3S071 Vol 3 Ure

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  • 1/54 Questions

    (405) Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment

    • Overseas
    • To Maxwell AFB, AL
    • To Elmendorf AFB, AK
    • To Langley AFB, VA
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3S071 Vol 3 Ure - Quiz
About This Quiz

This 3S071 Vol 3 URE quiz focuses on the responsibilities and procedures within UIF (Unfavorable Information File) management in the military. It assesses understanding of roles in appointing UIF monitors, documentation timelines, and the handling of promotion eligibility statuses.

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  • 2. 

    (410) What is the main objective of supervisors monitoring their supervisees in regards to the PRP?

    • Ensure they are progressing in their job

    • Ensure they do not have any questions

    • Observe their on-the-job training

    • Monitor the reliability and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor the reliability and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information
    Explanation
    Supervisors monitor their supervisees in regards to the PRP in order to ensure the reliability of their work and to notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information. This means that supervisors are responsible for observing and evaluating the performance and behavior of their supervisees to ensure that they meet the necessary standards and qualifications for the PRP. If any information is found that may disqualify the supervisee, the supervisor must inform the certifying official to take appropriate action.

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  • 3. 

    (405) The following documents are located in the relocation folder except

    • Assignment selection letter, message or rip

    • Decoration citation

    • Reassignment orders and all amendments

    • Relocation processing memorandum

    Correct Answer
    A. Decoration citation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "decoration citation" because the question asks for the document that is not located in the relocation folder. The other options, including the assignment selection letter, message or rip, reassignment orders and all amendments, and relocation processing memorandum, are all mentioned as being located in the relocation folder. Therefore, the decoration citation is the only document that is not included in the folder.

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  • 4. 

    (403) In the case of a mass casualty, who is the first group of people the casualty representative will contact?

    • Mortuary affairs

    • Security forces

    • Honor guard

    • Casualty team

    Correct Answer
    A. Casualty team
    Explanation
    In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty representative will first contact the casualty team. The casualty team is responsible for coordinating and managing the response to mass casualties, including providing medical care, triaging patients, and organizing transportation to medical facilities. They are trained to handle emergency situations and have the necessary expertise to prioritize and manage the care of multiple casualties. By contacting the casualty team first, the casualty representative can ensure that the appropriate resources and support are quickly mobilized to effectively respond to the mass casualty event.

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  • 5. 

    (405) Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member, how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section?

    • 14

    • 28

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 14
    Explanation
    After receiving the assignment rip on a member, the unit commander has 14 days before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section.

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  • 6. 

    (403) If a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for what type of assignment?

    • Humanitarian

    • Exceptional Family Member Program

    • Base of preference

    • Equal plus

    Correct Answer
    A. Humanitarian
    Explanation
    When a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure that the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for a humanitarian assignment. This type of assignment allows the member to be reassigned to a different location for compassionate reasons, such as being closer to family or dealing with personal hardships. It is a way to provide support and flexibility to military personnel during difficult times.

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  • 7. 

    (404) For all ill or injured casualties, all the following personal information may be released except

    • Name and gender

    • Rank, date of rank, commission source and promotion number

    • Date entered active duty service

    • Social security number

    Correct Answer
    A. Social security number
    Explanation
    Personal information such as name, gender, rank, date of rank, commission source, promotion number, and date entered active duty service may be released for ill or injured casualties. However, the social security number should not be released as it is considered sensitive and confidential information that could be misused for identity theft or fraud.

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  • 8. 

    (405) If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element forward to the member's commander?

    • AF IMT 899

    • Security requirement memorandum

    • VOP checklist

    • AF IMT 1001

    Correct Answer
    A. Security requirement memorandum
    Explanation
    The Career Development element forwards a security requirement memorandum to the member's commander when their assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file. This memorandum outlines the specific security requirements needed for the assignment and informs the commander of the necessary actions to take in order to ensure the member meets those requirements.

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  • 9. 

    (407) Which element/functions identifies all assigned officers and verifies eligibility status for promotion?

    • Customer Support element

    • Career Development element

    • Force Management Operations element

    • Personnel Readiness Function

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Development element
    Explanation
    The Career Development element is responsible for identifying all assigned officers and verifying their eligibility status for promotion. This element plays a crucial role in the career progression of officers by ensuring that they meet the necessary criteria for promotion. By closely monitoring and evaluating the performance and qualifications of officers, the Career Development element helps to determine their readiness for advancement within the organization.

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  • 10. 

    (404) For deceased casualties, all the following personal information may be released except

    • Pay date, military base pay and allowances

    • Any information on the members family

    • Age and date of birth

    • Home of record

    Correct Answer
    A. Any information on the members family
    Explanation
    Deceased casualties are individuals who have passed away, and their personal information may be released for various purposes. However, the personal information of their family members is usually not disclosed. This is to protect the privacy and security of the deceased individual's family, as they may be vulnerable during a time of grief and loss. Therefore, any information on the members' family is the exception, and it should not be released.

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  • 11. 

    (405) If a member is PCSing to a stateside assignment, he/she can outprocess no earlier than

    • 1 duty day prior to departure date

    • 2 duty days prior to departure date

    • 3 duty days prior to departure date

    • 4 duty days prior to departure date

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 duty day prior to departure date
    Explanation
    When a member is Permanent Change of Station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, they can outprocess no earlier than 1 duty day prior to their departure date. This means that they can start the process of completing all necessary paperwork, turning in equipment, and tying up loose ends at their current duty station one day before they are scheduled to leave for their new assignment.

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  • 12. 

    (410) When a certifying official is conducting a personal interview of candidates and members of the PRP, the interview will cover as a minimum all of the following except

    • The significance of the PRP assignment

    • The need for reliable performance

    • Provide the opportunity for the individual to disclose any potentially disqualifying information

    • Inquire about their marital status, where they were married and on what date they were married

    Correct Answer
    A. Inquire about their marital status, where they were married and on what date they were married
    Explanation
    During a personal interview of candidates and members of the PRP, the certifying official will cover the significance of the PRP assignment, the need for reliable performance, and provide the opportunity for the individual to disclose any potentially disqualifying information. However, the official will not inquire about their marital status, where they were married, and on what date they were married.

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  • 13. 

    (405) If a member is going contingence TDY, which element will handle their out processing relocation procedures?

    • Personnel Support

    • Personnel Readiness

    • Career Development

    • Customer Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Readiness
    Explanation
    When a member is going on contingency TDY (Temporary Duty), it means they are being deployed for a specific mission or task. In such cases, the Personnel Readiness element is responsible for handling their out processing relocation procedures. This includes ensuring that the member is properly prepared and ready for their deployment, handling administrative tasks related to their relocation, and ensuring that all necessary documentation and paperwork is completed. Personnel Support, Career Development, and Customer Support may be involved in other aspects of the member's deployment, but Personnel Readiness specifically handles the out processing and relocation procedures.

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  • 14. 

    (401) How many days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision?

    • 1 calendar day

    • 1 duty day

    • 3 calendar days

    • 3 duty days

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 duty days
    Explanation
    An active duty member (enlisted or officer) has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision. This means that the member has three working days, excluding weekends and holidays, to respond and provide any necessary information or feedback. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the member to review the intended actions and gather any relevant information before the final decision is made by the commander.

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  • 15. 

    (407) The Career Development element at the MPS will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of the following except

    • The board convening date

    • Name and rank of the most junior officer

    • Name and rank of the most senior officer

    • Name and rank of the board president

    Correct Answer
    A. Name and rank of the board president
    Explanation
    The Career Development element at the MPS will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing the board convening date, the name and rank of the most junior officer, and the name and rank of the most senior officer. However, it will not include the name and rank of the board president.

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  • 16. 

    (402) If a commander wishes to initiate removal actions from the control roster, which AF IMT form must he/she utilize?

    • 1058

    • 1137

    • 3070

    • 330

    Correct Answer
    A. 1058
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1058. The AF IMT form 1058 is used by a commander to initiate removal actions from the control roster. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized process for documenting and initiating the removal of individuals from the control roster.

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  • 17. 

    (404) How many hours must the casualty representative wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public?

    • 12

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The casualty representative must wait for 24 hours before releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public. This waiting period allows time for the military to notify the next of kin and provide them with the necessary support and information before the news becomes public. It also ensures that the family has had sufficient time to process the loss and make any necessary arrangements before facing media attention or inquiries from the public.

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  • 18. 

    (404) After the casualty representative (CAR) learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what documents on the military member/s?

    • DD form 93 and SGLV 8286 only

    • SGLV 8286 and DD form 4 only

    • DD form 93, SGLV 8286 and DD form 214

    • DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4 and any other VA forms related to the SGLI

    Correct Answer
    A. DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4 and any other VA forms related to the SGLI
    Explanation
    After the casualty representative learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and contact HQ AFPC casualty section. The CAR needs to fax the DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4, and any other VA forms related to the SGLI for the military member/s.

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  • 19. 

    (407) What is the purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application?

    • Eliminates the delay of notification

    • Provides notification of promotees only

    • Provides an advanced notification to promotees

    • Provides an advanced notification to commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminates the delay of notification
    Explanation
    The purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application is to eliminate the delay of notification. This means that the application is designed to provide immediate and timely notifications to individuals who have been promoted, ensuring that there is no delay in informing them of their promotion. By using this application, the military can streamline the promotion process and ensure that promotees receive their notifications promptly.

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  • 20. 

    (402) What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions?

    • 12 and 14

    • 12 and 16

    • 16 and 18

    • 16 and 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 and 16
    Explanation
    Assignment availability codes are used in the military to indicate the availability of a service member for assignment. Adverse actions are disciplinary actions taken against a service member for misconduct or poor performance. Assignment availability code 12 indicates that the service member is temporarily not available for assignment due to pending legal action, while code 16 indicates that the service member is not available for assignment due to disciplinary action. Therefore, both codes 12 and 16 are associated with adverse actions.

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  • 21. 

    (409) Which element/function updates the duty status for all contingency TDYs?

    • Customer Support element

    • Career Development element

    • Force Management Operations element

    • Personnel Readiness function

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Readiness function
    Explanation
    The Personnel Readiness function is responsible for updating the duty status for all contingency TDYs. This function ensures that personnel are prepared and ready for deployment or temporary duty assignments. They track and update the status of individuals who are on contingency TDYs, ensuring that their duty status is accurately reflected in the system. This function plays a crucial role in maintaining personnel readiness and ensuring that the necessary personnel are available for deployment when needed.

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  • 22. 

    (405) Where is the AF IMT 907 kept?

    • It is not kept. it is sent to the automated records management system

    • It is kept in the member's personal information file

    • In the relocation folder

    • It is given to Customer Support

    Correct Answer
    A. In the relocation folder
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 907 is kept in the relocation folder.

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  • 23. 

    (405) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?

    • 899

    • 63

    • 907

    • 965

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
  • 24. 

    (407) Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by

    • Name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code and state/country

    • MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code only

    • Unit, AFSC, PAS code and PFE/SKT test scores

    • AFSC and PAS code only

    Correct Answer
    A. Name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code and state/country
    Explanation
    Commanders can access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by various criteria such as name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. This means that they can search for promotion results based on specific individuals' names, their assigned MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and even their location by state or country.

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  • 25. 

    (402) After updating a UIF/control roster, what is/are the output product/s that you will receive?

    • Transaction Register (TR) reflecting UIF updates only

    • TR reflecting projected UIF expiration dates only

    • TRs reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates

    • Military Assessment Product - UIF - reflecting UIF updates

    Correct Answer
    A. TRs reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates
    Explanation
    After updating a UIF/control roster, the output products that you will receive are Transaction Registers (TRs) reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates. This means that the TRs will show any changes or updates made to the UIF/control roster as well as the projected expiration dates for the UIF. Additionally, there is also a Military Assessment Product - UIF - reflecting UIF updates, but this is not the only output product received.

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  • 26. 

    (408) The unit manning document provides all the following except authorized positions a unit is allowed to

    • Recruit

    • Train

    • Promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission

    • Share with other units

    Correct Answer
    A. Share with other units
    Explanation
    The unit manning document is a comprehensive document that outlines the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in order to fulfill its wartime and peacetime mission. However, it does not provide information on sharing personnel with other units. This means that the document does not specify whether or not the unit can share its personnel with other units.

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  • 27. 

    (410) Who will the reviewing official work with if they need to review medical records of candidates and members of the PRP to determine disqualifying conditions

    • Competent medical authority

    • Med Group commander

    • Medical records technician

    • Medical treatment facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Competent medical authority
    Explanation
    The reviewing official will work with the competent medical authority if they need to review medical records of candidates and members of the PRP to determine disqualifying conditions. The competent medical authority is responsible for assessing and evaluating the medical records of individuals and determining if they have any conditions that would make them ineligible for the PRP. They have the expertise and knowledge to make these determinations based on the medical information provided in the records.

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  • 28. 

    (410) For personnel assigned critical PRP position, all of these attributes apply except

    • Has access and technical knowledge

    • Can either directly or indirectly cause a launch or use of a nuclear weapon

    • Has been designated as a certifying official at operational unit

    • Has access to "turn key" for the missiles

    Correct Answer
    A. Has access to "turn key" for the missiles
  • 29. 

    (402) All the following are Customer Support element responsibilities except

    • Update Article 15 related actions

    • Utilize Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool

    • Update UIF codes 1, 2 and 3

    • Administer UIF documentation to individual

    Correct Answer
    A. Administer UIF documentation to individual
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "administer UIF documentation to individual." This responsibility is not mentioned or implied in the given options. The other options, such as updating Article 15 related actions, utilizing Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool, and updating UIF codes 1, 2, and 3, are all mentioned as customer support element responsibilities.

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  • 30. 

    (404) In the case of a peacetime casualty, if the casualty is an AF member, the notification officer must confirm completed notification with what two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty?

    • The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPW

    • The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS

    • Public affairs and the medical treatment facility

    • Public affairs and local news station

    Correct Answer
    A. The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS. The notification officer must confirm completed notification with these two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty. This ensures that the proper channels are informed and the information is disseminated accurately and in a timely manner.

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  • 31. 

    (406) If you are looking for the source of record for all AF PME and formal training, what system would you use?

    • Personnel data training system

    • Oracle training administration

    • Military personnel data system

    • Automated records management system

    Correct Answer
    A. Oracle training administration
    Explanation
    Oracle Training Administration is the correct answer because it is a system that is commonly used to track and manage training records for military personnel. It serves as a source of record for all Air Force Professional Military Education (PME) and formal training. This system allows for efficient management of training data, including tracking completion, maintaining records, and generating reports. By using Oracle Training Administration, individuals can easily access and verify their training history and qualifications.

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  • 32. 

    (402) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?

    • E

    • F

    • G

    • H

    Correct Answer
    A. G
    Explanation
    The promotion eligibility status code associated with adverse actions is G.

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  • 33. 

    (405) When the Career Development receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the members eligibility?

    • 7

    • 14

    • 30

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    When Career Development receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, they have 7 days to verify the member's eligibility.

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  • 34. 

    (408) What AFI, AFMAN or computer systems manual will the Force Development operations element utilize to update an active duty arrival?

    • AFI 36-3002

    • AFI 36-3003

    • AFMAN 36-2102

    • AFCSM 36-699

    Correct Answer
    A. AFCSM 36-699
    Explanation
    The Force Development operations element will utilize AFCSM 36-699 to update an active duty arrival.

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  • 35. 

    (409) Airmen are not used outside their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code

    • E

    • F

    • O

    • H

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    Airmen with an assignment limitation code (ALC) are not used outside their Career Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC). This means that they are restricted from being assigned to duties or tasks that are outside their designated specialty. This limitation could be due to various reasons such as medical conditions, security clearances, or other factors that prevent them from performing certain job functions. Therefore, option O is the correct answer as it states that Airmen with an ALC are not utilized outside their CAFSC.

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  • 36. 

    (408) When units identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document, who will they work with to get the changes completed?

    • Base-level manpower

    • MAJCOM manpower

    • Functional area manager

    • MAJCOM readiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional area manager
    Explanation
    Units will work with the functional area manager to get the changes completed when they identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document. The functional area manager is responsible for overseeing the manpower requirements and ensuring that the positions are correctly filled. They have the authority to make the necessary adjustments and coordinate with other stakeholders to ensure the changes are implemented effectively. This collaboration ensures that the unit manning document accurately reflects the manpower needs of the unit.

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  • 37. 

    (409) Local emergencies or overages may be the basis for an Airman's prolonged assignment outside the normal career progression pattern. To negate any career regression, assignments should be rotated between

    • All Airmen in the same CAFSC

    • All Airmen in the same DAFSC

    • All Airmen regardless of CAFSC and DAFSC

    • SrA and CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. All Airmen in the same CAFSC
    Explanation
    Assignments should be rotated between all Airmen in the same CAFSC to negate any career regression caused by local emergencies or overages. This ensures that all Airmen in the same Career Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC) have equal opportunities for career progression and prevents any individual from being disadvantaged due to prolonged assignments outside the normal career progression pattern.

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  • 38. 

    (405) If a member requires a passport and/or VISA, the Career Development element will advise the members to start processing their passports and/or VISAs no later than how many days after their initial briefing?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    The Career Development element advises members to start processing their passports and/or VISAs no later than 15 days after their initial briefing. This suggests that it takes some time to complete the passport and/or VISA application process, and starting it within 15 days ensures that there is enough time for the necessary paperwork and approvals to be obtained before any upcoming travel.

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  • 39. 

    (406) If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, which agency is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers?

    • Force Management operations element

    • MPS

    • Career Development element

    • Customer Support Element

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Development element
    Explanation
    If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, it means that the Career Development element is not directly responsible for managing the training line numbers. Therefore, the agency responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers would be the Force Management operations element.

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  • 40. 

    (406) To ensure training quotas are managed effectively the formal training section is responsible to ensure all the following except

    • Individuals are qualified regardless of active duty service commitment

    • Individuals have the commanders approval

    • Individuals filling quotas are qualified

    • Individuals follow reporting instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Individuals are qualified regardless of active duty service commitment
    Explanation
    The formal training section is responsible for managing training quotas effectively. This includes ensuring that individuals have the commander's approval, that individuals filling quotas are qualified, and that individuals follow reporting instructions. However, the formal training section is not responsible for ensuring that individuals are qualified regardless of their active duty service commitment. This means that the formal training section does not have the authority or responsibility to waive or overlook service commitments when determining an individual's qualification for training.

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  • 41. 

    (405) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than how many days prior to departure?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    The Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than 60 days prior to departure. This means that individuals will receive their Permanent Change of Station (PCS) orders at least 60 days before they are scheduled to leave for their new assignment. This allows them adequate time to prepare for the move, make any necessary arrangements, and ensure a smooth transition to their new location.

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  • 42. 

    (409) If you are looking for a system to initiate duty status change applications for confinement, AWOL and deserter status, what system would you use?

    • Defense integrated military human resource system

    • Military personnel data system

    • Case management system

    • Personnel data system

    Correct Answer
    A. Case management system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the case management system. This system is designed to handle applications for duty status changes related to confinement, AWOL, and deserter status. It provides a streamlined process for managing and tracking these applications, ensuring that they are properly reviewed and processed. The defense integrated military human resource system and military personnel data system may not have specific features for handling duty status change applications, while the personnel data system may not have the necessary functionality for managing the entire process. Therefore, the case management system is the most appropriate choice for this specific task.

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  • 43. 

    (401) Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor?

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has 30 days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor.

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  • 44. 

    (404) All the following are publications that apply to releasing information on AF casualties except

    • AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures

    • AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program

    • AFI 33-332, AF Privacy Act Program

    • AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. This publication does not apply to releasing information on AF casualties. AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures provides guidance on public affairs activities, including the release of information. AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program outlines the procedures for releasing information requested under the Freedom of Information Act. AFI 33-332, AF Privacy Act Program addresses the protection of personal information and privacy rights.

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  • 45. 

    (408) Which mission personnel section manages the unit personnel management documents?

    • Personnel Readiness

    • Customer Support element

    • Force Management Operations element

    • Career Development element

    Correct Answer
    A. Force Management Operations element
    Explanation
    The Force Management Operations element is responsible for managing the unit personnel management documents. They handle tasks such as maintaining personnel records, processing personnel actions, and ensuring compliance with personnel policies and regulations. This section plays a crucial role in managing the personnel needs of the mission, ensuring that the right personnel are in the right positions at all times.

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  • 46. 

    (401) Who's responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian or a 3A0X1 and a UIF monitor?

    • Commander

    • MPS commander

    • Customer support NCOIC

    • Force Support superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The responsibility to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian or a 3A0X1, and a UIF monitor lies with the Commander. The Commander is in charge of making decisions and assigning roles within the organization. They have the authority to delegate tasks and responsibilities to different individuals based on their qualifications and expertise. Therefore, it is the Commander's responsibility to appoint individuals for these specific positions.

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  • 47. 

    (409) Once a duty status application has been entered, which agency is the first to review the duty status change application?

    • HQ AFPC

    • TFSC

    • FSS

    • MPS

    Correct Answer
    A. TFSC
    Explanation
    The TFSC (Total Force Service Center) is the first agency to review the duty status change application. They are responsible for managing and processing various personnel actions and requests, including duty status changes. They review the application to ensure that all necessary information is provided and that the change is in compliance with regulations and policies. Once the application is reviewed and approved by TFSC, it can then be forwarded to other relevant agencies for further processing, if necessary.

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  • 48. 

    (401) Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF?

    • Force Management Operations element

    • Customer Support element

    • Career Development element

    • UIF element

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer Support element
    Explanation
    The Customer Support element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF. This element is tasked with providing support and assistance to military personnel, including managing their records and ensuring compliance with regulations. Filing statements and documents in the UIF is part of their responsibilities in order to maintain accurate and up-to-date records for each individual.

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  • 49. 

    (409) PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the following except

    • Air Staff

    • Joint Staff

    • Other DOD agencies

    • The installation commander

    Correct Answer
    A. The installation commander
    Explanation
    PERSTEMPO data is reported to the Air Staff, Joint Staff, and other DOD agencies to provide information on personnel tempo and deployment readiness. The installation commander, on the other hand, is responsible for managing and overseeing the operations and activities within their specific installation. While they may have access to the PERSTEMPO data for their own installation, they are not involved in reporting it to external entities. Therefore, the correct answer is the installation commander.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 10, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Fred70s

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