3e6x1 CDC Volume 1 Pre-test

124 Questions | Total Attempts: 963

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3e6x1 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) What document outlines the basis of the civil engineer organizations?
    • A. 

      Air Force Doctrine Document 2–4.1, Force Protection.

    • B. 

      Joint Publication 3–34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations.

    • C. 

      Air Force Handbook 10–222v1, Guide to Bare Base Development.

    • D. 

      Air Force Instruction 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program.

  • 2. 
    (001) Air Force Instruction 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution, describes an aerospace expeditionary force (AEF) as which category of deployed organization?
    • A. 

      Unit, squadron, or wing.

    • B. 

      Unit, squadron, or group.

    • C. 

      Squadron, group, or base.

    • D. 

      Squadron, group, or wing.

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      The ops tempo and deployment cycle.

    • B. 

      The amount of deployed personnel and deployment cycle.

    • C. 

      The ability to quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world and the ops tempo.

    • D. 

      The amount of deployed personnel and the ability to quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world.

  • 4. 
    (001) The Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency (AFCESA) provides what type of mission support to maximize Air Force civil engineer capabilities?
    • A. 

      Deployment, energy, and operations.

    • B. 

      Deployment, operational, and technical.

    • C. 

      Professional readiness, technical, and training.

    • D. 

      Professional readiness, energy, and operations.

  • 5. 
    (002) Which term best completes the following statement? The base civil engineer (BCE) will be the
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Operations commander.

  • 6. 
    (002) Who does the civil engineer (CE) flight commander report to?
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Base civil engineer.

    • D. 

      Operations commander.

  • 7. 
    (003) Which positions would an operations manager typically be assigned to?
    • A. 

      Environmental representative and scheduler.

    • B. 

      Environmental representative and dispatcher.

    • C. 

      Customer service unit representative and scheduler.

    • D. 

      Customer service unit representative and dispatcher.

  • 8. 
    (003) Which civil engineer (CE) skill levels are operations managers generally assigned as customer service unit representatives?
    • A. 

      3E631 – 3E651.

    • B. 

      3E651 – 3E671.

    • C. 

      3E671 – 3E000.

    • D. 

      3E611 – 3E631.

  • 9. 
    (003) Which civil engineer (CE) skill levels are operations managers generally assigned as schedulers?
    • A. 

      3E631 – 3E651.

    • B. 

      3E651 – 3E671.

    • C. 

      3E671 – 3E000.

    • D. 

      3E611 – 3E631.

  • 10. 
    (004) What two units are major contributors to the AF Prime BEEF mission, deploying worldwide to augment civil engineer capabilities?
    • A. 

      Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) and Expeditionary Air Force (EAF).

    • B. 

      RED HORSE and Prime RIBS.

    • C. 

      Air Force Reserve and AFCESA.

    • D. 

      Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve.

  • 11. 
     (004) When does HQ AFCESA conduct a deployment workshop to coordinate requirements with Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve Command units?
    • A. 

      Annually in April or May.

    • B. 

      Biannually in April or May.

    • C. 

      Semiannually in April then October.

    • D. 

      Before the fiscal year starts in October

  • 12. 
    (005) Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer (RED HORSE) units directly support combat air power
    • A. 

      Overseas.

    • B. 

      Base wide

    • C. 

      Worldwide

    • D. 

      For continental United States (CONUS).

  • 13. 
    (005) When an Air National Guard or Air Force Reserves Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer (RED HORSE) unit mobilizes, to whom does the unit directly report?
    • A. 

      Deployed base civil engineer (BCE).

    • B. 

      Air Reserve commander

    • C. 

      In garrison commander

    • D. 

      Gaining major command (MAJCOM)

  • 14. 
    (006) Major commands (MAJCOM) establish unit type codes (UTC) for the operations within the command. These codes establish the size, composition, and equipment that make up what type of teams?
    • A. 

      Prime Ribs

    • B. 

      Prime BEEF

    • C. 

      Expeditionary aerospace force (EAF).

    • D. 

      Aerospace expeditionary force (AEF).

  • 15. 
    (006) Major commands (MAJCOM) ensure that Prime BEEF operational and training activities comply with environmental laws and standards described in
    • A. 

      Air Force Instruction 32–7002, Environmental Information Management System.

    • B. 

      Air Force Instruction 32–7005, Environmental Protection Committees.

    • C. 

      Air Force Policy Directive 32–70, Environmental Quality.

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Directive 32–40, Disaster Preparedness.

  • 16. 
    (006) Who must ensure all Prime BEEF team members are organized, equipped, and trained to perform their contingency roles?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Civil engineer unit commander.

  • 17. 
    (006) Which agency provides a civilian resource option to relieve or augment Prime BEEF forces?
    • A. 

      Base contracting squadron.

    • B. 

      Air Force Material Command (AFMC).

    • C. 

      Air Force contract augmentation program (AFCAP).

    • D. 

      Air Force Civil Engineering Agency (AFCESA).

  • 18. 
    (006) What makes Prime BEEF units response times equal to or less than the response times for the aircraft units?
    • A. 

      Air mobility.

    • B. 

      Deliberate planning.

    • C. 

      Operation plan tasking.

    • D. 

      Prime BEEF unit type codes.

  • 19. 
    (006) Being assigned to a Prime BEEF team, you must be ready to mobilize on a moments notice. To be ready means that you understand your duty responsibilities, make sure that your personal affairs are in place, and
    • A. 

      Create family financial support objectives.

    • B. 

      Ensure that your family members are prepared.

    • C. 

      Let family members know where you are going.

    • D. 

      Enroll family members with the family support center.

  • 20. 
    (007) Which publication is the basis for all Prime BEEF training?
    • A. 

      Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 10–2.

    • B. 

      AFPD 10–23.

    • C. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–204.

    • D. 

      AFI 10–210.

  • 21. 
    (007) The primary purpose of civil engineering tier 3, Silver Flag, training is for students to show their ability to perform what type of tasks in a team environment?
    • A. 

      Critical contingency.

    • B. 

      Common core.

    • C. 

      Routine wartime.

    • D. 

      Peacetime operational

  • 22. 
    (008) What provides a Prime BEEF unit with a listing of items to carry when it deploys?
    • A. 

      Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency (AFCESA).

    • B. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32–1001, Operations Management.

    • C. 

      Equipment and supplies listing.

    • D. 

      Base civil engineer (BCE).

  • 23. 
    (008) As a member of a Prime BEEF team, what are the minimum items required in your personal deployment bag?
    • A. 

      Chemical warfare gear.

    • B. 

      Extreme cold weather gear.

    • C. 

      Personal items and basic tools.

    • D. 

      Standard clothing and accessories.

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Personal bag.

    • B. 

      Mobility bag.

    • C. 

      Chemical warfare bag.

    • D. 

      Extreme hot weather bag.

  • 25. 
    (008) What will be your primary weapon to use when assigned to a Prime BEEF position?
    • A. 

      .38 caliber revolver

    • B. 

      M–60 machine gun.

    • C. 

      M–9 pistol.

    • D. 

      M–16 rifle.

  • 26. 
    (009) As part of the overall Air Force comprehensive plan, which plan outlines information from the component plans as well as other planning documents?
    • A. 

      General.

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Strategic

    • D. 

      Operational

  • 27. 
    (009) Which component of the Air Force comprehensive plan helps to visually explain the narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?
    • A. 

      Plans

    • B. 

      Maps

    • C. 

      Pictures

    • D. 

      Graphics

  • 28. 
     (009) Which drawings are used to update the master facility computer aided design and drafting (CADD) files?
    • A. 

      Red-line

    • B. 

      Blue-line.

    • C. 

      Special

    • D. 

      As-built

  • 29. 
    (010) Where are the generalized views created by Strategic GeoBase located?
    • A. 

      Pentagon

    • B. 

      Langley AFB, VA.

    • C. 

      Cheyenne Mountain, WY.

    • D. 

      Air Force Civil Engineering Support Agency (AFCESA).

  • 30. 
    (010) What enables the Expeditionary GeoBase and sustains capabilities acquired at home stations through training?
    • A. 

      Mission data sets

    • B. 

      GeoReach process

    • C. 

      Common installation picture

    • D. 

      Expeditionary site mapping portal

  • 31. 
    (010) What are geospatial data layers supporting one or more functional communities’ specific missions or processes called?
    • A. 

      Planning guides

    • B. 

      Research programs

    • C. 

      Mission data sets (MDS).

  • 32. 
    (011) Which system identifies duties and tasks for every position needed to accomplish the Air Force mission?
    • A. 

      Civil engineer enlisted classification.

    • B. 

      Military personnel classification

    • C. 

      Air Force career placement

    • D. 

      Job description category

  • 33. 
    (011) What does the “E” represent in the AFSC 3E451?
    • A. 

      Skill level

    • B. 

      Support career group

    • C. 

      Career field sub division

    • D. 

      Engineer career family

  • 34. 
    (011) Each Air Force specialty (AFS) is combined into a broad and more functional category called a/an
    • A. 

      Air Force specialty code (AFSC).

    • B. 

      Job description

    • C. 

      Infrastructure

    • D. 

      Career field

  • 35. 
    (011) What is the chief enlisted manager (CEM) code that identifies a chief master sergeant or chief master sergeant select as the top enlisted manager for civil engineers?
    • A. 

      3E191

    • B. 

      3E090

    • C. 

      3ECEM

    • D. 

      3E000

  • 36. 
    (011) Which skill level must you obtain before promotion to staff sergeant?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Certification testing (CerTest) question challenge.

    • B. 

      Utilization and training workshop (U&TW).

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional manager career field workshop.

    • D. 

      Formal proposal requests to the career field manager (CFM).

  • 38. 
    (012) Which proficiency codes are used to identify subject knowledge?
    • A. 

      A, B, C, and D.

    • B. 

      A, b, c, and d.

    • C. 

      1, 2, 3, and 4.

    • D. 

      3, 5, 7, and 9.

  • 39. 
    (012) What does the Air Force use to measure the ability to recall methods, procedures, tools, and equipment?
    • A. 

      Subject knowledge

    • B. 

      Skill knowledge

    • C. 

      Task knowledge

    • D. 

      Task performance

  • 40. 
    (012) Which proficiency code is never used alone?
    • A. 

      Subject knowledge

    • B. 

      Skill knowledge

    • C. 

      Task knowledge

    • D. 

      Task performance

  • 41. 
    (013) Why does the Air Force want to provide you with training and education?
    • A. 

      Create a workforce that can accomplish single goals

    • B. 

      Build knowledge and skills to carry out the mission

    • C. 

      Give all Airmen a viable trade to carry with them

    • D. 

      Build skill level confidence to complete jobs

  • 42. 
    (013) Which specialty training standard (STS) reference serves as a directive for completing a task?
    • A. 

      Proficiency code in the skill level column

    • B. 

      Core task identifiers in the second column

    • C. 

      Technical publications in the first column

    • D. 

      Task statement in each column

  • 43. 
    (013) What does a solid triangle (▲) in the qualification training package (QTP) sub column of the specialty training standard (STS) indicate about the package?
    • A. 

      Under development

    • B. 

      Currently available

    • C. 

      Not needed

    • D. 

      Mandatory

  • 44. 
    (014) Enlisted members are always required to maintain an AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, from Airman basic through
    • A. 

      Staff sergeant

    • B. 

      Master sergeant

    • C. 

      Staff sergeant retrainee

    • D. 

      Master sergeant retrainee

  • 45. 
    (014) What electronic training program consolidates all training forms into easy to use parts within the program?
    • A. 

      Air Force Qualification Training Package (AFQTP).

    • B. 

      Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

    • C. 

      Job qualification standard (JQS).

    • D. 

      Specialty training standard (STS).

  • 46. 
    (014) Which screen in the Air Force Training Package (AFTR) contains your basic information?
    • A. 

      623 II.

    • B. 

      623 III.

    • C. 

      Profile I.

    • D. 

      Profile II.

  • 47. 
    (014) Who must sign entries electronically on the 623a, On the Job Continuation Sheet screen?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Unit training manager

    • C. 

      You and your supervisor

    • D. 

      Supervisor and unit training manager.

  • 48. 
    (014) Which Air Force Training Record (AFTR) screen allows your trainer to document recurring training such as lockout tagout, hazard communications (HAZCOM), cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), and the Law of Armed Conflict?
    • A. 

      623

    • B. 

      797

    • C. 

      803

    • D. 

      1098

  • 49. 
    (014) Where will your supervisor document all of your on the job training in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) program?
    • A. 

      623a.

    • B. 

      1098

    • C. 

      Specialty training standard (STS).

    • D. 

      Job qualification standard (JQS).

  • 50. 
    (014) Which document do supervisors use to identify training for each individual in a duty section?
    • A. 

      Master task listing (MTL).

    • B. 

      Job qualification standard (JQS).

    • C. 

      Specialty training standard (STS).

    • D. 

      Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

  • 51. 
    (014) Within how many days will your supervisor conduct a training needs review after your assignment to your new section?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 52. 
    (014) If the trainee meets all of the training goals for your section, what training code will you assign to them?
    • A. 

      B

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      Q

  • 53. 
    (015) Which training method uses questions to cause trainees to take an active role in training?
    • A. 

      Lecture

    • B. 

      Discussion

    • C. 

      Performance

    • D. 

      Demonstration

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Lecture

    • B. 

      Discussion

    • C. 

      Performance

    • D. 

      Demonstration

  • 55. 
    (015) What is the key to a training counseling session?
    • A. 

      Documentation

    • B. 

      Accuracy

    • C. 

      Honesty

    • D. 

      Rapport

  • 56. 
    (016) What will give your supervisor good insight on where you need training the most?
    • A. 

      Specialty training standard (STS).

    • B. 

      Trainer’s recommendation

    • C. 

      Trainee’s input

    • D. 

      Certification testing (CerTest) pre-test results

  • 57. 
    (016) If you fail the certification test (CerTest) a second time, the program
    • A. 

      Locks you out.

    • B. 

      Generates a failure report

    • C. 

      Changes your status to inactive

    • D. 

      Sends your record to the unit training manager

  • 58. 
    (016) What tool is available to help the training process for core tasks?
    • A. 

      Air Force Qualification Training Package (AFQTP).

    • B. 

      Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

    • C. 

      Job qualification standard (JQS).

    • D. 

      Specialty training standard (STS).

  • 59. 
     (016) What tool is used to identify the Air Force’s standardized method for performing a task?
    • A. 

      Certification testing (CerTest).

    • B. 

      Job qualification standard (JQS).

    • C. 

      Specialty training standard (STS).

    • D. 

      Air Force Qualification Training Package (AFQTP).

  • 60. 
    (016) What are two formats available for an Air Force Qualification Package (AFQTP)?
    • A. 

      Paper based and CD-ROM interactive.

    • B. 

      Paper based and internet interactive

    • C. 

      CD-ROM and internet interactive

    • D. 

      Paper based and web-based

  • 61. 
    (016) When is completion of the task’s qualification training package (QTP) and passing the certification testing (CerTest) is all that is required for upgrade and qualification training?
    • A. 

      When required equipment is not available for instruction

    • B. 

      When your supervisor waives additional training

    • C. 

      When the Ops tempo does not allow hands on instruction

    • D. 

      Never

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Current training slots available and the manning throughout the Air Force

    • B. 

      Current training slots available and historical requirements

    • C. 

      The amount of people in a career field and the manning throughout the Air Force

    • D. 

      The amount of people in a career field and historical requirements

  • 63. 
    (016) If you wish to attend a course that is unfunded, who must determine if the need is great enough to warrant using unit funds to pay for it?
    • A. 

      Trainer

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Unit training manager

  • 64. 
    (017) What annual audit system was developed to ensure that the Air Force’s environmental program is operating efficiently?
    • A. 

      Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program

    • B. 

      Air Force Occupational Safety and Health

    • C. 

      National Environmental Protection Agency

    • D. 

      National Environmental Policy Act of 1969

  • 65. 
    (017) The different types of findings for Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan (ECAMP) inspection include: Carryover, Major, Minor, Positive, Repeat , and
    • A. 

      Outstanding

    • B. 

      Excellent

    • C. 

      Significant

    • D. 

      Negative

  • 66. 
    (017) An inspection team should complete Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan (ECAMP) final reports within
    • A. 

      120 days for internal and external.

    • B. 

      180 days for internal and external

    • C. 

      180 days for external and 120 days for internal

    • D. 

      180 days for internal and 120 days for external

  • 67. 
    (018) What environmental act establishes a national environmental policy with goals for the protection, maintenance, and enhancement of the environment?
    • A. 

      Environmental Protection Agency

    • B. 

      National Environmental Policy Act

    • C. 

      Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act

    • D. 

      Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program

  • 68. 
    (018) According to Air Force Policy Directive 32–70, Environmental Quality, who is accountable for actions that have environmental consequences?
    • A. 

      All personnel

    • B. 

      Supervisors

    • C. 

      Commanders

    • D. 

      Hazardous pharmacies

  • 69. 
    (018) What does Emergency Planning and Community Right-to Know-Act (EPCRA) section 302 requires facilities to notify the state emergency response commission and the local emergency planning committee for?
    • A. 

      Locations of accumulation sites

    • B. 

      Ordering of small chemical units

    • C. 

      Presence of any wasteful chemicals

    • D. 

      Presence of any extremely hazardous substance

  • 70. 
    (018) What provides you with an explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with?
    • A. 

      Job invoices

    • B. 

      Hazardous waste logs

    • C. 

      Hazardous materials pharmacy

    • D. 

      Material safety data sheets (MSDS).

  • 71. 
    (018) Who must you notify if you have hazardous chemicals requiring material safety data sheets?
    • A. 

      Local police department

    • B. 

      Local fire department

    • C. 

      Federal agencies

    • D. 

      State agencies

  • 72. 
    (018) What form covers releases and transfers of toxic chemicals to various facilities and environmental media?
    • A. 

      Form 1

    • B. 

      Form 2.

    • C. 

      Form B.

    • D. 

      Form R.

  • 73. 
    (018) Which agency leads the nation’s environmental science, research, education, and assessment efforts?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense

    • B. 

      United States Air Force

    • C. 

      United States Parks and Wildlife

    • D. 

      Environmental Protection Agency

  • 74. 
    (019) How many years from the last day the employees worked must hazardous waste generators keep their training records?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 75. 
    (019) What term is used to describe the process of storing hazardous waste prior to disposal?
    • A. 

      Hazardous waste accumulation

    • B. 

      Hazardous waste migration

    • C. 

      Reclamation accumulation

    • D. 

      Waste stagnation

  • 76. 
    (019) The hazardous waste program consists of what two inspections of hazardous waste activities?
    • A. 

      Major and minor

    • B. 

      Internal and external

    • C. 

      Federal and state funded

    • D. 

      Scheduled and unscheduled

  • 77. 
    (019) Who signs the manifests that track off-base hazardous waste shipment and recycling?
    • A. 

      State Department of Transportation

    • B. 

      Environmental Protection Agency

    • C. 

      Shipping company representative

    • D. 

      Installation commander

  • 78. 
    (020) You are now the owner of some chemicals you found on base (FOB). What should be the first thing you do?
    • A. 

      Contact your hazardous waste manager

    • B. 

      Haul it away from your immediate location

    • C. 

      Assume the waste is important since nobody labeled it

    • D. 

      Contact the local Environmental Protection Agency office

  • 79. 
    (020) Which are the two major sources of lead exposure to children?
    • A. 

      Canned food and pencils

    • B. 

      Canned food and drinking water

    • C. 

      Lead-based paint and pencils

    • D. 

      Lead-based paint and drinking water

  • 80. 
    (020) Which is the primary purpose of a Lead Toxicity Investigation Team (LTIT)?
    • A. 

      Isolate obvious hazard areas where peeling paint is evident, remediate obvious hazards such as peeling paint, and recommend potential corrective action.

    • B. 

      Isolate obvious hazard areas where peeling paint is evident, remediate obvious hazards such as peeling paint, and conduct wipe samples after abatement to ensure the housing units have been adequately cleaned.

    • C. 

      Identify the source of lead exposure to an affected patient/other family members, provide a hazard evaluation, and recommend potential corrective action.

    • D. 

      Identify the source of lead exposure to an affected patient/other family members, provide a hazard evaluation, and conduct wipe samples after abatement to ensure the housing units have been adequately cleaned.

  • 81. 
    (021) What do your customers measure the services you provide them against?
    • A. 

      Work center standards

    • B. 

      Civil engineer standards

    • C. 

      Their own personal standards

    • D. 

      Air Force established standards

  • 82. 
    (021) Regarding customer relations, what term means having a relationship based on mutual trust?
    • A. 

      Pride

    • B. 

      Rapport

    • C. 

      Support

    • D. 

      Humility

  • 83. 
    (021) What is most often gained by “doing the right thing, doing it on time, and doing it correctly”?
    • A. 

      A sense of pride

    • B. 

      A positive image

    • C. 

      A pat on the back

    • D. 

      A good impression

  • 84. 
    (022) Which area monitors the Base Civil Engineer Quality Control Evaluation Program?
    • A. 

      Resources

    • B. 

      Service call

    • C. 

      Customer service

    • D. 

      Programming and scheduling

  • 85. 
    (022) What information should be “prefilled” on a customer evaluation form?
    • A. 

      Work order number

    • B. 

      Work approval number

    • C. 

      Service provided by field

    • D. 

      Customer account cost code

  • 86. 
    (022) If a low number of customer satisfaction forms are being returned, who should customer service unit personnel contact first?
    • A. 

      Craftsman

    • B. 

      Shop supervisor

    • C. 

      Facility manager

    • D. 

      Service call technician

  • 87. 
    (023) Which AF form do you use as an approval/disapproval document when requesting work from the civil engineer?
    • A. 

      332

    • B. 

      327

    • C. 

      1879

    • D. 

      1219

  • 88. 
     (023) Which AF form is used for work that generally doesn’t require detailed planning?
    • A. 

      332

    • B. 

      327

    • C. 

      1879

    • D. 

      1219

  • 89. 
    (023) You must respond to and complete an urgent work order within how many calendar days?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      30

  • 90. 
    (024) How often do shop supervisors produce recurring work program (RWP) schedules using Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS)?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      It closes out automatically

    • B. 

      It remains open and never gets completed

    • C. 

      It gets reported to the squadron commander

    • D. 

      It remains on the next week’s schedule as working

  • 92. 
    (025) What contains a detailed description of the work, where to perform the work, and a point of contact (POC)?
    • A. 

      Schedule

    • B. 

      Work request

    • C. 

      Material process

    • D. 

      Recurring work program report

  • 93. 
    (025) What is a method where a group of individuals simultaneously contribute ideas to solve a problem?
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Scheduling

    • C. 

      Brainstorming

    • D. 

      Troubleshooting

  • 94. 
    (025) What are the systematic procedures for any job, or the sequences for work in order of performance?
    • A. 

      Job phases

    • B. 

      Legal limits

    • C. 

      Craft phases

    • D. 

      Work packages

  • 95. 
    (025) What identifies the order which different sections will complete their portion of the project?
    • A. 

      Job phases

    • B. 

      Legal limits

    • C. 

      Craft phases

    • D. 

      Work packages

  • 96. 
    (026) What tracks how labor is spent each month?
    • A. 

      Labor utilization codes (LUC).

    • B. 

      Direct scheduled work (DSW).

    • C. 

      Recurring work program (RWP).

    • D. 

      Maintenance action sheet (MAS).

  • 97. 
    (026) Which type of labor utilization codes (LUC) identifies productive labor hours?
    • A. 

      Direct

    • B. 

      Indirect

    • C. 

      Positive

    • D. 

      Negative

  • 98. 
    (027) Which formula is used to get the total cost for a work order?
    • A. 

      Material costs + labor hours.

    • B. 

      Labor hours/material cost – shop hourly rate.

    • C. 

      Shop hourly rate + labor hours + material costs

    • D. 

      Shop hourly rate × labor hours + material costs

  • 99. 
    (027) Which flight in civil engineer has the overall responsibility for reimbursements?
    • A. 

      Programs

    • B. 

      Resources

    • C. 

      Operations

    • D. 

      Asset management

  • 100. 
    (028) The day-to-day work required to preserve real property facilities, to prevent premature failure, or to keep system components from wearing out is classified as
    • A. 

      Repair

    • B. 

      Contract

    • C. 

      Maintenance

    • D. 

      Minor construction

  • 101. 
    (029) What kind of responsibility does anyone possessing government property have and becomes personally responsible for the property, whether use of the property is official or personal and whether or not there is a signed receipt for the property?
    • A. 

      Accountability

    • B. 

      Relieving

    • C. 

      Custodial

    • D. 

      Liability

  • 102. 
    (029) What do we call an AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, used to track accountability of an item?
    • A. 

      Hand receipt

    • B. 

      Liability tracker

    • C. 

      Report of survey

    • D. 

      Accountability designator

  • 103. 
    (029) Once an individual is found liable, how many days does the responsible party have to make a lump sum payment?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      60

  • 104. 
    (030) Who ensures the organization is complying with government purchase card (GPC) policies and practices?
    • A. 

      Department of the Treasury officials

    • B. 

      Office program coordinators

    • C. 

      Approving officials

    • D. 

      Cardholders

  • 105. 
    (030) Who sets government purchase card (GPC) spending limits?
    • A. 

      Department of the Treasury officials

    • B. 

      Office program coordinators

    • C. 

      Approving officials

    • D. 

      Cardholders

  • 106. 
    (031) What are the two basic categories publications fall into?
    • A. 

      Technical and regulatory

    • B. 

      Informational and practical

    • C. 

      Directive and non-directive

    • D. 

      Substantial and unsubstantial

  • 107. 
    (031) Which publications are orders of the Secretary of the Air Force, approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff, which are directive in nature?
    • A. 

      Air Force handbooks (AFH).

    • B. 

      Air Force instructions (AFI).

    • C. 

      Operating instructions (OI).

    • D. 

      Supplements

  • 108. 
    (031) Which publications are extensions of instructions and are, therefore, also directive publications. They contain both guidance and procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs?
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Air Force handbooks (AFH).

    • C. 

      Air Force manuals (AFMAN).

    • D. 

      Air Force pamphlets (AFPAM).

  • 109. 
    (031) Which series of publications guide policy and procedures on all aspects of Air Force civil engineering, including management of real property assets?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      22

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      36

  • 110. 
    (031) Which series of publications cover policy on all aspects of civilian and military staffing, including procuring, promoting, training, and funding?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      22

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      36

  • 111. 
    (031) What does the short title search use to find the publication you are looking for?
    • A. 

      Publication type

    • B. 

      Publication number

    • C. 

      Full publication title

    • D. 

      Key words of the publication title

  • 112. 
    (032) Which agency issues standards and other publications that implement the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)?
    • A. 

      Joint Chief of Staff

    • B. 

      Department of Labor

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Air Force Chief of Staff

  • 113. 
    (032) Which commercial publications provide the “how to” aspect of a job?
    • A. 

      Technical

    • B. 

      Procedural

    • C. 

      Regulatory

    • D. 

      Informational

  • 114. 
    (033) What are the manuals the Air Force develops or pays a contractor to develop for all equipment built to military specifications?
    • A. 

      Technical orders

    • B. 

      Joint use manuals

    • C. 

      Technical manuals

    • D. 

      Commercial of the shelf manuals

  • 115. 
    (033) Which military service develops technical manuals for equipment they use?
    • A. 

      Navy

    • B. 

      Marines

    • C. 

      Air Force

    • D. 

      Coast Guard

  • 116. 
    (033) Which manual does multiple services use and uses a layout that follows the one used by the branch of service that initially had it developed?
    • A. 

      Technical orders

    • B. 

      Joint use manuals

    • C. 

      Technical manuals

    • D. 

      Commercial off the shelf manuals

  • 117. 
     (033) Which manual comes with locally procured equipment items?
    • A. 

      Technical orders

    • B. 

      Joint use manuals

    • C. 

      Technical manuals

    • D. 

      Commercial off the shelf manuals

  • 118. 
    (033) Which manuals provide instruction for designated field maintenance units in support of the using organization?
    • A. 

      Overhaul instructions

    • B. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown

    • C. 

      Field maintenance instruction

    • D. 

      Operation and maintenance (O &M) instruction

  • 119. 
    (033) Which manuals provide for major repairs of a particular piece of equipment?
    • A. 

      Overhaul instructions

    • B. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown

    • C. 

      Field maintenance instruction

    • D. 

      Operation and maintenance (O &M) instruction

  • 120. 
    (033) Which manual contains part numbers, nomenclatures, and other pertinent information necessary to support that piece of equipment?
    • A. 

      Overhaul instructions

    • B. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown

    • C. 

      Field maintenance instruction

    • D. 

      Operation and maintenance (O &M) instruction

  • 121. 
    (034) Why must you identify any problems you find in a technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      It shows that you read the TO.

    • B. 

      It shows that you always use the TO

    • C. 

      To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task differently.

    • D. 

      To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task the same way

  • 122. 
    (034) What method makes the best corrections to problems in a technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      A team effort of many Airmen

    • B. 

      Your effort researching the problem

    • C. 

      A team effort of many knowledgeable individuals

    • D. 

      Your effort experimenting with possible corrections

  • 123. 
    • A. 

      Until a time compliance technical orders (TCTO) takes its place

    • B. 

      As long as the information is current

    • C. 

      Until the information is no longer valid

    • D. 

      Until it is canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.

  • 124. 
    (035) What are the two sources that you can get engineer technical letters (ETL) from?
    • A. 

      Air Force publications web page and US Navy Seabee web page.

    • B. 

      Air Force publications web page and Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency (AFCESA) publication web page.

    • C. 

      US Army Corps of Engineers web page and US Navy Seabee web page.

    • D. 

      AFCESA publication web page and the US Army Corps of Engineers web page