2AX7X Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC Volume 2

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2AX7X Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC Volume 2 - Quiz

A practice test with all of the URE questions from Volume 2.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Training Detatchments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B.

      Air Training Command (ATC)

    • C.

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training Detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including both officer and enlisted members. TDs are specialized units that provide training in specific areas, such as technical skills or operational procedures. By being assigned to AETC, TDs can ensure that they are aligned with the overall training objectives and standards set by the command.

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  • 2. 

    Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?

    • A.

      Cross utilization training

    • B.

      Continuation training

    • C.

      Ancillary training

    • D.

      Formal training

    Correct Answer
    C. Ancillary training
    Explanation
    AETC training detachments typically do not provide ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the main or formal training provided by the detachments. Instead, AETC training detachments focus on providing formal training, which is the main and primary type of training. Cross utilization training refers to training in different specialties, continuation training refers to ongoing training to maintain proficiency, and formal training refers to structured and organized training programs.

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  • 3. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • A.

      Any 7-level course

    • B.

      Weight and Balance

    • C.

      Maintenance Orientation

    • D.

      General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course. This course provides an overview of maintenance operations and procedures, familiarizing individuals with the fundamental concepts and principles of maintenance. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a concentrated manner, allowing for efficient and focused learning. This approach is particularly suitable for the Maintenance Orientation course as it allows trainees to quickly grasp the essential knowledge and skills necessary for their maintenance roles.

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  • 4. 

    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      13

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    C. 13
    Explanation
    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to gain the necessary knowledge and skills required for A&P certification. A 13-month duration ensures that students have enough time to cover all the required coursework and practical training, ensuring they are well-prepared for their future careers in aviation maintenance.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • A.

      Specialty Training Standard

    • B.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • C.

      AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • D.

      AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
    Explanation
    The AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and is used to document and track their training history. It includes information such as the individual's personal data, training courses completed, and any additional qualifications or certifications. By using this form as a cover folder, all of an individual's training records can be organized and easily accessible in one place.

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  • 6. 

    All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular workcenter except

    • A.

      MAJCOMs

    • B.

      Supervisors

    • C.

      Commanders

    • D.

      Unit training managers

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit training managers
    Explanation
    The correct answer is unit training managers. Unit training managers do not designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular workcenter. MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders are responsible for identifying and designating critical tasks for specific AFSCs within their respective workcenters. Unit training managers are typically responsible for managing and coordinating training programs and schedules within a unit, but they do not have the authority to designate critical tasks.

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  • 7. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of higher grade?

    • A.

      Squadron operations officer

    • B.

      MAJCOM functional manager

    • C.

      Squadron commander (SQ/CC)

    • D.

      Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC has the authority to grant exceptions and allow individuals to perform tasks that are typically reserved for higher-ranking personnel. The MXG/CC's approval ensures that the individual is qualified and capable of performing the task at hand, even though they may not hold the higher grade typically required.

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  • 8. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • A.

      Chief master sergeant (CMSgt)

    • B.

      Senior master sergeant (SMSgt)

    • C.

      Master sergeant (MSgt)

    • D.

      Technical sergeant (TSgt)

    Correct Answer
    C. Master sergeant (MSgt)
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of master sergeant or higher are eligible to make the decision to downgrade a "Red-X" issue. Lower-ranking individuals, such as technical sergeants or staff sergeants, do not have the authority to make this decision.

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  • 9. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. This training phase consists of four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. These sub-phases likely represent different stages or components of the training program, with each phase serving a specific purpose or focusing on different skills or knowledge areas.

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  • 10. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

    • A.

      Maintenance qualification

    • B.

      Maintenance refresher

    • C.

      On-the-Job

    • D.

      Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications of maintenance personnel. It ensures that they stay up to date with the latest knowledge and skills required for their job. By regularly participating in continuation training, maintenance personnel can maintain their maintenance qualifications and stay proficient in their roles.

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  • 11. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the MTF updates the maintenance group commander on the current status of the training activities. This regular briefing allows the commander to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions related to the training program.

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  • 12. 

    An individual comes due for a trianing recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being on TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning to complete the recertification before decertification is required. This means that as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, the individual has a grace period of 30 days after returning to complete the recertification.

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  • 13. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Group commander

    • C.

      Unit training manager

    • D.

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).

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  • 14. 

    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

    • A.

      Evaluate training

    • B.

      Select training strategies

    • C.

      Determine training needs

    • D.

      Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves assessing the skills and knowledge gaps of the individuals or group that will undergo training. By identifying these needs, the training program can be tailored to address specific areas of improvement and ensure that the participants receive the necessary training to meet their objectives. This step is crucial in designing an effective and targeted training program that aligns with the identified needs of the trainees.

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  • 15. 

    In order to account for unfunded requirement and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that a certain portion of the manpower is allocated to handle tasks and requirements that are not directly funded or related to maintenance activities. This allows for flexibility in addressing unforeseen needs and ensuring that essential tasks are still carried out efficiently.

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  • 16. 

    Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • A.

      Support facilities

    • B.

      Support equipment

    • C.

      Operations requirements

    • D.

      Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. Weather conditions can have a significant impact on the operations of a logistics system, including transportation, scheduling, and resource allocation. Therefore, operations requirements would take into account weather modeling conditions to ensure that the logistics system can effectively operate under different weather scenarios.

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  • 17. 

    Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

    • A.

      Spare parts

    • B.

      Maintenance people

    • C.

      Training deployments

    • D.

      Aerospace ground equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Training deployments
    Explanation
    In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is not modeled is training deployments. LCOM is used to analyze and optimize the manpower requirements for a logistics organization by considering various factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment. However, training deployments, which involve the temporary assignment of personnel for training purposes, are not included in the model.

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  • 18. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • A.

      Funded

    • B.

      Unfunded

    • C.

      Unvalidated

    • D.

      Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations refer to the number of personnel that an organization is allowed to have. When these authorizations are funded, it means that the organization has allocated the necessary financial resources to support the authorized positions. This indicates that the organization has the means to hire and pay for the personnel required to fulfill its operations. Therefore, the correct answer is "funded."

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  • 19. 

    A unit manpower document (UMD) does not

    • A.

      Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position

    • B.

      Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • C.

      Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • D.

      Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    C. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document (UMD) does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position because it is a document that provides an overview of the manpower requirements and positions within a unit. It is not meant to track or display the specific individuals assigned to each position, but rather to provide information on the required grade, AF specialty code (AFSC), and other details related to the positions within the unit.

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  • 20. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because holding meetings on a monthly basis allows for regular updates and discussions on manning issues within the maintenance group. This frequency strikes a balance between having too frequent meetings that may not provide enough time for meaningful progress, and having too infrequent meetings that may result in delayed decision-making and problem-solving. Monthly meetings ensure that relevant information is shared, and necessary actions can be taken in a timely manner to address any manning issues within the MXG.

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  • 21. 

    Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsiblity (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?

    • A.

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    • B.

      Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center (MOC)

    • D.

      Programs and Resources Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Data System Analysis (MDSA) office acts as the Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals. This means that they are responsible for analyzing and evaluating maintenance data to identify trends, issues, and potential improvements. They play a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are efficient and effective. The MDSA office is likely staffed with experts who have the knowledge and skills to analyze and interpret maintenance data accurately. They would work closely with other maintenance groups and provide recommendations based on their analysis.

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  • 22. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • A.

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B.

      Maintenance supply support

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center

    • D.

      Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a link between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available to support maintenance activities. They also work to resolve any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring that maintenance operations can continue smoothly.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • A.

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • B.

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • C.

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • D.

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that would typically fall under the responsibilities of a Maintenance Supply Liaison.

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  • 24. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how may days?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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  • 25. 

    How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Biennially

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) on an annual basis. This means that once a year, these commands need to assess and evaluate the readiness spares packages to ensure they are up to date and in good condition. This regular review helps to maintain the effectiveness and reliability of the RSPs, ensuring that they are readily available and operational when needed.

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  • 26. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

    • A.

      XF3

    • B.

      XD2

    • C.

      XD1

    • D.

      XB3

    Correct Answer
    D. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3. The XB3 code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be consumed or used up during its normal use. This code also indicates that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it cannot be repaired or reused once it is used up. Additionally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is not reparable, meaning it cannot be fixed or restored to its original condition once it is used up. Therefore, an asset must have the XB3 code assigned to it before it can be placed on a bench stock.

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  • 27. 

    Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    C. 90
    Explanation
    The shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage because having excessive stock can lead to various problems. It can tie up a significant amount of capital, increase storage costs, and risk spoilage or obsolescence. Additionally, excessive stock can indicate poor inventory management and can hinder cash flow. Therefore, it is important to maintain a balance between having enough stock to meet customer demand and avoiding excessive inventory levels.

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  • 28. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    You are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date items that have a shelf life (type II) as long as they are still serviceable.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • A.

      Oil sheen on standing water

    • B.

      Stressed vegetation

    • C.

      Stains on ground water

    • D.

      Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    D. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors other than pollution. It could be due to the presence of minerals, sediment, or air bubbles in the water. Pollution indicators such as oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on groundwater are more directly linked to pollution sources and are therefore considered more obvious signs of pollution.

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  • 30. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Section supervisor

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    B. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for overseeing the safety and well-being of the personnel in their section and ensuring that they are aware of any potential hazards. The operations officer may have a role in overall safety management, but the specific responsibility for developing the HAZCOM training plan falls to the section supervisor. The squadron commander and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and guidance roles, but the direct responsibility lies with the section supervisor.

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  • 31. 

    In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?

    • A.

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) commander

    • B.

      MXG Vice commander

    • C.

      MXG superintendent

    • D.

      MXG commander

    Correct Answer
    D. MXG commander
    Explanation
    The MXG commander is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance within the Maintenance Group (MXG). As the overall leader of the MXG, the commander has the authority and responsibility to ensure that the necessary procedures and controls are in place to support maintenance operations. This includes overseeing the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items to ensure they meet the required standards and specifications. The MXG commander's role is crucial in maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of the maintenance group.

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  • 32. 

    Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

    • A.

      MXG commander

    • B.

      MXG Superintendent

    • C.

      MXG vice commander

    • D.

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This role involves overseeing the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, including coordinating resources and ensuring that the necessary capabilities are in place to meet manufacturing requirements. The MXS Operations Officer/MX SUPT plays a crucial role in ensuring that the maintenance group is able to meet the specific manufacturing needs of the local area.

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  • 33. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • A.

      Section supervisor

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D.

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the squadron commander is responsible for the overall management and operations of the squadron, including the appointment and delegation of various roles and responsibilities within the squadron. The equipment account custodian is responsible for the proper management and accountability of equipment within the squadron, and it is the squadron commander's responsibility to designate someone for this role.

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  • 34. 

    An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      IIB

    • D.

      IIA

    Correct Answer
    C. IIB
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IIB. This block of supply training is necessary for an individual to receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

    • A.

      Silver

    • B.

      Copper

    • C.

      Iridium

    • D.

      Rhodium

    Correct Answer
    B. Copper
    Explanation
    The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as Silver, Iridium, and Rhodium. However, Copper is not included in the program.

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  • 36. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metals?

    • A.

      P

    • B.

      A

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      G

    Correct Answer
    B. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The reason is that the question is asking for the Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) that indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metals. Since A is the only option provided and there is no information given about any other possible codes, we can conclude that A is the correct answer.

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  • 37. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      G

    • D.

      P

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. The PMIC codes are used to classify and identify different types of precious metals in supply items. Code C specifically signifies a combination of multiple precious metals, distinguishing it from other codes that may indicate single precious metals or other characteristics of the item.

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  • 38. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    B. D04, Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps track of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy reference and tracking of supply transactions. The other options listed are not specifically designed for tracking document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 39. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This report is produced daily and it lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This means that it prioritizes the parts that are urgently needed and are currently on back-order, ensuring that they are given immediate attention and action to fulfill the need.

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  • 40. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    C. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
    Explanation
    The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps track and monitor the effectiveness of supply support within an organization, including the management of issue and bench stock supplies. It provides valuable information for management to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of their supply chain operations.

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  • 41. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • A.

      Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • B.

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • C.

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • D.

      Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with handling and tracking these assets, ensuring they are properly maintained and available for use when needed. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same role and responsibilities as the ELO in regards to SPRAM assets.

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  • 42. 

    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    D. A
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares is A.

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  • 43. 

    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares is F.

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  • 44. 

    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • A.

      Flight commander/chief

    • B.

      Maintenance Group commander

    • C.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

    • D.

      Operations Officer/maintenance superintendant (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They have the responsibility and expertise to ensure that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet the necessary standards for functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. The Flight commander/chief, Maintenance Group commander, and Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent may have oversight and input in the process, but the LRS Chief Inspector has the ultimate authority in this matter.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, callibration, or operational flight programming?

    • A.

      Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    • B.

      LRS Chief Inspector

    • C.

      Maintenance Group commander

    • D.

      Flight commander/Chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Group commander
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group commander is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. The Maintenance Group commander is responsible for overseeing the overall maintenance operations and ensuring the readiness of the aircraft, but they are not directly involved in the specific tasks mentioned in the question. This responsibility falls on the Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT), LRS Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/Chief, who are more closely involved in the day-to-day maintenance activities.

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  • 46. 

    Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?

    • A.

      Aircraft commander

    • B.

      Host installation commander

    • C.

      Operations Group commander

    • D.

      Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft. As the person in charge of the aircraft, they have the responsibility to ensure the safety and security of the assets on board. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the security measures needed at different locations based on their assessment of the risks involved. The other commanders mentioned may have their own areas of responsibility, but the final decision lies with the aircraft commander.

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  • 47. 

    Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

    • A.

      Nearest military installation

    • B.

      Local law enforcement

    • C.

      Aircraft commander

    • D.

      Local fire chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander is entrusted with the overall safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes ensuring the protection and safeguarding of classified equipment to prevent unauthorized access or tampering. The aircraft commander would coordinate with relevant authorities, such as local law enforcement or military personnel, for additional support if needed, but ultimately holds the primary responsibility for the security of the classified equipment.

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  • 48. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange arrange for securtiy checks to be accomplished every

    • A.

      Hour

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      3 hours

    • D.

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft when it is unattended. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or any potential threats to the aircraft. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, the owner or user can promptly identify and address any security concerns that may arise during their absence.

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  • 49. 

    What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The appropriate supply delivery priority for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing would be priority 3. This priority indicates that the supplies should be delivered within 72 hours. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the supplies to be transported and distributed to the necessary locations without causing any immediate disruption to the mission.

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  • 50. 

    What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 5

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Loiraburra226
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