CDC 2ax5x Volume 1

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2ax5x Quizzes & Trivia

The CDC 2ax5x Volume 1 is a quiz on aerospace maintenance and general subjects. Are you studying aeronautical and need to test your basic knowledge? This will help you with that. All the best as you try it out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 2. 
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 3. 
    What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      70

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      98

  • 4. 
    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
    • A. 

      Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • B. 

      TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • C. 

      Manuals, TOs and handbooks

    • D. 

      TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

  • 5. 
    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting immpression for new Airmen?
    • A. 

      Initial

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Supervisor's

    • D. 

      Sustained job safety

  • 6. 
    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDCs if concentrations are greater than
    • A. 

      -2.0 percent

    • B. 

      -1.0 percent

    • C. 

      0.1 percent

    • D. 

      1.0 percent

  • 7. 
    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by
    • A. 

      The US Air Force

    • B. 

      Each MAJCOM

    • C. 

      DOD

    • D. 

      EPA

  • 8. 
    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannott exceed
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • B. 

      Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • C. 

      Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • D. 

      Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

  • 10. 
    The recommended procedure for cooling and overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then
    • A. 

      Spray with cold water.

    • B. 

      Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • C. 

      Cool with high pressure compressed air.

    • D. 

      Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

  • 11. 
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of
    • A. 

      15 degrees

    • B. 

      45 degrees

    • C. 

      65 degrees

    • D. 

      95 degrees

  • 12. 
    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
    • A. 

      Dizziness

    • B. 

      Emotional irritability

    • C. 

      A feeling of emptiness

    • D. 

      Impaired mental concetration

  • 13. 
    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?
    • A. 

      Crew chief

    • B. 

      Flight engineer.

    • C. 

      Weapons personnel.

    • D. 

      Only senior personnel on special orders.

  • 14. 
    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar you must
    • A. 

      Install shorting plugs and clips

    • B. 

      Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • C. 

      Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • D. 

      Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

  • 15. 
    All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT form?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      457

    • C. 

      623

    • D. 

      1297

  • 16. 
    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to
    • A. 

      Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly.

    • B. 

      Follow MAJCOM guidelines.

    • C. 

      Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • D. 

      Educate all personnel

  • 17. 
    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?
    • A. 

      Logistics and operations group commanders.

    • B. 

      Immediate supervisor

    • C. 

      Wing commander.

    • D. 

      Everyone

  • 18. 
    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the
    • A. 

      Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • B. 

      Wing vice commander

    • C. 

      Group commander

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 19. 
    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?
    • A. 

      The FOD prevention office.

    • B. 

      The operations commander.

    • C. 

      The flight safety officer.

    • D. 

      QA

  • 20. 
    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
    • A. 

      Red markings

    • B. 

      Black markings

    • C. 

      Green markings

    • D. 

      Orange markings

  • 21. 
    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a
    • A. 

      15-foot radius

    • B. 

      20-foot radius

    • C. 

      25-foot radius

    • D. 

      50-foot radius

  • 22. 
    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?
    • A. 

      Operations

    • B. 

      The aircrew

    • C. 

      Supervision

    • D. 

      The ground crew

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • B. 

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    • C. 

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • D. 

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

  • 24. 
    What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?
    • A. 

      AFI 23-106

    • B. 

      AFI 11-218

    • C. 

      TO 00-25-172

    • D. 

      TO00-25-212

  • 25. 
    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
    • A. 

      Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • B. 

      Supervisor or brake operator.

    • C. 

      Supervisor of wing walkers.

    • D. 

      Supervisor only

  • 26. 
    What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
    • A. 

      Departmental, intermediate, and field.

    • B. 

      Organizational , field, and intermediate.

    • C. 

      Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

    • D. 

      Departmental, organizational, and depot.

  • 27. 
    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    • A. 

      Unscheduled.

    • B. 

      Preventive

    • C. 

      Corrective

    • D. 

      Protective

  • 28. 
    Objective of the MDD system include
    • A. 

      Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • B. 

      Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    • C. 

      Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • D. 

      Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

  • 29. 
    What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?
    • A. 

      Damaged and spare items.

    • B. 

      Expired and outdated items.

    • C. 

      Recurring and repeat replacement items.

    • D. 

      Select serially controlled and time change items.

  • 30. 
    What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781F

    • C. 

      781H

    • D. 

      781J

  • 31. 
    The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder
    • A. 

      Before the first flight of the day.

    • B. 

      Before each thru flight inspection,.

    • C. 

      After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

    • D. 

      After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.

  • 32. 
    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO
    • A. 

      781G

    • B. 

      781J

    • C. 

      781M

    • D. 

      781P

  • 33. 
    Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?
    • A. 

      Base supply coordinator.

    • B. 

      Critical item liaison.

    • C. 

      Equipment liaison.

    • D. 

      Item managers.

  • 34. 
    The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the
    • A. 

      MAJCOM level.

    • B. 

      Wing level

    • C. 

      Base level

    • D. 

      Unit level

  • 35. 
    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by
    • A. 

      Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • B. 

      Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • C. 

      Helping evaluate the training of new personnel.

    • D. 

      Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

  • 36. 
    The GAS is normally sent out
    • A. 

      90 days after graduation

    • B. 

      6 months after graduation

    • C. 

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    • D. 

      Within 10 calendar days after graduation

  • 37. 
    Where can you find a list of training courses available for and AFSC?
    • A. 

      CFETP, Part I.

    • B. 

      AFJQS

    • C. 

      Command JQS

    • D. 

      CFETP,Part II.

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Within 60 of arrival

    • B. 

      6 months after graduation

    • C. 

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    • D. 

      Within 10 calendar day after graduation

  • 39. 
    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    • A. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • C. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • D. 

      Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

  • 40. 
    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
    • A. 

      Training

    • B. 

      Aircraft

    • C. 

      Reference

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 41. 
    What is the total number of AF catalogs?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 42. 
    Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
    • A. 

      Trouble

    • B. 

      Remedy

    • C. 

      Section II

    • D. 

      Probable Cause

  • 43. 
    What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page?
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Urgent action

    • C. 

      Routine action

    • D. 

      Immediate action

  • 44. 
    Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
    • A. 

      00-1-01

    • B. 

      00-5-1

    • C. 

      00-20 series

    • D. 

      00-25 series

  • 45. 
    Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?
    • A. 

      Waiver.

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 46. 
    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?
    • A. 

      Directory

    • B. 

      Pamphlet

    • C. 

      Instruction

    • D. 

      Supplement

  • 47. 
    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 48. 
    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      C-1

  • 49. 
    What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
    • A. 

      7,000

    • B. 

      8,000

    • C. 

      9,000

    • D. 

      10,000

  • 50. 
    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is
    • A. 

      10 MPH

    • B. 

      15 MPH

    • C. 

      20 MPH

    • D. 

      25 MPH

  • 51. 
    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Tail

    • B. 

      Axle

    • C. 

      Nose

    • D. 

      Fixed-height

  • 52. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?
    • A. 

      AGE personnel.

    • B. 

      Aircrew personnel

    • C. 

      Shift supervisor

    • D. 

      Everyone

  • 53. 
    GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted
    • A. 

      White with a green band near the bottom

    • B. 

      Green with a white band near the bottom

    • C. 

      White with a green band near the top

    • D. 

      Green with a white band near the top

  • 54. 
    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by
    • A. 

      AGE personnel only

    • B. 

      The highest ranking person on the shift

    • C. 

      Qualified operators only

    • D. 

      Any person

  • 55. 
    What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?
    • A. 

      39

    • B. 

      49

    • C. 

      59

    • D. 

      69

  • 56. 
    What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?
    • A. 

      3,000 psig

    • B. 

      3,500 psig

    • C. 

      4,400 psig

    • D. 

      5,200 psig

  • 57. 
    The usable pressure range of the MCA-1A air compressor is 0 to
    • A. 

      200 psi

    • B. 

      350 psi

    • C. 

      3,200 psi

    • D. 

      3,500 psi

  • 58. 
    The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of
    • A. 

      200 psi

    • B. 

      300 psi

    • C. 

      3,500 psi

    • D. 

      3,600 psi

  • 59. 
    The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
    • A. 

      100 to 230 degrees F.

    • B. 

      115 to 250 degrees F.

    • C. 

      125 to 270 degrees F

    • D. 

      150 to 280 degrees F.

  • 60. 
    What is the maximum tow speed for a c-10 air conditioner?
    • A. 

      5MPH

    • B. 

      10MPH

    • C. 

      15MPH

    • D. 

      20MPH

  • 61. 
    The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from
    • A. 

      47 to 150 degrees F.

    • B. 

      47 to 200 degrees F.

    • C. 

      57 to 150 degrees F.

    • D. 

      57 to 200 degrees F.

  • 62. 
    The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces
    • A. 

      25.5 VDC

    • B. 

      27.5 VDC

    • C. 

      28.5 VDC

    • D. 

      30.5 VDC

  • 63. 
    What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?
    • A. 

      A/M32A-95

    • B. 

      A/M32A-86

    • C. 

      A/M32A-60

    • D. 

      AF/M-32R-3

  • 64. 
    Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?
    • A. 

      1-1A-8

    • B. 

      25C2-3-372-11

    • C. 

      32A1-4.219-45

    • D. 

      35C2-3-372-11

  • 65. 
    The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
    • A. 

      100 watt lamp fixtures

    • B. 

      1,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • C. 

      10,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • D. 

      100,000 watt lamp fixtures

  • 66. 
    What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
    • A. 

      5 MPH

    • B. 

      10 MPH

    • C. 

      15 MPH

    • D. 

      20 MPH

  • 67. 
    What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?
    • A. 

      A diesel engine

    • B. 

      An electric motor

    • C. 

      A gasoline engine

    • D. 

      A hydraulic motor

  • 68. 
    How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?
    • A. 

      Primary and Secondary

    • B. 

      Primary and Alternate

    • C. 

      Number 1 and Number 2

    • D. 

      Left and Right

  • 69. 
    The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
    • A. 

      19 gallons

    • B. 

      27 gallons

    • C. 

      30 gallons

    • D. 

      60 gallons

  • 70. 
    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
    • A. 

      Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive

    • B. 

      Two-wheel steering, four wheel drive

    • C. 

      Four-wheel steering, two wheel drive

    • D. 

      Four-wheel steering, four wheel drive

  • 71. 
    What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
    • A. 

      15 MPH

    • B. 

      20 MPH

    • C. 

      25 MPH

    • D. 

      55 MPH

  • 72. 
    What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer?
    • A. 

      Mechanical

    • B. 

      Pneumatic

    • C. 

      Hydraulic

    • D. 

      Electrical

  • 73. 
    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum allow parts in low-torque applications?
    • A. 

      Reduce shearing

    • B. 

      Prevent vibration

    • C. 

      Prevent corrosion

    • D. 

      Reduce shimming

  • 74. 
    How are special bolts identified?
    • A. 

      By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • B. 

      By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • C. 

      The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • D. 

      The bolt head is marked with the letter S

  • 75. 
    Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Clevis

    • C. 

      Eyebolt

    • D. 

      Hexhead

  • 76. 
    Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Eyebolt

    • C. 

      Hexhead

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 77. 
    Left handed threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the
    • A. 

      Knurl beside the fork

    • B. 

      Groove by the cable eye

    • C. 

      Knurl beside the pin eye

    • D. 

      Groove on the end of the barrel

  • 78. 
    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?
    • A. 

      Soft rubber

    • B. 

      Phenolic mix

    • C. 

      Non-magnetic

    • D. 

      Thermosetting plastic

  • 79. 
    A push-pull rod engagement is check by
    • A. 

      Using a depth gage to check end play

    • B. 

      Ensuring that no lateral movement exists

    • C. 

      Using a inside caliper to check the rod end bearing

    • D. 

      Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal

  • 80. 
    What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips aircraft tubing?
    • A. 

      15 to 20 inches

    • B. 

      20 to 25 inches

    • C. 

      25 to 30 inches

    • D. 

      30 to 35 inches

  • 81. 
    The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
    • A. 

      10 percent of wall thickness

    • B. 

      15 percent of wall thickness

    • C. 

      20 percent of wall thickness

    • D. 

      25 percent of wall thickness

  • 82. 
    Generally, low pressure hoses are used for what pressures?
    • A. 

      200 psi and below

    • B. 

      300 psi and below

    • C. 

      500 psi and below

    • D. 

      1,000 psi and below

  • 83. 
    The limit for securing closely spaced blots in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of blots that can be secured using a
    • A. 

      10 inch length of wire

    • B. 

      12 inch length of wire

    • C. 

      24 inch length of wire

    • D. 

      36 inch length of wire

  • 84. 
    When securing widely spaced blots by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 85. 
    Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
    • A. 

      Snap rings

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining ring

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining rings

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining rings

  • 86. 
    What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
    • A. 

      Metal shells

    • B. 

      Connector halves

    • C. 

      Dielectric contacts

    • D. 

      Pin-and-socket contacts

  • 87. 
    Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?
    • A. 

      Snap ring

    • B. 

      Spiral retaining ring

    • C. 

      Beveled retaining ring

    • D. 

      Axially assembled retaining ring

  • 88. 
    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates
    • A. 

      Pin

    • B. 

      Plain

    • C. 

      Primary

    • D. 

      Pratt and Whitney

  • 89. 
    Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
    • A. 

      Indicating type

    • B. 

      Breakaway type

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 90. 
    Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?
    • A. 

      Indicating type

    • B. 

      Breakaway type

    • C. 

      Screwdriver type

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching type

  • 91. 
    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
    • A. 

      Maximum setting at least 4 times

    • B. 

      Maximum setting at least 6 times

    • C. 

      Lowest setting at least 4 times

    • D. 

      Lowest setting at least 6 times

  • 92. 
    Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
    • A. 

      Static

    • B. 

      Tension

    • C. 

      Dynamic

    • D. 

      Rotational

  • 93. 
    What are the tow stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
    • A. 

      Extension and flexion

    • B. 

      Tension and torsion

    • C. 

      Torque and friction

    • D. 

      Push and pull

  • 94. 
    Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to
    • A. 

      Check the AC voltages only

    • B. 

      Check the DC voltages only

    • C. 

      Initiate the tough-hold mode

    • D. 

      Move the decimal point

  • 95. 
    When is the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display,the
    • A. 

      Manual range mode is indicated

    • B. 

      Touch-hold mode is in use

    • C. 

      Ohms function is selected

    • D. 

      Meter is zeroing itself

  • 96. 
    Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
    • A. 

      Multimeter

    • B. 

      Depth gauge

    • C. 

      Feeler gauge

    • D. 

      Torque wrench

  • 97. 
    What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?
    • A. 

      0.5 inch

    • B. 

      1.0 inch

    • C. 

      1.5 inch

    • D. 

      2.0 inch

  • 98. 
    Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?
    • A. 

      Simple calipers

    • B. 

      Transfer calipers

    • C. 

      Spring-joint calipers

    • D. 

      Off-leg caliper

  • 99. 
    Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper

    • B. 

      Center caliper

    • C. 

      Spring-joint caliper

    • D. 

      Odd-leg-caliper

  • 100. 
    Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
    • A. 

      Slide caliper

    • B. 

      Simple caliper

    • C. 

      Transfer caliper

    • D. 

      Spring-joint caliper

  • 101. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
    • A. 

      Base commanders

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders

    • C. 

      Supervisors at all levels

    • D. 

      Squadron QA section

  • 102. 
    Bench stock levels are established to provide a
    • A. 

      15-day usage

    • B. 

      30-day usage

    • C. 

      60-day usage

    • D. 

      90-day usage

  • 103. 
    Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?
    • A. 

      AF 2005

    • B. 

      AF Form 2413

    • C. 

      AF IMT 1297

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-6

  • 104. 
    All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
    • A. 

      PDC

    • B. 

      AAC

    • C. 

      PACC

    • D. 

      ERRC

  • 105. 
    Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
    • A. 

      DD Form1348-6

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1131

  • 106. 
    Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
    • A. 

      1577-2 and 1577-3

    • B. 

      1576 and 1576-1

    • C. 

      1574 and 1574-1

    • D. 

      1575 and 1575-1

  • 107. 
    • A. 

      200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt

    • B. 

      100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt

    • C. 

      200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt

    • D. 

      100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt

  • 108. 
    Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operation hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 109. 
    Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 110. 
    Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
    • A. 

      Phased

    • B. 

      Periodic

    • C. 

      Isochronal

    • D. 

      Programmed depot maintenance

  • 111. 
    Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
    • A. 

      Sequence charts

    • B. 

      Inspection work cards

    • C. 

      -06 work unit code manuals

    • D. 

      -6 technical order inspection manuals

  • 112. 
    Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
    • A. 

      In progress

    • B. 

      PR

    • C. 

      TH

    • D. 

      EOR

  • 113. 
    The TH inspection is normally performed
    • A. 

      Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

    • B. 

      After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

    • C. 

      Immediately prior to a BPO

    • D. 

      After the last flight of a specified flying period

  • 114. 
    Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30or 90 days?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 115. 
    Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 116. 
    To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should us a DD Form
    • A. 

      126

    • B. 

      1149

    • C. 

      2691

    • D. 

      2692

  • 117. 
    Which To should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
    • A. 

      1-21-101

    • B. 

      1-1-691

    • C. 

      1-1B-50

    • D. 

      1-1-5

  • 118. 
    What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirement, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
    • A. 

      Mission requirements

    • B. 

      Aircraft dimensions

    • C. 

      Structure strength

    • D. 

      Aircraft weight

  • 119. 
    Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
    • A. 

      EMERGENCY

    • B. 

      DIAGNOSE

    • C. 

      TRIAGE

    • D. 

      STRAT

  • 120. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
    • A. 

      Exposed to moist air

    • B. 

      Exposed to a chemical

    • C. 

      Connected to another part

    • D. 

      Fabricated or manufactored

  • 121. 
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
    • A. 

      Painted

    • B. 

      Heat treated

    • C. 

      Chemically treated

    • D. 

      Exhausted or salvaged

  • 122. 
    What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling or the metal grains?
    • A. 

      Pitting

    • B. 

      Galvanic

    • C. 

      Exfoliation

    • D. 

      Crevice/concentration cell

  • 123. 
    What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Intergranular

    • C. 

      Oxygen concentration cell

    • D. 

      Metal ion concentration cell

  • 124. 
    Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
    • A. 

      TO 00-20-1

    • B. 

      TO 1-1-3

    • C. 

      TO 1-1A-8

    • D. 

      TO 1-1-691

  • 125. 
    • A. 

      Potassium hydroxide

    • B. 

      Aluminum hydroxide

    • C. 

      Sodium bicarbonate

    • D. 

      Boric acid