CDC 2AX5X - Aerospace Maintenance Journeyman

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  • 1/348 Questions

    The three states of matter are

    • Liquids, gasses, and minerals
    • Gasses, solids, and minerals
    • Gasses, solids, and organics
    • Liquids, gasses, and solids
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CDC 2AX5X - Aerospace Maintenance Journeyman - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in aerospace maintenance, focusing on safety procedures, environmental regulations, and maintenance directives. It is designed for journeyman level, enhancing skills in hazard identification, compliance with EPA standards, and effective use of maintenance manuals.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its

    • Rigidity

    • Usability

    • Ability to compress within its container

    • Ability to conform to the shape of its container

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to conform to the shape of its container
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ability to conform to the shape of its container". This is because liquids do not have a fixed shape and can take the shape of the container they are poured into. Unlike solids, liquids do not have a rigid structure and can flow and change shape easily. This property allows liquids to adapt to the shape of their containers and fill them completely.

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  • 3. 

    What usually produces flow in a pneudraulic system?

    • Relief valves in the lines

    • Piston pushing the fluid

    • Scupper pushing the fluid

    • Selector valve in the lines

    Correct Answer
    A. Piston pushing the fluid
    Explanation
    In a pneudraulic system, flow is usually produced by a piston pushing the fluid. The piston acts as a mechanical force to move the fluid through the system, creating the flow. This is a common method used in pneudraulic systems to generate the necessary movement and pressure for various applications.

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  • 4. 

    What provides for cooler operation in a Stratopower variable-volume hydraulic pump?

    • Foot valves

    • Oil radiator

    • Creep plates

    • Fluid radiator

    Correct Answer
    A. Creep plates
    Explanation
    Creep plates provide for cooler operation in a Stratopower variable-volume hydraulic pump. Creep plates are designed to dissipate heat generated during the operation of the pump. They help in cooling the hydraulic fluid by providing a larger surface area for heat transfer. This prevents the pump from overheating and ensures efficient and cooler operation.

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  • 5. 

    What is the purpose of the arrow on the check valve?

    • Show filter position within the system

    • Indicate left and right hand threading

    • Show the direction of free flow through the valve

    • Indicate installation points in relation to the pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Show the direction of free flow through the valve
    Explanation
    The purpose of the arrow on the check valve is to show the direction of free flow through the valve. This arrow indicates the path that the fluid or gas should follow when flowing through the valve, ensuring that it operates correctly. It helps users to correctly install the valve in the system and ensure that the flow is in the desired direction.

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  • 6. 

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents can be attributed to natural causes, such as weather conditions or natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human factors, such as negligence, reckless driving, or mechanical failures. It is important to take into account these natural causes when analyzing accident data and implementing safety measures to prevent them.

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  • 7. 

    What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

    • 50

    • 70

    • 90

    • 98

    Correct Answer
    A. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98. This suggests that a high percentage of accidents can be attributed to both unsafe acts and physical hazards. It implies that a majority of accidents occur due to human error or negligence, as well as the presence of hazardous conditions or objects. This highlights the importance of promoting safety measures and practices to prevent accidents and minimize risks in various settings.

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  • 8. 

    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression. This phase is typically the first training that employees receive when they join an organization. It is designed to provide them with the basic knowledge and skills necessary to perform their job safely. By focusing on this initial phase, organizations can ensure that employees have a strong foundation of safety knowledge and practices, which can help to prevent accidents and injuries in the workplace.

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  • 9. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of _________ degrees.

    • 15

    • 45

    • 65

    • 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 45
    Explanation
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This means that the noise produced by the jet engine is most intense at a 45-degree angle from the rear of the engine, both towards the left and right sides.

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  • 10. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • Dizziness

    • Emotional irritability

    • A feeling of emptiness

    • Impaired mental concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily manifests as physical and psychological symptoms. Dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration are commonly associated with noise fatigue due to prolonged exposure to loud noises. However, a feeling of emptiness is not typically linked to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors such as depression or emotional distress.

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  • 11. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office

    • The operations commander

    • The flight safety officer

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA, or Quality Assurance, is responsible for investigating dropped objects in most units. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that all processes and procedures are followed correctly and that the necessary checks and inspections are carried out. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it relates to safety and quality control. They will conduct an investigation to determine the cause of the dropped object and take appropriate actions to prevent it from happening again in the future.

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  • 12. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • Operations

    • Aircrew

    • Supervision

    • The ground crew

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircrew
    Explanation
    The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This refers to the preflight checklist that is completed before takeoff, ensuring that all necessary systems and equipment are functioning properly. The aircrew, consisting of the pilot and other crew members, is responsible for conducting this check to ensure the safety and readiness of the aircraft before departure.

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  • 13. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or vehicle operator

    • Supervisor or brake operator

    • Supervisor or wing walkers

    • Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only." The supervisor is the only person authorized to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This is because the supervisor has the overall responsibility for ensuring the safety of the operation and has the authority to make decisions regarding the movement of the aircraft. The supervisor is trained and knowledgeable about the specific procedures and protocols involved in aircraft towing, making them the most qualified person to give the clearance for movement.

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  • 14. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it contains resources such as dictionaries, encyclopedias, and reference books that provide timeless information. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries, which require up-to-date materials to stay current with industry standards and regulations, the reference library's purpose is to provide reliable and static information that can be referenced over time.

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  • 15. 

    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

    • Tail

    • Axle

    • Nose

    • Fixed-Height

    Correct Answer
    A. Axle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Axle". When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. An axle jack is designed specifically to lift and support the weight of the aircraft's axle, allowing for the safe and efficient removal and replacement of the tire. This type of jack is commonly used in aviation maintenance to ensure the stability and safety of the aircraft during tire changes.

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  • 16. 

    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

    • AGE personnel

    • The highest ranking person on the shift

    • Qualified operators only

    • Any person

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified operators only
    Explanation
    The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer used for servicing aircraft should only be operated by qualified operators. This is because operating such equipment requires specialized knowledge and skills to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the trailer. Allowing any person or the highest ranking person on the shift to operate it may pose risks and lead to accidents or damage to the aircraft. Therefore, only individuals who have been trained and certified as qualified operators should handle the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer.

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  • 17. 

    How are special bolts identified?

    • By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • The bolt head is marked with the letter S

    Correct Answer
    A. The bolt head is marked with the letter S
    Explanation
    Special bolts are identified by marking the bolt head with the letter S. This marking helps distinguish special bolts from regular bolts and allows for easy identification and differentiation during the assembly process. The use of a specific marking, such as the letter S, helps ensure that the correct bolts are used in specific applications where special bolts are required.

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  • 18. 

    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

    • Maximum setting at least four times

    • Maximum setting at least six times

    • Lowest setting at least four times

    • Lowest setting at least six times

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximum setting at least six times
    Explanation
    It is necessary to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times before using it. This is important because it helps to ensure that the torque wrench is properly calibrated and that any inconsistencies or variations in the torque readings are accounted for. By cycling it through the breakaway torque multiple times, any potential errors or inaccuracies can be identified and corrected, thus ensuring accurate torque measurements when using the wrench.

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  • 19. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

    • Base commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    • Supervisors at all levels

    • Squadron QA section

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors at all levels
    Explanation
    Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that it is the duty of all supervisors, regardless of their position or rank, to oversee and enforce proper supply procedures and protocols. By actively monitoring and managing the supply chain, supervisors can prevent errors, maintain accurate inventory, and ensure that resources are used efficiently. This responsibility extends to all levels of supervision within an organization, from base commanders to squadron commanders, as they play a crucial role in maintaining supply discipline and accountability.

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  • 20. 

    A barometer is designed to measure in

    • Psi

    • Inches of mercury

    • Milibars of alcohol

    • Ounces of air

    Correct Answer
    A. Inches of mercury
    Explanation
    A barometer is a device used to measure atmospheric pressure. The most common unit of measurement for atmospheric pressure is inches of mercury (inHg). This unit is based on the height of a column of mercury that is supported by the atmospheric pressure. As the atmospheric pressure changes, the height of the mercury column also changes, allowing the barometer to indicate the pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is inches of mercury.

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  • 21. 

    What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called?

    • Buttlines

    • Waterlines

    • Buttock stations

    • Fuselage stations

    Correct Answer
    A. Waterlines
    Explanation
    Waterlines are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft. These lines are used to determine the position of various components and structures of the aircraft in relation to the waterline. By using waterlines, engineers and designers can ensure that the aircraft is properly balanced and stable during flight.

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  • 22. 

    Matter is any substance that has mass and

    • Can be seen

    • Occupies space

    • Has constant volume

    • Cannot be compressed

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupies space
    Explanation
    The given answer, "occupies space," is correct because matter is defined as any substance that has mass and takes up space. This means that matter has volume and can be measured or observed in terms of its physical dimensions. The concept of occupying space is fundamental to the definition of matter, as it distinguishes it from abstract or non-physical entities. Therefore, the answer accurately describes one of the essential characteristics of matter.

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  • 23. 

    Atoms are made up of

    • Molecules, protons, neutrons

    • Protons, molecules, electrons

    • Molecules, neutrons, electrons

    • Protons, neutrons, electrons

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons, neutrons, electrons
    Explanation
    Atoms are made up of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus of the atom, while electrons orbit around the nucleus in energy levels. Protons have a positive charge, neutrons have no charge, and electrons have a negative charge. These subatomic particles are essential to the structure and behavior of atoms.

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  • 24. 

    If you apply 24 volts through a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage would be

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 18

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    V=I*R
    I=V/R
    I=24/6
    I=4

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  • 25. 

    "The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space" is the definition of

    • Engine bleed air

    • Air conditioning

    • Pressurization

    • Air control

    Correct Answer
    A. Air conditioning
    Explanation
    Air conditioning refers to the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space. This means that air conditioning systems are designed to regulate the temperature and humidity levels while ensuring proper air circulation in a given area. It involves the use of various techniques and equipment to achieve a comfortable and controlled indoor environment.

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  • 26. 

    The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person's blood vessels to

    • Shrink

    • Rupture

    • Contract

    • Collapse

    Correct Answer
    A. Rupture
    Explanation
    At extremely high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is significantly lower than at sea level. This low atmospheric pressure can cause a person's blood vessels to rupture. The decrease in pressure can lead to the expansion of air trapped within the blood vessels, causing them to burst. This can result in internal bleeding and other serious health complications.

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  • 27. 

    A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by

    • Releasing a fine mist vapor

    • Excluding oxygen from the area

    • Removing nitrogen from the area

    • Dispersing a large amount of liquid

    Correct Answer
    A. Excluding oxygen from the area
    Explanation
    A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by excluding oxygen from the area. This is because fire requires oxygen to sustain combustion. By removing or reducing the oxygen supply, the fire is deprived of the necessary element for it to continue burning. This can be achieved by releasing a fine mist vapor, which displaces the oxygen, preventing the fire from spreading and extinguishing it.

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  • 28. 

    What is usually located in the lowest point in the fuel tank?

    • Sump and drain

    • Pump and drain

    • Pressure relief valve

    • Fuel-level control valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Sump and drain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sump and drain. The sump is typically located at the lowest point in the fuel tank to collect any sediment or impurities that may have settled at the bottom. The drain is used to remove any accumulated water or contaminants from the sump, ensuring that only clean fuel is delivered to the engine. This helps to prevent damage to the fuel system and maintain optimal engine performance.

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  • 29. 

    The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the

    • Direction of free flow

    • Direction of restricted flow

    • Location of the drilled hole in the valve

    • Location of the manufacturer's data block

    Correct Answer
    A. Direction of free flow
    Explanation
    The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the direction of free flow. This means that the arrow shows the path in which the fuel can flow freely through the valve without any restrictions.

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  • 30. 

    The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is

    • Nozzle

    • Top-off

    • Single-point

    • Over-the-wing

    Correct Answer
    A. Single-point
    Explanation
    The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is the single-point method. This method involves using a single nozzle to refuel the aircraft, which is connected to a single point on the aircraft's fuel system. This method is commonly used because it is efficient and allows for faster refueling times. It also reduces the risk of fuel spills and ensures that the fuel is evenly distributed throughout the aircraft's fuel tanks.

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  • 31. 

    What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system?

    • Wadding

    • Packing

    • Gasket

    • Filler

    Correct Answer
    A. Gasket
    Explanation
    A gasket is used to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system. It is a mechanical seal that fills the gap between the two parts, preventing any leakage or seepage of oil. Gaskets are typically made from materials such as rubber, silicone, or metal, which provide a tight and reliable seal. They are commonly used in engines, pipelines, and other machinery where a static seal is required to maintain the integrity of the oil system.

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  • 32. 

    Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have higher in-commission rate because there will be

    • More oil sampling

    • More engine removals

    • Less unnecessary maintenance

    • Less wear metal found in the oil

    Correct Answer
    A. Less unnecessary maintenance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "less unnecessary maintenance". Spectrometric oil analysis helps in identifying any wear metals present in the oil, which can indicate potential engine issues. By regularly monitoring the oil through sampling, any necessary maintenance can be performed in a timely manner, reducing the need for unnecessary maintenance. This proactive approach ensures that the aircraft remains in commission for a longer period, resulting in a higher in-commission rate.

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  • 33. 

    The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by

    • Pulsating current

    • Constant current

    • Varying current

    • Eddy current

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant current
    Explanation
    The correct answer is constant current because nickel-cadmium batteries have a specific charging characteristic that requires a steady and controlled flow of current. Constant current charging ensures that the battery is charged at a consistent rate, preventing overcharging or undercharging. This method allows the battery to reach its maximum capacity without damaging its internal components or reducing its overall lifespan.

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  • 34. 

    What type of motor can operate on alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)?

    • Shunt

    • Circuit

    • Universal

    • Compound

    Correct Answer
    A. Universal
    Explanation
    A universal motor is capable of operating on both alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC). This type of motor is designed with a field winding and an armature winding that are connected in series or parallel, allowing it to work with both types of current. The versatility of a universal motor makes it suitable for a wide range of applications where the power source may vary between AC and DC.

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  • 35. 

    If 50 psi of cylinder pressure acts on a 5 sq-in piston head, what will the resulting force be?

    • 150 lbs

    • 200 lbs

    • 250 lbs

    • 300 lbs

    Correct Answer
    A. 250 lbs
    Explanation
    F=P*A
    F=50*5
    F=250

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  • 36. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

    • TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
    Explanation
    When performing maintenance procedures, the directives that are typically used are Manuals, TOs (Technical Orders), and handbooks. These documents provide step-by-step instructions, guidelines, and reference materials for carrying out maintenance tasks effectively and safely. CDCs (Career Development Courses) are not typically used for maintenance procedures and are more focused on training and career development. Therefore, the correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks.

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  • 37. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • The USAF

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA. EPA stands for the Environmental Protection Agency, which is responsible for regulating and managing hazardous waste in the United States. They establish rules and guidelines for the proper handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment. The EPA works closely with other government agencies, such as the Department of Defense (DOD), to ensure compliance with hazardous waste management regulations.

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  • 38. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • Spray with cold water

    • Cool with forced air from blower

    • Cool with high-pressure compressed air

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire or further damage, and the brake assembly should be left to cool down naturally using the surrounding air. This is the safest and most effective method of cooling an overheated brake assembly, as it allows for gradual cooling without the use of any external cooling agents that could potentially cause further damage.

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  • 39. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

    • Crew chief

    • Flight engineer

    • Weapons personnel

    • Only senior personnel on special orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons personnel
    Explanation
    Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This task requires specialized knowledge and training in handling and disarming explosive materials. The crew chief and flight engineer may have other responsibilities related to the aircraft's operation, but removing safety devices from explosive devices is specifically assigned to weapons personnel. Only senior personnel on special orders may have authority over weapons personnel in certain situations, but they are not directly responsible for this task.

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  • 40. 

    Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hanger you must

    • Install shorting plugs and clips

    • Install mechanical safetying devices

    • Remove all ammunition and explosives

    • Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove all ammunition and explosives
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hanger, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives to ensure safety. This is because having ammunition and explosives on board can pose a risk of accidental detonation or fire, which could be catastrophic in an enclosed space like a hangar. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidents is minimized, making it safer to move the aircraft into the hangar.

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  • 41. 

    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

    • Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly

    • Follow MAJCOM guidlines

    • Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • Educate all personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify all possible sources of FOD
    Explanation
    To develop an effective FOD prevention program, the first step is to identify all possible sources of FOD. This is important because FOD can come from various sources such as loose tools, foreign objects, debris, or even wildlife. By identifying all potential sources, the program can then focus on implementing specific preventive measures to mitigate the risk of FOD incidents. This step is crucial in order to create a comprehensive and targeted FOD prevention strategy.

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  • 42. 

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Logistics and operations group commanders

    • Immediate supervisor

    • Wing commander

    • Everyone

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves everyone in an organization. Each individual, regardless of their position or role, has a role to play in preventing FOD. While logistics and operations group commanders, immediate supervisors, and wing commanders may have specific responsibilities in implementing FOD prevention measures, ultimately, it is the combined effort of everyone that ensures a safe and FOD-free environment.

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  • 43. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • Wing vice commander

    • Group commander

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. These individuals are responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and ensuring that tools and equipment are properly accounted for. As the lowest person authorized to clear a red X, they have the authority to declare a tool lost and initiate the necessary steps to locate it or replace it. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher positions of authority, but they may not have the specific knowledge or responsibility for maintenance operations and tool accountability.

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  • 44. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • Red markings

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the green markings. This is because the green markings indicate the optimal pressure level for the fire extinguisher to effectively dispense the extinguishing agent. If the pressure is below the green markings, the extinguisher may not work properly, and if it is above the green markings, it can be dangerous and potentially cause the extinguisher to rupture. Therefore, staying within the green markings ensures that the fire extinguisher is ready for use in case of an emergency.

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  • 45. 

    Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?

    • CFETP, Part I

    • AFJQS

    • Command JQS

    • CFETP, Part II

    Correct Answer
    A. CFETP, Part II
    Explanation
    CFETP, Part II is the correct answer because CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). CFETP, Part II specifically includes a list of training courses available for an AFSC, making it the appropriate resource to consult for finding such information. The other options, CFETP, Part I, AFJQS, and Command JQS, may contain other relevant information but do not specifically provide a list of training courses available for an AFSC.

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  • 46. 

    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

    • Directory

    • Pamphlet

    • Instruction

    • Supplement

    Correct Answer
    A. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that can provide guidance on completing forms and cite them, but it does not have the authority to enforce what is written on the form. Pamphlets are informational materials that aim to educate and inform the reader, rather than impose rules or regulations. They are often used to distribute information on a specific topic or issue in a concise and easily accessible format.

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  • 47. 

    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • C-1

    Correct Answer
    A. B-4
    Explanation
    B-4 is a scissor-type maintenance stand because it is a common designation used in the aviation industry to refer to this type of stand. Scissor-type maintenance stands are characterized by their ability to be raised and lowered using a scissor-like mechanism, allowing technicians to work at different heights. The other options (B-1, B-2, and C-1) do not specify the type of maintenance stand they are, so they cannot be identified as scissor-type stands.

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  • 48. 

    Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

    • Knurl beside the fork

    • Groove by the cable eye

    • Knurl beside the pin eye

    • Groove on the end of the barrel

    Correct Answer
    A. Groove on the end of the barrel
    Explanation
    Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. The groove serves as a visual indicator that distinguishes left-hand threads from right-hand threads. By observing the presence of this groove, one can determine the direction in which the turnbuckle will rotate and tighten or loosen accordingly.

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  • 49. 

    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

    • Soft rubber

    • Phenolic mix

    • Non-magnetic

    • Thermosetting plastic

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft rubber
    Explanation
    Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. This material is preferred due to its flexibility and ability to create a tight seal when compressed. Soft rubber also has good resistance to chemicals and high temperatures, making it suitable for various applications where pressure needs to be contained. Its softness allows for easy installation and removal, reducing the risk of damage to the seal or the mating surfaces. Overall, soft rubber is a reliable and effective choice for pressure seal construction.

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