CDC 2A651 Self Test EOC Pre-test
TanEOC PRE TEST
Questions and Answers
- 1.
001. Functions within the maintenance complexWhich squadrons form the MXG?
- A.
QA,MOS,MXS,AMXS
- B.
MXS,EMS,CMS,QA
- C.
EMS,AMXS,QA,MOS
- D.
QA,MXG,AMXS,EMS
Correct Answer
A. QA,MOS,MXS,AMXSExplanation
The correct answer is QA, MOS, MXS, AMXS. This answer is correct because the MXG (Maintenance Group) consists of various squadrons responsible for different aspects of maintenance. QA (Quality Assurance) ensures that maintenance procedures and standards are met. MOS (Maintenance Operations Squadron) oversees the overall maintenance operations. MXS (Maintenance Squadron) performs maintenance tasks on aircraft and equipment. AMXS (Aircraft Maintenance Squadron) is responsible for specific aircraft maintenance. Therefore, these squadrons form the MXG.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Ding001. Functions within the maintenance complexIf you are assigned to a specialist flight in the aircraft maintenance squadron,which engine tasks may you be required to accomplish?
- A.
Depot level maintenace
- B.
Moduler replacement
- C.
Isochronal/Phase Inspection
- D.
Isochronal/Moduler Inspection
Correct Answer
C. Isochronal/Phase InspectionExplanation
If you are assigned to a specialist flight in the aircraft maintenance squadron, you may be required to accomplish Isochronal/Phase Inspection tasks. This type of inspection involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems and components at regular intervals, usually every 400-600 flight hours. It includes checking and testing various systems, replacing worn-out parts, and ensuring that the aircraft is in compliance with maintenance and safety standards. This inspection is crucial for identifying and addressing any potential issues or defects in the aircraft to ensure its continued airworthiness and safe operation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
001. Functions within the maintenance complexWhat does the fourth position of the AFSC 3A652 represent?
- A.
Jet Engine
- B.
Skill Level
- C.
Career field
- D.
Aircraft propulsion systems
Correct Answer
B. Skill LevelExplanation
The fourth position of the AFSC 3A652 represents the skill level. This indicates the level of proficiency and experience that an individual has in their career field. It helps to determine the responsibilities and tasks that they are qualified to perform within the maintenance complex.Rate this question:
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- 4.
003. work area safety and maintenance accountabilityWhat series of AFOSH standars govern occupational safety?
- A.
95-1
- B.
91-1
- C.
90-5
- D.
91-3
Correct Answer
B. 91-1Explanation
The correct answer is 91-1. AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health, and the series of AFOSH standards that govern occupational safety is 91-1. These standards provide guidelines and regulations to ensure the safety and well-being of workers in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 5.
004. Flightling safety hazardsWhich aircraft fomrs should you check for entries that may prevent you from starting yuor assigned task?
- A.
781A,781H
- B.
781K,781A
- C.
781H,781J
- D.
781J,781A
Correct Answer
A. 781A,781HExplanation
You should check the 781A and 781H forms for entries that may prevent you from starting your assigned task.Rate this question:
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- 6.
004. Flightling safety hazardsWhat are the three types of equipment that produce radio frequency radiation?
- A.
Electronic countermeasure,radio equipment,resonater
- B.
Radar,resonater,headset
- C.
Radio equipment,resonater,Radar
- D.
Radar,electronic countermeasure,radio equipment
Correct Answer
D. Radar,electronic countermeasure,radio equipmentExplanation
The correct answer is Radar, electronic countermeasure, and radio equipment. These three types of equipment produce radio frequency radiation. Radar is used for detecting the presence, direction, distance, and speed of aircraft, ships, and other objects. Electronic countermeasure refers to systems used to jam or disrupt enemy radar and communication systems. Radio equipment includes any devices that transmit or receive radio signals, such as radios, transmitters, and antennas. These three types of equipment are commonly used in aviation and can potentially emit radio frequency radiation, which can pose safety hazards if not properly managed.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Why should personnel exercise caution when approching the plane of roatation of a helicopters main rotor blades?
- A.
They droop at decreased speeds
- B.
The blades are lower to the ground than they appear
- C.
A change in wind can alter blade angle
- D.
They both droop and raise at decreased speeds
Correct Answer
A. They droop at decreased speedsExplanation
Personnel should exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of a helicopter's main rotor blades because they droop at decreased speeds. This means that as the helicopter slows down, the blades can sag or droop closer to the ground, increasing the risk of contact with personnel or objects on the ground. This can pose a serious safety hazard, so it is important for personnel to be aware of this behavior and exercise caution when near the helicopter's rotor blades.Rate this question:
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- 8.
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear
- B.
15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear
- C.
10 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear
Correct Answer
A. 20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rearExplanation
The propeller's axis of rotation extends 20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear. This means that the propeller's rotation reaches 20 feet in front of the propeller and extends 15 feet behind it.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Where can you find a block by block explanation on how to document the AFTO from 350 tag?
- A.
TO-00-20-0
- B.
TO-00-20-1
- C.
TO-00-20-2
- D.
TO-OO-21-101
Correct Answer
C. TO-00-20-2Explanation
TO-00-20-2 is the correct answer because it is the technical order that provides a block by block explanation on how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag. The other options listed do not specifically address this topic.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the purpose of DD form 1577?
- A.
Suspended tag
- B.
Serviceable
- C.
Unservicable(condemned)
- D.
Unservicable(repairable)
Correct Answer
C. Unservicable(condemned)Explanation
The purpose of DD form 1577 is to identify and document items that are unserviceable and condemned. This form is used to track and manage these items, ensuring that they are properly disposed of or replaced. By marking an item as unserviceable (condemned) on this form, it indicates that it is no longer usable and should not be put back into service.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Within what timeframe must all Category II DRs be forwarded?
- A.
2 workday(48hours)
- B.
1 workday(24hours)
- C.
3 workdays(72hours)
- D.
Within 1 hour
Correct Answer
C. 3 workdays(72hours)Explanation
All Category II DRs must be forwarded within 3 workdays (72 hours). This means that any DR falling under Category II should be reported and sent to the appropriate department or personnel within three workdays from the time it was identified. This timeframe allows for a reasonable amount of time to investigate and address the issue while ensuring timely communication and resolution.Rate this question:
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- 12.
If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
- A.
23-110
- B.
23-254
- C.
91-110
- D.
91-254
Correct Answer
A. 23-110Explanation
The answer 23-110 refers to a specific code or entry in the AF IMT 2005. To understand the meaning or details of this code, one should refer to the AFMAN 23-110 document. This document likely provides information or instructions related to the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Within how many hours must a category I DR be forwarded to the screening point
- A.
8
- B.
24
- C.
12
- D.
72
Correct Answer
B. 24Explanation
A category I DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This time frame ensures that any potential security threats or issues can be promptly addressed and resolved. By forwarding the DR within 24 hours, the screening point can take appropriate actions to mitigate any risks and maintain the safety and security of the area.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which form is attached to items that are awaiting maintenance
- A.
DD Form 1575
- B.
DD Form 1574
- C.
DD Form 1577-2
- D.
DD Form 1577-3
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 1575Explanation
DD Form 1575 is the correct answer because it is the form that is attached to items that are awaiting maintenance. This form is used to track and document the status of items that are in need of maintenance or repair. It provides information such as the item's identification, condition, and the reason it requires maintenance. By using this form, the maintenance personnel can easily keep track of the items that are awaiting maintenance and ensure that they are addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 15.
To become an equipment custodian who must you be appointed by?
- A.
Shop chief
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Supply chief
- D.
Commander
Correct Answer
D. CommanderExplanation
To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. The commander is the person who has the authority to appoint individuals to specific roles and responsibilities within an organization. As an equipment custodian, it is crucial to have the trust and approval of the commander, as they are ultimately responsible for the proper management and maintenance of equipment. Therefore, being appointed by the commander ensures that the individual has the necessary authorization and accountability to fulfill the duties of an equipment custodian.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How can a TCTO be quickly identified?
- A.
By the #501 or higher
- B.
By the #500 and lower
- C.
By the #100and lower
- D.
By the #200-#300
Correct Answer
A. By the #501 or higherExplanation
A TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) can be quickly identified by the number #501 or higher. This suggests that TCTOs are numbered in a sequential order, and any TCTO with a number higher than 501 would be considered as a quick identifier. It is likely that the numbering system used for TCTOs follows a specific pattern or hierarchy, with #501 or higher indicating a more recent or important TCTO.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What does the second part of the TO number give you?
- A.
TO classification
- B.
Type of equipment TO
- C.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- D.
Model and series for equipment in the TO
Correct Answer
D. Model and series for equipment in the TOExplanation
The second part of the TO number gives you the model and series for equipment in the TO. This means that by looking at the second part of the TO number, you can determine the specific model and series of the equipment that the TO pertains to.Rate this question:
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- 18.
021. Reliability centered maintenanceWhat are the two classifications of failurs?
- A.
Potential and functional
- B.
Functional and hidden
- C.
Evident and potential
- D.
Functional and evident
Correct Answer
A. Potential and functionalExplanation
The two classifications of failures in reliability centered maintenance are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or function of the system.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of maitenance does depot perform?
- A.
Engine/component overhaul
- B.
Isochronal inspection
- C.
Off equipment maintenance
- D.
Phase inspection
Correct Answer
A. Engine/component overhaulExplanation
Depot maintenance performs engine/component overhaul. This type of maintenance involves disassembling, inspecting, repairing, and reassembling engines or components to ensure they are functioning properly. It is a comprehensive maintenance process that aims to extend the lifespan and performance of the equipment. Isochronal inspection, off equipment maintenance, and phase inspection are other types of maintenance activities that may be performed by depot, but the correct answer specifically refers to engine/component overhaul.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the purpose of the AFTO IMT 95?
- A.
A way of routing TO changes
- B.
Record insignificant historical data
- C.
To process engine data times and updates
- D.
Record significant historical data
Correct Answer
D. Record significant historical dataExplanation
The purpose of the AFTO IMT 95 is to record significant historical data. This form is used to document important information about an event or maintenance action, such as the date, location, and details of the event. It serves as a record for future reference and analysis, allowing maintenance personnel to track and assess the history of an aircraft or equipment.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
- A.
Field maintenance
- B.
Depot Maintenance
- C.
Engine trending and diagnostics
- D.
Engine life-cycle management planning
Correct Answer
B. Depot MaintenanceExplanation
Depot Maintenance supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability. This means that when base-level technicians encounter complex or difficult repairs that they are unable to handle, Depot Maintenance steps in to assist and complete the necessary repairs. They have the expertise and resources to handle more advanced repairs and ensure that the equipment or machinery is functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 22.
You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO forms?
- A.
25
- B.
44
- C.
95
- D.
349
Correct Answer
C. 95Explanation
The correct answer is 95. AFTO Form 95 is used to record the removal and replacement of engine accessories. This form is specifically designed for documenting maintenance actions on aircraft engines. It provides a standardized format to track and record the details of accessory removal and replacement, ensuring proper documentation and maintenance history for the engine.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What should you do with your toolbox when it is not in use?
- A.
Accountability
- B.
Lock box
- C.
Accountability & lock box
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Accountability & lock boxExplanation
When your toolbox is not in use, it is important to practice accountability by keeping track of it and ensuring it is stored securely. This can be done by using a lock box, which provides an additional layer of protection against theft or unauthorized access. By combining accountability and a lock box, you can ensure that your toolbox is properly stored and protected when it is not being used.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What kind of views are available with the distal tip of the rigid borescope?
- A.
Only a lateral view
- B.
Only a Direct view
- C.
Up to 45 degrees
- D.
A direct view or lateral view
Correct Answer
D. A direct view or lateral viewExplanation
The distal tip of the rigid borescope allows for both a direct view and a lateral view. This means that the user can either look directly ahead or to the side when using the borescope. This versatility in viewing angles allows for a wider range of inspection and examination possibilities, making the rigid borescope a useful tool in various industries such as automotive, aviation, and manufacturing.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What type of pin is used in joints that carry chear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
- A.
Tapered pins
- B.
Flathead pins
- C.
Cotter pin
- D.
Roll pins
Correct Answer
A. Tapered pinsExplanation
Tapered pins are used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential. Tapered pins have a gradual decrease in diameter along their length, allowing them to fit tightly into the holes of the joint. This tight fit ensures that the joint remains stable and can withstand shear forces without any movement or play. The absence of clearance is important in these joints to maintain the structural integrity and prevent any unwanted movement or shifting.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What type of pin is used in conjuction with a cotter pin?
- A.
Roll pin
- B.
Flathead pin
- C.
Tapered pin
- D.
Semi tapered pin
Correct Answer
B. Flathead pinExplanation
A flathead pin is used in conjunction with a cotter pin. A flathead pin has a flat, broad head that provides a larger surface area for the cotter pin to secure against. This design helps to prevent the cotter pin from slipping out of place and ensures a more secure connection.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How many braids should be left on the braid when cutting off excess lockwire?
- A.
8-10
- B.
12-16
- C.
10-15
- D.
16-20
Correct Answer
D. 16-20 -
- 28.
What size fitting should be used for a piece of tubing that is 5/8 inch?
- A.
Size 8
- B.
Size 4
- C.
Size 10
- D.
Size 6
Correct Answer
A. Size 8Explanation
The correct answer is size 8 because a piece of tubing that is 5/8 inch in size requires a fitting that matches its size. Therefore, size 8 is the appropriate fitting for this tubing.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What is the maximum distance a hose can go without support?
- A.
24 Inches
- B.
6 Inches
- C.
12 Inches
- D.
8 Inches
Correct Answer
A. 24 InchesExplanation
The maximum distance a hose can go without support is 24 inches. This means that the hose can extend up to 24 inches without needing any additional support or attachment.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What must you do if you must torque a sequence of 3 or more bolts?
- A.
Use maximum torque
- B.
Overtorque,loosen, and re tourqe
- C.
Use a staggered sequence
- D.
Torque from left to right
Correct Answer
C. Use a staggered sequenceExplanation
When torquing a sequence of 3 or more bolts, it is important to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of torquing the bolts in a straight line from left to right or right to left, you should alternate between bolts in a diagonal pattern. This helps to distribute the torque evenly and prevent any uneven tightening or stress on the bolts. Using a staggered sequence is a common practice in order to ensure proper and balanced torquing of multiple bolts.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance beetween the center of the square drive and the center of what part?
- A.
Lock
- B.
Grip
- C.
Shaft index line
- D.
Broached opening
Correct Answer
B. GripExplanation
The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the grip. The grip is the part of the tool that the user holds onto while applying torque. By measuring the distance between the square drive and the grip, the appropriate length of the torque extension can be determined to ensure proper torque application.Rate this question:
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- 32.
How is the light transmitted to the tip of a borescope?
- A.
Light is transfered to the tip of the borescope by the fiber optics
- B.
Light is transfered to the tip of the borescope by the light guide cable
- C.
Light is transfered to the tip of the borescope by the distal tip light guides
- D.
Light is transfered to the tip of the borescope by the bending section lever
Correct Answer
A. Light is transfered to the tip of the borescope by the fiber opticsExplanation
The light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope through fiber optics. Fiber optics are thin, flexible strands of glass or plastic that can transmit light over long distances without significant loss of intensity. In a borescope, the fiber optics are typically bundled together and housed within the insertion tube. The light enters the borescope through a light source, travels through the fiber optic bundle, and is then emitted at the tip of the borescope, illuminating the area being inspected. This method allows for efficient and effective transmission of light in a compact and flexible design.Rate this question:
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- 33.
040.Why is it important to have a clean container to catch the oil when checking the main oil filter for contamination?
- A.
No contamination could exist resulting in false readings
- B.
There might be residual oil in the bucket already
- C.
Oil filter can fall and become damaged if bucket is not in place
- D.
There might be contamination in the bucket already
Correct Answer
D. There might be contamination in the bucket alreadyExplanation
Having contamination in the bucket already is important to consider when checking the main oil filter for contamination because it can lead to inaccurate readings. If there is already contamination present in the bucket, it could be mistakenly attributed to the oil filter, giving a false indication of its condition. Therefore, ensuring a clean container is necessary to accurately assess the contamination level of the oil filter.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Why should you never stack engine parts with precision finishes on concrete floors?
- A.
Parts can fall and cause components to become faulty
- B.
Parts can fall and cause damage internally
- C.
It can cause damage to the integrity of the finish
- D.
The temperature of the concrete floors erode the precision finishes
Correct Answer
C. It can cause damage to the integrity of the finishExplanation
Stacking engine parts with precision finishes on concrete floors can cause damage to the integrity of the finish. Concrete floors are hard and rough, which can lead to scratches, dents, or other forms of damage on the precision finishes of the engine parts. This can compromise the quality and functionality of the finishes, potentially affecting the performance of the engine. Therefore, it is important to avoid stacking these parts on concrete floors to maintain the integrity of the finish and ensure the optimal functioning of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What fluid is used to preserve the oil system beetween 45 and 180 days?
- A.
Mil L 6081(grade 1010)
- B.
Mil L 6081(grade 2010)
- C.
Mil L 1020(grade 6081)
- D.
Mil L 8160(grade 0102)
Correct Answer
A. Mil L 6081(grade 1010) -
- 36.
What TO gives the procedures for cleaning a jet engine?
- A.
TO 2J-1-13
- B.
TO 2J-3-31
- C.
TO 1F-16cg-2
- D.
TO-2J-2-12
Correct Answer
A. TO 2J-1-13Explanation
The correct answer is TO 2J-1-13. This is because TO stands for Technical Order, which is a publication used by the military to provide instructions and procedures for various tasks. In this case, TO 2J-1-13 specifically provides the procedures for cleaning a jet engine. Therefore, it is the most relevant and appropriate answer.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the maintenance platforms is not adjustable?
- A.
C-1
- B.
B-5
- C.
C-10
- D.
B-4
Correct Answer
A. C-1Explanation
The given question asks which maintenance platform is not adjustable. The answer is C-1. This means that maintenance platform C-1 cannot be adjusted.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What does newons first law of motion state?
- A.
For every acting force, there is an equal and opposite reacting force
- B.
An unbalance force on a body produces or tends to produe an acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any is directly proportional t the force and inverself proportioanal to the mass.
- C.
A body at rest reamins at rest and a body in motion continues to move at a constant speed in a straight line
- D.
When the speed of a stream of gas increases, the pressure of the gas decreases,and when the speed of the gas decreases,the presure increases.
Correct Answer
C. A body at rest reamins at rest and a body in motion continues to move at a constant speed in a straight lineExplanation
The given answer correctly states Newton's first law of motion, also known as the law of inertia. This law states that an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will continue moving at a constant speed in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force. This law highlights the concept of inertia, which is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is Newtons second law of motion?
- A.
A body at rest reamins at rest and a body in motion continues to move at a constant speed in a straight line
- B.
For every acting force, there is an equal and opposite reacting force
- C.
When the speed of a stream of gas increases, the pressure of the gas decreases,and when the speed of the gas decreases,the presure increases.
- D.
An unbalance force on a body produces or tends to produe an acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any is directly proportional t the force and inverself proportioanal to the mass.
Correct Answer
D. An unbalance force on a body produces or tends to produe an acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any is directly proportional t the force and inverself proportioanal to the mass.Explanation
Newton's second law of motion states that an unbalanced force acting on an object will cause the object to accelerate in the direction of the force. The acceleration of the object is directly proportional to the force applied and inversely proportional to the mass of the object. In other words, the greater the force applied to an object, the greater the acceleration, and the smaller the mass of the object, the greater the acceleration for a given force.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which Jet engine section produces the large volumes of air required for the production of thrust?
- A.
Compressor
- B.
Turbine
- C.
Diffuser
- D.
Combustion
Correct Answer
A. CompressorExplanation
The compressor section of a jet engine is responsible for producing the large volumes of air required for the production of thrust. It compresses incoming air, increasing its pressure and density before it enters the combustion chamber. This compressed air is then mixed with fuel and ignited, creating a high-pressure and high-temperature gas that is expelled through the turbine section, generating thrust. The compressor plays a crucial role in the overall performance and efficiency of the jet engine.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What type of fuel do todays jet engines use?
- A.
JP-8
- B.
JP-7
- C.
JP-5
- D.
JP-6
Correct Answer
A. JP-8Explanation
Jet engines today primarily use JP-8 fuel. JP-8 is a kerosene-based fuel that is commonly used in military aircraft. It has a high energy density and a low freezing point, making it suitable for use in a wide range of operating conditions. JP-8 also has additives that enhance its performance and stability, such as corrosion inhibitors and anti-icing agents. Overall, JP-8 is the preferred fuel for modern jet engines due to its reliability, efficiency, and compatibility with various aircraft systems.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What instrument is used to measure barometric pressure?
- A.
Weather balloon
- B.
Barometer
- C.
Potentiometer
- D.
Pyrometer
Correct Answer
B. BarometerExplanation
A barometer is used to measure barometric pressure. Barometric pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the atmosphere on a given area. A barometer typically consists of a sealed glass tube filled with mercury or aneroid capsules that expand or contract with changes in air pressure. By measuring the height of the mercury column or the movement of the aneroid capsules, the barometer can provide an accurate measurement of atmospheric pressure. This measurement is important in weather forecasting and can help predict changes in weather patterns.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the sea-level atmoshperic pressure at "standard day" conditions?
- A.
13.5psi
- B.
14.7psi
- C.
49.94psi
- D.
40.55psi
Correct Answer
B. 14.7psiExplanation
At "standard day" conditions, the sea-level atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7psi. This value is considered as the average atmospheric pressure at sea level under normal conditions.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The heat content per one pound of kerosene is how many Btu's?
- A.
10,500
- B.
15,000
- C.
18,500
- D.
40,000
Correct Answer
C. 18,500Explanation
Kerosene has a heat content of 18,500 Btu's per pound. This means that when one pound of kerosene is burned, it releases 18,500 British Thermal Units (Btu's) of heat energy.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which engine component meter fuel for combustion?
- A.
P&D valve
- B.
Fuel pump
- C.
Fuel control
- D.
Fuel nozzles
Correct Answer
C. Fuel controlExplanation
The fuel control is responsible for metering fuel for combustion in the engine. It regulates the flow of fuel into the engine based on various factors such as engine speed, load, and temperature. By accurately controlling the fuel flow, the fuel control ensures that the engine receives the correct amount of fuel for efficient and optimal combustion. This helps in maintaining engine performance, fuel efficiency, and emissions control.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What directes gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?
- A.
Turbine stator
- B.
Turbine wheel blades
- C.
Combustion chamber
- D.
Flameholder
Correct Answer
A. Turbine statorExplanation
The turbine stator directs gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine. It is responsible for guiding the flow of gases from the combustion chamber towards the turbine blades, where the gases expand and generate power to drive the engine. The stator ensures that the gases are directed with precision onto the turbine blades, optimizing the efficiency and performance of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 47.
209. Jet engine overview and early air compressorsThe 3 major sections of all jet engines are compressor,combustion and
- A.
Diffuser
- B.
Turbo
- C.
Turbine
- D.
Exhaust
Correct Answer
C. TurbineExplanation
The correct answer is turbine because it is one of the three major sections of all jet engines, along with the compressor and combustion sections. The turbine is responsible for extracting energy from the high-velocity gas produced by the combustion process and using it to drive the compressor and other engine accessories.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What two forces are air subject to after it is drawn into the guide vane of a centrifigal compressor?
- A.
Rotational and centrifugal
- B.
Rotational and tangential
- C.
Tangential and centrifugal
- D.
Tangential and radial
Correct Answer
A. Rotational and centrifugalExplanation
After air is drawn into the guide vane of a centrifugal compressor, it is subjected to two forces: rotational force, which causes the air to move in a circular motion, and centrifugal force, which pushes the air away from the center of rotation. These forces are important in the operation of the compressor as they help in compressing the air and increasing its pressure.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is a contructional feature of the impeller incorporated in the centrifugual compressor?
- A.
The impeller has two matching plates
- B.
The impeller has a lightweight design
- C.
The impeller is a forged single unit
- D.
The impeller is constructed in rows of blades and stators
Correct Answer
C. The impeller is a forged single unitExplanation
The correct answer is that the impeller is a forged single unit. This means that the impeller is made from a single piece of material that has been forged, or shaped, into its final form. This constructional feature ensures that the impeller is strong and durable, as there are no joints or seams that could potentially weaken the structure. Additionally, being a single unit helps to improve the overall efficiency and performance of the centrifugal compressor.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Why is the forward end of the shaft on a centrifigual compressor hollow?
- A.
It is hollow in order to act as a vibration damper
- B.
It allows cooling air to the turbine
- C.
It is hollow in order to provide a passage for lubricating oil
- D.
It is hollow in order to provide a passage for the main fuel supply
Correct Answer
D. It is hollow in order to provide a passage for the main fuel supplyExplanation
The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to provide a passage for the main fuel supply. This allows the fuel to be delivered to the combustion chamber where it can be ignited to produce the necessary power for the compressor. Without this hollow passage, the fuel would not be able to reach the combustion chamber, rendering the compressor ineffective.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 26, 2010Quiz Created by
Matthewbrattin30
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