1.
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it is logical that TDs, which are specifically focused on training, would be assigned to AETC. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (AFRC), do not have the same emphasis on training and education as AETC, making them less likely to be the correct answer.
2.
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
Correct Answer
B. Semi-Anually
Explanation
The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) twice a year. This ensures that they stay updated on the certifications of their maintenance personnel and can make any necessary adjustments or updates as needed. Reviewing the SCR semi-annually helps to maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications held by the maintenance team.
3.
In order to be given authority to downgrad a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
Correct Answer
B. MSgt
Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher can be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X" issue. The higher rank signifies a higher level of experience, knowledge, and responsibility, which is necessary to make informed decisions regarding the downgrading of a "Red-X" issue.
4.
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real time
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
Explanation
The Training Business Area (TBA) allows Air Force personnel to have visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily see what qualifications and certifications they have achieved, as well as their current training status. This information is important for personnel to track their progress and ensure they meet the necessary requirements for their roles. It also allows supervisors and commanders to have a clear understanding of the qualifications and training levels of their personnel.
5.
In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
Correct Answer
C. Application problems
Explanation
The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the TBA application, users will be notified through the "System Messages" board.
6.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance Qualification training?
Correct Answer
B. II
Explanation
The correct answer is II because the four sub-phases mentioned in the question are all part of the initial training phase. This phase typically includes multiphase training, which covers a broad range of topics, followed by MAJCOM mandatory training, which focuses on specific requirements set by the major command. The freeflow phase allows trainees to apply their knowledge in a more independent and flexible manner, while the maintenance Qualification training ensures that trainees are qualified and competent in their specific maintenance tasks.
7.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hand-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualification
Explanation
Continuation training refers to the ongoing education and training that individuals receive after completing their initial skills training. In the context of the given question, maintenance qualification is the correct answer as it aligns with the description of continuation training consisting of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. Maintenance qualification training helps individuals maintain and enhance their skills in the maintenance field, ensuring they stay up-to-date with the latest practices and procedures.
8.
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) procide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
Correct Answer
A. Monthly
Explanation
The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC about the current training status every month. This regular briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is aware of any training progress or issues within the maintenance group and can make informed decisions accordingly.
9.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided is has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
After an individual returns from TDY, leave, or incapacitation, they are allowed 30 days before decertification is required. This means that they have a 30-day grace period to complete their training recertification after returning.
10.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
Correct Answer
C. Unit training manager
Explanation
The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). They are in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit, and as part of their role, they conduct interviews to assess the readiness and suitability of trainees for the CDC. This interview helps to gather information about the trainee's current skills and knowledge, as well as their goals and expectations for the course. It also allows the supervisor to provide input and discuss any specific training needs or concerns.
11.
Manpower authorizations are
Correct Answer
A. Funded
Explanation
Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of resources for personnel within an organization. Funded manpower authorizations are those that have been approved and allocated a budget, ensuring that there are financial resources available to support the personnel. This means that the organization has committed to providing the necessary funding for these authorized positions. On the other hand, unfunded manpower authorizations have not been allocated a budget, indicating that there are no financial resources currently available for these positions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Funded."
12.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
Correct Answer
B. Monthly
Explanation
The correct answer is monthly because holding meetings on a monthly basis allows for regular communication and discussion of manning issues in the maintenance group. This frequency strikes a balance between having enough time to gather relevant information and address any concerns, while also ensuring that updates and decisions are made in a timely manner. Holding meetings less frequently, such as quarterly or semiannually, may lead to delays in addressing important issues, while holding them more frequently, such as weekly, may be too frequent and may not allow for sufficient progress to be made between meetings.
13.
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
Correct Answer
A. 12 hours
Explanation
The correct answer is 12 hours. This means that you can schedule your workers for a maximum continuous duty time of 12 hours without needing approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC). This policy is likely in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the workers, as working for longer periods without breaks can lead to fatigue and decreased productivity. By limiting the continuous duty time to 12 hours, the organization is prioritizing the health and safety of its employees.
14.
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
Correct Answer
C. 16 hours
Explanation
Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve shifts exceeding 12 hours up to a maximum of 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements or unforeseen circumstances, the maintenance group commander can authorize the personnel to work for up to 16 hours. However, any shift exceeding this limit would require higher-level approval.
15.
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Orientation
Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course in a Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This course provides an overview of the maintenance operations and procedures within the MTF, ensuring that new personnel are familiar with the organization, safety protocols, and basic maintenance principles. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a condensed format, allowing for efficient and focused learning. This method is particularly effective for courses like Maintenance Orientation, where a broad range of information needs to be covered in a relatively short period of time.
16.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liaison
Explanation
The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. This role acts as a bridge between the maintenance and supply departments, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance operations. They coordinate with both departments to identify and address any issues or challenges in the supply chain, ensuring smooth operations and timely resolution of supply support problems.
17.
Maintenance supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
Correct Answer
B. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)
Explanation
Maintenance supply Liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing the supply chain and logistics operations within the squadron. The LRS is typically responsible for providing supply support, transportation, and maintenance support to the entire base or unit. Therefore, it makes sense for the maintenance supply Liaison personnel to report directly to the LRS commander, as they play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations.
18.
Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
Explanation
The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that a maintenance supply liaison would typically perform. However, collecting and turning in assets would typically be the responsibility of a different role or department within the organization.
19.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This ensures that the necessary resources are readily available for the mission and can be accessed through the base's supply system.
20.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
Correct Answer
D. XB3
Explanation
The XB3 ERRC code must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed in the normal course of operations. Additionally, the XB3 code suggests that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it cannot be reclaimed or reused after it has been used. Lastly, the XB3 code implies that the asset is not repairable, meaning it cannot be fixed or restored to its original condition once it becomes damaged or broken.
21.
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
Correct Answer
A. 30
Explanation
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization aims to have enough stock on hand to last for 30 days, ensuring that they have an adequate supply of necessary items without excessive surplus. This helps to maintain operational efficiency and minimize the risk of running out of critical supplies.
22.
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?
Correct Answer
B. II
Explanation
Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable. This means that if the item is still in good condition and can be safely used, it can be inspected and given a new expiration date to extend its shelf life.
23.
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)
Explanation
The Maintenance squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This role is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the maintenance squadron, including coordinating with other units and ensuring that all maintenance requirements are met. They work closely with the MXG Commander and MXG Superintendent to ensure that the maintenance group can effectively meet the local manufacture requirements.
24.
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
Correct Answer
B. Engineering Data Service Center
Explanation
The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the necessary engineering information in one place. It serves as a resource for engineers and other professionals who need access to this data for various purposes. The center ensures that all engineering drawings and data are properly managed and easily accessible to those who need them.
25.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy water
Explanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not always the sole cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be direct indicators of pollution.
26.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisor
Explanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. As the supervisor of the section, they have a direct understanding of the specific hazards and risks associated with the workcenter and are in the best position to develop a comprehensive training plan to address these hazards. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and input into the plan, but the primary responsibility lies with the section supervisor.
27.
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
Correct Answer
A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
Explanation
The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This form is typically used to indicate that a specific action has been taken or a condition exists that could be hazardous to personnel or equipment. By using this tag, it alerts others that the part has been properly drained and/or purged and should not pose any risks.
28.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Correct Answer
B. Squadron Commander
Explanation
The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the Squadron Commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the squadron, including the appointment of personnel to specific roles and responsibilities. As the equipment account custodian is responsible for managing and maintaining the squadron's equipment inventory, it is the Squadron Commander's duty to appoint someone to this position.
29.
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
Correct Answer
C. IIB
Explanation
Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific training in Block IIB.
30.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss
Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed to investigate property loss and determine financial liability. The form collects information about the circumstances of the loss, the individuals involved, and the estimated value of the property. It is an important document in the process of determining accountability and responsibility for property loss within the military.
31.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
Correct Answer
B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This means that the ELO is in charge of keeping track of and accounting for these assets within the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility of managing SPRAM assets on in-use detail records.
32.
Unless delegated who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
Correct Answer
C. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander
Explanation
The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This individual is in charge of overseeing the mission support functions within the organization, which includes managing resources and support services. As such, they have the authority and responsibility to review and approve SPRAM authorizations to ensure they align with the organization's goals and objectives. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander, and Maintenance Group (MXG) commander may have other responsibilities within their respective areas but are not specifically designated as responsible for reviewing SPRAM authorizations.
33.
Which Precious Metals Indication Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
Correct Answer
B. C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier for suppliers and buyers to accurately identify and classify these items based on their composition.
34.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
Correct Answer
B. D04 Daily Document Register
Explanation
The D04 Daily Document Register provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document tracks the supply chain activities and records the details of all documents processed, including their numbers. It helps in monitoring and managing the flow of documents within the organization, ensuring that all necessary processes are completed and documented.
35.
Which supply tracing document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
Correct Answer
B. D04, Daily Document Register
Explanation
The Daily Document Register is a supply tracing document that is produced daily. It lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. Therefore, the correct answer is D04, Daily Document Register.
36.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
Correct Answer
D. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List
Explanation
The Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This document helps track and manage the repair cycle of assets and ensures that the necessary supplies are available for support. The other options, D18, D04, and M-24, do not specifically pertain to monitoring issue and bench stock supply support.
37.
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
Correct Answer
B. Host installation commander
Explanation
The host installation commander is responsible for authorizing the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure the proper handling and security of classified materials within their installation. The aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander may have other responsibilities related to the transportation or support of classified materials, but the ultimate authority lies with the host installation commander.
38.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished ever
Correct Answer
C. 3 hours
Explanation
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment.
39.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
Correct Answer
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They are responsible for ensuring that all equipment is properly maintained and in working order. As the chief inspector, they have the authority to review and approve the list of assets that require these checks and programming. They play a crucial role in maintaining the readiness and functionality of the unit's supply assets.
40.
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
Correct Answer
A. Customer
Explanation
The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that it is up to the customer to decide how urgently they need the requested parts and communicate this priority to the relevant parties. The customer's needs and priorities are taken into consideration when determining the order in which the parts will be delivered.
41.
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
Correct Answer
B. AR or BR
Explanation
The UJCs AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.
42.
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
Correct Answer
D. LRS material management element
Explanation
Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and controlling the supply of materials and equipment needed for maintenance operations. They ensure that the necessary supplies are available and delivered to the maintenance work area in a timely manner. By coordinating with the LRS material management element, maintenance can ensure that they have the necessary resources to effectively perform their tasks and maintain operational readiness.
43.
Once establushed, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually
Explanation
Supply point accounts must be reconciled semiannually by the workcenter supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process occurs twice a year. Reconciling the accounts involves comparing the records of supplies received and issued with the physical inventory on hand. This helps ensure accuracy and accountability in the supply chain management system. By reconciling the accounts semiannually, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and corrected in a timely manner, allowing for efficient and effective management of supplies.
44.
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
Explanation
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing all maintenance activities for the aircraft. They will be able to track the availability of the MICAP part and ensure that it is properly allocated to the aircraft in need. The MOC will also be able to communicate with the Aircraft Maintenance Unit's (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler to ensure that the necessary maintenance is scheduled and completed in a timely manner.
45.
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
Correct Answer
B. Supply Discrepancy Report
Explanation
A Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply chain, such as incorrect or damaged items received. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the customer can request a refund or replacement for the defective or incorrect item.
46.
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?
Correct Answer
D. Originating Point
Explanation
The originating point has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the entire program, including the process of submitting deficiency reports. They are responsible for ensuring that all reports are properly handled and addressed, and that any necessary actions are taken to rectify the reported deficiencies.
47.
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
Correct Answer
B. Action Point
Explanation
The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. This means that the Action Point is responsible for receiving and managing the Deficiency Reports, ensuring that they are properly addressed and resolved between the support point and submitting organization. The Action Point plays a crucial role in facilitating communication and coordination between these two entities to ensure that any deficiencies are effectively identified and resolved.
48.
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the screening point with
Correct Answer
C. 24 hours
Explanation
A Category I deficiency is a serious issue that needs to be addressed promptly. To ensure timely action, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted within a specific timeframe. In this case, the correct answer is 24 hours, meaning that the DR must be submitted within 24 hours of discovering the Category I deficiency. This allows for quick identification and resolution of the problem, minimizing any potential risks or negative impacts.
49.
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
Correct Answer
A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
Explanation
The duties of a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of a MXG TODO. This task is typically performed by the units themselves or by higher-level organizations responsible for managing the TODA system.
50.
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
Correct Answer
D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
Explanation
The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is responsible for planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of maintenance activities. They are also responsible for ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed to ensure compliance with maintenance requirements.