A CDC 3S071 Vol 3 Exam Sample Test

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  • 1/292 Questions

    (006) The Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) vision is to have citizen

    • A. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
    • B. officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
    • C. enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
    • D. Airmen partially engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
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About This Quiz

This sample test for CDC 3S071 Volume 3 helps learners understand the structure and responsibilities within the Air Force's personnel management. It assesses knowledge on various Air Staff functions, including manpower, organization, and Airman development.

A CDC 3S071 Vol 3 Exam Sample Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (007) Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?

    • A. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.

    • B. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).

    • C. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • D. Headquarters Air Force Reserve Command (HQ AFRC).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau was activated to help with Hurricane Katrina because the hurricane caused widespread destruction and required a large-scale response. The Air National Guard is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and is often called upon to assist in disaster relief efforts. They provide support in areas such as search and rescue, transportation, and medical assistance. In the case of Hurricane Katrina, the Air National Guard played a crucial role in providing aid and support to affected areas.

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  • 3. 

    (007) The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and

    • A. state mission.

    • B. overseas mission.

    • C. local government mission.

    • D. District of Columbia mission.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. state mission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. state mission. The Air National Guard (ANG) is a reserve component of the United States Air Force, and it has a dual mission. One of its missions is to support the federal government and the Air Force in times of war or national emergencies. The other mission is to support the state and local governments during disasters or emergencies within the state. This means that the ANG plays a crucial role in both national defense and domestic response efforts, making it an essential asset for both federal and state authorities.

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  • 4. 

    (008) The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a

    • A. skill level.

    • B. career field.

    • C. Career group.

    • D. career field subdivision.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. skill level.
    Explanation
    The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the skill level. This means that the code provides information about the level of proficiency and experience required for a particular job within the Air Force. The skill level can range from entry-level positions to higher-level positions that require more advanced skills and knowledge.

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  • 5. 

    (009) What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?

    • Technical sergeants.

    • Master sergeants.

    • Senior master sergeants.

    • Chief master sergeants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief master sergeants.
    Explanation
    Chief master sergeants must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders. They hold the highest enlisted rank and are responsible for mentoring and guiding junior enlisted members. They are expected to demonstrate exceptional leadership skills, professionalism, and expertise in their field. As the highest-ranking enlisted members, they play a crucial role in shaping the future of the enlisted force and setting the standard for excellence.

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  • 6. 

    (010) What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

    • Apprentice

    • Journeyman

    • Craftsman

    • Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Journeyman
    Explanation
    After completing a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks, personnel are awarded the training title of Journeyman. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of proficiency and competency in their career field.

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  • 7. 

    (011) Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

    • Supervisors

    • Unit training managers.

    • Career Assistance Advisors.

    • Air Force Career Field Managers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training managers.
    Explanation
    Unit training managers are responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training. They are in charge of coordinating and managing the training process within their unit, which includes handling administrative tasks such as initiating personnel actions. Supervisors may provide guidance and support, but the primary responsibility lies with the unit training managers. Career Assistance Advisors and Air Force Career Field Managers may have roles in career counseling and managing career development, but they are not specifically responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training.

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  • 8. 

    (011) Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

    • So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates.

    • So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates.

    • In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material.

    • In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.

    Correct Answer
    A. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.
    Explanation
    It is important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet so that in case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced. This allows the trainee and their supervisor to review the recorded interruptions and determine if they may have contributed to any challenges or difficulties the trainee is experiencing during the upgrade training process. By referencing the documentation, the necessary adjustments or additional support can be provided to help the trainee successfully complete their training.

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  • 9. 

    (011) All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

    • Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.

    • Budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks.

    • Comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path.

    • Acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.
    Explanation
    The trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process include budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path, and acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training. However, documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet is not mentioned as one of the trainee's responsibilities.

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  • 10. 

    (012) Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?

    • So you know where the classified information is kept.

    • To keep track of the people dealing with the classified material.

    • So security forces knows where the classified information is kept.

    • To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands.

    Correct Answer
    A. To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands.
    Explanation
    Developing and implementing control measures when dealing with classified material is important to decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. This ensures that unauthorized individuals do not have access to sensitive information, reducing the risk of potential security breaches or unauthorized disclosures. By having control measures in place, such as restricted access, proper storage, and tracking of classified material, organizations can maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the classified information.

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  • 11. 

    (012) It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the

    • Refusal may initiate removal from the squadron.

    • Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.

    • Commander may be required to interview the member a second time.

    • Commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior." This is because if an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA), it suggests that they may have something to hide or may not be trustworthy. This behavior raises suspicions and could potentially have negative implications for the squadron.

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  • 12. 

    (012) Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person’s level of access to classified information?

    • Because each step is an intricate part of the “go, no-go” process.

    • Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.

    • You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access.

    • You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.
    Explanation
    Completing the four-step authorization process is imperative because each step plays a crucial role in ensuring a thorough "checks and balance" process. This means that each step serves as a necessary measure to verify and validate a person's level of access to classified information. Without completing all four steps, the process would be incomplete and may compromise the security and integrity of the information.

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  • 13. 

    (013) When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

    • Password protect laptops.

    • Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting.

    • Wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible.

    • Mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program.

    Correct Answer
    A. Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting.
    Explanation
    Couriers must do all of the following except erase laptops and disks completely before transporting. This is because erasing the laptops and disks completely before transporting them would result in the loss of all data, which may be necessary for the intended recipient. Instead, couriers should password protect the laptops, wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible, and mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program.

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  • 14. 

    (016) How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced on a daily basis. This means that the TRs are managed and generated automatically every day. This frequency allows for accurate and up-to-date records of transactions to be maintained. It ensures that any changes or updates in the transactions are reflected promptly in the registers. By controlling and producing TRs daily, organizations can have a real-time view of their transactions, enabling them to make informed decisions and effectively manage their financial activities.

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  • 15. 

    (203) American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except

    • Crisis.

    • Peace.

    • Politics.

    • Conflict.

    Correct Answer
    A. Politics.
    Explanation
    American military power plays a vital role in crisis management, maintaining peace, and engaging in conflicts. However, politics is the exception where military power may not have a direct role. While politics can influence military decisions and strategies, it is not solely dependent on military power. Political factors such as diplomacy, negotiations, and international relations also play a significant role in shaping political outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is politics.

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  • 16. 

    (204) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

    • Federal and state missions.

    • Federal and overseas missions.

    • State and community missions.

    • Overseas and community missions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal and state missions.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) is unique because it has responsibilities at both the federal and state levels. At the federal level, the ANG is a reserve component of the United States Air Force and can be called upon to support federal missions. At the state level, the ANG can be activated by the governor to respond to emergencies and provide support within the state. This dual mission structure allows the ANG to serve both the nation and the local community.

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  • 17. 

    (205) The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

    • Win the war.

    • Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility.

    • Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

    • Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.
    Explanation
    The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities. This means that the objective is to distribute the available resources and personnel in a fair and balanced manner across the different AEFs, ensuring that each AEF has the same level of capabilities. This approach aims to enhance the overall effectiveness and readiness of the Air Force by ensuring that all AEFs are equally equipped to fulfill their responsibilities.

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  • 18. 

    (206) Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the

    • Financial services office (FSO).

    • Military personnel section (MPS).

    • Medical treatment facility (MTF).

    • Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Military personnel section (MPS).
    Explanation
    Once an Airman arrives at a base, they are required to report to the military personnel section (MPS). This is because the MPS is responsible for handling all personnel matters, including the processing of new arrivals and ensuring they are properly integrated into the base. The MPS will provide the Airman with necessary paperwork, conduct in-processing procedures, and assist with any administrative needs. The financial services office (FSO) is responsible for handling financial matters, the medical treatment facility (MTF) is responsible for providing medical care, and the unit deployment manager (UDM) is responsible for coordinating deployments and assignments.

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  • 19. 

    (216) Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most efficiently process personnel when the

    • Reception control center is not established.

    • Accountability actions are under control.

    • Need for replacement forces is low.

    • Projected aircraft is landing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reception control center is not established.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "reception control center is not established." This is because the PERSCO team's role is to coordinate with deployed support agencies and efficiently process personnel. When the reception control center is not established, it means that there is no centralized location or system in place to manage the reception and processing of personnel. In such a situation, the PERSCO team would need to take on the responsibility of coordinating and managing this process.

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  • 20. 

    (401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States (US), the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your

    • Legal federal residence.

    • Legal state of residence.

    • Desired state residence.

    • Desired federal residence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Legal state of residence.
    Explanation
    When residing outside the United States, the address where you last resided before leaving is considered your legal state of residence for voting purposes. This means that your voting eligibility and registration will be based on the state where you lived before your departure.

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  • 21. 

    (404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?

    • Provide casualty representative reports of casualties to ensure timely notification.

    • Eliminate delays in providing benefits to the next of kin (NOK).

    • Closely track all casualty reports and notifications.

    • Assist the family with funeral arrangements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assist the family with funeral arrangements.
    Explanation
    The objective "Assist the family with funeral arrangements" is not a Casualty Services Program objective because it does not directly relate to providing casualty representative reports, eliminating delays in providing benefits to the next of kin, or closely tracking casualty reports and notifications. While assisting the family with funeral arrangements may be a supportive action, it is not a primary objective of the program.

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  • 22. 

    (406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application?

    • Independently sourced.

    • Minimally operated.

    • Well equipped.

    • Stand alone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stand alone.
    Explanation
    The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is designed to work on all computers as a stand-alone application. This means that it does not require any additional software or dependencies to function properly. It can be used independently and does not rely on any external systems or resources. Microsoft Access is used for storing casualty information, but the DCIPS-Forward application itself is self-sufficient and can operate on its own.

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  • 23. 

    (416) How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF?

    • 3

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    An active duty member has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions of a UIF and provide pertinent information before the commander makes a final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF.

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  • 24. 

    (001) Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office?

    • A. Air Staff.

    • B. Air National Guard Bureau.

    • C. Air Force Personnel Center.

    • D. Air Force Reserve Command.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Air Staff.
    Explanation
    The Air Staff functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office. The Air Staff is responsible for providing advice and support to the SECAF in areas such as policy development, planning, and decision-making. They work closely with the SECAF to ensure the effective management and operation of the Air Force. The other options, the Air National Guard Bureau, Air Force Personnel Center, and Air Force Reserve Command, may have their own specific roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, but they are not directly responsible for assisting the SECAF in carrying out their duties.

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  • 25. 

    (002) Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition assistance and support?

    • A. Active duty.

    • B. Air Force retirees.

    • C. Active duty, reservists, and guardsmen.

    • D. Active duty, reservists, guardsmen, and civilians.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Air Force retirees.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) supports Air Force retirees by providing transition assistance and support. This includes helping retirees with their transition from military to civilian life, providing resources and information on benefits and entitlements, and assisting with job placement and career counseling.

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  • 26. 

    (004) The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the

    • A. wing.

    • B. numbered air force (NAF).

    • C. commander’s support staff (CSS).

    • D. military personnel section (MPS).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. numbered air force (NAF).
    Explanation
    The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the numbered air force (NAF). This means that the NAF is the next level of command below the MAJCOM. The other options, such as the wing, commander's support staff (CSS), and military personnel section (MPS), are not at a higher level of command than the MAJCOM.

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  • 27. 

    (007) When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the

    • A. Vice president.

    • B. President.

    • C. Governor.

    • D. Mayor.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Governor.
    Explanation
    When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the governor. This is because the Air National Guard is a state military force that can be called upon by the governor to respond to emergencies or provide support within the state. The governor is the highest-ranking official in the state and has authority over the National Guard units within their jurisdiction. Therefore, when not under federal control, the ANG units answer to the governor.

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  • 28. 

    (008) What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

    • A. Skill level.

    • B. Career field.

    • C. Career group.

    • D. career field subdivision.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. career field subdivision.
    Explanation
    The combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the career field subdivision. The AFSC is a unique code used to classify personnel in the Air Force based on their specific job roles and responsibilities. The first position of the AFSC indicates the career field, the second position represents the career group, and the third position signifies the career field subdivision. Therefore, the correct answer is d. career field subdivision.

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  • 29. 

    (009) Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that

    • Training is key to the success of the Air Force.

    • Advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience.

    • Completing a career development course is the most important form of training.

    • On-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job.

    Correct Answer
    A. Training is key to the success of the Air Force.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "training is key to the success of the Air Force." This answer emphasizes the importance of training in achieving success in the Air Force. It suggests that training plays a crucial role in preparing Airmen for their roles and responsibilities, ensuring that they have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively carry out their duties. By prioritizing training, the superintendent recognizes that it is essential for the overall success and effectiveness of the Air Force.

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  • 30. 

    (009) What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

    • Staff sergeants.

    • Technical sergeants.

    • Master sergeants.

    • Senior master sergeants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeants.
    Explanation
    Master sergeants transition from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence. This rank signifies a higher level of experience, knowledge, and leadership ability compared to staff sergeants and technical sergeants. Senior master sergeants are also leaders, but they are typically focused on managing larger units and providing strategic guidance, whereas master sergeants are more involved in day-to-day operations.

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  • 31. 

    (009) These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates’ talents, skills, and resources with other teams’ functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.

    • Technical sergeants.

    • Master sergeants.

    • Senior master sergeants.

    • Chief master sergeants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Senior master sergeants.
    Explanation
    Senior master sergeants are the correct answer because they are experienced operational leaders who have the skills to merge the talents, skills, and resources of their subordinates with other teams' functions to effectively accomplish the mission. Technical sergeants, master sergeants, and chief master sergeants may also have leadership abilities, but senior master sergeants specifically possess the necessary experience and skills for this task.

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  • 32. 

    (011) The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

    • Trainee.

    • Trainer.

    • Supervisor.

    • Unit training manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainee.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is trainee. In the Air Force training program, the main focus is on the trainee. This means that the program is designed to provide the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to the trainee in order to prepare them for their role in the Air Force. The trainee is the one who will be receiving the training and ultimately applying it in their future duties, making them the central figure in the training program.

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  • 33. 

    (012) When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

    • Initiates a security incident report.

    • Denies the individual access to classified information.

    • Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

    • Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.
    Explanation
    When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does the following: initiates a security incident report, denies the individual access to classified information, and initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). However, they do not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

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  • 34. 

    (013) Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

    • The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.

    • The material may not be important enough to hand carry.

    • The foreign government may want to take it from you.

    • To avoid bringing unwanted attention to yourself.

    Correct Answer
    A. The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.
    Explanation
    When hand carrying sensitive material, it is important to consider the environment because the material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel. This means that if the material is seen or discovered by individuals who are not authorized to have access to it, they may take it away or confiscate it. This could lead to potential security breaches or the loss of important information. Therefore, considering the environment and taking necessary precautions can help prevent unauthorized individuals from gaining access to sensitive material.

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  • 35. 

    (013) Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

    • Sender

    • Shipper

    • Receiver

    • Supplier

    Correct Answer
    A. Sender
    Explanation
    The sender is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address. This is because the sender is the one who initiates the shipment and is responsible for ensuring that the package reaches the intended recipient. The sender is also responsible for providing accurate address information to ensure successful delivery.

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  • 36. 

    (014) What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?

    • Be selective about the message you send.

    • Keep your e-mail under control.

    • Be clear and concise.

    • Watch your tone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Be clear and concise.
    Explanation
    To ensure that the subject line effectively communicates your purpose in an email, it is important to be clear and concise. By using clear and concise language in the subject line, you can convey the main point or objective of your email to the recipient. This helps them quickly understand the purpose of the email and prioritize their response accordingly. Being clear and concise in the subject line also makes it easier for the recipient to search for and reference the email in the future.

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  • 37. 

    (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?

    • E6C

    • E6F

    • TU4

    • TU5

    Correct Answer
    A. TU4
    Explanation
    The Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update TU4 is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA).

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  • 38. 

    (017) What management assessment product (MAP) would a member’s name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?

    • MAP 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

    • MAP 10, RELOC-AAC.

    • MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.

    • MAP 15, EMPLOYMENTS-FUNCTCAT.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.
    Explanation
    A member's name would be reflected on MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP if they require administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and are projected to Minot AFB, ND. This MAP specifically deals with relocations related to PRP and would be applicable in this scenario.

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  • 39. 

    (201) Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from

    • Adversaries

    • Dignitaries

    • Diplomats

    • Allies

    Correct Answer
    A. Adversaries
    Explanation
    Challenges and threats to United States values and interests can come from adversaries, which refers to individuals or groups who are opposed to or hostile towards the United States. These adversaries may pose various challenges and threats, such as engaging in acts of terrorism, cyberattacks, or military aggression. It is important for the United States to recognize and address these adversaries in order to protect its values and interests.

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  • 40. 

    (202) The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is

    • Redeployment

    • Employment.

    • Mobilization.

    • Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Employment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is employment. Employment refers to the joint operation planning activity that outlines how military force should be used to achieve specific military objectives within a designated operational area. It involves the strategic allocation and utilization of military resources and assets to accomplish the mission effectively.

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  • 41. 

    (204) The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable

    • Responsibility

    • Commodity

    • Opportunity

    • Job

    Correct Answer
    A. Commodity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "commodity". This suggests that the depth of experience that the Reserve forces bring is seen as a valuable and tradable asset. It implies that their experience is highly sought after and can be used to benefit the mission and the Air Force.

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  • 42. 

    (208) The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?

    • Increases military capability.

    • Decreases military capability.

    • Military capability stays the same.

    • Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases military capability.
    Explanation
    Calling up Reserve Component forces increases the active duty military capability. By mobilizing and deploying Reserve Component forces, the active duty military can augment their existing forces and increase their overall capability. This allows for a larger and more diverse force to be utilized in military operations, enhancing their overall effectiveness and capacity to carry out missions.

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  • 43. 

    (208) The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to

    • Partial mobilization.

    • Full mobilization.

    • Wartime posture.

    • Reconstitution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wartime posture.
    Explanation
    The concept of mobilization refers to the activities required to transition military forces from a peacetime state to a wartime posture. This includes activating both active and Reserve Component forces and preparing them for combat operations. The term "wartime posture" refers to the readiness and positioning of military forces during a time of war. Therefore, the correct answer is "wartime posture."

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  • 44. 

    (208) Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for mobilization?

    • Partial.

    • Spatial.

    • Total

    • Full

    Correct Answer
    A. Spatial.
    Explanation
    The term "spatial" is not a commonly used term in Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) for mobilization. The other options, partial, total, and full, are more frequently used terms in the context of mobilization.

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  • 45. 

    (209) Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as

    • Military personnel appropriation man-days.

    • Noncommissioned officers man-days.

    • Reserve man-days.

    • Guard man-days.

    Correct Answer
    A. Military personnel appropriation man-days.
    Explanation
    The term "military personnel appropriation man-days" refers to the days that are allocated or set aside for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen. This term specifically highlights the allocation of days for military personnel and emphasizes the appropriation aspect of it. It is a more comprehensive and specific term compared to the other options provided.

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  • 46. 

    (210) In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using which date?

    • Date on the mobilization orders.

    • Demobilization date authorized from tour completion by the applicable commander.

    • Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214.

    • Deactivation date authorized by the secretary of the Air Force and the DD Form 214.

    Correct Answer
    A. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214." This is because the demobilization date, which refers to the date when an individual is released from active duty or special orders, is authorized by the Major Command (MAJCOM) and documented on the DD Form 214, which is the official record of military service. This form is issued to all members of the military upon separation or retirement.

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  • 47. 

    (210) If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to

    • Remain on active duty until they reach 20 years of service.

    • Remain on active duty until they reach 15 years of service.

    • Remain on active duty up to the original activation period.

    • Return to civilian status immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain on active duty up to the original activation period.
    Explanation
    If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they have the option to request to remain on active duty up to the original activation period. This means that they can continue serving until the end of the originally planned duration of their activation.

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  • 48. 

    (211) Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster?

    • Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded.

    • It is easier to go and find people rather than call them on the phone.

    • The communications squadron requires a communications-out recall roster.

    • The wing commander requires all squadrons to maintain a communications-out roster.

    Correct Answer
    A. Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded.
    Explanation
    It is important to maintain a communications-out recall roster because local communications may be inoperative or overloaded. This means that in emergency situations or when communication systems are down, it may not be possible to contact individuals through phone calls or other means. Having a recall roster allows for a more efficient and effective way of reaching out to personnel in such situations.

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  • 49. 

    (215) When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the

    • Least qualified personnel so they can be trained while deployed.

    • Most junior trained personnel.

    • Most senior trained personnel.

    • Most qualified personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Most qualified personnel.
    Explanation
    The PERSCO team, which provides personnel support for contingency operations, should select the most qualified personnel. This ensures that the team is composed of individuals who have the necessary skills and expertise to effectively carry out their duties. By choosing the most qualified personnel, the team can operate efficiently and effectively without the need for extensive training while deployed.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

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  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Esuchovsky
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