7 Level Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman Volume 2 CDC

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  • 1/70 Questions

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer
    • Group commander
    • Unit training manager
    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief
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7 Level Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman Volume 2 CDC - Quiz
About This Quiz

Whether you are associated with small aircrafts, commercial or even military aircrafts, 7 Level Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman is an important study and knowledge to have. The questions will challenge your knowledge, which is a good thing.

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  • 2. 

    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point with

    • 8 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 32 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    A Category I deficiency is a serious issue that needs to be addressed promptly. To ensure timely action, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted within a specific timeframe. In this case, the correct answer is 24 hours, meaning that the DR must be submitted within 24 hours of discovering the Category I deficiency. This allows for quick identification and resolution of the problem, minimizing any potential risks or negative impacts.

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  • 3. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Air Training Command (ATC)

    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it is logical that TDs, which are specifically focused on training, would be assigned to AETC. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (AFRC), do not have the same emphasis on training and education as AETC, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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  • 4. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • 12 hours

    • 13 hours

    • 14 hours

    • 15 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 hours. This means that you can schedule your workers for a maximum continuous duty time of 12 hours without needing approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC). This policy is likely in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the workers, as working for longer periods without breaks can lead to fatigue and decreased productivity. By limiting the continuous duty time to 12 hours, the organization is prioritizing the health and safety of its employees.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not always the sole cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be direct indicators of pollution.

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  • 6. 

    Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) allows Air Force personnel to have visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily see what qualifications and certifications they have achieved, as well as their current training status. This information is important for personnel to track their progress and ensure they meet the necessary requirements for their roles. It also allows supervisors and commanders to have a clear understanding of the qualifications and training levels of their personnel.

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  • 7. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrad a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • SMSgt

    • CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X" issue. The higher rank signifies a higher level of experience, knowledge, and responsibility, which is necessary to make informed decisions regarding the downgrading of a "Red-X" issue.

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  • 8. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated.  Provided is has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After an individual returns from TDY, leave, or incapacitation, they are allowed 30 days before decertification is required. This means that they have a 30-day grace period to complete their training recertification after returning.

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  • 9. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • 14 hours

    • 15 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 18 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts exceeding 12 hours up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements or unforeseen circumstances, the maintenance group commander can authorize the personnel to work for up to 16 hours. However, any shift exceeding this limit would require higher-level approval.

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  • 10. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This ensures that the necessary resources are readily available for the mission and can be accessed through the base's supply system.

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  • 11. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    • Management Inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Special Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Evaluation
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, "Personnel Evaluation," refers to an over-the-shoulder evaluation conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) while a technician performs a task. This evaluation is focused on assessing the individual's performance, skills, and adherence to standards. It helps identify any areas that may require improvement and ensures that personnel are meeting the required standards and performing tasks correctly.

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  • 12. 

    Maintenance supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • Maintenance squadron (MXS)

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)

    • Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS)

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing the supply chain and logistics operations within the squadron. The LRS is typically responsible for providing supply support, transportation, and maintenance support to the entire base or unit. Therefore, it makes sense for the maintenance supply Liaison personnel to report directly to the LRS commander, as they play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations.

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  • 13. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

    • DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This form is typically used to indicate that a specific action has been taken or a condition exists that could be hazardous to personnel or equipment. By using this tag, it alerts others that the part has been properly drained and/or purged and should not pose any risks.

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  • 14. 

    The wing foreing object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located with the 

    • Maintenance Flight

    • Quality Assurance section

    • Engine Management section

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located with the Quality Assurance section. This is because the Quality Assurance section is responsible for ensuring that maintenance procedures and standards are followed correctly. The FOD monitor is an important tool in preventing damage to aircraft caused by foreign objects on the runway or in the hangar. By placing it in the Quality Assurance section, they can closely monitor and enforce FOD prevention measures to maintain the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

    • Bolt

    • Panel

    • Safety pin

    • Explosive munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or launched during aircrew operations. This program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety risk to personnel or equipment. Since explosive munitions are deliberately used and released as part of their intended purpose, they are not classified as dropped objects in this context.

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  • 16. 

    What maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task

    • Special Inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Management Inspection

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to ensure that the task has been completed to the required quality standards. This inspection is conducted to verify that the technician has followed all necessary procedures and that the task meets the specified quality criteria. It helps to identify any deficiencies or errors in the completed work and ensures that the maintenance standards are maintained consistently.

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  • 17. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-Level course

    • Weight and Balance

    • Maintenance Orientation

    • General Technical Order system

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course in a Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This course provides an overview of the maintenance operations and procedures within the MTF, ensuring that new personnel are familiar with the organization, safety protocols, and basic maintenance principles. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a condensed format, allowing for efficient and focused learning. This method is particularly effective for courses like Maintenance Orientation, where a broad range of information needs to be covered in a relatively short period of time.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that a maintenance supply liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in assets would typically be the responsibility of a different role or department within the organization.

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  • 19. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    The XB3 ERRC code must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed in the normal course of operations. Additionally, the XB3 code suggests that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it cannot be reclaimed or reused after it has been used. Lastly, the XB3 code implies that the asset is not repairable, meaning it cannot be fixed or restored to its original condition once it becomes damaged or broken.

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  • 20. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization aims to have enough stock on hand to last for 30 days, ensuring that they have an adequate supply of necessary items without excessive surplus. This helps to maintain operational efficiency and minimize the risk of running out of critical supplies.

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  • 21. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • Audio Visual Center

    • Engineering Data Service Center

    • AF Primary Standards Laboratory

    • Communication and Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering Data Service Center
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the necessary engineering information in one place. It serves as a resource for engineers and other professionals who need access to this data for various purposes. The center ensures that all engineering drawings and data are properly managed and easily accessible to those who need them.

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  • 22. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance Qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II because the four sub-phases mentioned in the question are all part of the initial training phase. This phase typically includes multiphase training, which covers a broad range of topics, followed by MAJCOM mandatory training, which focuses on specific requirements set by the major command. The freeflow phase allows trainees to apply their knowledge in a more independent and flexible manner, while the maintenance Qualification training ensures that trainees are qualified and competent in their specific maintenance tasks.

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  • 23. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of resources for personnel within an organization. Funded manpower authorizations are those that have been approved and allocated a budget, ensuring that there are financial resources available to support the personnel. This means that the organization has committed to providing the necessary funding for these authorized positions. On the other hand, unfunded manpower authorizations have not been allocated a budget, indicating that there are no financial resources currently available for these positions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Funded."

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  • 24. 

    Which Precious Metals Indication Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier for suppliers and buyers to accurately identify and classify these items based on their composition.

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  • 25. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations Group Commander

    • Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure the proper handling and security of classified materials within their installation. The aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander may have other responsibilities related to the transportation or support of classified materials, but the ultimate authority lies with the host installation commander.

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  • 26. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame allows for prompt reporting and assessment of the incident, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to address any potential damage or safety concerns caused by the foreign object. It also allows for timely communication and coordination with the MAJCOM FOD manager, who is responsible for overseeing FOD prevention and mitigation efforts at the major command level.

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  • 27. 

    When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MCG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After receiving an unsatisfactory MSET rating, the MCG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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  • 28. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • I

    • III

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific training in Block IIB.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • Customer

    • Maintenance Supply support

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that it is up to the customer to decide how urgently they need the requested parts and communicate this priority to the relevant parties. The customer's needs and priorities are taken into consideration when determining the order in which the parts will be delivered.

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  • 30. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The UJCs AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 31. 

    The product Imp[rovement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the maintenance group (MXG). Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that products meet the required standards and specifications. The product improvement manager would be responsible for identifying areas of improvement in the product and implementing changes to enhance its quality.

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  • 32. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron Commander

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX Supt)

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the Squadron Commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the squadron, including the appointment of personnel to specific roles and responsibilities. As the equipment account custodian is responsible for managing and maintaining the squadron's equipment inventory, it is the Squadron Commander's duty to appoint someone to this position.

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  • 33. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up the EID code. The correct answer is 9. This means that the EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 34. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because holding meetings on a monthly basis allows for regular communication and discussion of manning issues in the maintenance group. This frequency strikes a balance between having enough time to gather relevant information and address any concerns, while also ensuring that updates and decisions are made in a timely manner. Holding meetings less frequently, such as quarterly or semiannually, may lead to delays in addressing important issues, while holding them more frequently, such as weekly, may be too frequent and may not allow for sufficient progress to be made between meetings.

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  • 35. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished ever

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment.

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  • 36. 

    Red ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

    • Air aborts

    • Late takeoffs

    • Ground aborts

    • Aircraft status changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft status changes
    Explanation
    Red ball maintenance refers to urgent or critical maintenance tasks that need to be addressed immediately to ensure the safety and reliability of an aircraft. It is focused on fixing issues that can lead to major problems or accidents. Therefore, it is not specifically designed to prevent aircraft status changes, which could refer to any change in the operational or maintenance status of an aircraft. Red ball maintenance is more concerned with addressing immediate safety concerns rather than preventing general changes in aircraft status.

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  • 37. 

    How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?

    • Annually

    • Semi-Anually

    • Quarterly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-Anually
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) twice a year. This ensures that they stay updated on the certifications of their maintenance personnel and can make any necessary adjustments or updates as needed. Reviewing the SCR semi-annually helps to maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications held by the maintenance team.

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  • 38. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system

    • A4MT

    • A4YE

    • A4U

    • A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. A4U
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A4U. A4U refers to the Air Force Chief of Staff, who is responsible for the overall policy governing the TO (Technical Order) system. As the highest-ranking officer in the Air Force, the Chief of Staff has the authority and responsibility to establish and enforce policies that govern various aspects of the Air Force, including the TO system. The TO system is crucial for ensuring the proper maintenance, operation, and safety of Air Force equipment, and the Chief of Staff plays a key role in setting the policies that govern this system.

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  • 39. 

    In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • Open suspenses

    • System upgrades

    • Application problems

    • Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    A. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the TBA application, users will be notified through the "System Messages" board.

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  • 40. 

    Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance

    • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing

    • AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, is the correct answer because it provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for maintaining and managing aircraft and equipment, including guidance on maintenance recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, which are essential for ensuring effective maintenance recovery operations.

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  • 41. 

    Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

    • Wing Inspector General

    • Majcom Inspector General

    • Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

    • Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to and works under the supervision of the QA OIC/SUPT to ensure that the maintenance standards and evaluations are being met.

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  • 42. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hand-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses

    • Maintenance qualification

    • Maintenance refresher

    • On-the-job

    • Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training refers to the ongoing education and training that individuals receive after completing their initial skills training. In the context of the given question, maintenance qualification is the correct answer as it aligns with the description of continuation training consisting of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. Maintenance qualification training helps individuals maintain and enhance their skills in the maintenance field, ensuring they stay up-to-date with the latest practices and procedures.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

    • Weapons loading operations

    • Radiographic inspections

    • Fuel system repair

    • Aircraft on jacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons loading operations
    Explanation
    Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance activities are carried out, and access is restricted to authorized personnel only. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks all involve maintenance activities that require a restricted maintenance area due to safety and security concerns. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in a separate area, such as a weapons storage area or a dedicated weapons loading area, which may have its own specific safety protocols but is not considered a restricted maintenance area.

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  • 44. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. This role acts as a bridge between the maintenance and supply departments, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They coordinate with both departments to identify and address any issues or challenges in the supply chain, ensuring smooth operations and timely resolution of supply support problems.

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  • 45. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04 Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D04 Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The D04 Daily Document Register provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document tracks the supply chain activities and records the details of all documents processed, including their numbers. It helps in monitoring and managing the flow of documents within the organization, ensuring that all necessary processes are completed and documented.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Standard," is not a technical order (TO) change priority category. Technical order change priority categories typically include Urgent, Routine, and Emergency. These categories determine the level of urgency and importance for implementing changes to technical orders. However, "Standard" is not commonly recognized as a TO change priority category, suggesting that it is not a valid option in this context.

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  • 47. 

    Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?

    • Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander

    • MXG Impoundment Release Authority

    • Applicable Impoundment Authority

    • Applicable Squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Applicable Impoundment Authority
    Explanation
    The Applicable Impoundment Authority designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation. This means that the authority responsible for the specific impoundment situation is the one who appoints the Impoundment Official. The other options, such as the Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander, MXG Impoundment Release Authority, and Applicable Squadron commander, do not have the authority to designate the Impoundment Official in this context.

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  • 48. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) procide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC about the current training status every month. This regular briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is aware of any training progress or issues within the maintenance group and can make informed decisions accordingly.

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  • 49. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • Operations officer

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. As the supervisor of the section, they have a direct understanding of the specific hazards and risks associated with the workcenter and are in the best position to develop a comprehensive training plan to address these hazards. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and input into the plan, but the primary responsibility lies with the section supervisor.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 14, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 10, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Andycappz

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