2A6X1 Self Test (Mfe)

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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 1,786
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2A6X1 Quizzes & Trivia

Self test study guide


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What form is used to recomend improvements to TO's

    • A.

      Dd form 1575

    • B.

      Dd form 1574

    • C.

      AFTO form 22

    • D.

      AFTO form 20

    Correct Answer
    C. AFTO form 22
    Explanation
    AFTO form 22 is the correct answer because it is the form used to recommend improvements to Technical Orders (TO's). This form allows individuals to provide feedback and suggestions for improving the TO's, ensuring that they are up to date and effective. It is important to use the correct form for this purpose to ensure that the recommendations are properly documented and considered for implementation.

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  • 2. 

    What are the results of an improved TO recommendation?

    • A.

      Corrects an error

    • B.

      Inserts an omitted fact

    • C.

      Standardizes improved procedures for all personel air force wide

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The results of an improved TO recommendation include correcting errors, inserting omitted facts, and standardizing improved procedures for all personnel air force wide. This means that by implementing an improved TO recommendation, any errors in the existing procedures can be corrected, any important facts that were previously omitted can be added, and the procedures can be standardized to ensure consistency and efficiency across all personnel in the air force. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above".

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  • 3. 

    What is the ET&D program?

    • A.

      An integration of hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic process to qualify and monitor engine health

    • B.

      To diagnose monitor and qaulify engine health

    • C.

      To prevent unnecessary part and engine changes

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. An integration of hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic process to qualify and monitor engine health
    Explanation
    The ET&D program is an integration of hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes that are used to qualify and monitor the health of an engine. This program aims to diagnose, monitor, and qualify the engine's health, ensuring that any potential issues are detected and addressed promptly. By implementing this program, unnecessary part and engine changes can be prevented, saving time and resources.

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  • 4. 

    What is the primary goal of the ET&D program?

    • A.

      Predict, detect, and conduct pre-emptive maintenace of adver trends

    • B.

      To prevent/limit damage to turbine engines by early detection of performance degradation/ failures

    • C.

      Forecast time and material requirements days or weeks in advance to minimize ENMCS rates and maintenance man hours

    • D.

      Reduce shop flow days and increase serviceable spare engine levels

    Correct Answer
    B. To prevent/limit damage to turbine engines by early detection of performance degradation/ failures
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by early detection of performance degradation or failures. This means that the program aims to identify any issues or potential problems with the engines as early as possible in order to take appropriate action and prevent further damage or failures. By detecting these issues early on, the program can ensure that the engines are operating at their optimal level and minimize the risk of any significant damage or failures occurring.

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  • 5. 

    How do flightline personnel use ET&D data?

    • A.

      Increase average ETOW by eliminating time based removals

    • B.

      Reduce life costs and improve reliability by improved measurement of life used on critical components

    • C.

      Module matching

    • D.

      By collecting raw engine data and transferring it to the base maintenance shop for analysis

    Correct Answer
    D. By collecting raw engine data and transferring it to the base maintenance shop for analysis
    Explanation
    Flightline personnel use ET&D (Engine Trend and Diagnostics) data by collecting raw engine data and transferring it to the base maintenance shop for analysis. This allows for the identification of any potential issues or abnormalities in the engine's performance, which can then be addressed and resolved by the maintenance team. By analyzing the data, flightline personnel can ensure that the engines are operating optimally and make any necessary adjustments or repairs to improve reliability and reduce life costs. Module matching, increasing average ETOW, and eliminating time-based removals are not mentioned in relation to the use of ET&D data by flightline personnel.

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  • 6. 

    How do depot and product center engineers and technicians utilize the ET&D program?

    • A.

      To determine if maintenance must be performed before the next flight and/or before next engine change

    • B.

      To develop engine trend data and provide support to field users by diagnosing engine performance problems

    • C.

      Collecting raw engine data and transferring it to the base engine maintenance shop foe analysis

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. To develop engine trend data and provide support to field users by diagnosing engine performance problems
    Explanation
    Depot and product center engineers and technicians utilize the ET&D program to develop engine trend data and provide support to field users by diagnosing engine performance problems. This means that they use the program to collect and analyze raw engine data, identify any issues or trends in engine performance, and offer assistance to users in resolving these problems. This helps in ensuring the optimal functioning of the engines and identifying any maintenance or repair requirements before the next flight or engine change.

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  • 7. 

    What is the ET&D program designed to determine?

    • A.

      To obtain status, condition, and location or aircraft engines

    • B.

      If mantenance must be performed before the next flight and/or before the next engine change

    • C.

      Predict, and conduct pre-emptive maintenance analysis of adverse trends

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. If mantenance must be performed before the next flight and/or before the next engine change
    Explanation
    The ET&D program is designed to determine if maintenance must be performed before the next flight and/or before the next engine change. This program helps in assessing the status, condition, and location of aircraft engines, as well as predicting and conducting pre-emptive maintenance analysis of adverse trends.

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  • 8. 

    What advantage does steel tubing have over aluminum tubing?

    • A.

      It can withstand rough handling and high pressure

    • B.

      It is less vulnerable to corrosion

    • C.

      Steel is easier to to bend with out kinks

    • D.

      Steel has a higher tolerance of heat

    Correct Answer
    A. It can withstand rough handling and high pressure
    Explanation
    Steel tubing has an advantage over aluminum tubing because it can withstand rough handling and high pressure. This means that steel tubing is more durable and can be used in applications where it may be subjected to rough treatment or exposed to high levels of pressure. Aluminum tubing, on the other hand, may be more prone to damage in such conditions.

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  • 9. 

    Why are flexible hoses used instead or metal tubing in some applications?

    • A.

      Hoses can be easily fitted to fit an area or application where needed

    • B.

      Metal tubing is subject to corrosion where flexible hoses are not

    • C.

      Hoses are especially suitable where a great amount of flexibility is needed and where lines are subject to vibration

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Hoses are especially suitable where a great amount of flexibility is needed and where lines are subject to vibration
    Explanation
    Flexible hoses are used instead of metal tubing in some applications because they can be easily fitted to fit an area or application where needed. Additionally, hoses are especially suitable where a great amount of flexibility is needed and where lines are subject to vibration. Metal tubing is subject to corrosion, whereas flexible hoses are not. Therefore, all of the above reasons contribute to the use of flexible hoses in certain applications.

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  • 10. 

    Why should the radii on a hose be bent as large as possible?

    • A.

      To avoid kinking of the line

    • B.

      To allow for strength of the bend

    • C.

      To provide an uninterupted flow of fluids through the hose

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. To avoid kinking of the line
    Explanation
    To avoid kinking of the line, the radii on a hose should be bent as large as possible. This is because a larger bend radius reduces the risk of the hose becoming twisted or folded, which can restrict or block the flow of fluids through the hose. By ensuring a larger bend radius, the hose can maintain a smooth and uninterrupted flow, preventing any potential damage or obstruction.

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  • 11. 

    What is used to identify hose and tubing system after installation?

    • A.

      Numbering

    • B.

      Name of substance flowing through

    • C.

      Name of componet attatched to hose

    • D.

      Color coded bands

    Correct Answer
    D. Color coded bands
    Explanation
    Color coded bands are used to identify hose and tubing systems after installation. These bands are typically placed on the hoses or tubing and are assigned specific colors that correspond to different types of substances or components. This helps in easily identifying and distinguishing between different hoses and tubing systems, ensuring proper usage and maintenance.

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  • 12. 

    What size fitting should be used for a piece of tubing that is 5/8 inch?

    • A.

      Number 10

    • B.

      Number 11

    • C.

      Number 12

    • D.

      Number 13

    Correct Answer
    A. Number 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Number 10 because the question is asking for the size fitting that should be used for a piece of tubing that is 5/8 inch. Number 10 is the closest option to 5/8 inch, indicating that it is the appropriate size fitting for the tubing.

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  • 13. 

    What type of connectors can be used in any system no matter what what the pressure is?

    • A.

      Flared

    • B.

      Sleeve

    • C.

      Swage

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above types of connectors can be used in any system regardless of the pressure. Flared connectors are commonly used in high-pressure applications as they provide a tight and secure connection. Sleeve connectors are also suitable for high-pressure systems as they offer a reliable seal. Swage connectors are designed to withstand high pressures and are often used in hydraulic systems. Therefore, all three types of connectors can be used in any system, regardless of the pressure.

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  • 14. 

    What causes most nicks and scratches on engine plumbing?

    • A.

      Careless handling of tools during maintenance

    • B.

      Contamination of fluids

    • C.

      Wear metals

    • D.

      Engine plumbing not sealed properly

    Correct Answer
    A. Careless handling of tools during maintenance
    Explanation
    Careless handling of tools during maintenance can cause most nicks and scratches on engine plumbing. When tools are not handled properly, they can accidentally come into contact with the plumbing, leading to scratches or nicks. This can happen when tools are dropped, mishandled, or used with excessive force. Such damage can compromise the integrity of the plumbing system and may result in leaks or other issues. Therefore, it is important to exercise caution and proper tool handling techniques during maintenance to prevent these types of damages.

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  • 15. 

    How should dust covers be installed on open lines?

    • A.

      Over rather than in

    • B.

      In rather than over

    • C.

      Tape around

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Over rather than in
    Explanation
    Dust covers should be installed over open lines rather than in them. This means that the covers should be placed on top of the lines, rather than being inserted inside the lines. Installing the covers over the lines helps to provide a protective barrier against dust and other contaminants, preventing them from entering the lines and potentially causing damage or blockages.

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  • 16. 

    What is the allowable limit for a dent in a straight line?

    • A.

      Less than 20% of diameter and not on the heel of a short bend radius

    • B.

      Less than 25% of diameter and not on the heel of a short bend radius

    • C.

      Less than 30% of diameter and not on the heel of a short bend radius

    • D.

      Less than 50% of diameter and not on the heel of a short bend radius

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 20% of diameter and not on the heel of a short bend radius
    Explanation
    The allowable limit for a dent in a straight line is less than 20% of the diameter and not on the heel of a short bend radius. This means that any dent in a straight line should be smaller than 20% of the pipe's diameter and should not be located on the heel of a short bend radius. This is important because dents can weaken the structural integrity of the pipe and may lead to failure or leakage if they exceed the allowable limit.

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  • 17. 

    (core engine major module)Bleed air for use by the engine and aircraft is taken form which stages of the compressor assembly

    • A.

      5th stage

    • B.

      9th stage

    • C.

      5th and 9th stages

    • D.

      12th stage

    Correct Answer
    C. 5th and 9th stages
    Explanation
    The bleed air for use by the engine and aircraft is taken from the 5th and 9th stages of the compressor assembly. These stages are specifically designed to provide the necessary amount of air for various purposes such as cabin pressurization, anti-icing, and air conditioning. By taking air from these stages, the engine and aircraft can efficiently utilize the compressed air for different systems and functions, ensuring optimal performance and safety during flight.

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  • 18. 

    What is the purpose of an air duct through the inside diameter of the compressor rotor?

    • A.

      Forms a flow path for warming air

    • B.

      Allows excess air a path to escape

    • C.

      To pressurize the compressor

    • D.

      Forms a flow path for pressurizing and cooling air

    Correct Answer
    D. Forms a flow path for pressurizing and cooling air
    Explanation
    The purpose of an air duct through the inside diameter of the compressor rotor is to form a flow path for pressurizing and cooling air. This allows the air to be compressed and cooled as it passes through the rotor, which is essential for the efficient operation of the compressor. The air duct ensures that the air is properly pressurized and cooled before it moves on to the next stage of the compression process.

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  • 19. 

    What are the two purposes of the front stator case on the f108 engine?

    • A.

      To house stator vanes and enclose the compressor rotor

    • B.

      To direct air and enclose compressor rotor

    • C.

      To enclose stator vane assembly and increase pressue

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. To house stator vanes and enclose the compressor rotor
    Explanation
    The front stator case on the f108 engine serves two purposes. Firstly, it houses the stator vanes, which are stationary blades that help to redirect the airflow and improve the efficiency of the engine. Secondly, it encloses the compressor rotor, which is responsible for compressing the incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber. By enclosing the rotor, the front stator case helps to ensure that the compressed air is properly directed and contained within the engine.

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  • 20. 

    Which stator stages are housed in the rear stator assembly?

    • A.

      1st and 5th

    • B.

      5th and 10th

    • C.

      6th and 8th

    • D.

      10th and 12th

    Correct Answer
    C. 6th and 8th
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6th and 8th. These stages are housed in the rear stator assembly.

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  • 21. 

    What helps ensure long life for the combustion chamber?

    • A.

      Ceramic coating of the inner lining of the combustion chamber

    • B.

      The combustion chamber is film cooled by CDP air and has special coatings applied to the metal

    • C.

      Thickness or combustion chamber walls

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. The combustion chamber is film cooled by CDP air and has special coatings applied to the metal
    Explanation
    The combustion chamber is designed to have a long life by implementing two measures: film cooling with CDP air and applying special coatings to the metal. Film cooling involves directing a cool air flow over the surface of the combustion chamber to protect it from the high temperatures generated during combustion. Special coatings are applied to the metal surfaces to provide additional protection against heat, corrosion, and wear. These measures help ensure the longevity of the combustion chamber by reducing the effects of high temperatures and other damaging factors.

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  • 22. 

    How are HPT  nozzles cooled?

    • A.

      5th and 10th stage bleed air

    • B.

      By CDP air that bypasses the the combustion inner and outer liner

    • C.

      An air duct through the center of compressor

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. By CDP air that bypasses the the combustion inner and outer liner
    Explanation
    HPT (High Pressure Turbine) nozzles are cooled by CDP (Compressor Discharge Pressure) air that bypasses the combustion inner and outer liner. This means that the air used for cooling is taken from the compressor discharge and directed towards the HPT nozzles, bypassing the combustion chamber. This method helps to prevent overheating of the nozzles and ensures their proper functioning.

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  • 23. 

    Which part of the core engine major module is subjected to the most stress?

    • A.

      The HPT rotor assembly

    • B.

      The LPT rotor assembly

    • C.

      The compressor

    • D.

      The front stator case

    Correct Answer
    A. The HPT rotor assembly
    Explanation
    The HPT (High Pressure Turbine) rotor assembly is subjected to the most stress in the core engine major module. This is because the HPT rotor assembly operates at high temperatures and pressures, and it is responsible for extracting energy from the combustion gases to drive the high-pressure compressor and the fan. The HPT rotor assembly experiences high rotational speeds and is exposed to extreme heat and mechanical forces, making it the component that is most likely to be subjected to the highest levels of stress.

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  • 24. 

    How many stages of compression does the f100 have?

    • A.

      13

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      11

    Correct Answer
    A. 13
    Explanation
    The F100 has 13 stages of compression.

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  • 25. 

    Which stages of the turbine section drive the rear(n2) compressor?

    • A.

      1st and 2nd

    • B.

      5th and 6th

    • C.

      10th and 12th

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1st and 2nd
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1st and 2nd. In a turbine section, the stages are numbered from the front to the rear. The first and second stages of the turbine section are responsible for driving the rear (N2) compressor.

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  • 26. 

    What are the two advantages of the modular engine concept?

    • A.

      Eliminates the need to return engine to depot for overhaul, engine changes can be done faster

    • B.

      Makes the removal and replacements of parts faster

    • C.

      Engines can be serviced faster, and eliminates the need to return the entire engine to depot for overhaul

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Engines can be serviced faster, and eliminates the need to return the entire engine to depot for overhaul
    Explanation
    The modular engine concept offers two advantages. Firstly, it allows engines to be serviced faster as only the specific parts that require maintenance or replacement can be addressed, rather than the entire engine. Secondly, it eliminates the need to return the entire engine to the depot for overhaul, resulting in quicker turnaround times and reduced downtime for the engine.

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  • 27. 

    Where would you stand in reference to the engine to determine which direction the compressor is rotating?

    • A.

      Front facing rear towards the exhaust

    • B.

      Rear facing the intake

    • C.

      Right facing the exhaust

    • D.

      Left facing the intake

    Correct Answer
    B. Rear facing the intake
    Explanation
    To determine the direction of rotation of the compressor, you would stand at the rear of the engine, facing the intake. This is because the compressor is located at the front of the engine, and the intake is where air enters the engine. By standing at the rear and facing the intake, you can observe the direction in which the compressor blades are rotating.

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  • 28. 

    Why are directional references on the engine?

    • A.

      To know which direction internal parts are moving

    • B.

      To establish common points of reference on the engine

    • C.

      To establish safe areas around running engines

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. To establish common points of reference on the engine
    Explanation
    Directional references on the engine are used to establish common points of reference. This helps in identifying and locating specific parts or areas on the engine. By having a standardized system of directional references, it becomes easier for technicians and engineers to communicate and work on the engine. It also aids in troubleshooting and maintenance activities, as everyone involved can refer to the same points of reference when discussing or working on the engine.

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  • 29. 

    What is the purpose of external flanges on the engine?

    • A.

      Attach brackets

    • B.

      Attach external accessories

    • C.

      Attach support equipment

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    The purpose of external flanges on the engine is to serve multiple functions. They are used to attach brackets, which provide support and stability to various components of the engine. They also serve as attachment points for external accessories, such as air filters or cooling systems. Additionally, external flanges can be used to attach support equipment, such as lifting devices or diagnostic tools. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above" as external flanges serve all of these purposes.

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  • 30. 

    Which bearing is located in the diffuser case?

    • A.

      Rear compressor turbine front bearing

    • B.

      No. 3 bearing

    • C.

      No. 5 bearing

    • D.

      Rear compressor turbine rear bearing

    Correct Answer
    B. No. 3 bearing
    Explanation
    The bearing located in the diffuser case of a turbine engine is typically referred to as the "No. 3 bearing." This bearing plays a critical role in supporting the rotating components within the engine, facilitating smooth operation and proper alignment of the engine's components for efficient performance.

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  • 31. 

    Which t56 engine component controls the fuel enrichment valve?

    • A.

      Enrichment relay in the enrichment switch

    • B.

      Fuel control

    • C.

      TD amp

    • D.

      TD valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Enrichment relay in the enrichment switch
    Explanation
    The enrichment relay in the enrichment switch controls the fuel enrichment valve. This means that when the enrichment switch is activated, the relay sends a signal to the fuel enrichment valve to open, allowing more fuel to enter the engine. This can be useful in certain situations, such as during cold starts or when additional power is needed. The other options, fuel control, TD amp, and TD valve, do not directly control the fuel enrichment valve.

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  • 32. 

    Which t56 engine component acts with the td valve to control fuel flow during start to prevent overtemp and compressor surge?

    • A.

      Enrichment valve

    • B.

      Fuel control

    • C.

      TD amp

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Fuel control
    Explanation
    The fuel control component acts with the td valve to control fuel flow during start in order to prevent overtemp and compressor surge. It ensures that the correct amount of fuel is being delivered to the engine during the start-up process, preventing any potential damage or issues that could occur from an excessive fuel flow.

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  • 33. 

    The two elements of the t56 engine thermal couple assembly are connected to the switch components?

    • A.

      TIT system and TD amp

    • B.

      TIP system and TD amp

    • C.

      TIT system and TD valve

    • D.

      TIP system and TD valve

    Correct Answer
    A. TIT system and TD amp
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TIT system and TD amp. The TIT system refers to the turbine inlet temperature system, which measures the temperature of the air entering the turbine. The TD amp refers to the turbine discharge amplifier, which amplifies the signal from the TIT system. Therefore, the two elements of the t56 engine thermal couple assembly that are connected to the switch components are the TIT system and TD amp.

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  • 34. 

    On the t56 engine what happens to the fuel when it's bypassed the TD valve?

    • A.

      Nothing

    • B.

      Bypassed to the fuel nozzles

    • C.

      Bypassed back to the fuel pump

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Bypassed back to the fuel pump
    Explanation
    When the fuel is bypassed the TD (Turbine Discharge) valve on the T56 engine, it is redirected back to the fuel pump. This means that the fuel does not reach the fuel nozzles and instead returns to the pump.

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  • 35. 

    Which t56 TD component compares actual and scheduled TIT signals?

    • A.

      TD valve

    • B.

      Coordinator

    • C.

      TD amp

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. TD amp
    Explanation
    The TD amp (Throttle Deceleration amplifier) is the correct answer because it is the component that compares the actual and scheduled TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature) signals. The TD amp is responsible for adjusting the throttle position based on the comparison of these signals, ensuring that the turbine operates within safe temperature limits. The other options, TD valve and Coordinator, do not perform this specific function.

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  • 36. 

    On the t56 engine fuel nozzles, what type inspection is performed in addiion to the visual inspection?

    • A.

      Spray pattern field test

    • B.

      Mirror finish test

    • C.

      Nozzle clog test

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Spray pattern field test
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Spray pattern field test. In addition to visual inspection, a spray pattern field test is performed on the t56 engine fuel nozzles. This test helps to ensure that the fuel is being sprayed evenly and in the correct pattern. It is important to verify the spray pattern to ensure proper combustion and fuel efficiency.

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  • 37. 

    Why is the t56 oil tank pressurized?

    • A.

      Maintain pressure at altitude

    • B.

      Prevent from foaming

    • C.

      Keep oil circulating

    • D.

      Keep oil from settling

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent from foaming
    Explanation
    The t56 oil tank is pressurized to prevent foaming. When oil is agitated or subjected to high temperatures, it can create air bubbles or foam, which can negatively impact its lubricating properties. By pressurizing the oil tank, the air inside is compressed, reducing the likelihood of foaming. This ensures that the oil maintains its effectiveness in lubricating the engine components and prevents any potential damage that foaming could cause.

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  • 38. 

    What two types of gear pumps are used in the t56 oil system?

    • A.

      Filtered and non-filtered

    • B.

      Gravity and centrifugal

    • C.

      Dual spool and single spool

    • D.

      Pressure and scavenge

    Correct Answer
    D. Pressure and scavenge
    Explanation
    The T56 oil system uses pressure and scavenge gear pumps. Pressure pumps are responsible for supplying oil under pressure to various components of the system, while scavenge pumps are used to remove oil from different parts of the system and return it to the oil tank. These two types of gear pumps work together to ensure proper lubrication and cooling of the engine components in the T56 oil system.

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  • 39. 

    What is the purpose of the oil cooler?

    • A.

      Warm the air

    • B.

      Creat vacuum effect for augmentation

    • C.

      Cool the oil

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Cool the oil
    Explanation
    The purpose of the oil cooler is to cool the oil. This is important because oil can become hot and lose its effectiveness in lubricating and protecting the engine parts. By cooling the oil, the oil cooler helps to maintain its optimal viscosity and prevent overheating, ensuring that the engine operates smoothly and efficiently.

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  • 40. 

    Which part of the oil cooler valve senses oil temperature?

    • A.

      Thermostatic bypass valve

    • B.

      Temp bulb

    • C.

      Thermostat

    • D.

      Oil cooler bypass valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermostatic bypass valve
    Explanation
    The thermostatic bypass valve is responsible for regulating the flow of oil through the oil cooler based on the oil temperature. It senses the oil temperature and adjusts the valve accordingly to either allow or restrict the flow of oil through the cooler. This helps to maintain the optimal temperature of the oil and prevent overheating. The temp bulb, thermostat, and oil cooler bypass valve may have other functions in the oil cooling system, but they do not specifically sense the oil temperature like the thermostatic bypass valve does.

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  • 41. 

    Bleed air flowing through wich augmentation system component, creates a low pressure area in front of the oil cooler?

    • A.

      The injectors

    • B.

      The ejectors

    • C.

      Vacuum valve

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. The ejectors
  • 42. 

    In the power section pressure oil system, what directs oil onto the compressor extension shaft?

    • A.

      External lines

    • B.

      Internal lines

    • C.

      Drilled passageway

    • D.

      TIe bolt

    Correct Answer
    C. Drilled passageway
    Explanation
    In the power section pressure oil system, oil is directed onto the compressor extension shaft through a drilled passageway. This means that there is a specific pathway within the system that allows the oil to flow directly onto the shaft. This ensures that the oil reaches the desired component and provides lubrication and cooling as needed. External lines, internal lines, and tie bolts may play a role in the overall system, but they do not specifically direct oil onto the compressor extension shaft.

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  • 43. 

    Why is oil routed to the fuel heater and strainer?

    • A.

      To strain the oil

    • B.

      To strain the fuel

    • C.

      To heat the oil and cool the fuel

    • D.

      To heat the fuel and cool the oil

    Correct Answer
    D. To heat the fuel and cool the oil
    Explanation
    The oil is routed to the fuel heater and strainer in order to heat the fuel and cool the oil. This process helps to ensure that the fuel is at the optimal temperature for combustion, while also preventing the oil from overheating. By routing the oil through the fuel heater, it can be warmed up before it enters the engine, improving its efficiency. At the same time, the fuel is cooled down to prevent any potential issues that may arise from overheating.

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  • 44. 

    At what pressure are the RGB pressure and scavenge oil system relief valves set?

    • A.

      350psi

    • B.

      300psi

    • C.

      250psi

    • D.

      200psi

    Correct Answer
    C. 250psi
    Explanation
    The RGB pressure and scavenge oil system relief valves are set at a pressure of 250psi.

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  • 45. 

    What type of switch controls the anti-ice system on the f108?

    • A.

      Toggle

    • B.

      Push-pop

    • C.

      Push-pull

    • D.

      Push-push

    Correct Answer
    D. Push-push
    Explanation
    A push-push switch is the type of switch that controls the anti-ice system on the f108. This type of switch is designed to be pushed in and then pushed again to release, making it suitable for controlling the anti-ice system as it allows for easy activation and deactivation of the system.

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  • 46. 

    How is the anti-ice controlled and operated?

    • A.

      Electrically controlled and operated

    • B.

      Solonoid controlled and air operated

    • C.

      Electronically controlled air operated

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Solonoid controlled and air operated
    Explanation
    The correct answer is solenoid controlled and air operated. This means that the anti-ice system is controlled by solenoids, which are electromechanical devices that control the flow of air to the anti-ice system. The system operates using air pressure to activate and control the anti-ice functions.

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  • 47. 

    The thrust reverser control valve controls hydraulic power for actuating what component(s)?

    • A.

      The fan reverser

    • B.

      The core reverser

    • C.

      The fan and core reversers

    • D.

      The fan major module

    Correct Answer
    C. The fan and core reversers
    Explanation
    The thrust reverser control valve controls hydraulic power for actuating both the fan reverser and the core reverser.

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  • 48. 

    The operation of the control valve is in what three functional modes?

    • A.

      Stowed and locked, deployed

    • B.

      Stowed and locked, stowing

    • C.

      Stowed and locked, deploying

    • D.

      Stowed and locked, deploying and stowing

    Correct Answer
    D. Stowed and locked, deploying and stowing
    Explanation
    The control valve operates in three functional modes: stowed and locked, deploying, and stowing. In the stowed and locked mode, the valve is securely fastened and not in use. When deploying, the valve is being opened or activated to allow the flow of fluid or gas. Conversely, in the stowing mode, the valve is being closed or deactivated to stop the flow. Therefore, the correct answer is "Stowed and locked, deploying and stowing."

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  • 49. 

    The fan thrust reverser door upright and left sensors send a signal to which channel of EEC?

    • A.

      Channel A

    • B.

      Channel B

    • C.

      Channel C

    • D.

      Channel D

    Correct Answer
    A. Channel A
    Explanation
    The fan thrust reverser door upright and left sensors send a signal to Channel A of the EEC.

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  • 50. 

    The C-17 has how many fan blocker doors?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    D. 12
    Explanation
    The C-17 has 12 fan blocker doors.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 13, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Samh5112
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