# CDC 2AX5X Volume 1

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The CDC 2ax5x Volume 1 is a quiz on aerospace maintenance and general subjects. Are you studying aeronautical and need to test your basic knowledge? This will help you with that. All the best as you try it out.

• 1.

### The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

• A.

2

• B.

4

• C.

6

• D.

8

A. 2
Explanation
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions or natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other man-made factors.

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• 2.

### The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

• A.

2

• B.

4

• C.

6

• D.

8

A. 2
Explanation
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions, earthquakes, or other natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other factors unrelated to nature.

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• 3.

### What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards

• A.

50

• B.

70

• C.

90

• D.

98

D. 98
Explanation
The correct answer is 98. This suggests that a significant majority of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. This implies that a high percentage of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors and implementing safety measures.

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• 4.

### Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

• A.

Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

• B.

TOs, manuals, and CDCs

• C.

Manuals, TOs and handbooks

• D.

TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

C. Manuals, TOs and handbooks
Explanation
The correct answer is "Manuals, TOs and handbooks." When performing maintenance procedures, it is essential to refer to manuals, technical orders (TOs), and handbooks. These resources provide detailed instructions, guidelines, and procedures for carrying out maintenance tasks effectively and safely. Manuals contain comprehensive information about the equipment or system being maintained, while TOs provide specific instructions and guidance for military maintenance operations. Handbooks offer additional reference materials and best practices for maintenance procedures. By utilizing these directives, technicians can ensure that maintenance procedures are performed accurately and in accordance with established standards.

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• 5.

### What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting immpression for new Airmen?

• A.

Initial

• B.

General

• C.

Supervisor's

• D.

Sustained job safety

A. Initial
Explanation
The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen. This phase is typically the first step in introducing new Airmen to safety protocols and procedures. It aims to provide them with the foundational knowledge and skills necessary to maintain a safe working environment. By focusing on this phase, new Airmen can develop a strong understanding of safety practices from the start of their careers, which can have a long-lasting impact on their safety awareness and behavior.

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• 6.

### A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDCs if concentrations are greater than

• A.

-2.0 percent

• B.

-1.0 percent

• C.

0.1 percent

• D.

1.0 percent

C. 0.1 percent
Explanation
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDCs if concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if the concentration of the chemical in a product or substance is higher than 0.1 percent, it is considered to have carcinogenic properties and is therefore identified as a carcinogen.

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• 7.

• A.

The US Air Force

• B.

Each MAJCOM

• C.

DOD

• D.

EPA

D. EPA
Explanation
The correct answer is EPA. The Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The EPA is responsible for regulating and managing hazardous waste in the United States to protect human health and the environment. They establish guidelines and standards for the proper handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste. The EPA's rules help ensure that hazardous waste is managed in a safe and environmentally responsible manner.

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• 8.

### Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannott exceed

• A.

30 days

• B.

60 days

• C.

90 days

• D.

120 days

C. 90 days
Explanation
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit is set to ensure that hazardous materials are not stored for an extended period, which could increase the risk of accidents or environmental contamination. By limiting the storage duration to 90 days, there is a higher likelihood that the materials will be properly managed and disposed of before any potential hazards can occur.

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• 9.

• A.

Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

• B.

Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

• C.

Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

• D.

Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

B. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
Explanation
The factors that affect radiation hazards are the strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather. The strength of emission refers to the intensity of the radiation being emitted. The higher the strength, the greater the potential hazard. The time of exposure is the duration of time that a person is exposed to the radiation. The longer the exposure, the higher the risk. Weather conditions can also impact radiation hazards as certain weather patterns, such as wind or rain, can disperse or concentrate radiation. Therefore, all three factors are important in determining the level of radiation hazard.

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• 10.

### The recommended procedure for cooling and overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

• A.

Spray with cold water.

• B.

Cool with forced air from a blower.

• C.

Cool with high pressure compressed air.

• D.

Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

D. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
Explanation
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk, and the brake assembly should be left to cool down naturally using the surrounding air. This method is considered safe and effective in allowing the brake assembly to return to a normal operating temperature without the need for any additional cooling methods such as water spray, forced air from a blower, or high pressure compressed air.

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• 11.

### The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

• A.

15 degrees

• B.

45 degrees

• C.

65 degrees

• D.

95 degrees

B. 45 degrees
Explanation
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the noise produced by a jet engine is primarily caused by the exhaust gases and the turbine blades. As the exhaust gases and the turbulence generated by the turbine blades exit the engine, they create a concentrated noise source. At an angle of 45 degrees, the noise is not directly in line with the engine's exhaust, but still close enough to experience a high intensity of noise.

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• 12.

### Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

• A.

Dizziness

• B.

Emotional irritability

• C.

A feeling of emptiness

• D.

Impaired mental concetration

C. A feeling of emptiness
Explanation
A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily affects one's physical and mental well-being. Symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration are commonly associated with noise fatigue as they reflect the negative impact of prolonged exposure to excessive noise on the body and mind. However, a feeling of emptiness is not directly related to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other emotional or psychological factors.

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• 13.

### When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

• A.

Crew chief

• B.

Flight engineer.

• C.

Weapons personnel.

• D.

Only senior personnel on special orders.

C. Weapons personnel.
Explanation
Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm these explosive devices safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have their own responsibilities related to the aircraft, but the specific task of removing safety devices falls under the purview of weapons personnel. Only senior personnel on special orders may have the authority to handle such tasks in exceptional circumstances.

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• 14.

• A.

Install shorting plugs and clips

• B.

Install mechanical safetying devices.

• C.

Remove all ammunition and explosives.

• D.

Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

C. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
Explanation
Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is important to ensure the safety of personnel and the hangar itself. Moving an aircraft with explosives and ammunition inside can pose a significant risk of accidental detonation or fire, which can cause severe damage and endanger lives. Therefore, removing all ammunition and explosives is a crucial step to mitigate these risks and ensure a safe environment.

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• 15.

### All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT form?

• A.

55

• B.

457

• C.

623

• D.

1297

A. 55
Explanation
The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the form specifically used for documenting composite material-related safety training. This form ensures that all necessary information regarding the training is recorded and can be easily accessed when needed. It helps maintain a comprehensive record of the safety training conducted, which is important for compliance and accountability purposes.

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• 16.

### The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

• A.

Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly.

• B.

• C.

Identify all possible sources of FOD

• D.

Educate all personnel

C. Identify all possible sources of FOD
Explanation
To develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step helps in understanding the different areas or activities where FOD can originate from, such as loose tools, debris, or equipment. By identifying these sources, appropriate measures can be taken to mitigate the risk of FOD and prevent its occurrence. This includes implementing proper tool control programs, following MAJCOM guidelines, and educating all personnel about FOD prevention. However, the initial step of identifying all possible sources is essential to lay the foundation for an effective FOD prevention program.

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• 17.

### Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

• A.

Logistics and operations group commanders.

• B.

Immediate supervisor

• C.

Wing commander.

• D.

Everyone

D. Everyone
Explanation
FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is the responsibility of everyone within an organization. It is not solely the responsibility of logistics and operations group commanders, immediate supervisors, or the wing commander. FOD prevention requires the active participation and vigilance of all individuals to ensure that foreign objects or debris are not left behind or introduced into areas where they can cause damage or safety hazards. Therefore, the correct answer is "Everyone."

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• 18.

### When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

• A.

Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

• B.

Wing vice commander

• C.

Group commander

• D.

Wing commander

A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
Explanation
The correct answer is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. These individuals are responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations and ensuring that all tools and equipment are properly accounted for. As the lowest person authorized to clear a red X, they have the authority to declare a tool as lost and initiate the necessary procedures to locate it. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher positions and responsibilities, but they may not have direct involvement in day-to-day maintenance operations and tool tracking.

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• 19.

### In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

• A.

The FOD prevention office.

• B.

The operations commander.

• C.

The flight safety officer.

• D.

QA

D. QA
Explanation
QA stands for Quality Assurance. In most units, the Quality Assurance department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. They are in charge of ensuring that all procedures and processes are being followed correctly to maintain quality and safety standards. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it is important to identify the cause of the incident and take corrective actions to prevent any future occurrences.

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• 20.

### The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

• A.

Red markings

• B.

Black markings

• C.

Green markings

• D.

Orange markings

C. Green markings
Explanation
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the green markings. The green markings indicate the optimal pressure range for the fire extinguisher to effectively discharge its contents. If the pressure falls below or exceeds this range, the fire extinguisher may not function properly, making it less effective in extinguishing fires. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the gauge needle remains within the green markings to maintain the fire extinguisher's functionality and safety.

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• 21.

### Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

Explanation
The correct answer is a 20-foot radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is necessary to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if mishandled or if there is a leak or explosion. By maintaining a 20-foot radius, the risk of injury or exposure to nitrogen is minimized for those who are not directly involved in the process.

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• 22.

### Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

• A.

Operations

• B.

The aircrew

• C.

Supervision

• D.

The ground crew

B. The aircrew
Explanation
The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the duty of the pilots and other crew members on board the aircraft to conduct a thorough preflight check before takeoff. This includes checking various systems, instruments, and equipment to ensure they are in proper working order and ready for the flight. The aircrew is trained and qualified to perform these checks and is ultimately responsible for the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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• 23.

### When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself even with the

• A.

Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

• B.

Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

• C.

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

• D.

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

D. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.
Explanation
When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This position allows you to have a clear view of the engine and any potential fire hazards, while also maintaining a safe distance from the engine exhaust. Being at a 45-degree angle outboard ensures that you are not directly in the path of the engine exhaust, which can be dangerous.

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• 24.

### What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?

• A.

AFI 23-106

• B.

AFI 11-218

• C.

TO 00-25-172

• D.

TO00-25-212

B. AFI 11-218
Explanation
AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is the reference that covers internationally accepted hand signals. The other references listed, AFI 23-106, TO 00-25-172, and TO 00-25-212, do not specifically cover hand signals.

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• 25.

### During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

• A.

Supervisor or vehicle operator.

• B.

Supervisor or brake operator.

• C.

Supervisor of wing walkers.

• D.

Supervisor only

D. Supervisor only
Explanation
The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This is important to ensure that proper communication and coordination is maintained to prevent any accidents or mishaps during the movement of the aircraft. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the entire operation and has the authority to give instructions and make decisions regarding the tow.

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• 26.

### What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

• A.

Departmental, intermediate, and field.

• B.

Organizational , field, and intermediate.

• C.

Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

• D.

Departmental, organizational, and depot.

C. Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
Explanation
The correct answer is organizational, intermediate, and depot. This is because organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. Intermediate maintenance is the next level, which involves more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that cannot be performed at the organizational level. Depot maintenance is the highest level, where major repairs, overhauls, and upgrades are conducted at specialized facilities.

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• 27.

### What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

• A.

Unscheduled.

• B.

Preventive

• C.

Corrective

• D.

Protective

B. Preventive
Explanation
Preventive maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need by conducting regular inspections, routine cleaning, and replacing worn-out parts before they fail. This proactive approach helps to prevent unexpected breakdowns and reduces the risk of equipment failure, ensuring that it remains in optimal condition and ready for use when required. By implementing preventive maintenance, organizations can minimize downtime, improve equipment reliability, and extend the lifespan of their assets.

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• 28.

### Objective of the MDD system include

• A.

Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

• B.

Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

• C.

Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

• D.

Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

D. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
Explanation
The objective of the MDD system is to collect, store, and retrieve base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database or repository, and be able to access and retrieve that data when needed. The system does not just call or save the data, but it also collects and stores it for future use. Therefore, the correct answer is collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

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• 29.

### What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?

• A.

Damaged and spare items.

• B.

Expired and outdated items.

• C.

Recurring and repeat replacement items.

• D.

Select serially controlled and time change items.

D. Select serially controlled and time change items.
Explanation
The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information system database. This means that the system is responsible for accurately recording and tracking items that are serially controlled, meaning they have unique serial numbers, and items that require time-based changes or replacements. This information is crucial for effective maintenance and inventory management.

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• 30.

### What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

• A.

781A

• B.

781F

• C.

781H

• D.

781J

B. 781F
Explanation
The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

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• 31.

### The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder

• A.

Before the first flight of the day.

• B.

Before each thru flight inspection,.

• C.

After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

• D.

After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.

C. After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.
Explanation
The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to document maintenance actions and inspections on an aircraft. It is important to remove the form from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing because this indicates that the maintenance action or inspection has been completed and documented. Removing the form from the binder ensures that it is not mistakenly reused or overlooked, and helps to maintain accurate and up-to-date records of maintenance activities.

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• 32.

• A.

781G

• B.

781J

• C.

781M

• D.

781P

B. 781J
• 33.

### Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

• A.

Base supply coordinator.

• B.

Critical item liaison.

• C.

Equipment liaison.

• D.

Item managers.

D. Item managers.
Explanation
Item managers determine which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting. They are responsible for managing and overseeing the inventory of specific items, including determining which items require historical reporting. The item managers have the knowledge and expertise to assess the importance and relevance of each item, and they make informed decisions based on factors such as usage, demand, and criticality. The other options, such as the base supply coordinator, critical item liaison, and equipment liaison, may have different roles and responsibilities, but they do not have the authority to determine the need for historical reporting for specific items.

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• 34.

### The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the

• A.

MAJCOM level.

• B.

Wing level

• C.

Base level

• D.

Unit level

D. Unit level
Explanation
The correct answer is unit level because the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources at the unit level. This means that it is designed to track and manage maintenance activities, resources, and personnel at the individual unit level, such as a squadron or a specific operational unit. It allows for efficient planning, scheduling, and execution of maintenance tasks, ensuring that resources are effectively utilized and maintenance operations are optimized.

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• 35.

### The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

• A.

Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

• B.

Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

• C.

Helping evaluate the training of new personnel.

• D.

Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

D. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
Explanation
The training management subsystem is designed to assist trainers and supervisors in various tasks related to personnel training. One of these tasks is forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that the subsystem helps in predicting future training needs and organizing the schedule accordingly. By doing so, it ensures that the right personnel are identified and allocated for training programs. This helps in optimizing training resources and ensuring that the training needs of the organization are met efficiently.

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• 36.

### The GAS is normally sent out

• A.

• B.

• C.

Within 10 work days after graduation

• D.

Within 10 calendar days after graduation

Explanation
The correct answer is 90 days after graduation. This means that the GAS (presumably referring to some sort of document or form) is typically sent out 90 days after a person has graduated. This allows for a sufficient amount of time for the necessary paperwork or processing to be completed before sending out the document.

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• 37.

### Where can you find a list of training courses available for and AFSC?

• A.

CFETP, Part I.

• B.

AFJQS

• C.

Command JQS

• D.

CFETP,Part II.

D. CFETP,Part II.
Explanation
CFETP, Part II is the correct answer because the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). Part II of the CFETP specifically provides a list of training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, if someone is looking for a list of training courses available for a specific AFSC, they should refer to CFETP, Part II.

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• 38.

### When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your traing program?

• A.

Within 60 of arrival

• B.

• C.

Within 10 work days after graduation

• D.

Within 10 calendar day after graduation

A. Within 60 of arrival
Explanation
The correct answer is "Within 60 of arrival." This means that the initial evaluation should be completed within 60 days of the individual's arrival. This is important to assess their progress and performance early on in the training program. It allows for timely feedback and adjustments to be made if necessary.

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• 39.

### The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

• A.

• B.

• C.

Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

• D.

Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

D. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
Explanation
The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This is because the TBA (Training Business Area) provides Air Force personnel with access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It allows them to view and track their progress in various training courses and certifications. This visibility helps in ensuring that personnel are up to date with the required qualifications and certifications for their roles in the Air Force.

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• 40.

### Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

• A.

Training

• B.

Aircraft

• C.

Reference

• D.

Operational.

C. Reference
Explanation
The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it contains resources that are used for general information and background knowledge rather than for immediate and up-to-date information. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries which require the latest information for specific purposes, the reference library is focused on providing a comprehensive collection of materials that can be consulted for general reference purposes.

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• 41.

### What is the total number of AF catalogs?

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

3

• D.

4

A. 1
Explanation
The question is asking for the total number of AF catalogs. The given answer is 1, indicating that there is only one AF catalog.

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• 42.

### Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

• A.

Trouble

• B.

Remedy

• C.

Section II

• D.

Probable Cause

B. Remedy
Explanation
The Remedy column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses. This column provides solutions or steps to be taken in order to address a particular issue or problem. It presents the recommended course of action and also includes alternative responses or options that can be considered. By referring to the Remedy column, users can find the appropriate instructions to resolve a specific troubleshooting situation.

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• 43.

### What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page?

• A.

Record

• B.

Urgent action

• C.

Routine action

• D.

Immediate action

B. Urgent action
Explanation
The TCTO identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page is the one that requires "Urgent action". The red diagonals and Xs serve as a visual indicator that this TCTO is of high priority and immediate attention is required.

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• 44.

### Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?

• A.

00-1-01

• B.

00-5-1

• C.

00-20 series

• D.

00-25 series

B. 00-5-1
Explanation
The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22. The other options, 00-1-01, 00-20 series, and 00-25 series, do not specifically address the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22.

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• 45.

### Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?

• A.

Waiver.

• B.

Urgent

• C.

Routine

• D.

Emergency

B. Urgent
Explanation
The TO improvement report type that requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency is "Urgent". This report type signifies that immediate action is required to address the deficiency and prevent any negative impact on operational efficiency.

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• 46.

### Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

• A.

Directory

• B.

Pamphlet

• C.

Instruction

• D.

Supplement

B. Pamphlet
Explanation
A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that can cite forms and provide guidance on completing them, but it does not have the authority to enforce what is on the form. Unlike an instruction, which can provide specific guidelines and enforce compliance, a pamphlet serves as an informational resource that offers suggestions and recommendations without any binding power. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer in this context.

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• 47.

### Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

• A.

B-1

• B.

B-2

• C.

B-4

• D.

B-5

B. B-2
Explanation
The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

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• 48.

• A.

B-1

• B.

B-2

• C.

B-4

• D.

C-1

C. B-4
• 49.

### What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

• A.

7,000

• B.

8,000

• C.

9,000

• D.

10,000

B. 8,000
Explanation
The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

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• 50.

### On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is

• A.

10 MPH

• B.

15 MPH

• C.

20 MPH

• D.

25 MPH

C. 20 MPH
Explanation
The maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH. This means that the trailer can be safely towed at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour when driving in a straight line. Going beyond this speed may compromise the stability and control of the trailer, posing a potential risk to the vehicle and its occupants.

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• Current Version
• Mar 19, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Nov 12, 2014
Quiz Created by
Shalewis22

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