CDC 2AX5X Volume 1 Aerospace Maintenance

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    What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards

    • 50
    • 70
    • 90
    • 98
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CDC 2AX5X Volume 1 Aerospace Maintenance - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in aerospace maintenance, focusing on safety, environmental regulations, and maintenance procedures. It is designed for Airmen, enhancing understanding of hazard management and compliance with essential directives.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling and overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • Spray with cold water.

    • Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • Cool with high pressure compressed air.

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brakes should be left to cool down naturally without any additional cooling methods. This is the safest and most effective way to prevent any further damage or potential hazards associated with the overheated brake assembly.

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  • 3. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

    • Crew chief

    • Flight engineer.

    • Weapons personnel.

    • Only senior personnel on special orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons personnel.
    Explanation
    Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm such devices safely. The crew chief is responsible for overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft, while the flight engineer assists with the operation and monitoring of aircraft systems. Senior personnel on special orders may have specific responsibilities, but they are not solely responsible for removing safety devices associated with explosive devices.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Logistics and operations group commanders.

    • Immediate supervisor

    • Wing commander.

    • Everyone

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves everyone in an organization. It is not solely the responsibility of a specific individual or group. Each person, from the logistics and operations group commanders to the immediate supervisor and even the wing commander, has a role to play in preventing FOD. This includes being vigilant, adhering to safety procedures, and maintaining a clean and organized environment to minimize the risk of FOD incidents.

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  • 5. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • Red markings

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    The green markings indicate the safe operating range for the pressure in a fire extinguisher. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure is at an optimal level for effective use of the extinguisher. Being within this range ensures that the extinguisher is not over-pressurized or under-pressurized, which could impact its ability to function properly during a fire emergency.

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  • 6. 

    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

    • Tail

    • Axle

    • Nose

    • Fixed-height

    Correct Answer
    A. Axle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is axle. When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. An axle jack is designed to lift the aircraft by the axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. This type of jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft during tire maintenance.

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  • 7. 

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions, natural disasters, or wildlife. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other man-made factors. This low percentage suggests that efforts to improve safety measures and educate drivers about the risks associated with natural factors may not be as necessary as addressing other causes of accidents.

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  • 8. 

    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting immpression for new Airmen?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen. This phase focuses on providing the necessary safety knowledge and skills to new Airmen as they begin their careers. It helps them understand the importance of safety protocols and procedures, instilling a strong foundation of safety awareness from the start. By emphasizing safety during the initial training phase, Airmen are more likely to carry these practices throughout their careers, ensuring a safer work environment for themselves and their colleagues.

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  • 9. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

    • 15 degrees

    • 45 degrees

    • 65 degrees

    • 95 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the noise produced by a jet engine is mainly due to the exhaust gases and the high-speed airflow. As the exhaust gases and airflow exit the rear of the engine, they create a concentrated noise source. Additionally, the sound waves emitted from the engine propagate in a cone-like shape, with the apex of the cone being at the rear of the engine. Therefore, the noise intensity is highest at a 45-degree angle from the rear of the engine.

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  • 10. 

    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar you must

    • Install shorting plugs and clips

    • Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any accidental detonation or ignition of the explosives. By removing all ammunition and explosives, the risk of potential accidents or damage to the hangar and its surroundings is minimized.

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  • 11. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • Supervisor or brake operator.

    • Supervisor of wing walkers.

    • Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This ensures that there is clear communication and coordination between the supervisor and the other personnel involved in the tow operation, such as the vehicle operator or brake operator. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the entire operation and ensuring the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 12. 

    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

    • 781G

    • 781J

    • 781M

    • 781P

    Correct Answer
    A. 781J
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO 781J form is used to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed to document and track any instances of engine temperature exceeding the normal operating range. By using the 781J form, maintenance personnel can easily identify and address any potential issues with the engine's temperature control system.

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  • 13. 

    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

    • Soft rubber

    • Phenolic mix

    • Non-magnetic

    • Thermosetting plastic

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft rubber
    Explanation
    Soft rubber is typically used in the construction of a pressure seal. This material is chosen because it has excellent sealing properties and can withstand high pressure without leaking. Soft rubber is also flexible, allowing it to conform to irregular surfaces and create a tight seal. Additionally, it is resistant to chemicals and can withstand a wide range of temperatures, making it suitable for various applications where pressure seals are required.

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  • 14. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • Manuals, TOs and handbooks

    • TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs and handbooks
    Explanation
    When performing maintenance procedures, the appropriate directives that are used include manuals, TOs (Technical Orders), and handbooks. These directives provide detailed instructions, guidelines, and procedures for carrying out maintenance tasks effectively and safely. Manuals contain specific information about the equipment or system being maintained, TOs provide step-by-step instructions for performing maintenance procedures, and handbooks offer additional reference material and best practices. Using these directives ensures that maintenance procedures are conducted accurately and in accordance with established standards.

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  • 15. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • The US Air Force

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA. The EPA, or Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. The EPA is a federal agency in the United States that is tasked with protecting human health and the environment. They establish and enforce regulations and standards for various environmental issues, including hazardous waste management.

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  • 16. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office.

    • The operations commander.

    • The flight safety officer.

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA stands for Quality Assurance, which is responsible for ensuring that all processes and procedures are followed correctly to maintain the quality of products or services. Investigating dropped objects falls under the purview of quality assurance as it involves identifying the cause of the incident, analyzing potential risks, and implementing measures to prevent similar incidents in the future. The QA team would be responsible for conducting investigations, gathering data, and implementing corrective actions to prevent dropped objects from occurring again.

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  • 17. 

    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
    Explanation
    The TBA (Training Business Area) is a tool that allows Air Force personnel to access and view their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It provides visibility into the individual's training progress and ensures that they meet the necessary requirements for their roles. This helps in tracking and managing the training needs of Air Force personnel efficiently.

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  • 18. 

    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

    • AGE personnel only

    • The highest ranking person on the shift

    • Qualified operators only

    • Any person

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified operators only
    Explanation
    The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer used for servicing aircraft should only be operated by qualified operators. This ensures that the person operating the trailer has the necessary knowledge and skills to handle the equipment safely and effectively. Allowing any person or even the highest ranking person on the shift to operate the trailer without proper qualifications can pose a risk to the aircraft, personnel, and equipment. Therefore, it is important to have qualified operators who have been trained and certified to handle the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer.

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  • 19. 

    How are special bolts identified?

    • By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • The bolt head is marked with the letter S

    Correct Answer
    A. The bolt head is marked with the letter S
    Explanation
    Special bolts are identified by marking the bolt head with the letter S. This marking helps distinguish special bolts from regular bolts and indicates that they have unique properties or specifications. The other options mentioned, such as zinc-plated nickel steel covering or galvanized-plated steel covering, are not accurate ways to identify special bolts.

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  • 20. 

    Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?

    • Indicating type

    • Breakaway type

    • Screwdriver type

    • Internal wrenching type

    Correct Answer
    A. Breakaway type
    Explanation
    A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the torque value is reached, the wrench will break away or slip, preventing any further tightening and ensuring that the desired torque is not exceeded. This feature provides accuracy and prevents overtightening, making it suitable for tasks that require precise torque control.

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  • 21. 

    What are the tow stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

    • Extension and flexion

    • Tension and torsion

    • Torque and friction

    • Push and pull

    Correct Answer
    A. Tension and torsion
    Explanation
    When a fastener is tightened, it experiences two main stresses: tension and torsion. Tension refers to the stretching force applied to the fastener, causing it to elongate. Torsion, on the other hand, is the twisting force exerted on the fastener, causing it to rotate. These two stresses are crucial to ensure the fastener remains securely in place and can withstand the forces it is subjected to during use. Extension and flexion, torque and friction, and push and pull are not the correct stresses experienced by a fastener when tightened.

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  • 22. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

    • Base commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    • Supervisors at all levels

    • Squadron QA section

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors at all levels
    Explanation
    Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that it is the duty of every supervisor, regardless of their position or rank, to enforce and maintain proper procedures and controls related to the supply chain. They are responsible for overseeing the adherence to regulations, policies, and guidelines, as well as providing training and guidance to their subordinates. By doing so, supervisors play a crucial role in preventing waste, fraud, and abuse, and ensuring the efficient and effective use of resources within the organization.

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  • 23. 

    What affects radiation hazards?

    • Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
    Explanation
    The answer "Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather" is correct because these factors directly impact radiation hazards. The strength of emission refers to the intensity of radiation being emitted, which determines the level of exposure. The longer the time of exposure, the greater the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards, as certain weather patterns can disperse or concentrate radiation. Therefore, these three factors are crucial in determining the level of radiation hazards in a given situation.

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  • 24. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • Dizziness

    • Emotional irritability

    • A feeling of emptiness

    • Impaired mental concetration

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue is typically characterized by physical and psychological symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. A feeling of emptiness is more commonly associated with other conditions like depression or existential concerns rather than noise fatigue.

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  • 25. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Unscheduled.

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    • Protective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance refers to the regular and planned inspections, cleaning, and servicing of equipment to prevent breakdowns and ensure its readiness and availability when needed. By proactively identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime and improve the overall reliability and performance of the equipment. It involves tasks such as lubrication, filter replacement, calibration, and routine inspections to keep the equipment in optimal condition and avoid unexpected failures.

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  • 26. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Reference" because a reference library typically contains books, articles, and other resources that are used for research and reference purposes. These resources are not expected to be updated frequently and therefore do not need to maintain publication currency. In contrast, training, aircraft, and operational libraries would need to stay current with the latest information and updates in their respective fields.

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  • 27. 

    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • C-1

    Correct Answer
    A. B-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-4. A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used for maintenance and repair work on aircraft. It is designed with a scissor-like mechanism that allows for easy height adjustment and stability. Option B-4 is the only option that mentions a scissor-type maintenance stand, making it the correct answer.

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  • 28. 

    What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?

    • Metal shells

    • Connector halves

    • Dielectric contacts

    • Pin-and-socket contacts

    Correct Answer
    A. Pin-and-socket contacts
    Explanation
    Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that fit together to establish a connection and allow the flow of electricity between the two halves of the connector. The pins and sockets make direct contact with each other, creating a pathway for the electrical current to pass through, ensuring the completion of the circuit. The metal shells, connector halves, and dielectric contacts play important roles in providing support, alignment, and insulation, but it is the pin-and-socket contacts that actually enable the electrical connection.

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  • 29. 

    Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

    • Simple calipers

    • Transfer calipers

    • Spring-joint calipers

    • Off-leg caliper

    Correct Answer
    A. Spring-joint calipers
    Explanation
    Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This design allows for easy and precise measurement adjustments. The spring hinge provides tension to keep the calipers closed when not in use, while the screw and adjustment nut allow for precise opening and closing of the calipers for accurate measurements. This design feature makes spring-joint calipers a popular choice for various measurement applications.

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  • 30. 

    All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

    • PDC

    • AAC

    • PACC

    • ERRC

    Correct Answer
    A. ERRC
  • 31. 

    Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

    • EMERGENCY

    • DIAGNOSE

    • TRIAGE

    • STRAT

    Correct Answer
    A. TRIAGE
    Explanation
    Triage is the medical concept that forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy. Triage involves prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition in order to allocate resources efficiently. This concept is essential in emergency situations where there may be limited resources and a need to quickly assess and prioritize patients based on the urgency of their medical needs.

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  • 32. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

    • Exposed to moist air

    • Exposed to a chemical

    • Connected to another part

    • Fabricated or manufactored

    Correct Answer
    A. Fabricated or manufactored
    Explanation
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is fabricated or manufactured. This is because during the fabrication or manufacturing process, the metal part may come into contact with various chemicals, undergo heating or cooling processes, or be exposed to atmospheric conditions that can initiate the corrosion process. It is important to properly treat and protect the metal part during fabrication or manufacturing to prevent or minimize corrosion.

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  • 33. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • Wing vice commander

    • Group commander

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This is because the maintenance operations officer/superintendent is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations and ensuring that tools are properly accounted for. They have the authority to clear a red X, which signifies that a tool is missing or lost. The other options, such as the wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander, may have higher positions of authority but they are not directly involved in the day-to-day maintenance operations and may not have the knowledge or responsibility to clear a red X.

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  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • Operations

    • The aircrew

    • Supervision

    • The ground crew

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircrew
    Explanation
    The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the responsibility of the pilots or the flight crew to perform the necessary checks and inspections before takeoff. They are responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is in proper working condition and all systems are functioning correctly. This preflight check is crucial for the safety of the flight and to prevent any potential issues during the flight.

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  • 35. 

    The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder

    • Before the first flight of the day.

    • Before each thru flight inspection,.

    • After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

    • After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.

    Correct Answer
    A. After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781 form is used for recording maintenance actions and events on an aircraft. It is important to remove the form from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly documented and filed for record-keeping purposes. Removing the form before the first flight of the day, before each thru flight inspection, or after each maintenance action with an assigned job control number would not be appropriate as it would leave the form incomplete or missing important information.

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  • 36. 

    What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?

    • A/M32A-95

    • A/M32A-86

    • A/M32A-60

    • AF/M-32R-3

    Correct Answer
    A. A/M32A-60
    Explanation
    The A/M32A-60 unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, as well as pneumatic power, for ground maintenance.

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  • 37. 

    Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?

    • Stud

    • Eyebolt

    • Hexhead

    • Internal wrenching type

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal wrenching type
    Explanation
    The internal wrenching type bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications. This type of bolt is designed to be tightened or loosened using a special wrench or tool that fits into the recessed head. The recessed head provides a more secure and stable connection, making it ideal for applications where high tension is required.

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  • 38. 

    Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?

    • Indicating type

    • Breakaway type

    • Screwdriver type

    • Internal wrenching type

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicating type
    Explanation
    The indicating type torque wrench is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to show the user the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. This type of torque wrench typically has a built-in gauge or display that provides a visual indication of the torque being applied, allowing the user to accurately measure and control the amount of torque being used.

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  • 39. 

    Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to

    • Check the AC voltages only

    • Check the DC voltages only

    • Initiate the tough-hold mode

    • Move the decimal point

    Correct Answer
    A. Move the decimal point
    Explanation
    The range button on the Fluke multimeter allows the user to move the decimal point. This is useful when measuring different ranges of values, as it allows for easier reading and interpretation of the measurements. By adjusting the decimal point, the user can ensure that the displayed value is in the appropriate unit and scale for their specific measurement needs.

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  • 40. 

    When is the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display,the

    • Manual range mode is indicated

    • Touch-hold mode is in use

    • Ohms function is selected

    • Meter is zeroing itself

    Correct Answer
    A. Touch-hold mode is in use
    Explanation
    When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, it indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. The touch-hold mode allows the user to freeze the displayed value on the screen by touching and holding the measurement leads to capture a stable reading. This is useful when taking measurements in situations where it is difficult to read the display while simultaneously holding the leads in place.

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  • 41. 

    The TH inspection is normally performed

    • Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

    • After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

    • Immediately prior to a BPO

    • After the last flight of a specified flying period

    Correct Answer
    A. After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
    Explanation
    The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection is conducted after the aircraft has completed its flight and is preparing for another flight without a significant delay. This ensures that any potential issues or damages that may have occurred during the previous flight are identified and addressed before the aircraft takes off again.

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  • 42. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

    • Painted

    • Heat treated

    • Chemically treated

    • Exhausted or salvaged

    Correct Answer
    A. Exhausted or salvaged
    Explanation
    The corrosion or deterioration of a metal part will continue until the part is either exhausted or salvaged. This means that if the corrosion is not addressed or if the part is not salvaged and repaired, the deterioration will persist. Painting, heat treating, or chemically treating the part may help slow down the corrosion process, but it will not completely stop it. Therefore, the only way to fully address the issue is to either exhaust the part by using it until it is no longer functional, or salvaging it by repairing or replacing the corroded sections.

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  • 43. 

    The FL-1D floodlight consists of two

    • 100 watt lamp fixtures

    • 1,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • 10,000 watt lamp fixtures

    • 100,000 watt lamp fixtures

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,000 watt lamp fixtures
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. The FL-1D floodlight consists of two lamp fixtures, each with a capacity of 1,000 watts. This means that the total wattage of the floodlight is 2,000 watts.

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  • 44. 

    Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?

    • Stud

    • Clevis

    • Eyebolt

    • Hexhead

    Correct Answer
    A. Clevis
    Explanation
    A clevis is a type of fastener that is commonly used as a pin in control systems. It is designed to allow movement and rotation, making it suitable for applications where there is a need for flexibility. On the other hand, bolts like studs, eyebolts, and hexheads are primarily used in areas where tension is present, as they provide a secure and strong connection. Therefore, the correct answer is clevis, as it is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems.

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  • 45. 

    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

    • Maximum setting at least 4 times

    • Maximum setting at least 6 times

    • Lowest setting at least 4 times

    • Lowest setting at least 6 times

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximum setting at least 6 times
    Explanation
    It is recommended to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least 6 times before using it. This helps to ensure that the wrench is properly calibrated and ready for accurate torque application. Cycling the wrench multiple times helps to loosen any internal components and reduces the risk of inaccurate torque readings.

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  • 46. 

    When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your traing program?

    • Within 60 of arrival

    • 6 months after graduation

    • Within 10 work days after graduation

    • Within 10 calendar day after graduation

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 60 of arrival
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Within 60 of arrival." This means that the initial evaluation should be completed within 60 days of the individual's arrival. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the evaluation to take place and ensures that it is done in a timely manner.

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  • 47. 

    What is the total number of AF catalogs?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 48. 

    What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

    • 7,000

    • 8,000

    • 9,000

    • 10,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 8,000
    Explanation
    The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

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  • 49. 

    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum allow parts in low-torque applications?

    • Reduce shearing

    • Prevent vibration

    • Prevent corrosion

    • Reduce shimming

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent corrosion
    Explanation
    Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum parts in low-torque applications to prevent corrosion. Aluminum and steel have different properties and when they come into contact, a chemical reaction called galvanic corrosion can occur. This can lead to the deterioration of the aluminum part. By using aluminum alloy washers, it forms a barrier between the steel bolt and aluminum part, preventing direct contact and reducing the risk of corrosion.

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