Air Force EOC: Aerospace Maintenance! Hardest Trivia Quiz

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Air Force EOC: Aerospace Maintenance! Hardest Trivia Quiz - Quiz

This is an air force EOC: aerospace maintenance quiz that is designed to see just how attentive a student was and their readiness to tackle the final certification exams. There is much that one can learn from class, but understanding all of it takes time. So, give this test a try and keep an eye out for others like it to refresh your understanding!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small portion of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions, natural disasters, or wildlife. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other non-natural factors.

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  • 2. 

    What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      70

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      98

    Correct Answer
    D. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98 because it indicates that a high percentage of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. This suggests that a majority of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors.

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  • 3. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • A.

      Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • B.

      TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • C.

      Manuals, TOs and handbooks

    • D.

      TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    C. Manuals, TOs and handbooks
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Manuals, TOs and handbooks. When performing maintenance procedures, it is important to refer to the appropriate manuals, which provide detailed instructions and guidelines for the specific equipment or system. Technical Orders (TOs) are official documents that provide specific instructions and information on maintenance procedures. Handbooks are also useful references that provide additional guidance and information. Therefore, using manuals, TOs, and handbooks together ensures that the maintenance procedures are performed correctly and efficiently.

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  • 4. 

    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting immpression for new Airmen?

    • A.

      Initial

    • B.

      General

    • C.

      Supervisor's

    • D.

      Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen. This phase refers to the first stage of safety training that new Airmen undergo when they join the Air Force. It is designed to provide them with foundational knowledge and skills regarding safety procedures and protocols. This training phase is crucial in establishing a strong safety culture among new Airmen and ensuring that they have a solid understanding of safety practices from the beginning of their career.

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  • 5. 

    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDCs if concentrations are greater than

    • A.

      -2.0 percent

    • B.

      -1.0 percent

    • C.

      0.1 percent

    • D.

      1.0 percent

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.1 percent
    Explanation
    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDS if concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if the chemical is present in a concentration higher than 0.1 percent in a material safety data sheet (MSDS), it is classified as a carcinogen.

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  • 6. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • A.

      The US Air Force

    • B.

      Each MAJCOM

    • C.

      DOD

    • D.

      EPA

    Correct Answer
    D. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA. The EPA, or the Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. The EPA is a federal agency in the United States that is tasked with protecting human health and the environment. They establish regulations and guidelines for managing hazardous waste, ensuring proper disposal and preventing pollution.

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  • 7. 

    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannott exceed

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      60 days

    • C.

      90 days

    • D.

      120 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 90 days
    Explanation
    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit is set to ensure that hazardous materials are not stored for extended periods, as they may pose a higher risk of accidents or environmental damage. By limiting the storage duration to 90 days, there is a better chance of timely disposal or transfer of the hazardous materials to appropriate facilities for further handling or disposal. This helps to minimize the potential risks associated with long-term storage of hazardous materials.

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  • 8. 

    What affects radiation hazards?

    • A.

      Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • B.

      Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • C.

      Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • D.

      Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

    Correct Answer
    B. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
    Explanation
    Radiation hazards are affected by the strength of emission, which refers to the intensity or power of the radiation being emitted. The time of exposure is also a factor, as longer exposure to radiation increases the risk of hazards. Additionally, weather conditions can affect radiation hazards, as certain weather patterns can cause radiation to disperse or concentrate in specific areas.

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  • 9. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling and overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • A.

      Spray with cold water.

    • B.

      Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • C.

      Cool with high pressure compressed air.

    • D.

      Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of further damage, and the brakes should be left to cool down naturally without any additional cooling methods such as water spray, forced air from a blower, or high pressure compressed air. Allowing the assembly to cool in the ambient air ensures that it cools down at a safe and controlled rate, reducing the risk of any further damage or complications.

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  • 10. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

    • A.

      15 degrees

    • B.

      45 degrees

    • C.

      65 degrees

    • D.

      95 degrees

    Correct Answer
    B. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 45 degrees. This is because the noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest in the direction of the engine's exhaust. At an angle of 45 degrees, the sound waves emitted from the engine's exhaust are directed towards the sides and rear of the engine, resulting in a higher noise intensity in these directions.

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  • 11. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • A.

      Dizziness

    • B.

      Emotional irritability

    • C.

      A feeling of emptiness

    • D.

      Impaired mental concetration

    Correct Answer
    C. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue typically manifests as physical and psychological symptoms. Dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration are commonly associated with noise fatigue due to prolonged exposure to loud or constant noise. However, a feeling of emptiness is not directly linked to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors such as depression or emotional distress.

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  • 12. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

    • A.

      Crew chief

    • B.

      Flight engineer.

    • C.

      Weapons personnel.

    • D.

      Only senior personnel on special orders.

    Correct Answer
    C. Weapons personnel.
    Explanation
    Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This task requires specialized knowledge and training in handling and disarming explosive devices, making weapons personnel the most qualified individuals for this responsibility. Crew chiefs and flight engineers may have other important roles in the aircraft launch process, but removing safety devices from explosive devices is specifically designated to weapons personnel. Senior personnel on special orders may have authority over the launch process, but they may not necessarily possess the expertise required for handling explosive devices.

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  • 13. 

    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar you must

    • A.

      Install shorting plugs and clips

    • B.

      Install mechanical safetying devices.

    • C.

      Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • D.

      Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loading aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives to ensure safety. This step is crucial to prevent any accidental detonation or ignition that could potentially cause harm or damage. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidents during the movement and storage of the aircraft is minimized, making it a necessary precautionary measure.

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  • 14. 

    All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT form?

    • A.

      55

    • B.

      457

    • C.

      623

    • D.

      1297

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    Composite material-related safety training must be documented on AF IMT form 55.

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  • 15. 

    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

    • A.

      Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly.

    • B.

      Follow MAJCOM guidelines.

    • C.

      Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • D.

      Educate all personnel

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify all possible sources of FOD
    Explanation
    To develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step involves conducting a thorough assessment of the environment and equipment to determine potential sources of debris that could pose a risk to safety and operations. By identifying these sources, necessary measures can be implemented to mitigate the risk of FOD, such as implementing proper storage and handling procedures, regular inspections, and maintenance protocols. This proactive approach helps prevent FOD incidents and ensures a safe working environment.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • A.

      Logistics and operations group commanders.

    • B.

      Immediate supervisor

    • C.

      Wing commander.

    • D.

      Everyone

    Correct Answer
    D. Everyone
    Explanation
    The responsibility for FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention lies with everyone. This means that all individuals within an organization, regardless of their position or rank, have a role to play in ensuring that FOD is prevented. FOD can cause damage to equipment, pose safety hazards, and lead to costly repairs. Therefore, it is crucial for everyone to be vigilant and take necessary precautions to prevent FOD incidents. This includes following proper procedures, maintaining cleanliness, and reporting any potential FOD hazards.

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  • 17. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • A.

      Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • B.

      Wing vice commander

    • C.

      Group commander

    • D.

      Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is typically the maintenance operations officer or maintenance superintendent. These individuals are responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and ensuring that all tools and equipment are properly accounted for. They have the authority to clear a red X, which indicates that a tool is missing or unavailable for use. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher levels of authority, but they are not typically involved in the day-to-day operations of tool accountability.

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  • 18. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • A.

      The FOD prevention office.

    • B.

      The operations commander.

    • C.

      The flight safety officer.

    • D.

      QA

    Correct Answer
    D. QA
    Explanation
    QA stands for Quality Assurance, and in most units, the QA department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. They ensure that proper procedures and standards are followed to prevent any accidents or incidents related to dropped objects. The QA team conducts investigations, identifies the root cause, and implements corrective actions to prevent future occurrences. They play a crucial role in maintaining safety and preventing any potential hazards caused by dropped objects.

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  • 19. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • A.

      Red markings

    • B.

      Black markings

    • C.

      Green markings

    • D.

      Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    C. Green markings
    Explanation
    The green markings indicate the safe operating range of pressure in a fire extinguisher. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure is at an optimal level for effective use of the extinguisher. It is important to keep the pressure within this range to ensure that the extinguisher functions properly and can effectively put out fires.

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  • 20. 

    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a

    • A.

      15-foot radius

    • B.

      20-foot radius

    • C.

      25-foot radius

    • D.

      50-foot radius

    Correct Answer
    B. 20-foot radius
    Explanation
    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a 20-foot radius. This distance is necessary to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous. By staying outside this radius, individuals can avoid potential accidents or injuries that may occur during the servicing process. It is important to maintain a safe distance to prevent any potential harm caused by the release or mishandling of nitrogen.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • A.

      Operations

    • B.

      The aircrew

    • C.

      Supervision

    • D.

      The ground crew

    Correct Answer
    B. The aircrew
    Explanation
    The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is their duty to ensure that all necessary checks and preparations are completed before takeoff. This includes inspecting the aircraft, verifying the fuel and weight, and confirming that all systems are functioning properly. The aircrew plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and readiness of the aircraft before each flight.

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  • 22. 

    When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself even with the

    • A.

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • B.

      Tail of the aircraft and at a 30degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    • C.

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • D.

      Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

    Correct Answer
    D. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45degree angle outboard of the engine being started.
    Explanation
    When serving as a fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This position allows you to have a clear view of the engine and any potential fire hazards while also staying out of the way of the starting procedure. Being at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine ensures that you are not directly in line with the exhaust and any potential hot gases or debris that may be expelled during the start-up process.

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  • 23. 

    What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?

    • A.

      AFI 23-106

    • B.

      AFI 11-218

    • C.

      TO 00-25-172

    • D.

      TO00-25-212

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 11-218
    Explanation
    AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This reference provides guidance and standards for the use of hand signals in various Air Force operations, ensuring clear and consistent communication between personnel. The other references listed do not specifically address internationally accepted hand signals.

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  • 24. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • A.

      Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • B.

      Supervisor or brake operator.

    • C.

      Supervisor of wing walkers.

    • D.

      Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only." The supervisor is the person who has the authority and responsibility to ensure the safety of the aircraft tow operation. They are the one who has the overall knowledge and understanding of the situation and can make an informed decision about when it is safe to give the "all clear to move" order. The supervisor takes into consideration various factors such as the position of the aircraft, the condition of the towing equipment, and the presence of any obstacles or hazards. Therefore, only the supervisor is authorized to give this order.

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  • 25. 

    What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

    • A.

      Departmental, intermediate, and field.

    • B.

      Organizational , field, and intermediate.

    • C.

      Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

    • D.

      Departmental, organizational, and depot.

    Correct Answer
    C. Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This is because in the Air Force, maintenance capabilities are typically organized in a hierarchical structure. At the lowest level, organizational maintenance refers to basic maintenance tasks performed by unit-level personnel. Intermediate maintenance refers to more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that are typically performed at a higher-level maintenance facility. Depot maintenance, on the other hand, refers to the most advanced level of maintenance capabilities, often involving major overhauls and repairs that are conducted at specialized maintenance depots. Therefore, the correct order of increasing capability is organizational, intermediate, and depot.

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  • 26. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • A.

      Unscheduled.

    • B.

      Preventive

    • C.

      Corrective

    • D.

      Protective

    Correct Answer
    B. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need by regularly inspecting, servicing, and repairing it to prevent breakdowns or failures. This type of maintenance is proactive and aims to identify and address potential issues before they cause any significant problems or downtime. By conducting preventive maintenance, organizations can minimize the risk of unexpected equipment failures, optimize equipment performance, and extend its lifespan.

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  • 27. 

    Objective of the MDD system include

    • A.

      Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • B.

      Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    • C.

      Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data.

    • D.

      Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
    Explanation
    The objective of the MDD system is to collect, store, and retrieve base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather information, store it in a database, and allow users to access and retrieve that data when needed. Calling and saving are not mentioned as specific objectives, and reviewing is not sufficient to cover the full scope of the system's purpose.

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  • 28. 

    What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

    • A.

      781A

    • B.

      781F

    • C.

      781H

    • D.

      781J

    Correct Answer
    B. 781F
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

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  • 29. 

    The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder

    • A.

      Before the first flight of the day.

    • B.

      Before each thru flight inspection,.

    • C.

      After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

    • D.

      After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number.

    Correct Answer
    C. After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance document that records information about aircraft maintenance and inspections. It is necessary to remove the form from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is updated with the latest information and ready for the next maintenance action or inspection. Removing the form before the first flight of the day, before each thru flight inspection, or after each maintenance action with an assigned job control number would not be appropriate as the form may still require additional updates or information.

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  • 30. 

    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

    • A.

      781G

    • B.

      781J

    • C.

      781M

    • D.

      781P

    Correct Answer
    B. 781J
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO 781J form is used to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed for recording aircraft engine data, including any instances of over-temperature conditions. It allows maintenance personnel to track and monitor engine performance and identify any potential issues or trends that may require attention or further investigation. The other options (781G, 781M, 781P) are different forms used for various maintenance purposes, but not specifically for recording engine over-temperature conditions.

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  • 31. 

    Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

    • A.

      Base supply coordinator.

    • B.

      Critical item liaison.

    • C.

      Equipment liaison.

    • D.

      Item managers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Item managers.
    Explanation
    Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the importance and relevance of each item and its historical data. They understand the specific requirements and criteria for historical reporting and can make informed decisions based on that. The item managers play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and comprehensive historical reporting for the MDS specific -6 TO.

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  • 32. 

    The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the

    • A.

      MAJCOM level.

    • B.

      Wing level

    • C.

      Base level

    • D.

      Unit level

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is unit level. The IMDS is a maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources at the unit level. This means that it is specifically designed to assist managers in overseeing and managing maintenance operations at the individual unit level, rather than at higher levels such as the base, wing, or MAJCOM.

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  • 33. 

    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

    • A.

      Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • B.

      Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • C.

      Helping evaluate the training of new personnel.

    • D.

      Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

    Correct Answer
    D. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
    Explanation
    The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the manpower needed for training activities. It ensures that the right personnel are scheduled for training at the right time, maximizing efficiency and productivity. By doing so, it helps in optimizing the use of resources and ensures that training needs are met effectively.

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  • 34. 

    When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your traing program?

    • A.

      Within 60 of arrival

    • B.

      6 months after graduation

    • C.

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    • D.

      Within 10 calendar day after graduation

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 60 of arrival
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Within 60 of arrival." This means that the initial evaluation should be completed within 60 days of the individual's arrival. It is important to assess the progress and performance of the trainee soon after they join the training program to ensure that they are on track and receiving the necessary support and guidance. This evaluation helps in identifying any areas of improvement or additional training needs early on, allowing for timely interventions and adjustments to the training program if required.

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  • 35. 

    The GAS is normally sent out

    • A.

      90 days after graduation

    • B.

      6 months after graduation

    • C.

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    • D.

      Within 10 calendar days after graduation

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days after graduation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90 days after graduation. This means that the GAS (presumably referring to some kind of document or notification) is typically sent out three months after the person has graduated. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for any necessary paperwork or administrative tasks to be completed before the document is sent.

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  • 36. 

    Where can you find a list of training courses available for and AFSC?

    • A.

      CFETP, Part I.

    • B.

      AFJQS

    • C.

      Command JQS

    • D.

      CFETP,Part II.

    Correct Answer
    D. CFETP,Part II.
    Explanation
    CFETP, Part II is the correct answer because CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). CFETP, Part II specifically provides a list of training courses available for an AFSC, making it the appropriate source to find such information. The other options, CFETP, Part I, AFJQS, and Command JQS, may contain other relevant information but do not specifically list the training courses available for an AFSC.

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  • 37. 

    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • A.

      Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • B.

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • C.

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • D.

      Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This is because the TBA (Training Business Area) provides Air Force personnel with real-time access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It allows them to see their progress, track their certifications, and stay updated on their training status. This visibility is important for individuals to ensure they meet the necessary requirements and maintain their qualifications in their respective roles within the Air Force.

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  • 38. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • A.

      Training

    • B.

      Aircraft

    • C.

      Reference

    • D.

      Operational.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reference
    Explanation
    The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it contains resources that are meant to provide information and serve as a point of reference, rather than being updated regularly. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries, which require up-to-date information for their specific purposes, the reference library is a collection of materials that can be consulted for general knowledge and background information. Therefore, it does not need to be regularly updated to maintain publication currency.

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  • 39. 

    What is the total number of AF catalogs?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    There is only one AF catalog available.

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  • 40. 

    Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

    • A.

      Trouble

    • B.

      Remedy

    • C.

      Section II

    • D.

      Probable Cause

    Correct Answer
    B. Remedy
    Explanation
    The Remedy column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses. This column provides guidance on how to address and resolve a particular issue or problem that may arise. It offers step-by-step instructions on what actions to take and provides two potential responses that can be implemented to resolve the issue effectively.

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  • 41. 

    What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page?

    • A.

      Record

    • B.

      Urgent action

    • C.

      Routine action

    • D.

      Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    B. Urgent action
    Explanation
    A TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) that is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page is categorized as "Urgent action." This marking indicates that the TCTO requires immediate attention and action to address a critical issue or potential hazard. It signifies that failure to comply with the instructions outlined in the TCTO could result in serious consequences or safety risks.

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  • 42. 

    Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?

    • A.

      00-1-01

    • B.

      00-5-1

    • C.

      00-20 series

    • D.

      00-25 series

    Correct Answer
    B. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22.

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  • 43. 

    Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?

    • A.

      Waiver.

    • B.

      Urgent

    • C.

      Routine

    • D.

      Emergency

    Correct Answer
    B. Urgent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent." This report type requires immediate action on a TO deficiency that could potentially lead to reduced operational efficiency if not addressed promptly.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

    • A.

      Directory

    • B.

      Pamphlet

    • C.

      Instruction

    • D.

      Supplement

    Correct Answer
    B. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that can provide guidance on completing forms and cite them, but it lacks the authority to enforce what is on the form. Unlike an instruction, which typically provides step-by-step directions and can enforce compliance, a pamphlet offers information and recommendations without the power to enforce. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 45. 

    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

    • A.

      B-1

    • B.

      B-2

    • C.

      B-4

    • D.

      B-5

    Correct Answer
    B. B-2
    Explanation
    The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

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  • 46. 

    Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?

    • A.

      B-1

    • B.

      B-2

    • C.

      B-4

    • D.

      C-1

    Correct Answer
    C. B-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-4. A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used for maintenance and repair tasks on aircraft. It is designed to provide a stable platform that can be adjusted to different heights. Option B-4 is the correct answer because it represents a scissor-type maintenance stand, while the other options do not.

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  • 47. 

    What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

    • A.

      7,000

    • B.

      8,000

    • C.

      9,000

    • D.

      10,000

    Correct Answer
    B. 8,000
    Explanation
    The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

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  • 48. 

    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is

    • A.

      10 MPH

    • B.

      15 MPH

    • C.

      20 MPH

    • D.

      25 MPH

    Correct Answer
    C. 20 MPH
    Explanation
    The maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH. This suggests that the trailer is designed to be towed at a safe and efficient speed of 20 miles per hour on straight roads. Going faster than this speed may pose a risk to the trailer and its contents, while going slower may not fully utilize the trailer's capabilities.

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  • 49. 

    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

    • A.

      Tail

    • B.

      Axle

    • C.

      Nose

    • D.

      Fixed-height

    Correct Answer
    B. Axle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is axle. An axle jack is typically used to change a tire on an aircraft. This type of jack is designed to lift the aircraft by the axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. It provides stability and support during the tire changing process, ensuring the safety of the aircraft and personnel involved.

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  • 50. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?

    • A.

      AGE personnel.

    • B.

      Aircrew personnel

    • C.

      Shift supervisor

    • D.

      Everyone

    Correct Answer
    D. Everyone
    Explanation
    Everyone is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented. This means that each individual involved in the process, including AGE personnel, aircrew personnel, and the shift supervisor, must take responsibility for accurately and thoroughly completing the form. It is a collective effort to ensure that the documentation is done correctly and in compliance with the required standards.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 17, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Shalewis22
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