CDC 2AX5X Volume 1 Aerospace Maintenance

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  • 1/124 Questions

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2
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    • 6
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Aerospace Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in aerospace maintenance, focusing on safety, environmental regulations, and maintenance procedures. It is designed for Airmen, enhancing understanding of hazard management and compliance with essential directives.

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  • 2. 

    What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards

    • 50

    • 70

    • 90

    • 98

    Correct Answer
    A. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98 because it indicates that a high percentage of accidents are caused by unsafe acts and physical hazards. This suggests that the majority of accidents can be prevented by addressing and eliminating these factors.

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  • 3. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • Manuals, TOs and handbooks

    • TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs and handbooks
    Explanation
    When performing maintenance procedures, the appropriate directives that are used include manuals, TOs (Technical Orders), and handbooks. These directives provide detailed instructions, guidelines, and procedures for carrying out maintenance tasks effectively and safely. Manuals contain specific information about the equipment or system being maintained, TOs provide step-by-step instructions for performing maintenance procedures, and handbooks offer additional reference material and best practices. Using these directives ensures that maintenance procedures are conducted accurately and in accordance with established standards.

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  • 4. 

    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting immpression for new Airmen?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen. This phase focuses on providing the necessary safety knowledge and skills to new Airmen as they begin their careers. It helps them understand the importance of safety protocols and procedures, instilling a strong foundation of safety awareness from the start. By emphasizing safety during the initial training phase, Airmen are more likely to carry these practices throughout their careers, ensuring a safer work environment for themselves and their colleagues.

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  • 5. 

    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDCs if concentrations are greater than

    • -2.0 percent

    • -1.0 percent

    • 0.1 percent

    • 1.0 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.1 percent
    Explanation
    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDCs if concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if the concentration of the chemical in a product or substance is higher than 0.1 percent, it is considered to have carcinogenic properties and is listed as such in the MSDCs (Material Safety Data Sheets). This information is crucial for individuals who handle or are exposed to the chemical, as it allows them to take necessary precautions and safety measures to minimize the risk of cancer.

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  • 6. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • The US Air Force

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA. The EPA, or Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. The EPA is a federal agency in the United States that is tasked with protecting human health and the environment. They establish and enforce regulations and standards for various environmental issues, including hazardous waste management.

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  • 7. 

    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannott exceed

    • 30 days

    • 60 days

    • 90 days

    • 120 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days
    Explanation
    The temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit ensures that hazardous materials are not stored for an extended period, minimizing the risks associated with their storage. It allows for proper management and disposal of these materials within a reasonable timeframe, reducing the potential for accidents, leaks, or other hazardous incidents.

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  • 8. 

    What affects radiation hazards?

    • Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
    Explanation
    The answer "Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather" is correct because these factors directly impact radiation hazards. The strength of emission refers to the intensity of radiation being emitted, which determines the level of exposure. The longer the time of exposure, the greater the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards, as certain weather patterns can disperse or concentrate radiation. Therefore, these three factors are crucial in determining the level of radiation hazards in a given situation.

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  • 9. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling and overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • Spray with cold water.

    • Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • Cool with high pressure compressed air.

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brakes should be left to cool down naturally without any additional cooling methods. This is the safest and most effective way to prevent any further damage or potential hazards associated with the overheated brake assembly.

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  • 10. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

    • 15 degrees

    • 45 degrees

    • 65 degrees

    • 95 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the noise produced by a jet engine is mainly due to the exhaust gases and the high-speed airflow. As the exhaust gases and airflow exit the rear of the engine, they create a concentrated noise source. Additionally, the sound waves emitted from the engine propagate in a cone-like shape, with the apex of the cone being at the rear of the engine. Therefore, the noise intensity is highest at a 45-degree angle from the rear of the engine.

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  • 11. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • Dizziness

    • Emotional irritability

    • A feeling of emptiness

    • Impaired mental concetration

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue is typically characterized by physical and psychological symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. A feeling of emptiness is more commonly associated with other conditions like depression or existential concerns rather than noise fatigue.

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  • 12. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

    • Crew chief

    • Flight engineer.

    • Weapons personnel.

    • Only senior personnel on special orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons personnel.
    Explanation
    Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm such devices safely. The crew chief is responsible for overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft, while the flight engineer assists with the operation and monitoring of aircraft systems. Senior personnel on special orders may have specific responsibilities, but they are not solely responsible for removing safety devices associated with explosive devices.

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  • 13. 

    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar you must

    • Install shorting plugs and clips

    • Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any accidental detonation or ignition of the explosives. By removing all ammunition and explosives, the risk of potential accidents or damage to the hangar and its surroundings is minimized.

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  • 14. 

    All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT form?

    • 55

    • 457

    • 623

    • 1297

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    Composite material-related safety training must be documented on AF IMT form 55.

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  • 15. 

    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

    • Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly.

    • Follow MAJCOM guidelines.

    • Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • Educate all personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify all possible sources of FOD
    Explanation
    To develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. By doing so, organizations can understand the potential areas where debris or foreign objects may originate from and take necessary preventive measures. This step helps in creating awareness among personnel about the sources of FOD and enables them to implement appropriate procedures and controls to mitigate the risk of FOD incidents. It also allows for the implementation of targeted training and education programs to ensure that all personnel are well-informed about the potential sources and consequences of FOD.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Logistics and operations group commanders.

    • Immediate supervisor

    • Wing commander.

    • Everyone

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves everyone in an organization. It is not solely the responsibility of a specific individual or group. Each person, from the logistics and operations group commanders to the immediate supervisor and even the wing commander, has a role to play in preventing FOD. This includes being vigilant, adhering to safety procedures, and maintaining a clean and organized environment to minimize the risk of FOD incidents.

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  • 17. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • Wing vice commander

    • Group commander

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This is because the maintenance operations officer/superintendent is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations and ensuring that tools are properly accounted for. They have the authority to clear a red X, which signifies that a tool is missing or lost. The other options, such as the wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander, may have higher positions of authority but they are not directly involved in the day-to-day maintenance operations and may not have the knowledge or responsibility to clear a red X.

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  • 18. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office.

    • The operations commander.

    • The flight safety officer.

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA stands for Quality Assurance, which is responsible for ensuring that all processes and procedures are followed correctly to maintain the quality of products or services. Investigating dropped objects falls under the purview of quality assurance as it involves identifying the cause of the incident, analyzing potential risks, and implementing measures to prevent similar incidents in the future. The QA team would be responsible for conducting investigations, gathering data, and implementing corrective actions to prevent dropped objects from occurring again.

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  • 19. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • Red markings

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    The green markings indicate the safe operating range for the pressure in a fire extinguisher. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure is at an optimal level for effective use of the extinguisher. Being within this range ensures that the extinguisher is not over-pressurized or under-pressurized, which could impact its ability to function properly during a fire emergency.

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  • 20. 

    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a

    • 15-foot radius

    • 20-foot radius

    • 25-foot radius

    • 50-foot radius

    Correct Answer
    A. 20-foot radius
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20-foot radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is necessary to ensure their safety as nitrogen servicing can be potentially dangerous. Being outside this radius reduces the risk of any accidents or injuries that could occur during the process.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • Operations

    • The aircrew

    • Supervision

    • The ground crew

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircrew
    Explanation
    The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the responsibility of the pilots or the flight crew to perform the necessary checks and inspections before takeoff. They are responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is in proper working condition and all systems are functioning correctly. This preflight check is crucial for the safety of the flight and to prevent any potential issues during the flight.

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  • 22. 

    When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself even with the

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.
    Explanation
    When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This position allows you to have a clear view of the engine and any potential fire hazards while also providing a safe distance from the engine exhaust. Being at a 45-degree angle outboard ensures that you are not directly in the path of any exhaust gases or debris that may be expelled during the engine start-up process.

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  • 23. 

    What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?

    • AFI 23-106

    • AFI 11-218

    • TO 00-25-172

    • TO00-25-212

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 11-218
    Explanation
    AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is a reference that covers internationally accepted hand signals. The other options, AFI 23-106, TO 00-25-172, and TO 00-25-212, do not specifically mention hand signals or their international acceptance.

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  • 24. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • Supervisor or brake operator.

    • Supervisor of wing walkers.

    • Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This ensures that there is clear communication and coordination between the supervisor and the other personnel involved in the tow operation, such as the vehicle operator or brake operator. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the entire operation and ensuring the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 25. 

    What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

    • Departmental, intermediate, and field.

    • Organizational , field, and intermediate.

    • Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

    • Departmental, organizational, and depot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This order represents the increasing capability of the Air Force's maintenance capabilities. Organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization itself. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and is typically performed by specialized units. Depot maintenance is the highest level of maintenance and involves major repairs or overhauls that are conducted at designated repair facilities.

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  • 26. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Unscheduled.

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    • Protective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance refers to the regular and planned inspections, cleaning, and servicing of equipment to prevent breakdowns and ensure its readiness and availability when needed. By proactively identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime and improve the overall reliability and performance of the equipment. It involves tasks such as lubrication, filter replacement, calibration, and routine inspections to keep the equipment in optimal condition and avoid unexpected failures.

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  • 27. 

    Objective of the MDD system include

    • Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    • Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
    Explanation
    The objective of the MDD system is to collect, store, and retrieve base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database or storage system, and then be able to retrieve that data when needed. This objective implies that the system is meant to handle the entire process of data management, from collecting it to storing it and making it accessible for review or other purposes.

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  • 28. 

    What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?

    • Damaged and spare items.

    • Expired and outdated items.

    • Recurring and repeat replacement items.

    • Select serially controlled and time change items.

    Correct Answer
    A. Select serially controlled and time change items.
    Explanation
    The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information system database. This means that the system ensures that these specific items, which require serial numbers or regular time-based updates, are accurately recorded and tracked in the database.

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  • 29. 

    What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

    • 781A

    • 781F

    • 781H

    • 781J

    Correct Answer
    A. 781F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 781F. The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

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  • 30. 

    The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder

    • Before the first flight of the day.

    • Before each thru flight inspection,.

    • After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

    • After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.

    Correct Answer
    A. After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781 form is used for recording maintenance actions and events on an aircraft. It is important to remove the form from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly documented and filed for record-keeping purposes. Removing the form before the first flight of the day, before each thru flight inspection, or after each maintenance action with an assigned job control number would not be appropriate as it would leave the form incomplete or missing important information.

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  • 31. 

    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

    • 781G

    • 781J

    • 781M

    • 781P

    Correct Answer
    A. 781J
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO 781J form is used to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed to document and track any instances of engine temperature exceeding the normal operating range. By using the 781J form, maintenance personnel can easily identify and address any potential issues with the engine's temperature control system.

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  • 32. 

    Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

    • Base supply coordinator.

    • Critical item liaison.

    • Equipment liaison.

    • Item managers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Item managers.
    Explanation
    Item managers determine which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting. They are responsible for managing and overseeing the specific items in the MDS and have the knowledge and expertise to determine the need for historical reporting based on various factors such as demand, usage, and inventory levels. The item managers play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and timely reporting for these items.

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  • 33. 

    The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the

    • MAJCOM level.

    • Wing level

    • Base level

    • Unit level

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unit level." The IMDS, or Integrated Maintenance Data System, is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources at the unit level. This means that it is designed to be used by managers at the lowest level of the organizational hierarchy, where they can oversee and manage resources specific to their individual units. This allows for more efficient and effective maintenance management at the unit level.

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  • 34. 

    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

    • Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • Helping evaluate the training of new personnel.

    • Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

    Correct Answer
    A. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
    Explanation
    The training management subsystem plays a crucial role in assisting trainers and supervisors with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. By utilizing this subsystem, trainers and supervisors can effectively plan and allocate resources for training sessions. This includes identifying the appropriate individuals for expediter duty and cross-training, as well as evaluating the training progress of new personnel. The forecasting and scheduling aspect of the subsystem ensures that training needs are met efficiently, allowing for the smooth execution of training programs within the organization.

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  • 35. 

    The GAS is normally sent out

    • 90 days after graduation

    • 6 months after graduation

    • Within 10 work days after graduation

    • Within 10 calendar days after graduation

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days after graduation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "90 days after graduation". This means that the GAS (Graduate Assessment Survey) is typically sent out to graduates 90 days after they have completed their graduation. This allows for a sufficient amount of time for the graduates to settle into their post-graduation lives and reflect on their educational experience before providing feedback through the survey.

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  • 36. 

    Where can you find a list of training courses available for and AFSC?

    • CFETP, Part I.

    • AFJQS

    • Command JQS

    • CFETP,Part II.

    Correct Answer
    A. CFETP,Part II.
    Explanation
    CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). CFETP is divided into two parts, with Part I providing an overview of the AFSC and Part II listing the specific training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, the correct answer is CFETP, Part II, as it is the section that contains the list of training courses available for a particular AFSC.

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  • 37. 

    When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your traing program?

    • Within 60 of arrival

    • 6 months after graduation

    • Within 10 work days after graduation

    • Within 10 calendar day after graduation

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 60 of arrival
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Within 60 of arrival." This means that the initial evaluation should be completed within 60 days of the individual's arrival. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the evaluation to take place and ensures that it is done in a timely manner.

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  • 38. 

    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
    Explanation
    The TBA (Training Business Area) is a tool that allows Air Force personnel to access and view their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It provides visibility into the individual's training progress and ensures that they meet the necessary requirements for their roles. This helps in tracking and managing the training needs of Air Force personnel efficiently.

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  • 39. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Reference" because a reference library typically contains books, articles, and other resources that are used for research and reference purposes. These resources are not expected to be updated frequently and therefore do not need to maintain publication currency. In contrast, training, aircraft, and operational libraries would need to stay current with the latest information and updates in their respective fields.

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  • 40. 

    What is the total number of AF catalogs?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 41. 

    Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

    • Trouble

    • Remedy

    • Section II

    • Probable Cause

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that require an action to be taken and lists two possible responses. It is likely that this column provides solutions or steps to resolve any issues or problems that may arise, allowing the user to choose the most appropriate response based on the situation.

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  • 42. 

    What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page?

    • Record

    • Urgent action

    • Routine action

    • Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent action
    Explanation
    The TCTO identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page is the one that requires urgent action. This marking is used to indicate that the TCTO is of high importance and needs immediate attention. The red diagonals and Xs serve as a visual cue to highlight the urgency and importance of the TCTO, ensuring that it is not overlooked or delayed.

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  • 43. 

    Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?

    • 00-1-01

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-20 series

    • 00-25 series

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22.

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  • 44. 

    Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?

    • Waiver.

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent". In a TO improvement report, the "Urgent" type requires immediate action on a TO deficiency that could potentially lead to reduced operational efficiency if not corrected promptly. This type of report highlights the importance of addressing the issue promptly to prevent any negative impact on the overall efficiency of operations.

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  • 45. 

    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

    • Directory

    • Pamphlet

    • Instruction

    • Supplement

    Correct Answer
    A. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that can provide guidance on completing forms but does not have the authority to enforce what is on the form. It is a concise and informative document that offers information and instructions on a specific topic. While a pamphlet can provide assistance in filling out forms, it does not have the power to enforce or mandate the information that should be included on the form. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 46. 

    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • B-5

    Correct Answer
    A. B-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-2. The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

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  • 47. 

    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • C-1

    Correct Answer
    A. B-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-4. A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used for maintenance and repair work on aircraft. It is designed with a scissor-like mechanism that allows for easy height adjustment and stability. Option B-4 is the only option that mentions a scissor-type maintenance stand, making it the correct answer.

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  • 48. 

    What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

    • 7,000

    • 8,000

    • 9,000

    • 10,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 8,000
    Explanation
    The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

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  • 49. 

    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is

    • 10 MPH

    • 15 MPH

    • 20 MPH

    • 25 MPH

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 MPH
    Explanation
    The maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH. This means that when driving on a straight road or highway, the trailer can be towed at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour. Going faster than this speed may exceed the trailer's towing capacity or compromise safety.

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