3s0x1a: Volume 3 Personnel Systems Journeyman

70 Questions | Total Attempts: 136

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3S0X1A: Volume 3 Personnel Systems Journeyman


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
     Who is in charge of the record function at each military personnel element (MPE) where the AF Form 10, Unit Personnel Group (UPRG) is maintained?
    • A. 

      Records Clerk

    • B. 

      Records Technician

    • C. 

      Feild records group technician

    • D. 

      UPRG custodian

  • 2. 
    Who must maintain and ensure records are corrected as needed for the UPRG?
    • A. 

      MPE commander

    • B. 

      UPRG custodian

    • C. 

      MPF security officer

    • D. 

      Cheif, customer service

  • 3. 
    An individual data review listing (IDRL) is automatically produced:
    • A. 

      On the anniversary date of a member's date arrived station (DAS)

    • B. 

      When a member's records status changes to present for duty

    • C. 

      When a record review listing (RRL) is produced

    • D. 

      IN conjunction with reelistment

  • 4. 
    When conducting a record review, customer support screens the UPRG and removes:
    • A. 

      Temporary documents and destroys them

    • B. 

      Obsolete documents and gives them to the member

    • C. 

      Temporary documents and mails them to the member

    • D. 

      Temporary and obsolete documents ans sends them for filing in the member's persoanl information file

  • 5. 
    Customer support screens the UPRG, removes obsoliete documetns for personnel at a GSU, places the documents in and envelope, and mails them to the member:
    • A. 

      Upon the member's discharge

    • B. 

      Upon the member's retirement

    • C. 

      In conjuction with a records review

    • D. 

      In conjunction with release from extended active duty (EAD)

  • 6. 
    When processing a discharge and immediate reenlistment, the customer support section screens the UPRG and removes which documents and forwards them to HQ AFPC with the reenlistment documents?
    • A. 

      Promotion orders (except for current grade), waiver documents from previous enlistment, and enlistment orders

    • B. 

      Promotion orders for current grade, waiver documents from current enlistment, and reenlistment orders

    • C. 

      Promotion orders (except for current grade), waiver documents from current enlistment, and discharge certificate

    • D. 

      Promotion orders for current grade, waiver documents from current enlistment, and discharge certificate

  • 7. 
    The MPE transferring the UPRG must account for records using:
    • A. 

      A records review listing

    • B. 

      A computer listing on individual personnel

    • C. 

      AF Form 330, Records Transmittal/Request

    • D. 

      AF Form 350, Records Transmittal/Request

  • 8. 
    What form does an individual use to request correction to military records?
    • A. 

      DD from 149

    • B. 

      AF Form 149

    • C. 

      DD Form 330

    • D. 

      AF Form 2607

  • 9. 
    Whithin what time frame must the individual submit a request for corrections to military records to the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)?
    • A. 

      Within 3 years after the error or injustice was discovered

    • B. 

      Within 5 years after the error or injustice was discovered

    • C. 

      Within 10 years after the error or injustice was discovered

    • D. 

      Within 12 years after the error or injustice was discovered

  • 10. 
    When requesting correction to military records, who is repsonsible for gathering sufficient evidence of probably material error or injustice?
    • A. 

      Applicant

    • B. 

      Executive order

    • C. 

      Appoint board member

    • D. 

      Responsible MPE

  • 11. 
    The AFBCMR acts for the Secretary of the Air Force and its decsion is final except when it:
    • A. 

      Denies any application

    • B. 

      Is unanimously agreed to by the panel

    • C. 

      Involves and appoinment or promotion requiring confirmation by the Senate

    • D. 

      Grants any application in whole or part when the relief is recommended by the official preparing the advisory opinion

  • 12. 
    Members are eligible to apply for a join spouse assignment if they are on extended active duty and
    • A. 

      Meet all permanent change of station (PCS) eligibility requirements

    • B. 

      Apply for a permissive move to or from overseas or inter theater

    • C. 

      Cannot meet time on station requirements for funded move

    • D. 

      Are scheduled for reassignment within 12 months from the date they will joing spouse

  • 13. 
    An AF member selected fo an assignment and married to a member of another US military service must complete a letter application and:
    • A. 

      No further action is necessary

    • B. 

      The individual must ensure the spouse assignment preferences are updated in the personnel data system

    • C. 

      The spouse in the other US military service must declare joing spouse intent on an AF Form 1048

    • D. 

      The individual must include a statement from the member's spouse indicating he or she wants the join spouse assignment

  • 14. 
    When an AF member marries en route to a permanent change of station (PCS) and the member and new spouse are assigned to different locations, the individuals must:
    • A. 

      Immediately report to the PCS duty station

    • B. 

      Delay applying for a join spouse assignment until in-processing is completed

    • C. 

      Delay applying for a join spouse assignment until time on station has expired

    • D. 

      Immediately report to the nearest AF installation and apply for a join spouse assignment

  • 15. 
    After updating the join spouse assignment intent code, how does customer support dispose of the AF Form 1048?
    • A. 

      Return the AF Form 1048 to the member

    • B. 

      Forward the AF Form 1048 to the relocation element for file

    • C. 

      Mail the AF Form 1048 to the assignment processing team at HQ AFPC

    • D. 

      File the AF Form 1048 in the member's UPRG

  • 16. 
    If a couple is overseas and they do do not have the same overseas date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS) and they desire to be reassigned at the same time, then the one with the:
    • A. 

      Latest DEROS must extend

    • B. 

      Earliest DEROS must extend

    • C. 

      Latest DEROS requests an earlier DEROS

    • D. 

      Earliest DEROS must apply for a stabilizer tour

  • 17. 
    Which statement is true if a member proceeds on a voluntary assignment from a join spouse assignment?
    • A. 

      The member will receive a join spouse move letter

    • B. 

      Member's spouse can request a permissive join spouse assignment

    • C. 

      Member's spouse can apply for a CONUS assignment exchange

    • D. 

      The member cannot later join the spouse unless they are eligible under some other assignment program

  • 18. 
    What is the tour length restriction if a member without dependents joins a spouse who is serving an un-accompanied tour overseas?
    • A. 

      The member must serve the accompanied tour length

    • B. 

      The member will serve the full unaccompanied tour length

    • C. 

      Teh member will receive a date eligible to return from DEROS to equal the first arriving spouse's DEROS

    • D. 

      Member does not have to complete the tour is he or she joins the spouse on a consecutive overseas tour

  • 19. 
    Who should an AF member contact to change a join spouse assignment intent after selection for a join spouse assignment?
    • A. 

      First Sergeant

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      MPE

    • D. 

      AFPC

  • 20. 
    When couples PCS to the same or adjacent locations and reside jointly, what does the MPE include in the Remarks section of the PCS orders regradless of the assignment action reason?
    • A. 

      Spouse travel authorized

    • B. 

      Assignment accompanied

    • C. 

      Joint authorization travel

    • D. 

      Assignment is to join spouse

  • 21. 
    Customer support is responsible for verifying a member's eligibility for an identificaiton (ID) card and for:
    • A. 

      Reviewing all completed ID cards for accuracy

    • B. 

      Determining which benefits and privileges the ID card entitles an eligible member

    • C. 

      Maintaining the documentation on which a member's eligibility for an ID card was based

    • D. 

      Making sure documentation provided by the member is entered into the personnel data system (PDS)

  • 22. 
    What can you use to verify ID card eligibility if you cannot access the DEERS?
    • A. 

      Call the previous verifying official

    • B. 

      An unexpired DD Form 1173, Uniform Services Identification and Privilege Card

    • C. 

      An expired DD Form 1173, with legal documentation

    • D. 

      A previous DD Form 1172, Application for Uniformed Services Identification Card - DEERS Enrollment

  • 23. 
    How do you verify eligibility for an ID for members who are retired with pay?
    • A. 

      Enlistment contracts

    • B. 

      Retirement order of DD Form 214

    • C. 

      Letter from the Department of Veterans' Affairs (DVA)

    • D. 

      Current document in the UPRG

  • 24. 
    After the verifying official gives the original DD Form 1172 to the applicant and distributes the remaining as necessary, they advise the applicant that the DD Form 1172 is valid for how many days?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 25. 
    When a family member's expired ID card cannot be retrieved voluntarily by letter from the sponsor, unit commander, or MPE, the MPE:
    • A. 

      Contacts HQ AFPC for assistance in locating the family member

    • B. 

      Prepares a case file documenting all unsuccessful efforts to retrieve the ID card

    • C. 

      Reports the circumstances to local civil authorities ini the community nearest the unauthorized cardholder's last know address

    • D. 

      Reports the circumstances to the chief of security forces or military police of the military installation nearest the unauthorized family member's address

  • 26. 
    When, if ever, does the MPE destroy a DD Form 1172 and documentation?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      One year after the card expires

    • C. 

      Within 30 days after the card expires

    • D. 

      Within 90 days after the card expires

  • 27. 
    According to special procedure for parole and excess leave, the MPE retrieves ID cards from the member and family members when the:
    • A. 

      Member's discharge is executed

    • B. 

      Member is released on excess leave

    • C. 

      Member is transferred to parole status

    • D. 

      Relese is approved, and the member is on excess leave

  • 28. 
    If an administrative or judicial action that authorized the MPE to destroy an ID card and reissue a temporary card is not resolved within 90 calendar days from the start of the action, the:
    • A. 

      MPE may reissue cards for an additional 90 days if necessary

    • B. 

      MPE must coordinate reissue of temporary ID cards with the corrections facility

    • C. 

      DoD Regional Corrections Facility will issue a temporary ID card with the MPE

    • D. 

      HQ AFPC coordinates issue of a temporary ID card with the corrections facility

  • 29. 
    The RAPIDS provides a network of microcomputers linking the MPE to the DEERS database to provide:
    • A. 

      Current depndent information to the personnel data system (PDS)

    • B. 

      Local MPEs on-line personnel records for members assigned to another site

    • C. 

      On-line additions, retrieval, and update of family member information to the DEERS database

    • D. 

      Dependency determination data to the DFAS Records System

  • 30. 
    What is required to sign on to the RAPIDS?
    • A. 

      Your user ID

    • B. 

      The generic password "rapids"

    • C. 

      DEERS logon ID and password

    • D. 

      Your personal DEERS password only

  • 31. 
    What is the restriction on changing your RAPIDS password as often as you desire?
    • A. 

      The super verifying officer (SVO) initially changes your RAPIDS password

    • B. 

      Only your site security manager (SSM) can change your password for you

    • C. 

      Your password cannot be changed more than 30 times a month

    • D. 

      You can change a password only once within a 24 hour period

  • 32. 
    What option from the file menu in RAPIDS expands to include beneficiary and family options?
    • A. 

      Open a family

    • B. 

      Characteristics

    • C. 

      Options

    • D. 

      View

  • 33. 
    What is the first action you take if you forget your DEERS password?
    • A. 

      Haev your site securiy manager (SSM) change your password then logon to DEERS

    • B. 

      Call the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System/Real-time Automated Personnel Identication System Assistance Center (DRAC) for a temporary password

    • C. 

      Notify your SVO who resets your password

    • D. 

      Select Option from RAPIDS main menu and press F1

  • 34. 
    Full-time SGLI is authorized for all members on active duty and for members on active duty for training under a call or order that specifies:
    • A. 

      A period of 31 days or more

    • B. 

      A period of less than 31 days

    • C. 

      30 training days and four drill periods each year

    • D. 

      A minimum 10 periods of active training each year that count for retirement

  • 35. 
    By law, all members on active duty, active duty for training or inactive duty for training and Ready Reserves are automatically insured for the maximum coverage of $250,000 until:
    • A. 

      Tehy complete an SGLV 8285, REquest for Insurance, to decline or reduce coverage

    • B. 

      Teh complete an SGLV 8283, Claim Benefits, to reclaim payments made

    • C. 

      They make a valid election to reduce or decline coverage

    • D. 

      Teh end of the current term of enlistment

  • 36. 
    If a member desires SGLI coverage in the amount of $80,000, how do you determine the premium cost?
    • A. 

      Each $10K increment costs 90 cents, therefore 8 x .90 = $7.20

    • B. 

      Each $10K increment costs 80 cents, therefore 8 x .80 = $6.40

    • C. 

      Each $10K increment costs 70 cents, therefore 8 x .70 = $5.60

    • D. 

      Each $10K increment costs 60 cents, therefore 8 x .60 = $4.80

  • 37. 
    When a member is confined by civil authorities for more than 31 days under a sentence adjudged by a civil court, SGLI coverage is terminated:
    • A. 

      When confined

    • B. 

      On the 31st day

    • C. 

      On the 30th day

    • D. 

      When sentenced

  • 38. 
    After the SGLV 8285, Request for Insurance, is completed and signed by the member and commander or authorized representative with all medical questions answered "no", the form is:
    • A. 

      Forwarded to the customer service section for certification

    • B. 

      Filed in the individual's UPRG

    • C. 

      Mailed to the Office of Servicemen's Group Life Insurance (OSGLI)

    • D. 

      Stamped with the date and annotated that the member wants coverage

  • 39. 
    A SGLV 8286, SGLI Election and Certificate, form must be re-accomplished when the member:
    • A. 

      Changes named beneficiaries

    • B. 

      Requests to restore insurance

    • C. 

      Makes claim for accelerated benefits

    • D. 

      Requests Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI)

  • 40. 
    What advice do you give a member who is survived by dependents or parents and they desgnate some other person or entity as beneficiary?
    • A. 

      Enter "By Law" in the beneficiary block

    • B. 

      Name the dependents or parents as the beneficiaries

    • C. 

      Seek legal counsel before designating the beneficiaries

    • D. 

      Submit a signed memorandum indicating that they understand the designation is unusual and that they want the person(s) listed to receive proceeds

  • 41. 
    By law, if a member has no surviving spouse or chold, then the SGLI is payable to
    • A. 

      Other next of kin

    • B. 

      A duly appointed executor

    • C. 

      An administrtor of the insured's estate

    • D. 

      The member's parents in equal shares or all to the surviving parent

  • 42. 
    When completing the SGLV 8286, members may specify that proceeds be paid to beneficiaries in:
    • A. 

      12 monthly payments

    • B. 

      60 equal monthly payments

    • C. 

      Lump sum or 36 monthly installments

    • D. 

      Lump sum or 60 equal monthly installments

  • 43. 
    HOw is the SGLI form processed?
    • A. 

      Mail the original to HQ AFPC, file a copy in the member's personnel records, and give a copy to the member

    • B. 

      File the original in the member's personnel record, mail a copy to the Dept of VA, and give a copy to the member

    • C. 

      Mail the original tot he Office of Servicemen's Group Life Insurance (OSGLI), give a copy to the member, and file a copy in the member's personnel record

    • D. 

      File the original in the member's personnel record, give a copy to the member and a copy is used by the active or reserve components of the uniformed services

  • 44. 
    Which individuals are not eligible for VGLI coverage?
    • A. 

      TSgt on extended active duty in the AF

    • B. 

      Major serving as a member of the Inactive National guard

    • C. 

      Lt Col serving as a member of the Individual Ready Reserve

    • D. 

      SGLI insured SSgt Released from active duty from training under a call to duty that does not specify a period of less than 31 days

  • 45. 
    The amount of SGLI coverage a member has upon separation may be replaced by VGLI in an amount equal to:
    • A. 

      Or less than the amount of SGLI in effect upon separation

    • B. 

      Or greater than the amount of SGLI in effect upon separation

    • C. 

      Or greater than the amount of SGLI in effect upon retirement

    • D. 

      The amount of Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) coverage elected upon retirement

  • 46. 
    Wehn completing an application for VGLI, a service member does all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Checking the amount of insurance desired

    • B. 

      Designating principal and contingent beneficiaries

    • C. 

      Initialing all blocks and mailing the form ot the Veterans Affairs Insurance Office

    • D. 

      Signing the form, dating it, and mailing it with check or money order to the Office of SGLI

  • 47. 
    When a service member sith SGLI does not designate a beneficiary and dies within 60 days after the VGLI becomes effective, the benefits are paid:
    • A. 

      Under the provision of the law

    • B. 

      Accordinig to the prior SGLI designation

    • C. 

      To any children if there is no widow or widower

    • D. 

      In order of precedence beginning with the widow or widower

  • 48. 
    AF policy requires that all AF personnel fully support the casualty assistance program and recognize all of these goals except:
    • A. 

      Prompt reporting

    • B. 

      Accurate accountability

    • C. 

      Dignified and humane notifications

    • D. 

      Efficien, thorough, and compassionate assistance to the next of kin

  • 49. 
    When performing casualty assistance duties, you do not release any information to Public Affairs when the member does not want:
    • A. 

      The next of kin notified

    • B. 

      The member's burial site published in the base paper

    • C. 

      The new media to be aware of a situation that my prompt an interview

    • D. 

      Inquiries for assistance from the chaplain, American Red Cross, and hospital

  • 50. 
    What is the casualty status of a person who is not present at his or her duty location due to apparent involutnary reasons and whose location may or may not be known?
    • A. 

      Absent

    • B. 

      Missing

    • C. 

      Unaccountable

    • D. 

      Duty Status-Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN)

  • 51. 
    The not seriously injured (NSI) casualty status describes a person whose injury:
    • A. 

      May or may not require hospitalization

    • B. 

      Renders communication physically or mentally impossible

    • C. 

      Occurred at a duty station in an area not designated as hostile

    • D. 

      Is so severe that there is cause for immediate concern but no imminent danger to life

  • 52. 
    What is the appropriate casualty status for an individual when a responsible commander suspects the member may be a casualty, the absence is involuntary, but does not feel sufficient evidence currently exists to make a more definitive determination?
    • A. 

      Missing

    • B. 

      Deceased

    • C. 

      AWOL

    • D. 

      DUSTWUN

  • 53. 
    Who is considered the primary next of kin (PNOK) when there are two next of kin (NOK) with equal relationships to the member?
    • A. 

      The older of the two

    • B. 

      Neither, they are both treated as PNOK

    • C. 

      The one established by law in the state where the death occured

    • D. 

      The one established by law in the member's home of record state

  • 54. 
    Which is not generally considered conclusive evidence of death?
    • A. 

      Results of a search

    • B. 

      Eyewitness statement

    • C. 

      Circumstances of the incident

    • D. 

      Positively identified recoverd remains

  • 55. 
    The actual manner and cause of death must be confirmed by supplemental report within one duty day after recieving the:
    • A. 

      Date, time, and cause of death report

    • B. 

      Place, date, and time of death report

    • C. 

      Manner, cause, and date of death

    • D. 

      Death certificate, autopsy report, or accident investigation report

  • 56. 
    How long does a member remain in DUSTWUN status?
    • A. 

      Not more than 90 days

    • B. 

      Normally no more than 10 days

    • C. 

      As long as it takes to find the member

    • D. 

      More than 30 days but less than 90 days

  • 57. 
    What action must you take within 10 days of a DUSTWUN declaration when the member's absence is not voluntary and the member is still missing?
    • A. 

      Submit a missing report

    • B. 

      Revoke DUSTWUN status and change it to unconfirmed

    • C. 

      Notify base readiness to contact local police for assistance in locating the member

    • D. 

      Notify the member's commander to submit a DUSTWUN report to the wing commander

  • 58. 
    When feasible, casualty notifications are made in person by an AF representative for:
    • A. 

      Seriously ill or injured (SII)

    • B. 

      Not seriously injured (NSI)

    • C. 

      Very seriously injured (VSI)

    • D. 

      DUSTWUN

  • 59. 
    When, if ever, can an official death notificaton be made by telephone instead of being made in person by an AF representative?
    • A. 

      Never, personal notification is always made

    • B. 

      When it can be made as compassionately as possible

    • C. 

      When it is the more expeditious means of notifying the next of kin

    • D. 

      When the NOK calls inquiring about the member's status before official notification can be completed

  • 60. 
    Because each casualty notification is different and the reaction of the NOK is unpredictable, at least two other AF members accompanying the notification officer to attend to emergency needs that may arise.  These individuals are:
    • A. 

      Medical and chaplain personnel

    • B. 

      Chaplain and legal affairs personnel

    • C. 

      Family support and chapel services personnel

    • D. 

      MPE and family counseling personnel

  • 61. 
    When an ill or injured member is hospitalized overseas and the NOK resides in the CONUS, who assists the member's commander by notifying the NOK and providing medical progress, reports?
    • A. 

      Immediate supervisor

    • B. 

      Member's major command

    • C. 

      Medical Treatment Facility (MTF)

    • D. 

      HQ AFPC

  • 62. 
    When must the casualty assistance representative make initial contact with the primary NOK and other persons eligible for benefits or privileges made?
    • A. 

      PNOK; 48 hours; others, as soon as possible but within the first 48 hours after being notified of a casualty

    • B. 

      PNOK; 36 hours; others, as soon as possible but not more than 5 calendar days after being notified of a casualty

    • C. 

      PNOK; 24 hours; others, as soon as possible but such contact is not required within the first 24 hours after being notified of a casualty

    • D. 

      PNOK; 3 calendar days; others, 5 calendar days regardless of location after being notified of a casualty

  • 63. 
    What form does the casualty assistance representative (CAR) use when explaining benefits to the NOK and as a checklist to track and document entitlements applied for and received?
    • A. 

      AF From 8283, Claim for Death Benefits

    • B. 

      DD Form 2656, Survivor Benefit Plan

    • C. 

      DD Form 58, Casualty Assistance Summary

    • D. 

      AF Form 58, Casualty Assistance Summary (Transmittal)

  • 64. 
    For AF members in missing status, additional visits or later contacts to the NOK should be conducted:
    • A. 

      Once 3 calendar days after notification and once every 45 days for as long as the member remains in missing status

    • B. 

      Once 5 calendar days after notification and once every 6 months for as long as the member remains in missing status

    • C. 

      At least once every 30 days for the first year and thereafter once every month for 3 months as long as the member remains in missing status

    • D. 

      As least once every 10 days for the first month and once every month for the next year as long as the member remains in missing status

  • 65. 
    Who is responsible for implementing the Survivor Benefit Plan pre-retirement counseling?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM and wing commanders

    • B. 

      MPE and the CSS

    • C. 

      Casualty services branch and CAR

    • D. 

      Retiree and transition programs branch HQ AFPC

  • 66. 
    What is the amount of SBP annuity paid tot he surviving dependent(s) if a member who is receiving SBP coverage dies while on active duty?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      Full retirment pay

    • C. 

      50% of retirement pay the member would have received if retired on the date of death

    • D. 

      55% of retirement pay the member would have received if retired on the date of death

  • 67. 
    Except in cases of short-notice retirements, members who are retiring because they have met the years of service requirement are scheduled for a SBP briefing no later than how many days before retirement?
    • A. 

      60

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      120

    • D. 

      150

  • 68. 
    What is the minimum base amount of SBP coverage a member can designate for a spouse or former spouse and children without Supplemental Survivor Benefit Plan (SSBP)?
    • A. 

      $300

    • B. 

      $400

    • C. 

      $500

    • D. 

      Full retired pay

  • 69. 
    If a retiring member has a spouse or family member (children), the election of SBP for the former spouse:
    • A. 

      Must be the maximum amount of coverage

    • B. 

      Must be the minimum amount of coverage

    • C. 

      Allows for coverage of children only if they resulted from the marriage to the former spouse

    • D. 

      Allows for coverage of children only if they resulted from the marriage to the current spouse

  • 70. 
    How is a spouse who is unable to visit the MPE notified of a member's SBP election?
    • A. 

      By the member

    • B. 

      Notification is required

    • C. 

      Over the telephone by the MPE

    • D. 

      By the original signed election and a letter sent by MPE