3S071 Vol 3 Ure

54 Questions | Total Attempts: 531

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3S071 Vol 3 Ure

URE for 3S071 Volume 3


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (401) Who's responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian or a 3A0X1 and a UIF monitor?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      MPS commander

    • C. 

      Customer support NCOIC

    • D. 

      Force Support superintendent

  • 2. 
    (401) Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 3. 
    (401) How many days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision?
    • A. 

      1 calendar day

    • B. 

      1 duty day

    • C. 

      3 calendar days

    • D. 

      3 duty days

  • 4. 
    (401) Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF?
    • A. 

      Force Management Operations element

    • B. 

      Customer Support element

    • C. 

      Career Development element

    • D. 

      UIF element

  • 5. 
    (402) All the following are Customer Support element responsibilities except
    • A. 

      Update Article 15 related actions

    • B. 

      Utilize Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool

    • C. 

      Update UIF codes 1, 2 and 3

    • D. 

      Administer UIF documentation to individual

  • 6. 
    (402) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?
    • A. 

      E

    • B. 

      F

    • C. 

      G

    • D. 

      H

  • 7. 
    (402) What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions?
    • A. 

      12 and 14

    • B. 

      12 and 16

    • C. 

      16 and 18

    • D. 

      16 and 20

  • 8. 
    (402) After updating a UIF/control roster, what is/are the output product/s that you will receive?
    • A. 

      Transaction Register (TR) reflecting UIF updates only

    • B. 

      TR reflecting projected UIF expiration dates only

    • C. 

      TRs reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates

    • D. 

      Military Assessment Product - UIF - reflecting UIF updates

  • 9. 
    (402) If a commander wishes to initiate removal actions from the control roster, which AF IMT form must he/she utilize?
    • A. 

      1058

    • B. 

      1137

    • C. 

      3070

    • D. 

      330

  • 10. 
    (403) Who's responsibility is it to ensure the casualty representative has a private office for counseling the next of kin?
    • A. 

      FSS Commander

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Section commander

    • C. 

      Force Support superintendent

    • D. 

      Mission Support Group commander

  • 11. 
    (403) It is the responsibility of the casualty representative to prepare written instructions to supplement AFI 36-3002, outlining the responsibilities of all listed below except
    • A. 

      Force Support superintendent

    • B. 

      Installation command post

    • C. 

      Unit commanders

    • D. 

      Security forces

  • 12. 
    (403) Once the casualty representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, the CAR provides the mortuary services officers and the PA office the member's
    • A. 

      Age, HOR, race and gender

    • B. 

      Religion, age, race, home address and gender

    • C. 

      Name, age, HOR and marital status

    • D. 

      Name, age, HOR and race

  • 13. 
    (403) If a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for what type of assignment?
    • A. 

      Humanitarian

    • B. 

      Exceptional Family Member Program

    • C. 

      Base of preference

    • D. 

      Equal plus

  • 14. 
    (403) In the case of a mass casualty, who is the first group of people the casualty representative will contact?
    • A. 

      Mortuary affairs

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Honor guard

    • D. 

      Casualty team

  • 15. 
    (404) All the following are publications that apply to releasing information on AF casualties except
    • A. 

      AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures

    • B. 

      AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program

    • C. 

      AFI 33-332, AF Privacy Act Program

    • D. 

      AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services

  • 16. 
    (404) How many hours must the casualty representative wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      36

    • D. 

      48

  • 17. 
    (404) In the case of a peacetime casualty, if the casualty is an AF member, the notification officer must confirm completed notification with what two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty?
    • A. 

      The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPW

    • B. 

      The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS

    • C. 

      Public affairs and the medical treatment facility

    • D. 

      Public affairs and local news station

  • 18. 
    (404) For all ill or injured casualties, all the following personal information may be released except
    • A. 

      Name and gender

    • B. 

      Rank, date of rank, commission source and promotion number

    • C. 

      Date entered active duty service

    • D. 

      Social security number

  • 19. 
    (404) For deceased casualties, all the following personal information may be released except
    • A. 

      Pay date, military base pay and allowances

    • B. 

      Any information on the members family

    • C. 

      Age and date of birth

    • D. 

      Home of record

  • 20. 
    (404) After the casualty representative (CAR) learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what documents on the military member/s?
    • A. 

      DD form 93 and SGLV 8286 only

    • B. 

      SGLV 8286 and DD form 4 only

    • C. 

      DD form 93, SGLV 8286 and DD form 214

    • D. 

      DD form 93, SGLV 8286, DD form 4 and any other VA forms related to the SGLI

  • 21. 
    (405) If a permanent party member has a PCS, what system do they use to outprocess?
    • A. 

      VOP

    • B. 

      Personnel Data System

    • C. 

      Military Personnel Data System

    • D. 

      Defense integrated military human resource system

  • 22. 
    (405) When the Career Development receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the members eligibility?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      60

  • 23. 
    (405) Once the Career Development element verifies the members eligibility for an assignment, who do the send the assignment rip to?
    • A. 

      Superintendent of the Career Development element

    • B. 

      Superintendent of the Military Personnel section

    • C. 

      Commander of the FSS

    • D. 

      Member's unit commander

  • 24. 
    (405) Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member, how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section?
    • A. 

      14

    • B. 

      28

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 25. 
    (405) The following documents are located in the relocation folder except
    • A. 

      Assignment selection letter, message or rip

    • B. 

      Decoration citation

    • C. 

      Reassignment orders and all amendments

    • D. 

      Relocation processing memorandum