2AX7X Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC Volume 2

100 Questions

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2AX7X Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC Volume 2

A practice test with all of the URE questions from Volume 2.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Training Detatchments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B. 

      Air Training Command (ATC)

    • C. 

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

  • 2. 
    Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?
    • A. 

      Cross utilization training

    • B. 

      Continuation training

    • C. 

      Ancillary training

    • D. 

      Formal training

  • 3. 
    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
    • A. 

      Any 7-level course

    • B. 

      Weight and Balance

    • C. 

      Maintenance Orientation

    • D. 

      General Technical Order System

  • 4. 
    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?
    • A. 

      11

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      13

    • D. 

      14

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?
    • A. 

      Specialty Training Standard

    • B. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • C. 

      AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • D. 

      AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

  • 6. 
    All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular workcenter except
    • A. 

      MAJCOMs

    • B. 

      Supervisors

    • C. 

      Commanders

    • D. 

      Unit training managers

  • 7. 
    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of higher grade?
    • A. 

      Squadron operations officer

    • B. 

      MAJCOM functional manager

    • C. 

      Squadron commander (SQ/CC)

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)

  • 8. 
    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
    • A. 

      Chief master sergeant (CMSgt)

    • B. 

      Senior master sergeant (SMSgt)

    • C. 

      Master sergeant (MSgt)

    • D. 

      Technical sergeant (TSgt)

  • 9. 
    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 10. 
    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
    • A. 

      Maintenance qualification

    • B. 

      Maintenance refresher

    • C. 

      On-the-Job

    • D. 

      Ancillary

  • 11. 
    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 12. 
    An individual comes due for a trianing recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 13. 
    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Operations officer

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Unit training manager

    • D. 

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

  • 14. 
    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to
    • A. 

      Evaluate training

    • B. 

      Select training strategies

    • C. 

      Determine training needs

    • D. 

      Determine training capabilities

  • 15. 
    In order to account for unfunded requirement and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 16. 
    Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?
    • A. 

      Support facilities

    • B. 

      Support equipment

    • C. 

      Operations requirements

    • D. 

      Maintenance requirements

  • 17. 
    Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?
    • A. 

      Spare parts

    • B. 

      Maintenance people

    • C. 

      Training deployments

    • D. 

      Aerospace ground equipment

  • 18. 
    Manpower authorizations are
    • A. 

      Funded

    • B. 

      Unfunded

    • C. 

      Unvalidated

    • D. 

      Both funded and unfunded

  • 19. 
    A unit manpower document (UMD) does not
    • A. 

      Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position

    • B. 

      Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • C. 

      Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • D. 

      Show the required grade for a particular position

  • 20. 
    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Semiannually

  • 21. 
    Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsiblity (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?
    • A. 

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    • B. 

      Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations center (MOC)

    • D. 

      Programs and Resources Flight

  • 22. 
    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B. 

      Maintenance supply support

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations center

    • D. 

      Maintenance data system analysis

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    • A. 

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • B. 

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • C. 

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • D. 

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

  • 24. 
    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how may days?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      90

  • 25. 
    How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Biennially

  • 26. 
    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
    • A. 

      XF3

    • B. 

      XD2

    • C. 

      XD1

    • D. 

      XB3

  • 27. 
    Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 28. 
    Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    • A. 

      Oil sheen on standing water

    • B. 

      Stressed vegetation

    • C. 

      Stains on ground water

    • D. 

      Cloudy water

  • 30. 
    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
    • A. 

      Operations officer

    • B. 

      Section supervisor

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Squadron safety monitor

  • 31. 
    In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) commander

    • B. 

      MXG Vice commander

    • C. 

      MXG superintendent

    • D. 

      MXG commander

  • 32. 
    Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
    • A. 

      MXG commander

    • B. 

      MXG Superintendent

    • C. 

      MXG vice commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

  • 33. 
    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
    • A. 

      Section supervisor

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D. 

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

  • 34. 
    An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      IIB

    • D. 

      IIA

  • 35. 
    Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?
    • A. 

      Silver

    • B. 

      Copper

    • C. 

      Iridium

    • D. 

      Rhodium

  • 36. 
    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metals?
    • A. 

      P

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      G

  • 37. 
    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      G

    • D. 

      P

  • 38. 
    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

  • 39. 
    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

  • 40. 
    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

  • 41. 
    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    • A. 

      Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • B. 

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • C. 

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • D. 

      Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

  • 42. 
    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
    • A. 

      F

    • B. 

      D

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      A

  • 43. 
    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?
    • A. 

      F

    • B. 

      D

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      A

  • 44. 
    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    • A. 

      Flight commander/chief

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group commander

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

    • D. 

      Operations Officer/maintenance superintendant (MX SUPT)

  • 45. 
    Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, callibration, or operational flight programming?
    • A. 

      Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    • B. 

      LRS Chief Inspector

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group commander

    • D. 

      Flight commander/Chief

  • 46. 
    Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Aircraft commander

    • B. 

      Host installation commander

    • C. 

      Operations Group commander

    • D. 

      Mission Support Group commander

  • 47. 
    Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?
    • A. 

      Nearest military installation

    • B. 

      Local law enforcement

    • C. 

      Aircraft commander

    • D. 

      Local fire chief

  • 48. 
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange arrange for securtiy checks to be accomplished every
    • A. 

      Hour

    • B. 

      2 hours

    • C. 

      3 hours

    • D. 

      4 hours

  • 49. 
    What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 50. 
    What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 51. 
    Which urgency justification code (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
    • A. 

      1A or JA

    • B. 

      AR or BR

    • C. 

      AA or AM

    • D. 

      BM or CM

  • 52. 
    Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
    • A. 

      LRS Flight Service Center

    • B. 

      MXG Quality Assurance

    • C. 

      MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis

    • D. 

      LRS material management element

  • 53. 
    What is the accountability document used for supply points that shows the quantitiy authorized, on-hand, and due-out?
    • A. 

      Supply Point Listing

    • B. 

      Qualified Reference List

    • C. 

      Repair Cycle Asset Management list

    • D. 

      Custodian authorization/ custody receipt listing

  • 54. 
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
    • A. 

      Operations Officer

    • B. 

      Aircraft Section flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • D. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU's) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section

  • 55. 
    When a back-ordered item issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify then
    • A. 

      Operations Officer

    • B. 

      Aircraft section flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • D. 

      AMU's PS&D

  • 56. 
    When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?
    • A. 

      Security classification

    • B. 

      Date received

    • C. 

      Status

    • D. 

      Noun

  • 57. 
    When the goal is to get a refund or new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    • A. 

      Deficiency Report (DR)

    • B. 

      Supply Discrepancy Report

    • C. 

      Maintenance cross-tell report

    • D. 

      Product Quality Deficiency Report

  • 58. 
    Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?
    • A. 

      Originator

    • B. 

      Action Point

    • C. 

      Screening Point

    • D. 

      Originating Point

  • 59. 
    Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    • A. 

      Originator

    • B. 

      Action Point

    • C. 

      Screening Point

    • D. 

      Originating Point

  • 60. 
    Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?
    • A. 

      Manuals

    • B. 

      Instructions

    • C. 

      Policy Directives

    • D. 

      Technical Orders

  • 61. 
    Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Squadron commander

    • B. 

      MXG Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

    • C. 

      MXG Superintendent (MXG SUPT)

    • D. 

      MXG Commander (MXG/CC)

  • 62. 
    Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
    • A. 

      Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

    • B. 

      Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

    • C. 

      Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

    • D. 

      Resolving TO availability problems

  • 63. 
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance

    • B. 

      Engine Management

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D. 

      Maintenance Data System Analysis

  • 64. 
    Which of the following is not a TO change priority category?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Standard

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 65. 
    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what TO change priority?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Standard

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 66. 
    Who is the final approval authority for waivers of TO system policies and procedures?
    • A. 

      HQ ACC/A4MT

    • B. 

      HQ AFMC/A4YE

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/A4MN

    • D. 

      HQ AFMC/A4BM

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations?
    • A. 

      Telephone

    • B. 

      Signed Letter

    • C. 

      Organizational email

    • D. 

      Defense Message System

  • 68. 
    If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)

    • D. 

      Plans, scheduling, and documentations (PS&D)

  • 69. 
    For a unit using the extended CANN cycle, the standard time frime for having an aircraft down is
    • A. 

      30-45 days

    • B. 

      45-60 days

    • C. 

      60-75 days

    • D. 

      75-90 days

  • 70. 
    How are radiographic inpsections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboritory classified?
    • A. 

      Safe

    • B. 

      Shielded

    • C. 

      Unshielded

    • D. 

      Unacceptable

  • 71. 
    When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?
    • A. 

      Compass rose

    • B. 

      Hot cargo pad

    • C. 

      Radiographic inspection

    • D. 

      Radar operational testing

  • 72. 
    "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except
    • A. 

      Priority of actions

    • B. 

      A sense of urgency

    • C. 

      An approved MXG TO compliance waiver

    • D. 

      Specific local procedures

  • 73. 
    During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediter have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to
    • A. 

      Verify time change parts

    • B. 

      Check supply delivery priorities

    • C. 

      Reduce the time needed to research parts

    • D. 

      Provide contact information for key personnel

  • 74. 
    Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?
    • A. 

      US Army

    • B. 

      US Air Force

    • C. 

      Federal Aviation Administration

    • D. 

      National Transport Safety Board

  • 75. 
    Who appoints an officer or NCO as the MXG Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?
    • A. 

      MXG commander

    • B. 

      MXG Superintendent

    • C. 

      MXG Vice Commander

    • D. 

      MXS Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

  • 76. 
    What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?
    • A. 

      Aircraft

    • B. 

      Specialist

    • C. 

      Aircrew and maintenance debrief

    • D. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

  • 77. 
    Who is the office of primary responsiblity (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Wing Vice Commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander

  • 78. 
    In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 79. 
    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      11

  • 80. 
    In the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what does the third character "J" identify?
    • A. 

      Unit

    • B. 

      Base

    • C. 

      Shop

    • D. 

      Specific tool

  • 81. 
    Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?
    • A. 

      Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    • B. 

      Flight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) commander

    • C. 

      Flight or AMU chief

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 82. 
    Who is the QA Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
    • A. 

      Wing Inspector General

    • B. 

      MAJCOM Inspector General

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

    • D. 

      QA Officer in Charge/ Superintendent

  • 83. 
    Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as QA inspectors?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 84. 
    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?
    • A. 

      Minor

    • B. 

      Major

    • C. 

      Category I

    • D. 

      Category II

  • 85. 
    What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    • A. 

      Special inspection

    • B. 

      Personnel Evaluation

    • C. 

      Management Inspection

    • D. 

      Quality Verification Inspection

  • 86. 
    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
    • A. 

      Maintenance Flight

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance section

    • C. 

      Engine Management section

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

  • 87. 
    The Wing FOD monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 88. 
    What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a FOD incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?
    • A. 

      $10,000

    • B. 

      $20,000

    • C. 

      $30,000

    • D. 

      $40,000

  • 89. 
    What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?
    • A. 

      Take-off to landing

    • B. 

      Taxi-out to taxi-in for final park

    • C. 

      Engine start to engine shut down

    • D. 

      Crew-show until aircraft released to maintainers

  • 90. 
    A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
    • A. 

      AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting

    • B. 

      AFI 10-2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals

    • C. 

      AFI 91-224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports

    • D. 

      AFI 91-221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports

  • 91. 
    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
    • A. 

      AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance

    • B. 

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • C. 

      AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing

    • D. 

      AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

  • 92. 
    The maximum total initial duty time that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of unterrupted rest is
    • A. 

      14 hours

    • B. 

      16 hours

    • C. 

      18 hours

    • D. 

      20 hours

  • 93. 
    Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility for the MXG's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instruction?
    • A. 

      Fabrication flight

    • B. 

      Accessories flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance flight

    • D. 

      AGE flight

  • 94. 
    How often must the Team Chief for the CDDAR Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Semiannually

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 95. 
    After initial training, how often must CDDAR Team member receive additional academic and hands-on training?
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Biennially

  • 96. 
    Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Maganize?
    • A. 

      AF Electronic Publishing (AF e-Pubs)

    • B. 

      ADLS

    • C. 

      AF IT E-Learning

    • D. 

      AF Center of Excellence for Knowledge Management

  • 97. 
    Which AF Portal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF computer systems?
    • A. 

      AEF Online

    • B. 

      AF Center for Electronic Distribution of Systems (AFCEDS)

    • C. 

      AF IT E-Learning

    • D. 

      AFKM

  • 98. 
    Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew team member is support of aircraft generation planning?
    • A. 

      MXS Operations Officer

    • B. 

      MXS production superintendent

    • C. 

      Wing Weapons Manager

    • D. 

      Munitions leadership

  • 99. 
    You are primarily concerned with answering the question "What steps need to be taken?" during which aircraft generation planning area?
    • A. 

      Aircraft generation timing

    • B. 

      Aircraft generation actions

    • C. 

      Aircraft generation action timing

    • D. 

      Aircraft generation flow sequence

  • 100. 
    You are primarily concerned with the question "How long does each step or group of steps take?" during which aircraft generation planning area?
    • A. 

      Aircraft generation flow sequence

    • B. 

      Aircraft generation timing

    • C. 

      Aircraft generation actions

    • D. 

      Aircraft generation action timing