3e6x1 CDC Volume 2 Pre-test

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3e6x1 CDC Volume 2 Pre-test - Quiz

3E6X1 CDC Volume 2 pre-test


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Who monitors a unit’s manning?

    • A.

      Military personnel flight personnel.

    • B.

      Operations management staff.

    • C.

      Resources flight personnel.

    • D.

      Commander’s support staff (CSS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Commander’s support staff (CSS).
    Explanation
    The Commander's support staff (CSS) is responsible for monitoring a unit's manning. This includes keeping track of the number of personnel assigned to the unit, ensuring that all positions are filled, and managing any changes or updates to the unit's manpower requirements. The CSS works closely with the unit commander to ensure that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its mission effectively. They may also be responsible for coordinating with other departments or units to address any staffing needs or issues that arise.

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  • 2. 

    (201) Which product identifies personnel filling authorized positions?

    • A.

      Unit manpower document.

    • B.

      Squadron personnel listing

    • C.

      Air Force specialty code listing

    • D.

      Unit personnel management roster

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit personnel management roster
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Unit personnel management roster. This document is used to identify the personnel filling authorized positions within a unit. It provides a comprehensive list of all personnel assigned to the unit, their positions, and other relevant information. This roster helps in managing and tracking the personnel within the unit and ensuring that authorized positions are filled appropriately.

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  • 3. 

    (202) What quantity do allowance standards provide for you to perform your mission?

    • A.

      Maximum

    • B.

      Minimum

    • C.

      Base directed

    • D.

      Peacetime mission

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximum
    Explanation
    Allowance standards provide for the maximum quantity of resources or supplies needed to perform a mission. This means that the standards allow for the highest possible amount of resources to be allocated, ensuring that there is an ample supply to successfully carry out the mission.

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  • 4. 

    (202) Where can you retrieve information about equipment allowance standards?

    • A.

      Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).

    • B.

      Automated Civil Engineer System (ACES).

    • C.

      Allowance Standard Retrieval System (ASRS).

    • D.

      Civil Engineering Material Acquisition System (CEMAS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Allowance Standard Retrieval System (ASRS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Allowance Standard Retrieval System (ASRS). This system is specifically designed for retrieving information about equipment allowance standards. The other options mentioned, such as SBSS, ACES, and CEMAS, are not specifically focused on equipment allowance standards.

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  • 5. 

    (203) What type of support agreement is made between the Air Force and a Navy detachment?

    • A.

      Intraservice

    • B.

      Interservice

    • C.

      Intragovernmental

    • D.

      Air Force to other non-Federal activities

    Correct Answer
    B. Interservice
    Explanation
    An interservice support agreement is made between the Air Force and a Navy detachment. This type of agreement involves support and cooperation between different branches of the military. It allows the Air Force and Navy to share resources, services, and expertise to enhance their operational capabilities and efficiency. This type of agreement promotes interagency collaboration and ensures effective coordination between the Air Force and Navy in carrying out joint missions and tasks.

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  • 6. 

    (203) Which item is one of the agreed upon areas of responsibility present on a functional memorandum of agreement/understanding (MOA/MOU)?

    • A.

      Personnel

    • B.

      Annual budget

    • C.

      Group designation

    • D.

      Statement of facts

    Correct Answer
    D. Statement of facts
    Explanation
    A functional memorandum of agreement/understanding (MOA/MOU) is a document that outlines the responsibilities and agreements between two or more parties. One of the agreed upon areas of responsibility that can be included in an MOA/MOU is a statement of facts. This means that the document will include a clear and accurate description of the facts or circumstances that the parties involved have agreed upon. This helps to ensure that all parties have a common understanding of the situation and can refer back to the agreed-upon facts as needed.

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  • 7. 

    (204) What role do computer systems play in cost accounting?

    • A.

      Account for civil engineering (CE) funds as dollars move through the stages of spending

    • B.

      Identify funds required to operate a specific work center

    • C.

      Document exchanges of goods and services

    • D.

      Make sure funding is used in a legal manner

    Correct Answer
    A. Account for civil engineering (CE) funds as dollars move through the stages of spending
    Explanation
    Computer systems play a crucial role in cost accounting by allowing the tracking and recording of civil engineering (CE) funds as they move through the various stages of spending. These systems enable the accurate and efficient monitoring of financial transactions, ensuring that funds are accounted for and allocated appropriately. By using computer systems, cost accountants can easily track the flow of funds, identify any discrepancies, and ensure that the funding is used in a legal and compliant manner.

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  • 8. 

    (204) Which cost account code is used for “Utilities Operation”?

    • A.

      10000

    • B.

      20000

    • C.

      50000

    • D.

      60000

    Correct Answer
    B. 20000
    Explanation
    The cost account code used for "Utilities Operation" is 20000.

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  • 9. 

    (204) Which cost account code is used for “Buildings and Other Real Property Maintenance”?

    • A.

      10000

    • B.

      20000

    • C.

      50000

    • D.

      60000

    Correct Answer
    C. 50000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50000. This cost account code is used for "Buildings and Other Real Property Maintenance". This suggests that expenses related to the maintenance and upkeep of buildings and other real property are recorded using this specific cost account code.

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  • 10. 

    (204) What status code is always assigned to account code “99999”?

    • A.

      “I.”

    • B.

      “S.”

    • C.

      “D.”

    • D.

      “P.”

    Correct Answer
    D. “P.”
    Explanation
    The status code "P" is always assigned to account code "99999".

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  • 11. 

    (205) Why is a customer account listing run periodically?

    • A.

      Validate new facilities and customers.

    • B.

      Assist civil engineering (CE) customers in identifying and prioritizing their work

    • C.

      Check that each person entering a work order is entering the correct code

    • D.

      Identify the level of support being furnished by CE to other organizations

    Correct Answer
    C. Check that each person entering a work order is entering the correct code
    Explanation
    A customer account listing is run periodically to check that each person entering a work order is entering the correct code. This helps ensure that accurate and correct information is being recorded for each work order, preventing any potential errors or discrepancies in the system. By regularly validating the codes entered by customers, the organization can maintain the integrity and accuracy of their records and ensure smooth operations.

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  • 12. 

    (205) Which section has the overall responsibility for the maintenance of customer account codes?

    • A.

      Resources flight

    • B.

      Operations management

    • C.

      Accounting and finance

    • D.

      Operations budget support

    Correct Answer
    A. Resources flight
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Resources flight. This section is responsible for the maintenance of customer account codes, which involves managing and updating the codes associated with customer accounts. They are likely in charge of ensuring accuracy and consistency in the coding system, as well as making any necessary changes or updates as needed.

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  • 13. 

    (206) Which area develops, modifies, and deletes collection work order numbers?

    • A.

      Planning and operations

    • B.

      Operations management and resources flight

    • C.

      Accounting and finance customer service unit

    • D.

      Asset Management flight customer service unit

    Correct Answer
    B. Operations management and resources flight
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Operations management and resources flight. This area is responsible for developing, modifying, and deleting collection work order numbers. They handle the management and allocation of resources for operations, ensuring that work orders are properly tracked and maintained.

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  • 14. 

    (206) The collection work order numbers are used to authorize work that is

    • A.

      Major in nature.

    • B.

      Minor in nature

    • C.

      Done infrequently

    • D.

      Done by a contractor

    Correct Answer
    B. Minor in nature
    Explanation
    The collection work order numbers are used to authorize work that is minor in nature. This means that these work orders are typically for small or routine tasks that do not require significant resources or time. They may involve simple repairs, maintenance, or other minor tasks that can be easily completed. The use of work order numbers helps to track and document these minor tasks, ensuring that they are properly authorized and completed.

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  • 15. 

    (206) Which type of work do collection work order numbers authorize?

    • A.

      Utility services

    • B.

      Purchased utilities

    • C.

      Cleaning storm drains

    • D.

      Contract custodial services

    Correct Answer
    C. Cleaning storm drains
    Explanation
    Collection work order numbers authorize the work of cleaning storm drains. This means that when a collection work order number is issued, it grants permission and authorization for the specific task of cleaning storm drains to be carried out.

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  • 16. 

    (207) When can a shop be deleted from a collection work order?

    • A.

      When no time or labor has been charged against the shop.

    • B.

      After the work order is authorized.

    • C.

      Before fiscal year closeout.

    • D.

      Never

    Correct Answer
    A. When no time or labor has been charged against the shop.
    Explanation
    A shop can be deleted from a collection work order when no time or labor has been charged against the shop. This means that if there have been no costs or expenses associated with the shop in the work order, it can be removed. This could be because the shop was initially included in error or if it is determined that the shop is not needed for the work order. However, if any time or labor has been charged against the shop, it cannot be deleted from the work order.

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  • 17. 

    (207) How are percentages distributed when multiple facilities are included in a work order, to equal 100 percent?

    • A.

      Evenly among assigned facilities

    • B.

      Based on facility value and criticality of the assigned work

    • C.

      Higher percentage based on each of the assigned facility’s value

    • D.

      Higher percentage based on the criticality of the assigned work to be done

    Correct Answer
    A. Evenly among assigned facilities
    Explanation
    When multiple facilities are included in a work order, the percentages are distributed evenly among the assigned facilities. This means that each facility will receive an equal portion of the total percentage, ensuring a fair distribution of the workload among all the facilities.

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  • 18. 

    (208) Which Air Force Form is initially used to request a service contract?

    • A.

      9, Request for Purchase

    • B.

      327, Base Civil Engineer Work Order

    • C.

      332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request

    • D.

      1192, USAF Installations Characteristics Report

    Correct Answer
    C. 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request. This form is initially used to request a service contract in the Air Force. It is specifically designed for the Base Civil Engineer department to submit their work requests for various services.

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  • 19. 

    (208) What is included in a performance work statement to provide incentives to perform the work in a cost effective manner?

    • A.

      Flexible schedule

    • B.

      Definitive wording

    • C.

      Detailed description

    • D.

      Measurable standards

    Correct Answer
    D. Measurable standards
    Explanation
    Measurable standards are included in a performance work statement to provide incentives to perform the work in a cost-effective manner. Measurable standards allow for the evaluation and measurement of performance, ensuring that the work is being done efficiently and effectively. By setting clear and quantifiable goals, it becomes easier to track progress, identify areas for improvement, and incentivize cost-effective practices.

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  • 20. 

    (209) How are minimum and maximum quantity limits specified in a basic indefinite delivery/indefinite quantity (IDIQ) contract?

    • A.

      Units or dollars

    • B.

      Estimated or actual

    • C.

      Supplies or services

    • D.

      Base years or option years

    Correct Answer
    A. Units or dollars
    Explanation
    Minimum and maximum quantity limits in a basic indefinite delivery/indefinite quantity (IDIQ) contract are typically specified in terms of units or dollars. This means that the contract will outline the minimum and maximum quantities of goods or services that can be ordered, either in terms of specific units or the total dollar value. This allows for flexibility in the contract, as the buyer can order varying quantities within the specified limits based on their needs.

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  • 21. 

    (209) What must be evaluated by contracting and subject matter experts before a best value analysis is prepared?

    • A.

      Completion date

    • B.

      Precise quantities

    • C.

      Administrative fees

    • D.

      Technical proposals

    Correct Answer
    D. Technical proposals
    Explanation
    Before a best value analysis is prepared, contracting and subject matter experts must evaluate the technical proposals. This evaluation is necessary to assess the technical capabilities and suitability of the proposals in meeting the project requirements. The experts will examine the technical aspects of the proposals, such as the proposed solution, methodology, quality control measures, and any innovative approaches. This evaluation helps in determining the best value option by considering the technical merits of each proposal.

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  • 22. 

    (210) Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineering Requirements (SABER) expedite the civil engineering (CE) squadron contract execution by reducing

    • A.

      Design work and acquisition lead times

    • B.

      Acquisition lead times and overall cost

    • C.

      Design work and out-of-pocket costs

    • D.

      Out-of-pocket costs

    Correct Answer
    A. Design work and acquisition lead times
    Explanation
    SABER helps to expedite the civil engineering squadron contract execution by reducing design work and acquisition lead times. This means that SABER streamlines the process by minimizing the amount of design work required and reducing the time it takes to acquire the necessary resources. This ultimately leads to faster contract execution and potentially lower overall costs.

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  • 23. 

    (210) What is used to develop detailed cost estimates for work to be performed by Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineering Requirements (SABER) contract?

    • A.

      AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request.

    • B.

      AF Form 1219, Installation Cost Comparison

    • C.

      Pre-negotiated unit price book

    • D.

      Engineering performance standards

    Correct Answer
    C. Pre-negotiated unit price book
    Explanation
    A pre-negotiated unit price book is used to develop detailed cost estimates for work to be performed by a Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineering Requirements (SABER) contract. This book contains pre-negotiated prices for various types of work, allowing for quick and accurate cost estimation without the need for extensive negotiations or calculations. It provides a standardized and efficient approach to estimating costs for SABER projects.

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  • 24. 

    (210) Who determines whether a work request will become a Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineering Requirements (SABER) contract?

    • A.

      Chief of operations

    • B.

      Base civil engineer

    • C.

      Resources flight personnel

    • D.

      Work request review board

    Correct Answer
    D. Work request review board
    Explanation
    The Work Request Review Board determines whether a work request will become a Simplified Acquisition of Base Engineering Requirements (SABER) contract. This board is responsible for reviewing and evaluating the work request to determine if it meets the criteria and requirements for a SABER contract. They consider factors such as the scope of work, budget, and feasibility before making a decision on whether to proceed with a SABER contract or not. The Chief of Operations, Base Civil Engineer, and Resources Flight Personnel may be involved in the decision-making process, but the final determination lies with the Work Request Review Board.

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  • 25. 

    (211) Who tests equipment selected for the “try-before-you-buy” program?

    • A.

      Contractors, who have the greatest expertise

    • B.

      Manufacturers, who maintain the most suitable test equipment

    • C.

      AF personnel, who can best attest to the product’s possible benefits

    • D.

      Program managers, who can best describe the test results for upward reporting

    Correct Answer
    C. AF personnel, who can best attest to the product’s possible benefits
    Explanation
    AF personnel are the best choice to test equipment selected for the "try-before-you-buy" program because they can provide the most accurate assessment of the product's potential benefits. As members of the Air Force, they have firsthand experience and knowledge of the specific needs and requirements of the organization. They can effectively evaluate the equipment based on their expertise and provide valuable insights regarding its suitability and advantages for the Air Force.

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  • 26. 

    (211) How long does the vehicle and equipment management support office product evaluation period last?

    • A.

      Several weeks

    • B.

      Three to six months

    • C.

      Six months to one year

    • D.

      More than 18 months

    Correct Answer
    C. Six months to one year
    Explanation
    The vehicle and equipment management support office product evaluation period typically lasts for a duration of six months to one year. This timeframe allows for a thorough evaluation of the product's performance, reliability, and suitability for the office's needs. It ensures that sufficient time is given to gather data, analyze results, and make an informed decision regarding the product's effectiveness and potential implementation.

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  • 27. 

    (211) At what point does vehicle and equipment management support office send a formal report to the manufacturer stating the testing results?

    • A.

      When a newly tested product is superior to something already in the AF inventory

    • B.

      When the data produced by the testing must be shared with other Federal agencies

    • C.

      When two or more major commands are testing a product at the same time

    • D.

      When all testing and analyses have been completed

    Correct Answer
    D. When all testing and analyses have been completed
    Explanation
    The vehicle and equipment management support office sends a formal report to the manufacturer stating the testing results when all testing and analyses have been completed. This indicates that the report is sent after all necessary evaluations, assessments, and examinations have been finished to ensure accurate and comprehensive results.

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  • 28. 

    (212) What is a comprehensive collection of records for real property installed equipment not tied to a building?

    • A.

      In-service work plan (IWP)

    • B.

      Statement of work (SOW).

    • C.

      Job order log

    • D.

      Facility file

    Correct Answer
    D. Facility file
    Explanation
    A facility file is a comprehensive collection of records for real property installed equipment that is not tied to a building. It includes detailed information about the equipment, such as maintenance records, warranties, and specifications. This file is used to track the history and condition of the equipment and ensure that it is properly maintained and serviced. It is an essential resource for facility managers and maintenance personnel to effectively manage and plan for the upkeep of the equipment.

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  • 29. 

    (212) Where can you find out if a building is slated for demolition, and how should new work requests for that building be processed?

    • A.

      In-service work plan (IWP), annotate the request with the date the facility is projected to be torn down, forward to the approval authority.

    • B.

      Facility file, annotate the request with the date the facility is projected to be torn down, forward to the approval authority.

    • C.

      IWP, cancel the work request

    • D.

      Facility file, cancel the work request

    Correct Answer
    B. Facility file, annotate the request with the date the facility is projected to be torn down, forward to the approval authority.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to check the facility file to find out if a building is slated for demolition. If the building is scheduled to be torn down, the new work requests for that building should be annotated with the projected demolition date and forwarded to the approval authority. This ensures that any work requests for a building that is going to be demolished can be appropriately handled and processed.

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  • 30. 

    (213) What key item do automated facility files lack?

    • A.

      Signatures

    • B.

      Material lists

    • C.

      Incurred costs

    • D.

      Reimbursement

    Correct Answer
    A. Signatures
    Explanation
    Automated facility files lack signatures. Signatures are important for verifying and authorizing documents or actions. In automated systems, files are stored electronically, and signatures cannot be physically added to the files. This can create a potential risk as it becomes difficult to ensure the authenticity and accountability of the information stored in the files. Without signatures, it may be challenging to track and verify the individuals responsible for specific actions or decisions recorded in the automated facility files.

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  • 31. 

     (214) Who submits non-emergency work requirements?

    • A.

      Supervisor

    • B.

      Facility manager

    • C.

      Organization commander

    • D.

      Individual having knowledge of the condition

    Correct Answer
    B. Facility manager
    Explanation
    The facility manager is responsible for submitting non-emergency work requirements. They are in charge of overseeing the maintenance and operations of a facility, which includes identifying and addressing any necessary repairs or improvements. As such, they would be the one to submit work requirements for non-urgent issues that need to be addressed.

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  • 32. 

    (214) Why should the facility manager be present during the design stage of a project?

    • A.

      To identify additional tasks

    • B.

      To learn about funding requirements and restrictions

    • C.

      To ensure the project is being designed to meet the organizational needs

    • D.

      To ensure the correct funding categories for construction are applied to the project

    Correct Answer
    C. To ensure the project is being designed to meet the organizational needs
    Explanation
    The facility manager should be present during the design stage of a project to ensure that the project is being designed to meet the organizational needs. By being present, the facility manager can provide input and feedback on the design plans, ensuring that they align with the goals and requirements of the organization. This involvement helps to avoid potential issues or conflicts later on in the project and ensures that the final design will effectively meet the needs of the organization.

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  • 33. 

    (214) What will the fire inspector look for during a facility fire prevention inspection?

    • A.

      Self-help projects not approved by civil engineering (CE).

    • B.

      Missing ceiling tiles and water leaks

    • C.

      Facility manager’s log

    • D.

      Key control register

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-help projects not approved by civil engineering (CE).
    Explanation
    The fire inspector will look for self-help projects that have not been approved by civil engineering (CE) during a facility fire prevention inspection. This means that any modifications or alterations made to the facility without proper approval and oversight from CE may be a potential fire hazard and can compromise the safety of the building. The inspector will check for any unauthorized construction or modifications that could increase the risk of fire and ensure that all projects have been properly approved and meet the necessary safety standards.

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  • 34. 

     (215) Facility managers receive refresher training from operations management

    • A.

      On an annual basis

    • B.

      On a monthly basis

    • C.

      Quarterly as needed

    • D.

      Whenever civil engineer (CE) operations changes

    Correct Answer
    A. On an annual basis
    Explanation
    Facility managers receive refresher training on an annual basis. This means that they undergo training to refresh their knowledge and skills once every year. This ensures that they stay updated with any changes or advancements in their field and are able to effectively carry out their responsibilities. Regular refresher training helps facility managers stay competent and knowledgeable in their role, enabling them to provide efficient and effective management of the facility.

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  • 35. 

    (216) Which form is used to approve local manufacture of supply or equipment items?

    • A.

      AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request

    • B.

      AF Form 1879, Base Civil Engineer Job Order

    • C.

      DD Form, 1391, Military Construction Project Data

    • D.

      DD Form 1348–1, Department of Defense Single Line Item Release/Receipt Document

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 1348–1, Department of Defense Single Line Item Release/Receipt Document
  • 36. 

    (216) Which code is used to identify a safety hazard or violation on all written work requests?

    • A.

      Labor utilization

    • B.

      Risk assessment

    • C.

      Risk identification

    • D.

      Work order indicator

    Correct Answer
    B. Risk assessment
    Explanation
    Risk assessment is the correct answer because it is the process of identifying potential hazards or violations that could occur during a task or project. It involves evaluating the likelihood and severity of these risks in order to determine appropriate preventive measures or controls. By conducting a risk assessment on all written work requests, safety hazards or violations can be identified and addressed before they occur, ensuring the safety and well-being of workers.

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  • 37. 

    (217) In addition to the original, how many copies of the AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request, should be submitted?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Three copies of the AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request, should be submitted in addition to the original. This is likely because the form needs to be distributed to multiple departments or individuals who are involved in processing and approving the work request. Having multiple copies ensures that all necessary parties receive the form and can take the appropriate actions.

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  • 38. 

    (217) Which section(s) of AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request, must be completed by the requester?

    • A.

      I only.

    • B.

      II only

    • C.

      I and II

    • D.

      II and III.

    Correct Answer
    A. I only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I only. Section I of AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request, must be completed by the requester. This section includes information such as the requester's name, organization, phone number, and a description of the work requested. Sections II and III are not required to be completed by the requester.

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  • 39. 

    (217) When a work request is for minor construction, who signs block 13 of the AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request?

    • A.

      Customer

    • B.

      Facility manager

    • C.

      Approving official

    • D.

      Organization commander

    Correct Answer
    D. Organization commander
    Explanation
    The organization commander signs block 13 of the AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request, when the work request is for minor construction. This indicates that the commander approves and authorizes the requested work to be carried out.

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  • 40. 

    (217) Who usually marks block 15 of the AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request, to indicate the type of work order?

    • A.

      Customer

    • B.

      Facility manager

    • C.

      Approving authority

    • D.

      Organization commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Approving authority
    Explanation
    The approving authority usually marks block 15 of the AF Form 332 to indicate the type of work order. This is because the approving authority is responsible for reviewing and approving the work request, including determining the appropriate type of work order based on the nature of the requested work. The approving authority has the authority to make decisions regarding the allocation of resources and the prioritization of work orders, making them the appropriate person to mark block 15.

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  • 41. 

    (217) Where are the criteria for determining the priority of work found?

    • A.

      Reverse side of AF Form 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request.

    • B.

      AFI 32–1001, Operations Management

    • C.

      AFI 33–209, Resource Protection Program

    • D.

      AFPAM 32–1004, Volume 3, Working in the Operations Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 32–1001, Operations Management
    Explanation
    The criteria for determining the priority of work can be found in AFI 32–1001, Operations Management.

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  • 42. 

    (218) When work is authorized by a direct scheduled work order, what should the work order indicator be changed to?

    • A.

      “J.”

    • B.

      “K.”

    • C.

      “N.”

    • D.

      “S.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “J.”
    Explanation
    When work is authorized by a direct scheduled work order, the work order indicator should be changed to "J." This indicates that the work has been authorized and scheduled directly through a work order.

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  • 43. 

    (218) Which work priority is given for work needed to give adequate security to areas subject to compromise; to eliminate health, fire, or safety hazards; or to protect valuable property or equipment?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Priority 2 is given to work that is needed to provide adequate security to areas subject to compromise, eliminate health, fire, or safety hazards, or protect valuable property or equipment. This means that these tasks are considered to be of high importance and should be addressed promptly to ensure the safety and security of the areas and assets involved.

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  • 44. 

    (218) Which work priority is given to a work order requirement that is assigned a risk assessment code of 5 or a fire safety deficiency code of 4 or 5?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
    Explanation
    A work priority of 4 is given to a work order requirement that is assigned a risk assessment code of 5 or a fire safety deficiency code of 4 or 5.

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  • 45. 

    (218) What must you do after the contract programmer creates a project number in Automated Civil Engineer System, Project Management (ACES-PM) from a work request?

    • A.

      Close out the work request in Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS), annotate the contract project number on the AF Form 332, and return a copy of the form to the customer or facility manager.

    • B.

      Track the work request in IWIMS to programs flight, annotate in remarks for contract programmer to contact customer with status.

    • C.

      Update work request number to match the contract project number, and return the AF Form 332 to the customer.

    • D.

      Cancel the work request, and annotate in remarks the contract project number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Close out the work request in Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS), annotate the contract project number on the AF Form 332, and return a copy of the form to the customer or facility manager.
    Explanation
    After the contract programmer creates a project number in Automated Civil Engineer System, Project Management (ACES-PM) from a work request, the next step is to close out the work request in Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS). Additionally, the contract project number should be annotated on the AF Form 332, and a copy of the form should be returned to the customer or facility manager. This ensures that the work request is properly documented and completed.

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  • 46. 

    (219) How many types of direct scheduled work orders are there?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    C. 5
    Explanation
    There are five types of direct scheduled work orders.

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  • 47. 

    (219) What labor utilization code is used in the Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS) for minor construction?

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      14

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    D. 15
    Explanation
    The labor utilization code used in the Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS) for minor construction is 15.

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  • 48. 

    (219) Who determines which direct scheduled work (DSW) orders can be done by facility maintenance teams along with other routine requirements identified on the AF Form 1219, Base Civil Engineer Multi-Craft Job Order?

    • A.

      Planner

    • B.

      Programmer

    • C.

      Shop supervisor

    • D.

      Operations superintendent

    Correct Answer
    C. Shop supervisor
    Explanation
    The shop supervisor determines which direct scheduled work (DSW) orders can be done by facility maintenance teams along with other routine requirements identified on the AF Form 1219, Base Civil Engineer Multi-Craft Job Order.

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  • 49. 

    (219) Who receives a copy of the completed direct scheduled work order when work is done in general officers’ quarters?

    • A.

      Resources and housing management

    • B.

      Protocol and housing management

    • C.

      Resources and facility manager

    • D.

      Protocol and facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Resources and housing management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Resources and housing management. When work is done in general officers' quarters, a copy of the completed direct scheduled work order is received by the Resources and Housing Management department. This department is responsible for managing and maintaining the housing facilities for general officers, ensuring that any work orders are completed and documented properly.

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  • 50. 

    (220) What field on the Add Direct Scheduled Work Order screen in the Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS) should not be changed without a valid customer requirement?

    • A.

      Location

    • B.

      Requester

    • C.

      Donated resources

    • D.

      Required completion date

    Correct Answer
    D. Required completion date
    Explanation
    The field that should not be changed without a valid customer requirement on the Add Direct Scheduled Work Order screen in IWIMS is the "Required completion date." This date is crucial for planning and scheduling the work order, and any changes to it should only be made if there is a legitimate customer requirement or request.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 06, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Silentwolf41
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