CDC 3s071 - Personnel Craftsman - Vol. 1

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  • 1/92 Questions

    (004) How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs

    • Test analysis.
    • Periodic staff assistance visits.
    • Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI).
    • Unit Compliance Inspections (UCI).
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About This Quiz


Personnel Career Field, edit code 02CDC 3S071 Unit Review Exercise

CDC 3s071 - Personnel Craftsman - Vol. 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (006) The Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) vision is to have citizen

    • Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

    • Officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power

    • Enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

    • Airmen partially engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power." This answer aligns with the AFRC's vision of having citizen Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. It indicates that the AFRC expects its Airmen to be actively involved and committed to maintaining global vigilance, extending their reach, and exerting power when necessary.

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  • 3. 

    (007) Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?

    • Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.

    • Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).

    • Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

    • Headquarters Air Force Reserve Command (HQ AFRC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau was activated to help with the natural disaster of Hurricane Katrina. The ANG is a reserve component of the United States Air Force, and it is responsible for providing support during emergencies and disasters. In the case of Hurricane Katrina, the ANG would have been mobilized to provide assistance in search and rescue operations, transportation of supplies and personnel, and other necessary support activities.

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  • 4. 

    (010) The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except job ​​​​​​​

    • Satisfaction.

    • Proficiency.

    • Knowledge.

    • Experience.

    Correct Answer
    A. Satisfaction.
    Explanation
    The Air Force on-the-job (OJT) program focuses on developing proficiency, knowledge, and experience in a specific job. The program aims to enhance the skills and expertise of individuals through practical training and hands-on experience. However, job satisfaction is not explicitly mentioned as one of the components of the OJT program. While job satisfaction may indirectly result from the program's successful implementation, it is not a specific component that is highlighted in this context.

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  • 5. 

    (010) What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

    • Apprentice.

    • Journeyman.

    • Craftsman.

    • Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Journeyman.
    Explanation
    The training title awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks is "Journeyman." This indicates that the individual has achieved a certain level of proficiency and expertise in their career field.

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  • 6. 

    (011) Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

    • Supervisors.

    • Unit training managers.

    • Career Assistance Advisors.

    • Air Force Career Field Managers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training managers.
    Explanation
    Unit training managers are responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training. They are in charge of coordinating and managing the training process for individuals within their unit. This includes ensuring that trainees are properly enrolled in training programs, monitoring their progress, and initiating any necessary personnel actions such as promotions or transfers. Supervisors, Career Assistance Advisors, and Air Force Career Field Managers may have roles in supporting the training process, but it is ultimately the unit training managers who have the primary responsibility for initiating personnel action in relation to training.

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  • 7. 

    (011) Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

    • So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates.

    • So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates.

    • In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material.

    • In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.

    Correct Answer
    A. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.
    Explanation
    It is important to document interruptions to upgrade training on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet so that in case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, the documentation can be referenced. This allows the trainee to review the information and materials from previous training periods, helping them to overcome any challenges they may be facing during the upgrade training process.

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  • 8. 

    (011) All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

    • Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.

    • Budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks.

    • Comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path

    • Acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.
    Explanation
    The trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process include budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path, and acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training. However, documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet is not mentioned as one of the trainee's responsibilities.

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  • 9. 

    (012) Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?

    • 90.

    • 120.

    • 150.

    • 180.

    Correct Answer
    A. 90.
    Explanation
    Supervisors must ensure that their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation within 90 days of assignment to the unit before they can access classified information. This orientation is crucial to educate personnel about the proper handling and protection of classified information, as well as the potential risks and consequences of mishandling such information. By providing this orientation within 90 days, supervisors can ensure that personnel are well-informed and prepared to handle classified information securely.

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  • 10. 

    (004) The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the

    • Wing.

    • Numbered air force (NAF).

    • Commander’s support staff (CSS).

    • Military personnel section (MPS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Numbered air force (NAF).
    Explanation
    The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the numbered air force (NAF). This means that the NAF falls under the authority and supervision of the MAJCOM. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the operations of multiple NAFs, which are responsible for specific geographic regions or functional areas. Therefore, the NAF is the correct answer as it is the level of command directly below the MAJCOM.

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  • 11. 

    (013) Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

    • Sender.

    • Shipper.

    • Receiver.

    • Supplier.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sender.
    Explanation
    The sender is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address. This is because the sender is the one who initiates the shipment and is responsible for ensuring that the package is delivered to the correct recipient. The sender needs to coordinate with the receiver to ensure that someone will be available to receive the package and confirm the correct mailing address, especially on a holiday when normal delivery schedules may be disrupted.

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  • 12. 

    (001) Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office?

    • Air Staff.

    • Air National Guard Bureau.

    • ​​​​​​Air Force Personnel Center.

    • Air Force Reserve Command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Staff.
    Explanation
    The Air Staff is the correct answer because it is the agency that assists the Secretary of the Air Force in carrying out their responsibilities. The Air Staff is responsible for providing advice and support to the Secretary on matters related to the Air Force's operations, organization, and policy. They help in the decision-making process and ensure that the Secretary's directives are implemented effectively throughout the Air Force.

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  • 13. 

    (003) What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs?

    • Military personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • Personnel service delivery model (PSDM).

    • Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

    • Automated records management system (ARMS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM). This component is part of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs. The BLSDM is designed to deliver personnel services at the base level, ensuring that commanders have access to the necessary resources and support for their personnel. It helps streamline processes and improve efficiency in managing personnel data and services.

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  • 14. 

    (004) As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure?

    • 8.

    • 9.

    • 10.

    • 11.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    As of August 2009, the Air Force structure consisted of 10 major commands.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Why did the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) move from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas?

    • There were no longer facilities available to support the AEFC at Langley AFB.

    • The Air Combat Command Commander (COMACC) requested the move.

    • The Air Force Personnel Center Commander (AFPC/CC) requested the move.

    • To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander." This suggests that the reason for the move from Langley AFB to Randolph AFB was to combine two separate centers into one, with the goal of streamlining operations and having personnel under a single commander. This would likely improve efficiency and coordination within the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center.

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  • 16. 

    (006) Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)?

    • 380.

    • 400.

    • 420.

    • 440.

    Correct Answer
    A. 440.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 440. This means that approximately 440 aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC).

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  • 17. 

    (007) The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and

    • State mission.

    • Overseas mission.

    • Local government mission.

    • District of Columbia mission.

    Correct Answer
    A. State mission.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and state mission. This means that while it is a reserve component of the United States Air Force, it also has a responsibility to support the individual states in times of emergency or disaster. The ANG can be called upon by the state governor to provide assistance during natural disasters, civil unrest, or other emergencies. This dual mission allows the ANG to serve both the federal government and the needs of individual states.

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  • 18. 

    (007) When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the

    • Vice president.

    • President.

    • Governor.

    • Mayor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Governor.
    Explanation
    When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the Governor. The Air National Guard is a reserve component of the United States Air Force, and each state and territory has its own Air National Guard unit. The Governor of each state or territory is the commander-in-chief of the state's National Guard forces, including the Air National Guard. Therefore, when the ANG units are not activated or under federal control, they fall under the authority of the Governor.

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  • 19. 

    (008) The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a

    • Skill level.

    • Career field.

    • Career group.

    • Career field subdivision.

    Correct Answer
    A. Skill level.
    Explanation
    The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the skill level. The AFSC is a code used to identify specific Air Force jobs and career fields. The first three positions of the code indicate the career field, while the fourth position indicates the skill level within that career field. This allows for easy identification and categorization of different skill levels within the Air Force.

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  • 20. 

    (008) Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge?

    • Three.

    • Five.

    • Seven.

    • Nine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seven.
    Explanation
    The skill level that identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge is seven. This suggests that at this level, individuals have not only developed a strong technical expertise but also gained the necessary skills to effectively supervise and lead others.

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  • 21. 

    (008) Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training? ​​​​

    • Duty.

    • Control.

    • Primary.

    • Secondary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Control." The Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training. This means that the AFSC is determined by the member's control, or classification, within the Air Force. The control determines the specific job or duty that the member will be assigned to within the Air Force.

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  • 22. 

    (009) Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that ​​​​​

    • Training is key to the success of the Air Force.

    • Advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience.

    • Completing a career development course is the most important form of training.

    • On-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job.

    Correct Answer
    A. Training is key to the success of the Air Force.
    Explanation
    The correct answer emphasizes the importance of training for the success of the Air Force. This suggests that the superintendent must prioritize and emphasize the significance of training in order to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of the Air Force. By highlighting the importance of training, the superintendent can motivate and encourage Airmen to actively engage in training opportunities to enhance their skills and knowledge.

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  • 23. 

    (010) The strategy of the Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except

    • Managing.

    • Executing.

    • Enhancing.

    • Developing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhancing.
    Explanation
    The Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program aims to provide realistic and flexible training. The program focuses on managing, executing, and developing skills. However, enhancing skills is not a capability provided by the program.

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  • 24. 

    (011) As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training?

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • Career Development Course (CDC).

    • Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    To develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training, a supervisor requires a Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). The CFETP provides guidance and outlines the required training and education for specific career fields. It includes information on job tasks, knowledge, and skills required for each level of proficiency within the career field. By referencing the CFETP, supervisors can effectively plan and manage training for their work center and individuals, ensuring that all necessary training requirements are met.

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  • 25. 

    (011) The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

    • Trainee.

    • Trainer.

    • Supervisor.

    • Unit training manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainee.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is trainee. The focal point of the Air Force training program is the trainee because they are the ones who receive the training and are being prepared for their future roles and responsibilities in the Air Force. The program is designed to provide them with the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform their duties effectively and efficiently. The trainee is the main focus of the training program as they are the ones who will be applying what they have learned in real-life situations.

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  • 26. 

    (003) What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720?

    • Programs.

    • Manpower.

    • Equipment.

    • Additional duties.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manpower.
    Explanation
    During Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720, the authorizations that were reduced to save money were related to manpower. This means that there were likely cuts in the number of personnel or positions allocated to certain programs or departments in order to reduce costs. Other areas such as programs, equipment, and additional duties were not specifically mentioned as being reduced, so it can be inferred that manpower was the focus of the cost-saving measures.

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  • 27. 

    (012) Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person’s level of access to classified information?

    • Because each step is an intricate part of the “go, no-go” process.

    • Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.

    • You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access.

    • You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.
    Explanation
    Each step in the authorization process is crucial for ensuring the accuracy and integrity of granting access to classified information. The "checks and balance" process refers to the systematic verification and validation of each step, which helps in minimizing errors and preventing unauthorized access. By completing all four steps, the process becomes thorough and reliable, ensuring that access is granted only to those who are authorized and eliminating any potential security risks.

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  • 28. 

    (014) How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?

    • Three.

    • Five.

    • Seven.

    • Nine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Seven.
    Explanation
    To become a better communicator, whether in writing or speaking, seven effective communication steps are needed. These steps likely include elements such as understanding the audience, organizing thoughts and ideas, using appropriate language and tone, actively listening, and providing clear and concise messages. By following these steps, individuals can enhance their communication skills and effectively convey their message to others.

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  • 29. 

    (016) How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced on a daily basis. This means that the TR is updated and maintained automatically through a computerized system. It is done on a daily basis to ensure accurate and up-to-date records of transactions. This frequent control and production of TRs allows for real-time monitoring and analysis of financial activities, helping businesses to track their transactions and make informed decisions.

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  • 30. 

    (001) This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values and expectations.

    • Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).

    • Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).

    • Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).

    • Issues Team (AF/A1I).

    Correct Answer
    A. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D). This office is responsible for defining the Culture of Airmen, which includes core standards, values, and expectations. They play a crucial role in developing and sustaining the airmen's professional development, ensuring that they meet the highest standards and embody the values of the Air Force.

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  • 31. 

    (001) The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to communicate all of the following except

    • Developing objectives.

    • Performing analysis.

    • Developing force management policies.

    • Developing doctrine and legislative guidance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Developing doctrine and legislative guidance.
    Explanation
    The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) for developing objectives, performing analysis, and developing force management policies. However, the communication does not include developing doctrine and legislative guidance.

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  • 32. 

    (002) Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition assistance and support?

    • Active duty.

    • Air Force retirees.

    • Active duty, reservists, and guardsmen.

    • Active duty, reservists, guardsmen, and civilians.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force retirees.
    Explanation
    The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) supports Air Force retirees by providing transition assistance and support. This includes helping retirees with their transition from military to civilian life, assisting with job placement, and providing resources for retirement benefits and healthcare. The AFPC recognizes the importance of supporting retirees as they navigate this significant life change and aims to ensure they have the necessary resources and support for a successful transition.

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  • 33. 

    (005) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the requirements of

    • Combatant commanders.

    • Squadron commanders.

    • Group commanders.

    • Wing commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Combatant commanders.
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces. This means that they coordinate and allocate resources to meet the requirements of combatant commanders, who are in charge of military operations in specific geographic or functional areas. The AEFC ensures that the forces are available and ready to support the combatant commanders' missions and objectives.

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  • 34. 

    (007) The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except

    • Advise civilians on civilan personnel issues and programs

    • Create, maintain, and audit personnel records

    • Provide casualty assistance.

    • Perform personnel actions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Advise civilians on civilan personnel issues and programs
    Explanation
    The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include creating, maintaining, and auditing personnel records, providing casualty assistance, and performing personnel actions. However, advising civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs is not listed as one of their responsibilities.

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  • 35. 

    (009) What skill level identifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?

    • 3.

    • 5.

    • 7.

    • 9.

    Correct Answer
    A. 9.
    Explanation
    Skill level 9 identifies enlisted personnel who have demonstrated a high level of managerial and supervisory ability through their experience, training, and performance. This skill level indicates that these individuals have acquired advanced knowledge and skills in their field and are capable of effectively leading and overseeing teams and operations. They have likely undergone extensive training and have proven themselves to be highly competent and capable leaders.

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  • 36. 

    (009) What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

    • Staff sergeants.

    • Technical sergeants.

    • Master sergeants.

    • Senior master sergeants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeants.
    Explanation
    Master sergeants transition from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence. As they advance in rank, master sergeants are expected to possess a high level of technical expertise and also demonstrate leadership skills. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the day-to-day operations of their units, providing guidance and mentorship to junior enlisted personnel, and making critical decisions that impact the mission's success. Therefore, master sergeants are the ones who transition from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence.

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  • 37. 

    (012) Which is not an installation security program manager’s program responsibility?

    • Recognizing the training efforts of effective security managers publicly.

    • Assessing the effectiveness of training programs as part of the information security program review.

    • Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document.

    • Developing and conducting classroom or one-on-one training for newly appointed security managers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document.
    Explanation
    The installation security program manager is responsible for various tasks related to training and assessing the effectiveness of training programs. They are also responsible for developing and conducting training for newly appointed security managers. However, indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document is not a program responsibility of the installation security program manager.

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  • 38. 

    (012) Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary?

    • Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).

    • Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).

    • Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).

    • Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).
  • 39. 

    (012) It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure

    • All necessary access steps have been completed.

    • The security manager sends the proper form to be filed in archives.

    • You include this form as part of the Field Record Group.

    • you have a source document signed and dated by the individual.

    Correct Answer
    A. you have a source document signed and dated by the individual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "you have a source document signed and dated by the individual." This is important because the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, is a legal document that must be signed by individuals who are granted access to classified information. By having a source document signed and dated by the individual, it ensures that they have acknowledged their responsibilities and obligations regarding the protection of classified information. This helps to ensure that all necessary access steps have been completed and that the individual understands the importance of safeguarding classified information.

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  • 40. 

    (012) When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

    • Initiates a security incident report.

    • Denies the individual access to classified information

    • Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

    • Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.
    Explanation
    When an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except initiates a security incident report, denies the individual access to classified information, and initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF). However, they do not grant temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

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  • 41. 

    (012) It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the

    • Refusal may initiate removal from the squadron.

    • Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.

    • Commander may be required to interview the member a second time.

    • Commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior." This is because if an individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA), it may suggest that they have something to hide or that they are not trustworthy. It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to address this refusal and investigate further to determine if there are any suspicious or negative behaviors associated with it. This is crucial for maintaining the security and integrity of the squadron.

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  • 42. 

    (001) Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)?

    • Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).

    • Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).

    • Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).

    • Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).

    Correct Answer
    A. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).
    Explanation
    The Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X) serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1). This office is responsible for coordinating and integrating IT initiatives and ensuring that they align with the strategic goals and objectives of the Deputy Chief of Staff. They work closely with other directorates and offices to develop IT solutions that support the needs of the Manpower and Personnel community.

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  • 43. 

    (014) In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except

    • Being inclusive.

    • Being original.

    • Extending courtesy.

    • Making it personal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Being original.
    Explanation
    When communicating with your audience, it is important to be inclusive, extend courtesy, and make it personal. These tips help to establish a connection and engage with the audience effectively. However, being original is not necessary for successful communication. While originality can be a valuable trait, it is not a requirement for effective communication. Instead, focusing on being inclusive, courteous, and personal will likely lead to better results in connecting with your audience.

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  • 44. 

    (014) Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except

    • Assign a deadline.

    • Determine what is known.

    • Review the purpose and scope of the overall project.

    • Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present.

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present.
    Explanation
    When researching a topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals, it is important to use all of the following approaches except avoiding asking your supervisor until you have all information to present. This approach is not recommended because your supervisor can provide valuable insights, guidance, and resources that can enhance your research and improve the quality of your communication. It is always beneficial to involve your supervisor early on in the research process to ensure that you are on the right track and to benefit from their expertise.

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  • 45. 

    (015) What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?

    • E63.

    • E64.

    • E6D.

    • E6F.

    Correct Answer
    A. E64.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E64. In the Defense Joint Military System (DJMS), E64 is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action. This suggests that E64 is a specific code or process within the DJMS that allows for the modification of an E63 projection.

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  • 46. 

    (015) What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated service?

    • BDE.

    • DJM.

    • RDJ.

    • VAM.

    Correct Answer
    A. RDJ.
    Explanation
    The Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code RDJ appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension but does not include the obligated service. This code is used to indicate that there is missing information or an error in the update, specifically related to the obligated service.

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  • 47. 

    (017) What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member’s name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?

    • 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.

    • 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

    • 13A, RELOC-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE.

    • 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.

    Correct Answer
    A. 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.
  • 48. 

    (001) Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) by managing workflow, tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, and overseeing supplies and equipment purchases?

    • Issues Team (AF/A1I).

    • Executive Services (AF/A1Z).

    • HQ United States Air Force (USAF).

    • HQ. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Executive Services (AF/A1Z).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Executive Services (AF/A1Z). This office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1). They manage workflow, track correspondence, administer and monitor security and safety programs, and oversee supplies and equipment purchases.

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  • 49. 

    (007) What percentage of the Air Force’s tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard (ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations?

    • 25.

    • 50.

    • 75.

    • 100.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50.
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) provides 50% of the Air Force's tactical airlift support for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 2, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 02, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 30, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Wood
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