rank and are responsible for mentoring and guiding junior enlisted members. They are expected to demonstrate exceptional leadership skills, professionalism, and expertise in their field. As the highest-ranking enlisted members, they play a crucial role in shaping the future of the enlisted force and setting the standard for excellence.

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19. (010) What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

Explanation

After completing a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks, personnel are awarded the training title of Journeyman. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of proficiency and competency in their career field.

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20. (416) How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF?

Explanation

An active duty member has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions of a UIF and provide pertinent information before the commander makes a final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF.

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21. (011) Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

Explanation

Unit training managers are responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training. They are in charge of coordinating and managing the training process within their unit, which includes handling administrative tasks such as initiating personnel actions. Supervisors may provide guidance and support, but the primary responsibility lies with the unit training managers. Career Assistance Advisors and Air Force Career Field Managers may have roles in career counseling and managing career development, but they are not specifically responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training.

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22. (011) Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

Explanation

It is important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet so that in case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced. This allows the trainee and their supervisor to review the recorded interruptions and determine if they may have contributed to any challenges or difficulties the trainee is experiencing during the upgrade training process. By referencing the documentation, the necessary adjustments or additional support can be provided to help the trainee successfully complete their training.

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23. (011) All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

Explanation

The trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process include budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path, and acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training. However, documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet is not mentioned as one of the trainee's responsibilities.

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24. (216) It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because

Explanation

It is important for the personnel support for contingency operation team to maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction. This means that relying solely on electronic information may result in the loss of important accountability information.

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25. (216) During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team is required to collect what documents?

Explanation

During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team is required to collect two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245. This is necessary to ensure that the team has the necessary documentation to properly support the contingency operation. The contingency/exercise/deployment orders provide important information about the operation, while the AF Form 245 is used to document personnel information and actions taken during the reception process.

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26. (012) When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

Explanation

When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does the following: initiates a security incident report, denies the individual access to classified information, and initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). However, they do not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

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27. (007) When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the

Explanation

When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the governor. This is because the Air National Guard is a state military force that can be called upon by the governor to respond to emergencies or provide support within the state. The governor is the highest-ranking official in the state and has authority over the National Guard units within their jurisdiction. Therefore, when not under federal control, the ANG units answer to the governor.

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28. (008) What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

Explanation

The combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career field subdivision. The AFSC is a unique code used to classify personnel in the Air Force based on their specific job roles and responsibilities. The first position of the AFSC indicates the career field, the second position represents the career group, and the third position signifies the career field subdivision. Therefore, the correct answer is d. career field subdivision.

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29. (013) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

Explanation

When hand carrying sensitive material, it is important to consider the environment because the material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel. This means that if the material is seen or discovered by individuals who are not authorized to have access to it, they may take it away or confiscate it. This could lead to potential security breaches or the loss of important information. Therefore, considering the environment and taking necessary precautions can help prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive material.

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30. (405) In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force Support Squadron commander, who will the casualty assistance representative (CAR) contact?

Explanation

In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) will contact the casualty team. The casualty team is responsible for providing support and assistance to the casualties and their families. They coordinate medical care, transportation, and other necessary services for the affected individuals. This team is specifically trained and equipped to handle mass casualties and ensure that the necessary resources and support are provided in such situations.

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31. (210) In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using which date?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214." This is because the demobilization date, which refers to the date when an individual is released from active duty or special orders, is authorized by the Major Command (MAJCOM) and documented on the DD Form 214, which is the official record of military service. This form is issued to all members of the military upon separation or retirement.

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32. (204) The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable

Explanation

The correct answer is "commodity". This suggests that the depth of experience that the Reserve forces bring is seen as a valuable and tradable asset. It implies that their experience is highly sought after and can be used to benefit the mission and the Air Force.

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33. (406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward provides a userfriendly application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive

Explanation

The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is a user-friendly application that helps casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports. The correct answer, "manual typing," suggests that the application does not require excessive manual typing. This implies that the system likely has features that automate or streamline the process of entering information, reducing the need for manual input.

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34. (410) Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals from the personnel reliability program (PRP) do not include  

Explanation

The traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals from the personnel reliability program (PRP) do not include advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance. This means that advising supervisors about potential issues that could affect your performance is not considered a disqualifying or decertifying factor in the PRP. The other options listed, such as being arrested for illegal substances, using expired medications, and driving under the influence of alcohol, are all examples of behaviors that could potentially lead to disqualification or decertification from the PRP.

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35. (013) Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

Explanation

The sender is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address. This is because the sender is the one who initiates the shipment and is responsible for ensuring that the package reaches the intended recipient. The sender is also responsible for providing accurate address information to ensure successful delivery.

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36. (210) If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to

Explanation

If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they have the option to request to remain on active duty up to the original activation period. This means that they can continue serving until the end of the originally planned duration of their activation.

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37. (211) Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster?

Explanation

It is important to maintain a communications-out recall roster because local communications may be inoperative or overloaded. This means that in emergency situations or when communication systems are down, it may not be possible to contact individuals through phone calls or other means. Having a recall roster allows for a more efficient and effective way of reaching out to personnel in such situations.

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38. (001) Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office?

Explanation

The Air Staff functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office. The Air Staff is responsible for providing advice and support to the SECAF in areas such as policy development, planning, and decision-making. They work closely with the SECAF to ensure the effective management and operation of the Air Force. The other options, the Air National Guard Bureau, Air Force Personnel Center, and Air Force Reserve Command, may have their own specific roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, but they are not directly responsible for assisting the SECAF in carrying out their duties.

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39. (009) Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that

Explanation

The correct answer is "training is key to the success of the Air Force." This answer emphasizes the importance of training in achieving success in the Air Force. It suggests that training plays a crucial role in preparing Airmen for their roles and responsibilities, ensuring that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively carry out their duties. By prioritizing training, the superintendent recognizes that it is essential for the overall success and effectiveness of the Air Force.

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40.   (009) What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

Explanation

Master sergeants transition from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence. This rank signifies a higher level of experience, knowledge, and leadership ability compared to staff sergeants and technical sergeants. Senior master sergeants are also leaders, but they are typically focused on managing larger units and providing strategic guidance, whereas master sergeants are more involved in day-to-day operations.

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41. (402) Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to

Explanation

Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to $2,000. This means that the maximum amount that can be reimbursed for adoption expenses is $2,000 per child.

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42. (014) What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?

Explanation

To ensure that the subject line effectively communicates your purpose in an email, it is important to be clear and concise. By using clear and concise language in the subject line, you can convey the main point or objective of your email to the recipient. This helps them quickly understand the purpose of the email and prioritize their response accordingly. Being clear and concise in the subject line also makes it easier for the recipient to search for and reference the email in the future.

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43. (009) These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates' talents, skills, and resources with other teams' functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.

Explanation

Senior master sergeants are the correct answer because they are experienced operational leaders who have the skills to merge the talents, skills, and resources of their subordinates with other teams' functions to effectively accomplish the mission. Technical sergeants, master sergeants, and chief master sergeants may also have leadership abilities, but senior master sergeants specifically possess the necessary experience and skills for this task.

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44. (208) The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up" Reserve Component forces. What does "calling up" do, if anything, to the active duty's military capability?

Explanation

Calling up Reserve Component forces increases the active duty military capability. By mobilizing and deploying Reserve Component forces, the active duty military can augment their existing forces and increase their overall capability. This allows for a larger and more diverse force to be utilized in military operations, enhancing their overall effectiveness and capacity to carry out missions.

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45. (208) The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to

Explanation

The concept of mobilization refers to the activities required to transition military forces from a peacetime state to a wartime posture. This includes activating both active and Reserve Component forces and preparing them for combat operations. The term "wartime posture" refers to the readiness and positioning of military forces during a time of war. Therefore, the correct answer is "wartime posture."

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46. (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?

Explanation

The Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update TU4 is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA).

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47. (208) Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for mobilization?

Explanation

The term "spatial" is not a commonly used term in Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) for mobilization. The other options, partial, total, and full, are more frequently used terms in the context of mobilization.

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48.   (202) The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is

Explanation

The correct answer is employment. Employment refers to the joint operation planning activity that outlines how military force should be used to achieve specific military objectives within a designated operational area. It involves the strategic allocation and utilization of military resources and assets to accomplish the mission effectively.

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49. (209) Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as

Explanation

The term "military personnel appropriation man-days" refers to the days that are allocated or set aside for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen. This term specifically highlights the allocation of days for military personnel and emphasizes the appropriation aspect of it. It is a more comprehensive and specific term compared to the other options provided.

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50. (017) What management assessment product (MAP) would a member's name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?

Explanation

A member's name would be reflected on MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP if they require administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and are projected to Minot AFB, ND. This MAP specifically deals with relocations related to PRP and would be applicable in this scenario.

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51. (215) When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the

Explanation

The PERSCO team, which provides personnel support for contingency operations, should select the most qualified personnel. This ensures that the team is composed of individuals who have the necessary skills and expertise to effectively carry out their duties. By choosing the most qualified personnel, the team can operate efficiently and effectively without the need for extensive training while deployed.

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52. (201) Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from

Explanation

Challenges and threats to United States values and interests can come from adversaries, which refers to individuals or groups who are opposed to or hostile towards the United States. These adversaries may pose various challenges and threats, such as engaging in acts of terrorism, cyberattacks, or military aggression. It is important for the United States to recognize and address these adversaries in order to protect its values and interests.

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53. (416) The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training

Explanation

The base monitor is responsible for conducting unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training. This training is conducted on a regular basis to ensure that all personnel are aware of the procedures and regulations related to UIFs. Conducting the training annually allows for consistent reinforcement of these important guidelines and helps to ensure that all personnel are knowledgeable and up to date on UIF procedures.

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54. (002) Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition assistance and support?

Explanation

The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) supports Air Force retirees by providing transition assistance and support. This includes helping retirees with their transition from military to civilian life, providing resources and information on benefits and entitlements, and assisting with job placement and career counseling.

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55. (408) If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element staff forward to the member's commander?

Explanation

The Career Development element staff forwards a Security Requirement Memorandum to the member's commander when the member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the one on file. This memorandum outlines the specific security requirements needed for the assignment and serves as a formal request for the member's clearance to be upgraded or updated. It ensures that the member meets the necessary security criteria for their new assignment.

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56. (408) If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, he or she can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date?

Explanation

A member with a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment can out-process no earlier than 1 duty day prior to the departure date. This means that they must complete all necessary administrative tasks and paperwork related to their move within one day of their scheduled departure.

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57. (409) Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online

Explanation

After receiving an approval of separation e-mail, the member is required to access the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online Initial Separation Briefing. This briefing is likely to provide important information and guidance to the member regarding their separation process and any necessary steps they need to take. It is an essential part of the separation procedure for Air Force members.

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58. (417) If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force professional military education (PME) and formal training, what system would you use?

Explanation

The correct answer is Oracle training administration (OTA) because it is the system that is used as the source of record for all Air Force professional military education (PME) and formal training.

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59. (004) The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the

Explanation

The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the numbered air force (NAF). This means that the NAF is the next level of command below the MAJCOM. The other options, such as the wing, commander's support staff (CSS), and military personnel section (MPS), are not at a higher level of command than the MAJCOM.

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60. (011) The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

Explanation

The correct answer is trainee. In the Air Force training program, the main focus is on the trainee. This means that the program is designed to provide the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to the trainee in order to prepare them for their role in the Air Force. The trainee is the one who will be receiving the training and ultimately applying it in their future duties, making them the central figure in the training program.

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61. (401) The military member's physical address at the time of joining a particular Service is considered their

Explanation

The correct answer is "home of record." The military member's home of record refers to their official address on file when they first joined the Service. This address is used for various administrative purposes, including determining their state of legal residence for tax and voting purposes. It may not necessarily be their current physical address or the place where they plan to retire.

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62. (202) Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). SORTS is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) that serves as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations. It provides information on the status of resources, personnel, and training readiness of these units.

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63. (409) Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed standards of performance and conduct, for misconduct, moral or professional dereliction, and when they

Explanation

Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed standards of performance and conduct, for misconduct, moral or professional dereliction, and when they pose a threat to national security. This means that if an officer's actions or behavior are deemed to be a threat to national security, they can be discharged administratively. This could include actions such as leaking sensitive information, engaging in espionage, or having connections to terrorist organizations. It is important to remove individuals who pose a threat to national security from positions of power and authority.

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64. (203) Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?

Explanation

The National Security Act of 1947 established the Department of Defense, which included the Army, Navy, and Air Force. However, the Marine Corps was not established by this act. It has been a separate branch of the military since its inception in 1775.

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65. (204) Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the

Explanation

Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the 1920s and 30s. This is because during this time period, the Air National Guard was officially established as a reserve component of the United States Air Force. The Air National Guard units were initially formed as individual state units, and many of them have been in existence since the 1920s and 30s. Therefore, it can be concluded that most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to this time period.

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66. (209) When performing military personnel appropriation man-days, Airmen and their families are entitled to the same medical care as active duty personnel as long as their orders specify a period of

Explanation

Airmen and their families are entitled to the same medical care as active duty personnel when performing military personnel appropriation man-days, but only if their orders specify a period of 31 days or greater. This means that if the Airmen and their families are on orders for less than 31 days, they may not receive the same medical care benefits as active duty personnel.

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67. (008) A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the

Explanation

The first and second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) represent the career field. The AFSC is a code used by the Air Force to identify specific jobs and career fields within the organization. The first position of the code represents the career group, which is a broad category that encompasses multiple career fields. The second position further narrows down the career field within that career group. Therefore, combining the first and second positions of the AFSC allows for the identification of the specific career field.

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68. (012) Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the

Explanation

The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM) commander. The explanation for this answer is that the authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the MAJCOM commander. This means that only the MAJCOM commander has the power and responsibility to grant security clearance access to individuals who do not already have a clearance. The other options, such as the Mission support group (MSG) commander, Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander, and Wing (WG) commander, do not have the authority to grant security clearance access in this situation.

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69. (008) Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?

Explanation

The AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) that is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training is "Control." This means that the member's initial AFSC is determined by their assigned duties and responsibilities during their training and early stages of service.

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70. (406) What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages?

Explanation

The module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward that is responsible for collecting data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages is the Casualty Report module.

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71. (008) The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except

Explanation

The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, providing casualty assistance, and performing personnel actions. However, advising civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs is not one of their responsibilities.

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72. (213) The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all of the following personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except

Explanation

The IPR provides personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training, which includes developing training templates for Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment, providing information to the PERSCO team chief, and training the PERSCO teams and personnel readiness center. However, it does not include training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates.

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73. (014) Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except

Explanation

When researching a topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals, it is important to use all of the following approaches except avoiding asking your supervisor until you have all the information to present. This is because your supervisor can provide valuable insights, guidance, and potentially additional resources that can aid in your research. It is recommended to involve your supervisor throughout the research process to ensure that you are on the right track and to benefit from their expertise.

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74. (214) Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability?

Explanation

The term "strength" refers to the total number of personnel within a unit, including those who are deployed or stationed at geographically separated locations. Maintaining accountability over all personnel, regardless of their status, is crucial in order to ensure that the unit's strength is accurately known and accounted for. This helps in effectively managing resources, planning operations, and ensuring the overall readiness of the unit.

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75. (211) Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?

Explanation

The responsibility to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post lies with the commander. The commander is in charge of ensuring the readiness and deployment of the unit, which includes maintaining accurate and current information about the personnel in the unit. This information is crucial for effective communication and coordination during deployments and emergencies.

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76. (205) The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?

Explanation

The Air Force organized its total force into 10 air and space expeditionary forces.

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77. (215) Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team?

Explanation

The correct answer is Force support squadron. Personnel from the Force support squadron are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team. The Force support squadron is responsible for providing a wide range of support services to military personnel and their families, including personnel support during contingency operations. They handle tasks such as personnel management, career development, and administrative support, making them well-suited for assignments in the PERSCO team.

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78. (412) The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of this information except

Explanation

The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of this information except the name and rank of the board president. This means that the notice includes the board convening date, the name and rank of the most junior officer, and the name and rank of the most senior officer. However, it does not include the name and rank of the board president.

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79. (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?

Explanation

The correct answer is E64. This update in the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) is used to change an initial E63 projection before the effective date of a reenlistment action.

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80. (208) If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization?

Explanation

If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they would be electing a partial mobilization. This means that they are increasing the number of active Armed Forces personnel for a limited period of time, rather than mobilizing the entire military or only a portion of it.

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81. (413) A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission describes the

Explanation

The correct answer is the unit manpower document (UMD). This document provides information about the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in both wartime and peacetime situations. It helps in managing the personnel within the unit and ensures that the right individuals are assigned to the appropriate positions to fulfill the unit's mission. The UMD is a crucial tool for unit personnel management and helps in maintaining an effective and efficient workforce.

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82. (001) Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) by managing workflow, tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, and overseeing supplies and equipment purchases?

Explanation

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83. (001) This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values and expectations.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D) because this office is responsible for defining the Culture of Airmen, which includes core standards, values, and expectations. They focus on the development and sustainment of airmen, ensuring that they meet the required standards and embody the values of the Air Force. This office plays a crucial role in shaping the culture and maintaining the high standards of the Air Force personnel.

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84. (209) Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually include a maximum of how many travel days?

Explanation

Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually include a maximum of one travel day. This means that for each day of the tour, only one day is allocated for travel.

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85. (001) Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)?

Explanation

The Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X) serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1). This office is responsible for coordinating and integrating IT initiatives and strategies within the AF/A1 organization to support the overall mission and goals of the Deputy Chief of Staff.

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86. (010) The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except job

Explanation

The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program is designed to provide training and development opportunities for individuals in the Air Force. The program includes various components such as job proficiency, knowledge, and experience. These components help individuals gain the necessary skills and expertise to excel in their roles. However, satisfaction is not explicitly mentioned as a component of the OJT program. While job satisfaction may be an indirect result of the program, it is not a specific component that is included in the program itself.

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87. (408) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?

Explanation

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88. (002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with information technology and lifecycle management?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Personnel Data Systems. The question is asking which directorate assists HQ AFPC with information technology and lifecycle management. The directorate that specifically deals with personnel data systems would be responsible for managing and maintaining the IT systems and processes related to personnel data within the Air Force Personnel Center. This includes managing databases, data entry, data analysis, and ensuring the accuracy and security of personnel data.

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89. (409) Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service?

Explanation

The discharge that is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service is an Honorable discharge. This type of discharge is given to those who have met or exceeded the military's standards of performance and conduct during their service. It signifies that the individual has fulfilled their obligations and has been a valuable member of the military.

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90. (409) When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is

Explanation

When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is "Under Other Than Honorable Conditions." This means that the individual's conduct was not in line with the expected standards of the military, leading to a less than honorable discharge. This characterization may have negative consequences for the individual's future employment prospects and benefits entitlement.

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91. (416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only?

Explanation

In the military personnel data system (MilPDS), code 1 is used to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only. This code is specifically assigned to indicate the presence of a UIF, which contains documentation of disciplinary actions or negative information about a military member.

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92. (416) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?

Explanation

Promotion eligibility status code G is associated with adverse actions. This means that individuals with this status are not eligible for promotion due to their involvement in adverse actions, such as disciplinary actions or poor performance. Adverse actions can hinder an individual's career progression and may result in them being ineligible for promotion opportunities.

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93. (003) What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs?

Explanation

The base-level service delivery model (BLSDM) is a component of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs. This model helps to streamline and automate personnel services at the base level, making it easier for commanders to access and manage personnel data and resources. It provides a centralized system for tracking and managing personnel information, such as assignments, training, and promotions, and allows commanders to efficiently allocate and deploy personnel based on their needs.

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94. (416) What assignment availability codes (AAC) are associated with adverse actions?

Explanation

Assignment availability codes (AAC) indicate the availability of military personnel for assignment. Adverse actions are disciplinary actions taken against military personnel for misconduct or poor performance. AAC 12 signifies that a member is medically disqualified for worldwide assignment, while AAC 16 indicates that a member is under investigation or pending legal action. Both of these AACs are associated with adverse actions as they restrict the member's availability for assignment due to medical or legal reasons.

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95. (011) As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training?

Explanation

To develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) for managing work center and individual training, a supervisor would require a Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). CFETPs provide guidance on training requirements, career progression, and skill development for specific career fields. They outline the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for different positions within the career field, as well as the training courses and resources available to develop those competencies. By using a CFETP, supervisors can effectively plan and manage the training needs of their work center and individuals.

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96. (004) How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs?

Explanation

Major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs through periodic staff assistance visits. These visits allow MAJCOM to assess the performance and effectiveness of MPS and CSS programs by observing their operations and providing feedback and recommendations for improvement. This monitoring method ensures that MAJCOM can identify any issues or areas of improvement and take appropriate actions to enhance the effectiveness of these programs.

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97. (205) When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an

Explanation

When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as an air and expeditionary wing. This is because an air and expeditionary wing is a higher-level organizational unit that is capable of providing the necessary support and resources for sustaining base operations. It includes various squadrons and groups that specialize in different areas, such as maintenance, logistics, and security. By organizing as an air and expeditionary wing, the task force can effectively coordinate and manage all the necessary functions to ensure the smooth operation of the base.

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98. (401) The Armed Forces may use military authority to

Explanation

The correct answer is "provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states." This is because the Armed Forces may assist their members in voting by providing information about absentee voting, which allows service members to vote even if they are not physically present in their home states. This does not involve influencing the vote or prescribing qualifications of voters, nor does it require members to march to a polling place.

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99. (008) What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

Explanation

The first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career group. This means that it categorizes the specialty into a broader career field. The AFSC is a code used to identify and classify Air Force jobs and positions, and the first position helps to group similar specialties together.

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100. (409) When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, how many years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS) must he or she have?

Explanation

An officer who is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status must have at least 10 years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS). This means that they must have served in a commissioned officer role in the federal government for a minimum of 10 years in order to be eligible for retirement in an officer status.

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101. (410) For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position, they must possess all of these attributes except

Explanation

The correct answer is "has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors." This attribute is not required for personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position. The other attributes listed are necessary for PRP personnel. They must have access, but no technical knowledge, meaning they can enter areas containing nuclear weapons but do not have the expertise to operate or tamper with them. They also control access into these areas and have been designated as certifying officials at operational units.

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102. (013) Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport

Explanation

Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport through or within countries hostile to the United States. This is because the Department of State courier system is designed to ensure the secure transportation of classified material, especially in areas where there may be a higher risk of interception or compromise. By using this system, personnel can ensure that the classified material remains protected even when being transported through or within hostile countries.

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103. (213) The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel

Explanation

The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters. This means that the IPR is responsible for planning and coordinating personnel movements and activities related to deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters. They ensure that personnel are prepared and ready for these events and handle any necessary logistics or administrative tasks.

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104. (014) In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except

Explanation

To be successful when communicating with your audience, it is important to use all of the provided tips except for being original. Being inclusive ensures that everyone feels included and valued, extending courtesy promotes respect and professionalism, and making it personal helps to establish a connection with the audience. However, being original may not always be necessary as sometimes it is more effective to use proven methods or follow established guidelines for effective communication.

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105. (407) Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties?

Explanation

AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services, does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties. This publication likely focuses on the procedures and protocols for providing support and services to Air Force personnel and their families in the event of a casualty. It is not specifically related to the release of information regarding casualties to the public or media.

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106. (401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the civilian's minimum grade is

Explanation

The installation commander must appoint the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) and ensure that the civilian's minimum grade is at GS-12. This means that the person appointed to this position must have a General Schedule (GS) grade level of 12 or higher. The GS grade system is used by the federal government to determine the pay and qualifications of employees. By requiring a minimum grade of GS-12, the installation commander ensures that the IVAO has the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively carry out their responsibilities in assisting with voting matters on the installation.

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107. (401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the military member's minimum grade is

Explanation

The correct answer is O-4, which stands for Officer Grade 4. This means that the installation commander must ensure that the military member appointed as the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) has a minimum rank of O-4. This requirement ensures that the IVAO has sufficient knowledge, experience, and authority to effectively carry out their duties related to voting assistance on the installation.

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108. (214) If a member's legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?

Explanation

The personnelist is responsible for providing personal support to the member. This includes addressing their legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs. If these needs are not being met, it means that the personnelist is not fulfilling their responsibility of providing personal support to the member.

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109. (014) What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information?

Explanation

Discussing controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information violates the e-mail communication rule of being selective about the message you send. This means that one should be cautious and careful about the content of their e-mails, especially when it involves sensitive or classified information. Sharing such information through e-mail can lead to security breaches or unauthorized access, which can have serious consequences. Therefore, it is important to exercise discretion and only share appropriate and necessary information through e-mail.

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110. (017) What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member's name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?

Explanation

The correct answer is 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR. This option suggests that if a member contacts customer service stating that a sponsor has not been assigned, it will be reflected in the management assessment product (MAP) under the category of CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR. This indicates that there is an issue with assigning a sponsor to the member.

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111. (017) What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing?

Explanation

The career development section can use MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK, to ensure database integrity if a member is demoted before departing for a permanent change of station (PCS). This MAP is specifically designed to enhance the quality of data in the database and can be used to check for any discrepancies or errors in the member's information. By running this assessment, the career development section can ensure that the member's demotion is accurately reflected in the database before their PCS.

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112. (002) For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the Directorate of

Explanation

HQ AFPC contacts the Directorate of Civilian Force Integration for assistance with recruiting and training interns. This suggests that the Directorate of Civilian Force Integration is responsible for managing and integrating civilian personnel into the Air Force, including interns. They likely have the expertise and resources to help with the recruiting and training process for interns who will become future Air Force leaders.

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113. (201) The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as

Explanation

The correct answer is "basic." The question is asking for the type of doctrine that describes and guides the proper use of Air Forces in military action. The term "basic" suggests that this doctrine would encompass the most fundamental and enduring beliefs. The other options, such as "joint," "tactical," and "operational," do not specifically refer to the fundamental and enduring beliefs that the question is asking for. Therefore, "basic" is the most appropriate answer.

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114. (409) Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation?

Explanation

Parenthood, erroneous enlistment, and entry-level performance and conduct can all be valid reasons for administrative separation from the military. However, a progressively downward trend in performance ratings is not typically a standalone reason for administrative separation. While consistently poor performance may lead to separation, a downward trend alone is not sufficient justification.

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115. (012) Which is not an installation security program manager's program responsibility?

Explanation

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116. (216) Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team?

Explanation

The correct answer is RFPF1. This unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team.

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117. (012) Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?

Explanation

Supervisors must ensure that their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation within 90 days of assignment to the unit before they can access classified information. This orientation is necessary to educate the personnel about the security protocols and procedures that they need to follow to protect classified information. It is important to provide this education promptly to ensure that the personnel are aware of their responsibilities and can effectively safeguard classified information.

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118. (006) Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)?  

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 440. This means that approximately 440 aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC).

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119. (401) Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting program as an annual item for review, to evaluate the effectiveness, and ensure compliance with Department of Defense (DOD) regulations and public law?

Explanation

The Air Force Inspector General office is responsible for including the voting program as an annual item for review, evaluating its effectiveness, and ensuring compliance with Department of Defense (DOD) regulations and public law. This office is in charge of overseeing and ensuring the integrity of various programs within the Air Force, including the voting program. They are responsible for conducting audits, inspections, and evaluations to ensure compliance and effectiveness.

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120. (404) Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the member's

Explanation

The casualty assistance representative (CAR) provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office with the member's name, age, home of record, race, and awards. This information is important for the proper handling of the deceased member's remains and for any public announcements or honors that may be given.

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121. (204) Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?

Explanation

Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with stability. Stability refers to the ability of the unit to remain steady and consistent in its actions and operations. The presence of stable friendships and teamwork within the unit helps create a sense of cohesion and reliability, which in turn contributes to the overall strength and effectiveness of the unit.

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122. (410) When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and the required investigation has not yet been completed, the member may receive certification as

Explanation

When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and the required investigation has not yet been completed, the member may receive certification as interim. This means that the individual is temporarily approved for the position until the investigation is finished and a final decision can be made. This allows the individual to begin working in the critical position without delay, while still ensuring that the necessary background checks and investigations are being conducted.

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123. (213) To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel deployment function (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is "In-processing." In-processing refers to the procedures that personnel must go through when they first arrive at a new location or unit. This includes tasks such as completing paperwork, receiving briefings, and getting familiarized with the new environment. In-processing is important for establishing accurate accountability because it ensures that all personnel are properly accounted for and have completed the necessary administrative tasks before they can fully function in their new role.

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124. (014) Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?

Explanation

Justification is not considered one of the five principles of good communication because it does not directly relate to the process of effectively conveying information. The five principles of good communication typically include clarity, conciseness, consideration, completeness, and correctness. Justification, on the other hand, refers to providing reasons or evidence to support a claim, which is not a fundamental aspect of communication itself.

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125. (202) Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?

Explanation

Deployment refers to the planning and execution of the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination in order to conduct joint operations. This includes the coordination of transportation, logistics, and other necessary support to ensure that the forces are effectively positioned and ready for action.

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126. (207) A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when

Explanation

When new equipment types enter the inventory, it is necessary to develop a unit type code (UTC). This is because the new equipment types may require different training, maintenance, or operational procedures compared to the existing equipment. Developing a UTC ensures that the unit is properly organized and equipped to effectively utilize the new equipment.

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127. (001) How many subordinate units does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) have?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Six. The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) has six subordinate units. This means that AF/A1 is responsible for overseeing and managing six different units within the organization.

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128. (401) Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in writing one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC), at the minimum grade of

Explanation

For every 100 members, the unit commander is required to appoint one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC) in writing. The minimum grade for this position is E-7. This means that the UVAC must hold the rank of at least E-7 in order to fulfill their duties as a voting assistance counselor for the unit.

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129. (408) Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments?

Explanation

EQUAL-Plus is the correct answer because it is the system that advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments. It is a system used by the military to manage and assign personnel to different duty assignments based on their qualifications and the needs of the organization.

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130. (015) What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated service?

Explanation

The Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code RDJ appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension but does not include the obligated service.

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131. (402) Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to

Explanation

Married service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to $5,000. This means that the service members who are married and choose to adopt a child can receive reimbursement for adoption expenses that are considered reasonable and necessary, up to a maximum of $5,000 per calendar year.

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132. (402) Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can Service members submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses?

Explanation

Service members can submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses up to 12 months after the finalization of an adoption.

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133. (002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Assignments. The directorate of Assignments assists HQ AFPC with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel. This involves managing and coordinating assignments for personnel, ensuring they are placed in appropriate positions to further their careers and meet the needs of the Air Force. This directorate plays a crucial role in the career progression and development of Air Force personnel.

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134. (216) Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as

Explanation

The correct answer is "ready-to-deploy." This means that the Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must be prepared and equipped to be deployed within six hours of receiving the alert order or deployment notification. They must have all the necessary resources, training, and readiness to be able to quickly and effectively deploy to support contingency operations.

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135. (410) If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions, he or she works with the

Explanation

The reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions. In this scenario, the RO would work with the competent medical authority. The competent medical authority is responsible for providing accurate and reliable medical information and assessments, which are crucial for determining if a candidate or member of the PRP has any disqualifying conditions. The primary care manager, medical group commander, and medical records technician may have roles in the overall medical process, but the competent medical authority is the one who would work directly with the RO in this specific situation.

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136. (408) The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT

Explanation

The correct answer is 965.

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137. (401) You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time you are transferred to a new location you may change your

Explanation

The correct answer is residency. Residency refers to the place where a person lives and has established their permanent home. While you can only have one legal residence at a time, you can change your residency each time you are transferred to a new location. This means that you can establish a new permanent home and voting residence in the new location.

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138. (007) What percentage of the Air Force's tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard (ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations?

Explanation

The Air National Guard (ANG) provides 50% of the Air Force's tactical airlift support for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations.

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139. (013) Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted

Explanation

Classified communications security (COMSEC) information is sensitive and needs to be protected from unauthorized access. Transmitting such information overnight increases the risk of it being intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals. Therefore, it is not allowed to transmit COMSEC information overnight to ensure its security and confidentiality.

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140. (202) What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment." These joint operation planning activities are essential for supporting the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders. Mobilization involves the process of assembling and organizing resources for deployment. Deployment refers to the movement of personnel and equipment to the operational area. Employment involves the utilization of these resources in carrying out the mission. Sustainment focuses on providing the necessary logistics support to maintain operations. Redeployment is the process of withdrawing forces and equipment from the operational area.

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141. (210) Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a report individual person (RIP), how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency?

Explanation

Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package and reviews it, they then request a report individual person (RIP). They are required to forward the package to the appropriate agency within three duty days.

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142. (407) For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not be released without permission?

Explanation

Personal information such as gross pay and basic allowance for housing may not be released without permission for ill or injured casualties. This information is considered private and should not be disclosed without the individual's consent.

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143. (009) What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?

Explanation

A senior noncommissioned officer's primary purpose is to ensure the successful completion of missions. They are responsible for leading and guiding their subordinates to achieve mission objectives and goals. This includes coordinating resources, providing guidance and direction, and making critical decisions to ensure mission success. By focusing on mission accomplishment, SNCOs play a crucial role in the overall effectiveness and readiness of their unit or organization.

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144. (407) For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be released?

Explanation

Personal information about the member's family may not be released for deceased casualties. This could include details such as the names, addresses, and contact information of their family members. The other options listed - pay date, military base pay, and allowances; age and date of birth; and home of record - do not pertain to personal information about the member's family and therefore may be released.

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145. (207) What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?

Explanation

The basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces is the unit type code. Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as squadrons, wings, or groups. These codes are used to identify and organize units for planning and deployment purposes, ensuring that the right units with the right capabilities are assigned to specific missions or tasks.

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146. (208) The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes

Explanation

Being flexible is the mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis. Flexibility allows for overcoming unforeseen problems, providing protection of the force and equipment, and adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war. It enables the ability to quickly change plans, strategies, and tactics as needed in order to effectively respond to the evolving situation.

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147. (208) Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures?

Explanation

Ensuring timeliness refers to the mobilization tenet of achieving rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures. This means that the focus is on promptly identifying and addressing needs, implementing efficient procedures for mobilization, and regularly conducting exercises to evaluate and enhance the effectiveness of these procedures. It emphasizes the importance of being proactive, efficient, and responsive in order to ensure timely and effective mobilization.

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148. (010) What is key to the total training program?

Explanation

Upgrade training (UGT) is the key to the total training program. This is because UGT focuses on providing advanced training and knowledge to individuals in order to upgrade their skills and qualifications. UGT helps individuals to acquire new skills, enhance their existing skills, and stay updated with the latest advancements in their field. It plays a crucial role in career development and ensures that individuals are equipped with the necessary knowledge and expertise to perform their job effectively.

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149. (201) The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by

Explanation

The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by national security policy. National security policy is a comprehensive strategy that outlines the goals, objectives, and priorities of a nation in terms of its security and defense. It provides guidance to the military in determining how to allocate resources, plan operations, and respond to threats. Therefore, it is the national security policy that guides the United States Armed Forces in shaping and employing the military instrument to defend the country's interests and objectives.

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150. (003) What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720

Explanation

During the Program Budget Decision (PBD), the authorizations that were reduced to save money were related to manpower. This means that there were likely cuts or reductions in the number of personnel or employees in order to reduce costs. The other options, such as programs, equipment, and additional duties, were not specifically mentioned as being reduced in the given information.

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151. (010) This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training.

Explanation

In-house training refers to specialized, systematic, and thorough technical training that is provided within the organization itself. This type of training is designed to enhance the specific knowledge needs of each individual involved, focusing on their specific job requirements and skill development. It is conducted internally by the organization, allowing for a tailored and targeted approach to training that aligns with the organization's goals and objectives. In-house training is often preferred as it allows for a more customized and flexible training experience, ensuring that employees receive the necessary skills and knowledge to excel in their roles.

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152. (003) How many flights were each organization realigned and consolidated into during phase I of the Mission Support Squadron's (MSS) transformative structure testing?

Explanation

During phase I of the Mission Support Squadron's transformative structure testing, each organization was realigned and consolidated into five flights.

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153. (012) It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure

Explanation

The SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, is important to use when granting an individual access to classified information because it ensures that the individual has signed and dated a source document, indicating their agreement to protect classified information. This agreement is a crucial step in the process of granting access to classified information and helps to ensure that individuals are aware of their responsibilities and obligations regarding the handling of classified information.

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154. (406) If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, do not label any item

Explanation

The correct answer is "TO BE SUPPLEMENTED." This means that if there is additional information that needs to be added to the casualty report, such as details that would be important to family members or the recipients of the report, it should be included. The other options, "UNDETERMINED," "UNCONFIRMED," and "UNKNOWN," suggest that there is uncertainty or lack of information about the casualty, but "TO BE SUPPLEMENTED" implies that there is more information that can be provided.

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155. (014) How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?

Explanation

To become a better communicator, whether in writing or speaking, seven effective communication steps are needed. These steps likely include elements such as active listening, clear and concise messaging, using appropriate body language, adapting communication style to the audience, and being open to feedback. By following these steps, individuals can improve their communication skills and effectively convey their message to others.

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156. (406) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived? .

Explanation

When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, the information that is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived is the location of the incident. The location of the incident does not provide direct evidence of whether an individual could have survived or not. Instead, statements of witnesses to the incident, circumstances of the incident, and search results can provide more reliable evidence to determine if someone has died.

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157. (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is cancelled?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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158. (408) When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC, how many calendar days does the outbound assignment technician have to verify the member's eligibility?

Explanation

The Career Development element has 7 calendar days to verify the member's eligibility after receiving the assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC.

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159. (416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment?

Explanation

Code 3 is used in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment.

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160. (202) Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is War and Mobilization Plan (WMP). The WMP provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations. It is a joint and service planning system that helps in the coordination and execution of military operations.

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161. (206) The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?

Explanation

The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a 24-month life cycle. This means that the AEF is organized and deployed in cycles that last for a period of 24 months. During this time, the AEF carries out its missions and responsibilities before transitioning to the next cycle. This longer cycle allows for more stability and continuity in planning and operations, ensuring that the AEF can effectively fulfill its duties over an extended period of time.

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162. (204) The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?

Explanation

The Reserves bring talent, depth, and experience to the military environment from their civilian employment. This means that they have valuable skills and expertise that can contribute to the military's mission. Their diverse backgrounds and experiences can also bring fresh perspectives and innovative ideas to the table. Additionally, their depth of knowledge and experience in their respective fields can enhance the overall capabilities of the military.

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163. (212) What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in anticipation of national crisis or natural disasters?

Explanation

Individuals must maintain a realistic and actionable evacuation plan in anticipation of national crises or natural disasters. This means that the plan should be based on realistic assessments of potential risks and should include concrete steps that can be taken in order to ensure safety and survival. The plan should be practical and feasible, taking into account the specific circumstances and resources available to the individuals. It should also be actionable, meaning that it can be put into practice effectively and efficiently when needed.

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164. (202) The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?

Explanation

Mobilization is the correct answer because it refers to the planning process through which the armed forces or a portion of them are prepared and brought to a state of readiness for war or a national emergency. It involves the activation and deployment of military forces, as well as the acquisition and allocation of resources necessary for combat operations. Mobilization ensures that the armed forces are adequately prepared and organized to respond effectively to any threat or crisis. Sustainment, Employment, and Reconstitution are not the correct answers as they do not specifically describe the process of preparing for war or national emergencies.

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165. (206) At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?

Explanation

The correct answer is one. This means that at any given time, there is only one air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block and/or pair from each tempo band in the AEF vulnerability period.

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166. (213) During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff?

Explanation

During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, the installation personnel readiness element serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff.

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167. (411) For promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt, Airmen compete and test under the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) in their

Explanation

The correct answer is "Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC)." In the Air Force, promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt are determined through the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS). Airmen compete and test under their Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC), which is the specific job they are currently assigned to. This code is different from the Duty Air Force Specialty Code (DAFSC), which represents the job an Airman is trained for, the Primary Air Force Specialty Code (PAFSC), which represents an Airman's primary job, and the Secondary Air Force Specialty Code (2AFSC), which represents an Airman's secondary job.

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168. (205) Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for national defense. This means that these forces are prepared to defend the nation's airspace and national security interests. The AEF concept ensures that the air and space forces are organized, equipped, and trained to effectively respond to any threats to the nation's security on a national level.

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169. (205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

Explanation

The primary purpose of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is to provide war-fighter support. This means that the AEF is responsible for supporting and assisting military personnel who are actively engaged in combat or other military operations. This support can include providing equipment, resources, and personnel to ensure the success and effectiveness of the war-fighters on the ground. The AEF's main goal is to contribute to the overall mission and objectives of the military by assisting and supporting those directly involved in combat operations.

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170. (212) When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which crisis action team (CAT) has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events?

Explanation

The Air Force CAT (Crisis Action Team) is responsible for directing personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events. This team is announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership and plays a crucial role in managing and coordinating actions during crisis situations. The Group CAT, Wing CAT/A1, and MAJCOM CAT/A1 are not specifically mentioned as having this responsibility, making Air Force CAT the correct answer.

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171. (016) An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard product. Who designs and controls those products?

Explanation

The correct answer is Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). HQ AFPC is responsible for designing and controlling the Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard products. They have the authority and expertise to make changes and updates to the system. The Military Personnel Section (MPS) and Personnel System Manager (PSM) may have some involvement in the implementation and use of the system, but they do not have the authority to change the standard products. The Major Command (MAJCOM) is a higher-level organizational unit and does not have direct control over the MILPDS standard products.

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172. (208) Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization?

Explanation

Being subjective is not a characteristic of a successful mobilization. Successful mobilization requires having a clear objective, ensuring timeliness, and being flexible. However, being subjective, which implies being influenced by personal opinions or biases, can hinder the effectiveness of a mobilization effort. It is important for mobilizations to be objective and based on facts and evidence in order to gain support and achieve their goals.

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173. (002) The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and

Explanation

The correct answer is a. meet field commander requirements. The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes personnel operations to meet the requirements of field commanders. This means that they focus on providing the necessary personnel support and resources to ensure that field commanders have the personnel they need to successfully carry out their missions. This includes tasks such as recruiting, training, and assigning personnel to specific roles and locations. By meeting field commander requirements, the AFPC helps to ensure the overall effectiveness and readiness of the Air Force.

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174. (202) Which joint and service planning system's objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). DCAPES is a joint and service planning system that aims to enable the Air Force-unique operation planning process, which includes associated joint policy procedures. It helps in the planning and execution of both deliberate and crisis action operations, providing a comprehensive and integrated approach to support Air Force operations.

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175. (005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the requirements of

Explanation

The AEFC is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm, which involves centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces. This means that they coordinate and allocate resources to meet the requirements of combatant commanders, who are in charge of military operations in specific geographic areas. Squadron commanders, on the other hand, are responsible for managing specific units within the Air Force. Therefore, the correct answer is a. combatant commanders.

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176. (009) What skill level indentifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?

Explanation

Skill level 9 identifies enlisted personnel who have demonstrated a high level of managerial and supervisory ability through their experience, training, and performance. This skill level indicates that the individual has acquired advanced knowledge and skills in their field and is capable of leading and directing others effectively. They have likely undergone extensive training and have a proven track record of successful management and supervision.

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177. (205) What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air and space expeditionary squadron. The air and space expeditionary squadron is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force. It is a smaller unit within the larger air and space expeditionary group and is responsible for carrying out specific missions and tasks.

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178. (203) Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?

Explanation

Functional directorates develop procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees. These directorates are responsible for managing and overseeing various functional areas within an organization. They ensure that the necessary administrative support is provided to these individuals, including coordinating personnel actions, managing records, and addressing any administrative issues that may arise. Functional directorates play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation and support of active, reserve components, and retirees within the organization.

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179. (204) The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?

Explanation

The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting global engagements. This means that they are involved in operations and missions that extend beyond just the United States and have a global impact. They work towards maintaining air and space superiority on a global scale, ensuring the protection and security of the United States and its interests worldwide.

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180. (204) The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?

Explanation

The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through mobilization. Mobilization refers to the process of assembling and organizing military personnel and resources in preparation for war or other emergencies. It involves activating reservists and deploying them to the designated areas of operation. Mobilization is an essential capability that enables the military to quickly respond to threats and augment its forces to meet the required operational objectives.

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181. (212) After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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182. (202) A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?

Explanation

This question is asking for the type of plan that describes the development of sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order if necessary. The correct answer is "Concept" because a concept plan focuses on the overall strategy and approach for achieving a specific objective. It outlines the key ideas and principles that will guide the development of more detailed plans and orders. In this case, the plan is focused on developing the operational and support concepts, which aligns with the concept plan.

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183. (001) The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to communicate all of the following except

Explanation

The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to communicate developing objectives, performing analysis, and developing force management policies. However, the development of doctrine and legislative guidance is not mentioned as one of the responsibilities of AF/A1P.

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184. (408) For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to how many calendar days?

Explanation

For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to 3 calendar days.

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185. (201) What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?

Explanation

Joint doctrine provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces. It is a set of principles and fundamental concepts that guide the employment of forces in joint operations. Joint doctrine is developed through a collaborative process involving all military services and is designed to ensure interoperability and unity of effort among the armed forces. It provides a common language, procedures, and practices that enable effective coordination and integration of military operations across different services and commands. Joint doctrine is continuously updated to reflect changes in technology, threats, and operational environments.

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186. (202) Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES). JOPES is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution. It is a system that helps in the planning and execution of joint military operations, providing a common platform for different services to collaborate and coordinate their efforts. JOPES ensures efficient and effective planning and execution of military operations by integrating various planning processes and facilitating information sharing among different commands and units.

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187. (004) As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure?

Explanation

As of August 2009, there were 10 major commands that made up the Air Force structure.

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188. (411) Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name

Explanation

Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website in order to query enlisted promotions results. They can search for results based on various criteria such as MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. This allows them to gather specific information about enlisted promotions and make informed decisions based on the results.

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189. (211) During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal

Explanation

During natural disasters or national emergencies, it is crucial to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families in order to resume normal operations. This means that the ability to assess their status is important for getting back to regular activities and tasks.

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190.   (408) If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, what action will the military personnel section (MPS) take regarding the assignment selection?

Explanation

If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, the military personnel section (MPS) will reclama the assignment and not forward rip. This means that they will reject or dispute the assignment and not send the request for personnel action to the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). This action is taken because the individual is ineligible for a PCS and there is no indication that any exceptions or waivers have been granted.

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191. (001) This office plans and executes the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M). This office is responsible for planning and executing the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program. The other options do not specifically mention this responsibility.

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192. (001) Which office implements programs, such as "Stop Loss," to effectively shape and balance the Air Force's Total Force?

Explanation

The Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) is responsible for implementing programs, such as "Stop Loss," to effectively shape and balance the Air Force's Total Force. This office focuses on managing and developing policies related to force management, including personnel policies and programs. They work to ensure that the Air Force has the right personnel in the right positions at the right time to meet mission requirements.

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193. (408) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders not later than how many days prior to departure?

Explanation

The Career Development element publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders 60 days prior to departure under normal circumstances.

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194. (002) What field operating agency (FOA) does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) look to for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital?

Explanation

The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) looks to the Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA) for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital.

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195. (202) Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the

Explanation

Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command, which means that it follows a hierarchical structure. The chain of command starts from the president, who is the commander-in-chief, and runs through various levels of military leadership. The secretary of defense holds a crucial position in this chain of command as they are responsible for the overall defense strategy and policy-making. Therefore, it is the secretary of defense who oversees and conducts joint operations planning.

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196. (011) What document identifies all day-to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?

Explanation

The Master Task List is a document that identifies all day-to-day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center. It serves as a comprehensive guide for personnel to understand their responsibilities and tasks within their work center. The other options, such as Specialty Training Standard, Job Qualification Standard, and Master Training Plan, may be related to training or qualification requirements but do not encompass all the specific tasks and duties performed in the work center.

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197. (216) The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team deployment requirements upon receipt of a (n)

Explanation

The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team deployment requirements upon receipt of a warning order. This means that when a warning order is received, it is important to review the current operations plan or concept plan in order to prepare for the deployment of the PERSCO team. The warning order serves as an early notification to begin preparations for a future operation, and reviewing the current plan helps ensure that the necessary personnel support is in place.

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198. (005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned under

Explanation

The correct answer is a. major command (MAJCOM). The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) that is assigned under a major command (MAJCOM). This means that the AEFC operates under the authority and oversight of a specific major command within the United States Air Force.

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199. (210) When the Secretary of the Air Force authorizes deactivation of an Air Reserve Component (Guard and Reserve), the authority may be delegated to the

Explanation

When the Secretary of the Air Force decides to deactivate an Air Reserve Component (Guard and Reserve), they have the option to delegate this authority to different levels of command. In this case, the correct answer is major command commanders. This means that the major command commanders have the power to authorize the deactivation of an Air Reserve Component.

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200. (210) The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes

Explanation

The process described in the question involves terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring them from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status. This process is known as deactivation, as it involves returning individuals or units to their previous reserve status after a period of active duty.

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(006) The Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) vision is to have citizen
(007) Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast...
(012) Why is it important to develop and implement control measures...
(401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States...
(206) Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to...
(203) American military power plays a vital role in all of the...
(216) Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will...
(404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?
(204) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
(007) The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and
(012) It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to...
(012) Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization...
(008) The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC)...
(013) When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the...
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System...
(205) The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept...
(016) How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically...
  ...
(010) What training title is awarded after personnel complete a...
(416) How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or...
(011) Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees...
(011) Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade...
(011) All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the...
(216) It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation...
(216) During the reception process, the personnel support for...
(012) When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement...
(007) When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under...
(008) What does the combination of the first, second, and third...
(013) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand...
(405) In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force...
(210) In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation...
(204) The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission...
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System...
(410) Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or...
(013) Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is...
(210) If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or...
(211) Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall...
(001) Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force...
(009) Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman...
  ...
(402) Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable...
(014) What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the...
(009) These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging...
(208) The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up"...
(208) The concept of mobilization can be associated with all...
(015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to...
(208) Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most...
  ...
(209) Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force...
(017) What management assessment product (MAP) would a member's name...
(215) When selecting personnel for the personnel support for...
(201) Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States...
(416) The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable...
(002) Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by...
(408) If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current...
(408) If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a...
(409) Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they...
(417) If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force...
(004) The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below...
(011) The focal point of the Air Force training program is the
(401) The military member's physical address at the time of joining a...
(202) Which joint and service planning system is the single automated...
(409) Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail...
(203) Which military department was not established by The National...
(204) Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage...
(209) When performing military personnel appropriation man-days,...
(008) A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air...
(012) Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside...
(008) Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based...
(406) What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing...
(008) The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman...
(213) The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all...
(014) Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic...
(214) Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and...
(211) Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit...
(205) The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and...
(215) Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to...
(412) The Career Development element staff issues written notice to...
(015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to...
(208) If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up...
(413) A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is...
(001) Which office is responsible for providing administrative support...
(001) This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core...
(209) Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually...
(001) Which office serves as the program manager for planning,...
(010) The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the...
(408) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service...
(002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel...
(409) Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the...
(409) When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable...
(416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system...
(416) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with...
(003) What component is comprised of an information technology...
(416) What assignment availability codes (AAC) are associated with...
(011) As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master...
(004) How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of...
(205) When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible...
(401) The Armed Forces may use military authority to
(008) What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code...
(409) When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in...
(410) For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability...
(013) Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the...
(213) The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the...
(014) In order to be successful when communicating with your audience,...
(407) Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air...
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting...
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting...
(214) If a member's legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are...
(014) What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss...
(017) What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound...
(017) What management assessment product (MAP) can the career...
(002) For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide...
(201) The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and...
(409) Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative...
(012) Which is not an installation security program manager's program...
(216) Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel...
(012) Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors...
(006) Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force...
(401) Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting...
(404) Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the...
(204) Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide...
(410) When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a...
(213) To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures...
(014) Which is not considered one of the five principles of good...
(202) Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their...
(207) A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must...
(001) How many subordinate units does the Deputy Chief of Staff,...
(401) Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in...
(408) Which system advertises requirements for special duty...
(015) What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code...
(402) Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed...
(402) Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can...
(002) Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel...
(216) Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must...
(410) If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical...
(408) The Career Development element personnelist will provide all...
(401) You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time...
(007) What percentage of the Air Force's tactical airlift support does...
(013) Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not...
(202) What are the joint operation planning activities that support...
(210) Once the military personnel section receives the hardship...
(407) For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not...
(009) What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?
(407) For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be...
(207) What is the basic building block used in force planning and the...
(208) The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate...
(208) Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs...
(010) What is key to the total training program?
(201) The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military...
(003) What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program...
(010) This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic...
(003) How many flights were each organization realigned and...
(012) It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information...
(406) If there is reportable information available on the casualty...
(014) How many effective communication steps are needed to become a...
(406) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is...
(015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to...
(408) When the Career Development element receives an assignment...
(416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system...
(202) Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff,...
(206) The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how...
(204) The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment...
(212) What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in...
(202) The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them...
(206) At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force...
(213) During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise,...
(411) For promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt, Airmen compete and test...
(205) Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained...
(205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is...
(212) When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which...
(016) An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System...
(208) Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the...
(002) The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes...
(202) Which joint and service planning system's objective is to enable...
(005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is...
(009) What skill level indentifies enlisted personnel who, through...
(205) What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF)...
(203) Who develops procedures for administrative support of active,...
(204) The Reserves defend the United States through control and...
(204) The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the...
(212) After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur...
(202) A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that...
(001) The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)...
(408) For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until...
(201) What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing...
(202) Which joint and service planning system is the Department of...
(004) As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force...
(411) Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on...
(211) During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to...
  ...
(001) This office plans and executes the Base Realignment and Closure...
(001) Which office implements programs, such as "Stop Loss," to...
(408) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element...
(002) What field operating agency (FOA) does the Deputy Chief of...
(202) Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of...
(011) What document identifies all day-to day mission requirements,...
(216) The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed,...
(005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct...
(210) When the Secretary of the Air Force authorizes deactivation of...
(210) The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or...
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