CDC 2AX5X Volume 1

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  • 1/125 Questions

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Logistics and operations group commanders.
    • Immediate supervisor
    • Wing commander.
    • Everyone
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CDC 2AX5X Volume 1 - Quiz
About This Quiz

The CDC 2ax5x Volume 1 is a quiz on aerospace maintenance and general subjects. Are you studying aeronautical and need to test your basic knowledge? This will help you with that. All the best as you try it out.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • Red markings

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the green markings. The green markings indicate the optimal pressure range for the fire extinguisher to effectively discharge its contents. If the pressure falls below or exceeds this range, the fire extinguisher may not function properly, making it less effective in extinguishing fires. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the gauge needle remains within the green markings to maintain the fire extinguisher's functionality and safety.

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  • 3. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • Supervisor or brake operator.

    • Supervisor of wing walkers.

    • Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This is important to ensure that proper communication and coordination is maintained to prevent any accidents or mishaps during the movement of the aircraft. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the entire operation and has the authority to give instructions and make decisions regarding the tow.

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  • 4. 

    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

    • Tail

    • Axle

    • Nose

    • Fixed-height

    Correct Answer
    A. Axle
    Explanation
    The axle jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft. This type of jack is specifically designed to lift the aircraft's axle, providing support and stability during tire replacement. The tail jack is used for lifting the tail of the aircraft, the nose jack is used for lifting the nose of the aircraft, and the fixed-height jack is not typically used for tire changes.

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  • 5. 

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions or natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other man-made factors.

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  • 6. 

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions, earthquakes, or other natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other factors unrelated to nature.

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  • 7. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling and overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • Spray with cold water.

    • Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • Cool with high pressure compressed air.

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk, and the brake assembly should be left to cool down naturally using the surrounding air. This method is considered safe and effective in allowing the brake assembly to return to a normal operating temperature without the need for any additional cooling methods such as water spray, forced air from a blower, or high pressure compressed air.

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  • 8. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

    • Crew chief

    • Flight engineer.

    • Weapons personnel.

    • Only senior personnel on special orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons personnel.
    Explanation
    Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm these explosive devices safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have their own responsibilities related to the aircraft, but the specific task of removing safety devices falls under the purview of weapons personnel. Only senior personnel on special orders may have the authority to handle such tasks in exceptional circumstances.

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  • 9. 

    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting immpression for new Airmen?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen. This phase is typically the first step in introducing new Airmen to safety protocols and procedures. It aims to provide them with the foundational knowledge and skills necessary to maintain a safe working environment. By focusing on this phase, new Airmen can develop a strong understanding of safety practices from the start of their careers, which can have a long-lasting impact on their safety awareness and behavior.

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  • 10. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

    • 15 degrees

    • 45 degrees

    • 65 degrees

    • 95 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the noise produced by a jet engine is primarily caused by the exhaust gases and the turbine blades. As the exhaust gases and the turbulence generated by the turbine blades exit the engine, they create a concentrated noise source. At an angle of 45 degrees, the noise is not directly in line with the engine's exhaust, but still close enough to experience a high intensity of noise.

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  • 11. 

    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar you must

    • Install shorting plugs and clips

    • Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is important to ensure the safety of personnel and the hangar itself. Moving an aircraft with explosives and ammunition inside can pose a significant risk of accidental detonation or fire, which can cause severe damage and endanger lives. Therefore, removing all ammunition and explosives is a crucial step to mitigate these risks and ensure a safe environment.

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  • 12. 

    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This is because the TBA (Training Business Area) provides Air Force personnel with access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It allows them to view and track their progress in various training courses and certifications. This visibility helps in ensuring that personnel are up to date with the required qualifications and certifications for their roles in the Air Force.

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  • 13. 

    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

    • AGE personnel only

    • The highest ranking person on the shift

    • Qualified operators only

    • Any person

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified operators only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "qualified operators only". This means that only individuals who have received proper training and certification to operate the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer are allowed to do so. This ensures that the equipment is handled safely and effectively, minimizing the risk of accidents or damage to the aircraft.

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  • 14. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • The US Air Force

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA. The Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The EPA is responsible for regulating and managing hazardous waste in the United States to protect human health and the environment. They establish guidelines and standards for the proper handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste. The EPA's rules help ensure that hazardous waste is managed in a safe and environmentally responsible manner.

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  • 15. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

    • Base commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    • Supervisors at all levels

    • Squadron QA section

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors at all levels
    Explanation
    Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This includes not only base commanders and squadron commanders, but also supervisors at all levels within the organization. It is their duty to enforce and maintain proper procedures and protocols related to supply management, ensuring that resources are utilized efficiently and effectively. By overseeing the adherence to supply discipline, supervisors can prevent wastage, loss, or misuse of supplies, ultimately contributing to the overall success and effectiveness of the organization.

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  • 16. 

    What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards

    • 50

    • 70

    • 90

    • 98

    Correct Answer
    A. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98. This suggests that a significant majority of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. This implies that a high percentage of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors and implementing safety measures.

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  • 17. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • Manuals, TOs and handbooks

    • TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs and handbooks
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Manuals, TOs and handbooks." When performing maintenance procedures, it is essential to refer to manuals, technical orders (TOs), and handbooks. These resources provide detailed instructions, guidelines, and procedures for carrying out maintenance tasks effectively and safely. Manuals contain comprehensive information about the equipment or system being maintained, while TOs provide specific instructions and guidance for military maintenance operations. Handbooks offer additional reference materials and best practices for maintenance procedures. By utilizing these directives, technicians can ensure that maintenance procedures are performed accurately and in accordance with established standards.

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  • 18. 

    What affects radiation hazards?

    • Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
    Explanation
    The factors that affect radiation hazards are the strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather. The strength of emission refers to the intensity of the radiation being emitted. The higher the strength, the greater the potential hazard. The time of exposure is the duration of time that a person is exposed to the radiation. The longer the exposure, the higher the risk. Weather conditions can also impact radiation hazards as certain weather patterns, such as wind or rain, can disperse or concentrate radiation. Therefore, all three factors are important in determining the level of radiation hazard.

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  • 19. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • Wing vice commander

    • Group commander

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. These individuals are responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations and ensuring that all tools and equipment are properly accounted for. As the lowest person authorized to clear a red X, they have the authority to declare a tool as lost and initiate the necessary procedures to locate it. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher positions and responsibilities, but they may not have direct involvement in day-to-day maintenance operations and tool tracking.

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  • 20. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office.

    • The operations commander.

    • The flight safety officer.

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA stands for Quality Assurance. In most units, the Quality Assurance department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. They are in charge of ensuring that all procedures and processes are being followed correctly to maintain quality and safety standards. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it is important to identify the cause of the incident and take corrective actions to prevent any future occurrences.

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  • 21. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Unscheduled.

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    • Protective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need by conducting regular inspections, routine cleaning, and replacing worn-out parts before they fail. This proactive approach helps to prevent unexpected breakdowns and reduces the risk of equipment failure, ensuring that it remains in optimal condition and ready for use when required. By implementing preventive maintenance, organizations can minimize downtime, improve equipment reliability, and extend the lifespan of their assets.

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  • 22. 

    How are special bolts identified?

    • By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • The bolt head is marked with the letter S

    Correct Answer
    A. The bolt head is marked with the letter S
    Explanation
    Special bolts are identified by the letter S marked on the bolt head. This marking serves as a distinguishing feature that indicates the bolt's special properties or purpose. It allows users to easily identify and differentiate special bolts from regular ones, ensuring they are used in the appropriate applications. The zinc-plated nickel steel covering and galvanized-plated steel covering options mentioned in the other choices do not pertain to the identification of special bolts.

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  • 23. 

    What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?

    • Metal shells

    • Connector halves

    • Dielectric contacts

    • Pin-and-socket contacts

    Correct Answer
    A. Pin-and-socket contacts
    Explanation
    Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that connect and transmit electrical signals between the two connector halves. When the cannon plug is inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity and completing the circuit. The metal shells provide structural support and protection, while the dielectric contacts insulate and separate the pins and sockets to prevent short circuits. However, it is the pin-and-socket contacts that directly enable the electrical connection.

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  • 24. 

    Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?

    • Indicating type

    • Breakaway type

    • Screwdriver type

    • Internal wrenching type

    Correct Answer
    A. Breakaway type
    Explanation
    A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the desired torque is reached, the wrench will break or slip, indicating that the correct torque has been applied. This feature ensures that the fasteners are tightened to the appropriate level without the risk of over-tightening.

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  • 25. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • Dizziness

    • Emotional irritability

    • A feeling of emptiness

    • Impaired mental concetration

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily affects one's physical and mental well-being. Symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration are commonly associated with noise fatigue as they reflect the negative impact of prolonged exposure to excessive noise on the body and mind. However, a feeling of emptiness is not directly related to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other emotional or psychological factors.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • Operations

    • The aircrew

    • Supervision

    • The ground crew

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircrew
    Explanation
    The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the duty of the pilots and other crew members on board the aircraft to conduct a thorough preflight check before takeoff. This includes checking various systems, instruments, and equipment to ensure they are in proper working order and ready for the flight. The aircrew is trained and qualified to perform these checks and is ultimately responsible for the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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  • 27. 

    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

    • 781G

    • 781J

    • 781M

    • 781P

    Correct Answer
    A. 781J
  • 28. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it contains resources that are used for general information and background knowledge rather than for immediate and up-to-date information. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries which require the latest information for specific purposes, the reference library is focused on providing a comprehensive collection of materials that can be consulted for general reference purposes.

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  • 29. 

    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

    • Soft rubber

    • Phenolic mix

    • Non-magnetic

    • Thermosetting plastic

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft rubber
    Explanation
    Soft rubber is typically used in the construction of a pressure seal. This material is commonly chosen for its ability to create a tight and secure seal, preventing any leakage or loss of pressure. Soft rubber is flexible and can easily conform to the shape of the sealing surface, ensuring a reliable and effective seal. Additionally, it is resistant to wear, tear, and degradation caused by pressure and temperature variations, making it a suitable choice for pressure seal applications.

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  • 30. 

    Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

    • Simple calipers

    • Transfer calipers

    • Spring-joint calipers

    • Off-leg caliper

    Correct Answer
    A. Spring-joint calipers
    Explanation
    Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This design allows for easy and precise adjustment of the caliper's opening, making it suitable for measuring both inside and outside dimensions. The strong spring hinge ensures that the caliper remains in position once adjusted, providing accurate measurements. The screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning the caliper's opening to ensure precise measurements are obtained.

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  • 31. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

    • Exposed to moist air

    • Exposed to a chemical

    • Connected to another part

    • Fabricated or manufactored

    Correct Answer
    A. Fabricated or manufactored
    Explanation
    When a metal part is fabricated or manufactured, it goes through various processes such as cutting, shaping, and joining. These processes often involve exposing the metal to different environmental conditions and contaminants. This exposure can lead to the initiation of corrosion or deterioration of the metal part. Therefore, the correct answer is fabricated or manufactured.

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  • 32. 

    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

    • Maximum setting at least 4 times

    • Maximum setting at least 6 times

    • Lowest setting at least 4 times

    • Lowest setting at least 6 times

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximum setting at least 6 times
    Explanation
    Cycling the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least 6 times ensures that the wrench is properly calibrated and ready for use. This process helps to eliminate any residual lubricant or debris that may affect the accuracy of the torque readings. By cycling the wrench multiple times, any inconsistencies or variations in the torque application are also identified and accounted for, resulting in more accurate and reliable torque measurements.

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  • 33. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

    • Painted

    • Heat treated

    • Chemically treated

    • Exhausted or salvaged

    Correct Answer
    A. Exhausted or salvaged
    Explanation
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part will continue until the part is either exhausted or salvaged. This means that the corrosion process will continue until the metal part is completely consumed or until it is salvaged and repaired. Painting, heat treating, or chemically treating the part may slow down the corrosion process, but it will not completely stop it. The only way to fully prevent further corrosion is to either exhaust the part by allowing it to corrode completely or salvaging it by repairing or replacing the damaged sections.

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  • 34. 

    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • C-1

    Correct Answer
    A. B-4
  • 35. 

    Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

    • Multimeter

    • Depth gauge

    • Feeler gauge

    • Torque wrench

    Correct Answer
    A. Feeler gauge
    Explanation
    A feeler gauge is a tool specifically designed to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a set of thin metal strips of various thicknesses. To measure the gap, the appropriate strip is selected and inserted between the parts. The user can then determine the thickness of the strip that fits snugly in the gap, providing an accurate measurement. This tool is commonly used in automotive and engineering applications to ensure proper clearances and tolerances between components.

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  • 36. 

    The TH inspection is normally performed

    • Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

    • After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

    • Immediately prior to a BPO

    • After the last flight of a specified flying period

    Correct Answer
    A. After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
    Explanation
    The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection takes place after the aircraft has completed a flight and is scheduled to immediately take off again for another flight. The purpose of this inspection is to ensure that the aircraft is in proper condition and ready for the next flight.

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  • 37. 

    Objective of the MDD system include

    • Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    • Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
    Explanation
    The objective of the MDD system is to collect, store, and retrieve base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database or repository, and be able to access and retrieve that data when needed. The system does not just call or save the data, but it also collects and stores it for future use. Therefore, the correct answer is collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

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  • 38. 

    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

    • Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • Helping evaluate the training of new personnel.

    • Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

    Correct Answer
    A. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
    Explanation
    The training management subsystem is designed to assist trainers and supervisors in various tasks related to personnel training. One of these tasks is forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that the subsystem helps in predicting future training needs and organizing the schedule accordingly. By doing so, it ensures that the right personnel are identified and allocated for training programs. This helps in optimizing training resources and ensuring that the training needs of the organization are met efficiently.

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  • 39. 

    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

    • Directory

    • Pamphlet

    • Instruction

    • Supplement

    Correct Answer
    A. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that can cite forms and provide guidance on completing them, but it does not have the authority to enforce what is on the form. Unlike an instruction, which can provide specific guidelines and enforce compliance, a pamphlet serves as an informational resource that offers suggestions and recommendations without any binding power. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 40. 

    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates

    • Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive

    • Two-wheel steering, four wheel drive

    • Four-wheel steering, two wheel drive

    • Four-wheel steering, four wheel drive

    Correct Answer
    A. Four-wheel steering, four wheel drive
    Explanation
    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four-wheel steering, which means that all four wheels can be turned to enhance maneuverability. Additionally, it also has four-wheel drive, which means that power is distributed to all four wheels for improved traction and off-road capabilities.

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  • 41. 

    What are the tow stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

    • Extension and flexion

    • Tension and torsion

    • Torque and friction

    • Push and pull

    Correct Answer
    A. Tension and torsion
    Explanation
    When a fastener is tightened, it experiences two main stresses: tension and torsion. Tension refers to the stretching or pulling force that the fastener undergoes, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force. These stresses are crucial to ensure that the fastener remains securely in place and can withstand the applied load or force. Extension and flexion, push and pull, and torque and friction are not the correct stresses that a fastener takes when tightened.

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  • 42. 

    What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling or the metal grains?

    • Pitting

    • Galvanic

    • Exfoliation

    • Crevice/concentration cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Exfoliation
    Explanation
    Exfoliation corrosion is a type of corrosion that can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains. It occurs when a layer of corrosion products forms between the metal and its protective oxide layer, causing the grains to separate and lift up. This type of corrosion is commonly seen in aluminum alloys and can lead to significant damage and structural failure if not addressed.

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  • 43. 

    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is

    • 10 MPH

    • 15 MPH

    • 20 MPH

    • 25 MPH

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 MPH
    Explanation
    The maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH. This means that the trailer can be safely towed at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour when driving in a straight line. Going beyond this speed may compromise the stability and control of the trailer, posing a potential risk to the vehicle and its occupants.

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  • 44. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?

    • AGE personnel.

    • Aircrew personnel

    • Shift supervisor

    • Everyone

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    The responsibility for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented falls on everyone. This means that all individuals involved in the process, including AGE personnel, aircrew personnel, and the shift supervisor, are accountable for ensuring the form is accurately completed. This ensures that the necessary information is recorded and maintained correctly for proper documentation purposes.

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  • 45. 

    What is the maximum tow speed for a c-10 air conditioner?

    • 5MPH

    • 10MPH

    • 15MPH

    • 20MPH

    Correct Answer
    A. 20MPH
    Explanation
    The maximum tow speed for a c-10 air conditioner is 20MPH. This means that the air conditioner can be safely towed at speeds up to 20 miles per hour.

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  • 46. 

    What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?

    • 5 MPH

    • 10 MPH

    • 15 MPH

    • 20 MPH

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 MPH
    Explanation
    The maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces is 20 MPH. This means that the floodlight can be towed at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour on smooth surfaces without any issues or concerns. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to ensure the safety and stability of the floodlight while it is being towed.

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  • 47. 

    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum allow parts in low-torque applications?

    • Reduce shearing

    • Prevent vibration

    • Prevent corrosion

    • Reduce shimming

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent corrosion
    Explanation
    Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum parts in low-torque applications to prevent corrosion. When aluminum and steel come into contact, a chemical reaction called galvanic corrosion can occur, leading to the degradation of the metal surfaces. By using aluminum alloy washers, a barrier is created between the aluminum and steel, preventing direct contact and reducing the likelihood of corrosion. This helps to maintain the integrity and longevity of the parts involved.

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  • 48. 

    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates

    • Pin

    • Plain

    • Primary

    • Pratt and Whitney

    Correct Answer
    A. Pin
    Explanation
    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates "pin". The letter P is commonly used to represent a pin in various electrical connectors and plugs. In this specific code, it is indicating that the connector has a pin configuration.

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  • 49. 

    When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself even with the

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.
    Explanation
    When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This position allows you to have a clear view of the engine and any potential fire hazards, while also maintaining a safe distance from the engine exhaust. Being at a 45-degree angle outboard ensures that you are not directly in the path of the engine exhaust, which can be dangerous.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Dec 16, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Dec 16, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 12, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Shalewis22

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