2A656 EOC

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2A656 EOC - Quiz

Electrical & Enviornmental 5 Level Test. 100 random questions on each attempt from 400 questions of all the 5 CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    There are how many levels of maintenance?

    • A.

      Two

    • B.

      Three

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Five

    Correct Answer
    B. Three
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Three. This suggests that there are three levels of maintenance.

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  • 2. 

    If you work on an aircraft on the flightline, you are doing which level of maintenance?

    • A.

      Depot

    • B.

      Intermediate

    • C.

      Organizational

    • D.

      Off-equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Organizational
    Explanation
    If you work on an aircraft on the flightline, you are doing Organizational level maintenance. Organizational maintenance refers to the maintenance tasks performed on an aircraft by the unit or organization responsible for its operation. This level of maintenance includes routine inspections, minor repairs, and servicing of the aircraft to ensure its continued operational readiness. Working on the flightline indicates that the maintenance is being conducted at the operational level, which falls under organizational maintenance.

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  • 3. 

    Who is responsible for managing the wing's quality assurance progams?

    • A.

      Flight Chief

    • B.

      Quality assurance section chief`

    • C.

      Maintenance group commander

    • D.

      Aircraft maintenance sqaudron commmander

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance group commander
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander is responsible for managing the wing's quality assurance programs. This role involves overseeing and ensuring the quality of maintenance operations within the group, including implementing and enforcing quality control measures, conducting inspections and audits, and addressing any issues or deficiencies that may arise. The maintenance group commander plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall quality and safety of the wing's operations.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the wing Enviornmental Protection Agency program?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      Propulsion flight chief

    • D.

      Maintenance superintendent

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for ensuring compliance with the wing Environmental Protection Agency program. They have the authority and oversight to enforce and monitor environmental regulations within their squadron. This includes implementing policies, conducting inspections, and ensuring that all personnel under their command adhere to environmental protection guidelines. The squadron commander plays a crucial role in maintaining environmental compliance and promoting sustainability within the wing.

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  • 5. 

    Who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production?

    • A.

      Maintenance group commander

    • B.

      Maintenance flight chief

    • C.

      Maintenance supervisior

    • D.

      Flight chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance supervisior
    Explanation
    The maintenance supervisor is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production. They oversee the daily operations of the maintenance team, ensuring that tasks are completed efficiently and according to schedule. They coordinate with the maintenance flight chief and other personnel to ensure that all maintenance requirements are met and that the squadron's aircraft and equipment are in optimal condition. The maintenance supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining the squadron's readiness and ensuring that maintenance production meets the commander's expectations.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible to the maintenace supervisor for the leadership, supervison, and training of assigned personnel?

    • A.

      Shift leader

    • B.

      Section chief

    • C.

      Flight commander/chief

    • D.

      Maintenance superintendent

    Correct Answer
    C. Flight commander/chief
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief is responsible for the leadership, supervision, and training of assigned personnel. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that the personnel under their command are properly trained and guided in their tasks. They provide direction, support, and guidance to the team, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their duties effectively. The flight commander/chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the maintenance team.

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  • 7. 

    Which flight is part of a maintenance squadron?

    • A.

      Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment

    • B.

      Maintenance operations and progams

    • C.

      Quality assurance

    • D.

      Resources

    Correct Answer
    A. Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment
    Explanation
    Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment is part of a maintenance squadron because it plays a crucial role in maintaining and repairing aircraft. This equipment is used to test, measure, and diagnose any issues or faults in the aircraft's systems, ensuring that they are functioning properly. By using this equipment, maintenance personnel can identify and fix any problems, ensuring the safety and efficiency of the aircraft. Therefore, test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment is an essential component of a maintenance squadron.

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  • 8. 

    Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders who work in concern with?

    • A.

      Maintenance training

    • B.

      Quality assurance

    • C.

      Resources

    • D.

      Egress

    Correct Answer
    B. Quality assurance
    Explanation
    Quality assurance is the correct answer because it is the process of ensuring that products or services meet the required quality standards. Maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders work in collaboration with quality assurance to ensure that maintenance activities are carried out to the highest standards and that any issues or defects are identified and resolved promptly. Quality assurance plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality of maintenance work and ensuring that it meets the expectations and requirements of the organization.

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  • 9. 

    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) Training Management Subsystem can be used to monitor?

    • A.

      Upgrade training

    • B.

      Optional training

    • C.

      Seasonal training

    • D.

      Qualitative training

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrade training
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) Training Management Subsystem can be used to monitor upgrade training. This means that the system can track and oversee the progress and completion of training programs that are aimed at upgrading the skills and knowledge of individuals. It allows for efficient management and tracking of upgrade training activities, ensuring that employees are receiving the necessary training to enhance their abilities and stay updated with the latest advancements in their field.

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  • 10. 

    Which is the correct method for writing 30 January 2011?

    • A.

      20110130

    • B.

      01/30/11

    • C.

      30/01/11

    • D.

      11/01/30

    Correct Answer
    A. 20110130
    Explanation
    The correct method for writing 30 January 2011 is 20110130. This is the correct answer because it follows the format of YYYYMMDD, where YYYY represents the year, MM represents the month, and DD represents the day. In this case, 2011 represents the year, 01 represents the month (January), and 30 represents the day.

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  • 11. 

    A symbol entered on a maintenance form reflects the opinion of the?

    • A.

      Shop supervisor

    • B.

      Maintenance officer

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Individual making the entry

    Correct Answer
    D. Individual making the entry
    Explanation
    The symbol entered on a maintenance form reflects the opinion of the individual making the entry. This means that the person who is filling out the form is expressing their own viewpoint or perspective through the symbol they choose to use. The symbol may represent their assessment or evaluation of the maintenance issue or their personal recommendation for how to address it. It is important to note that the symbol does not necessarily represent the official opinion or decision of any higher-ranking authority such as the shop supervisor, maintenance officer, or squadron commander.

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  • 12. 

    When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, what kind of discrepancies cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K?

    • A.

      Red X

    • B.

      Red dash

    • C.

      Red diagonal

    • D.

      Discrepancies with a supply document number

    Correct Answer
    A. Red X
    Explanation
    When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, discrepancies with a Red X cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K. A Red X indicates a discrepancy that renders the aircraft unsafe or unfit for flight and requires immediate attention and correction. Therefore, it is important to address and resolve these discrepancies promptly and not transfer them to the next form.

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  • 13. 

    The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document discrepancies and corrective actions for?

    • A.

      Aircraft

    • B.

      Batteries

    • C.

      Equipment

    • D.

      Multimeters

    Correct Answer
    C. Equipment
    Explanation
    The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document discrepancies and corrective actions for equipment. This form is specifically designed for recording any issues or problems found with various types of equipment used in the Air Force. It allows for a systematic approach to identifying, documenting, and resolving equipment malfunctions or deficiencies. By using this form, the Air Force can track and maintain a record of all equipment discrepancies and the actions taken to address them, ensuring proper maintenance and safety standards are upheld.

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  • 14. 

    The five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force are?

    • A.

      Major, minor, isochronal, postflight

    • B.

      Major, minor, shop, home station, postflight

    • C.

      Periodic, home station, postflight, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance

    • D.

      Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance". These are the five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force. Periodic inspections are conducted at regular intervals, phase inspections are conducted after a certain number of flying hours, isochronal inspections are conducted at a specific calendar time, programmed depot maintenance refers to inspections conducted at a depot-level facility, and airline/manufacturer maintenance refers to inspections conducted by the airline or manufacturer.

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  • 15. 

    Which inspection is used to detect defects that could have developed durning ground operation of an aircraft?

    • A.

      Preflight

    • B.

      Thruflight

    • C.

      Postflight

    • D.

      End-of-runway

    Correct Answer
    D. End-of-runway
    Explanation
    The end-of-runway inspection is used to detect defects that could have developed during the ground operation of an aircraft. This inspection is performed after the aircraft has completed its ground operations and is ready to take off. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's exterior, including the landing gear, tires, brakes, and other critical components to ensure that there are no visible defects or issues that could compromise the safety of the flight.

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  • 16. 

    Reducing the time an aircraft is out of commision is an objective of which inspection?

    • A.

      Phase

    • B.

      Hourly

    • C.

      Periodic

    • D.

      Isochronal

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase
    Explanation
    Phase inspections are conducted at specific intervals or milestones in an aircraft's operational life. The objective of a phase inspection is to ensure the airworthiness of the aircraft and detect any potential issues or maintenance requirements. By conducting phase inspections, the time an aircraft is out of commission can be reduced as any necessary repairs or maintenance can be addressed promptly. This helps to minimize downtime and ensure that the aircraft remains in service as much as possible.

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  • 17. 

    Which is a thorough and searchng inspection?

    • A.

      Minor

    • B.

      Major

    • C.

      Postflight

    • D.

      Home station check

    Correct Answer
    B. Major
    Explanation
    A major inspection is a thorough and searching inspection that involves a comprehensive examination of all components and systems. It is usually conducted at regular intervals or after a certain number of hours of operation to ensure the overall safety and functionality of the object being inspected. This type of inspection is more extensive and detailed compared to a minor inspection, which focuses on specific areas or components. A major inspection is essential in identifying any potential issues or problems that may require repairs or maintenance to prevent any future issues or failures.

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  • 18. 

    Which is not one of the elements of the maintenance training program?

    • A.

      Upgrade training

    • B.

      Managment training

    • C.

      Qualification training

    • D.

      Cross- Utilization training

    Correct Answer
    D. Cross- Utilization training
    Explanation
    Cross-Utilization training is not one of the elements of the maintenance training program. This type of training focuses on teaching employees to perform tasks outside of their primary job roles, allowing for flexibility and versatility within the workforce. However, in the context of maintenance training, the other options listed (Upgrade training, Management training, and Qualification training) are more relevant and necessary for developing the skills and knowledge required for effective maintenance work.

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  • 19. 

    The primary responsibility for formal upgrade training rests with?

    • A.

      Training managment personnel

    • B.

      The commander

    • C.

      The supervisor

    • D.

      The individual

    Correct Answer
    B. The commander
    Explanation
    The commander is responsible for the formal upgrade training because they are in charge of overseeing the training and development of their subordinates. They have the authority to allocate resources, set training priorities, and ensure that the necessary training is provided to their personnel. By taking on this responsibility, the commander ensures that their unit is prepared and capable of performing their duties effectively and efficiently.

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  • 20. 

    What technical order (TO) explains the Material Deficiancy Reporting System?

    • A.

      00-5-15

    • B.

      00-25-195

    • C.

      00-35D-54

    • D.

      00-25C-234

    Correct Answer
    C. 00-35D-54
    Explanation
    The technical order (TO) 00-35D-54 explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System.

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  • 21. 

    A Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report that has been submitted for a defect in workmanship must be forwarded to the screening point within?

    • A.

      1 workday

    • B.

      2 workdays

    • C.

      3 workdays

    • D.

      4 workdays

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 workdays
    Explanation
    A Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report that has been submitted for a defect in workmanship must be forwarded to the screening point within 3 workdays. This means that once the report is received, it should be processed and sent to the screening point within three workdays. This ensures that the defect is addressed promptly and appropriate actions can be taken to rectify the workmanship issue.

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  • 22. 

    The first part of the national stock number indicates the?

    • A.

      Part code

    • B.

      Bureau code

    • C.

      Item identification

    • D.

      Supply classification

    Correct Answer
    D. Supply classification
    Explanation
    The first part of the national stock number indicates the supply classification. This means that the initial digits of the stock number provide information about the type or category of the item being classified. This classification system helps in organizing and categorizing different types of supplies for efficient management and identification purposes.

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  • 23. 

    The second posotion of the Expendability/ Recoverability/ Repairablility/ Category (ERRC) Designation Code indicates?

    • A.

      Expendability

    • B.

      Repair level

    • C.

      Supplier

    • D.

      Cost

    Correct Answer
    B. Repair level
    Explanation
    The second position of the ERRC Designation Code indicates the repair level. This means that it identifies the level of repair required for the item. The repair level can range from simple repairs that can be done by the user or operator, to more complex repairs that require specialized knowledge and equipment.

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  • 24. 

    Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below what amount?

    • A.

      40%

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      60%

    • D.

      70%

    Correct Answer
    B. 50%
    Explanation
    Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below 50%. This ensures that there is still a sufficient amount of supplies available while allowing for some buffer before reaching critical levels. Replenishing at 50% helps to avoid stockouts and ensures that there is always an adequate supply on hand.

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  • 25. 

    Air Force property responsibility is imposed by law on?

    • A.

      Commanders only

    • B.

      All millitary employees

    • C.

      Comanders and supervisors only

    • D.

      All millitary and civillian employees

    Correct Answer
    D. All millitary and civillian employees
    Explanation
    The responsibility for Air Force property is imposed by law on all military and civilian employees. This means that everyone working for the Air Force, regardless of their position or rank, is accountable for the proper use and care of Air Force property. This ensures that all individuals within the organization understand their role in safeguarding and maintaining the assets of the Air Force.

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  • 26. 

    An airman who signs out a toolbox assumes which type of property responsibility for that toolbox?

    • A.

      Supervisory

    • B.

      Custodial

    • C.

      Individual

    • D.

      Command

    Correct Answer
    B. Custodial
    Explanation
    When an airman signs out a toolbox, they assume custodial property responsibility for that toolbox. This means that they are responsible for the care, safekeeping, and proper use of the toolbox. Custodial responsibility involves ensuring that the toolbox is returned in the same condition it was received and reporting any damages or issues that may occur.

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  • 27. 

    What types of property responsibility can be changed to Department of Defense (DOD) pesonnel?

    • A.

      Command and custodial

    • B.

      Individual and custodial

    • C.

      Command and supervisory

    • D.

      Supervisory and custodial

    Correct Answer
    A. Command and custodial
    Explanation
    Command and custodial property responsibility can be changed to Department of Defense (DOD) personnel. This means that DOD personnel can be given the responsibility to both command and oversee the management and care of property, as well as physically handle and maintain the property.

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  • 28. 

    Which publications are considered working handbooks?

    • A.

      Air Force Manuals

    • B.

      Air Force pamphlets

    • C.

      Air Force instructions

    • D.

      Recurring publications

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Manuals
    Explanation
    Air Force Manuals are considered working handbooks because they provide detailed instructions and guidance on specific topics or procedures within the Air Force. These manuals are designed to be practical and user-friendly, providing step-by-step instructions and information that can be easily followed and implemented by Air Force personnel. They serve as a valuable resource for individuals in the Air Force to reference and consult when carrying out their duties and responsibilities.

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  • 29. 

    The list of applicable publications (LOAP) lists Technical Orders that apply to?

    • A.

      Active aircraft time compliance technical orders

    • B.

      A specific aircraft

    • C.

      Overhaul depots

    • D.

      A specific tester

    Correct Answer
    B. A specific aircraft
    Explanation
    The list of applicable publications (LOAP) is a compilation of Technical Orders that pertain to a specific aircraft. It includes all the necessary information and instructions for maintaining and operating that particular aircraft. The LOAP ensures that the correct technical orders are followed for the specific aircraft, which is crucial for its proper functioning and safety.

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  • 30. 

    Which technical order (TO) explains how to maintain and inspect a particular weapons system?

    • A.

      Operations and Maintenance

    • B.

      Method and Procedures

    • C.

      Time Compliance

    • D.

      Abbreviated

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations and Maintenance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Operations and Maintenance because this technical order (TO) provides instructions on how to maintain and inspect a specific weapons system. It outlines the procedures and guidelines for ensuring the proper functioning and upkeep of the system. This TO would be essential for technicians and personnel responsible for the maintenance and inspection of the weapons system.

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  • 31. 

    A series of red X's printed around the border of the first page of time compliance technical order (TCTO) signifies?

    • A.

      An inspection action TCTO

    • B.

      An immediate action TCTO

    • C.

      An routine action TCTO

    • D.

      An urgent action TCTO

    Correct Answer
    B. An immediate action TCTO
    Explanation
    The series of red X's printed around the border of the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO) signifies an immediate action TCTO.

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  • 32. 

    What technical order (TO) explains the TO numbering system?

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-5-5

    • C.

      00-5-10

    • D.

      00-5-18

    Correct Answer
    D. 00-5-18
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-18. This technical order (TO) provides an explanation of the TO numbering system.

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  • 33. 

    In the basic technical order (TO) numbering system, what is the minimum groups of numbers each TO will have?

    • A.

      Two

    • B.

      Three

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Five

    Correct Answer
    B. Three
    Explanation
    In the basic technical order (TO) numbering system, each TO will have a minimum of three groups of numbers. This suggests that there are at least three distinct parts or sections within a TO.

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  • 34. 

    The first number group within a technical order (TO) number identifies the?

    • A.

      Specific equipment

    • B.

      Section of the TO

    • C.

      TO category

    • D.

      Kind of TO

    Correct Answer
    C. TO category
    Explanation
    The first number group within a technical order (TO) number identifies the TO category. This means that the first set of numbers in the TO number indicates the type or category of the technical order. It helps to classify and categorize the TOs based on their purpose or function, making it easier to organize and locate specific TOs within a system or database.

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  • 35. 

    The Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) page number is?

    • A.

      A two-digit numbering system expressed as one element of two digits

    • B.

      A six-digit numbering system expressed as the elements of two digits each

    • C.

      A four-digit numbering system expressed as two elents of two digits each

    • D.

      An eight-digit numbering system expressed as four elements of two digits each

    Correct Answer
    B. A six-digit numbering system expressed as the elements of two digits each
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a six-digit numbering system expressed as the elements of two digits each. This means that the MIDAS page number consists of six digits, with each digit being expressed as two elements. For example, a page number could be expressed as 12-34-56, where 12, 34, and 56 are each two-digit elements.

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  • 36. 

    Which kind of technical order (TO) contains operational checkout procedures?

    • A.

      Job Guide

    • B.

      Fault Isolation

    • C.

      General Vehicle

    • D.

      Schematic Diagram

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Guide
    Explanation
    A Job Guide is a type of technical order (TO) that contains operational checkout procedures. It provides step-by-step instructions on how to perform specific tasks or procedures related to the operation of a particular system or equipment. These procedures are designed to ensure that the equipment is functioning correctly and to identify any potential issues or faults. Therefore, the Job Guide is the correct answer as it specifically includes operational checkout procedures.

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  • 37. 

    While troubleshooting, you are using a wiring diagram to help you locate a malfunctioning compnent. after determining which component is faulty, you want to determine its part number . To do this, you would check the wiring diagram's?

    • A.

      Numerical index

    • B.

      Reference designator

    • C.

      Line replaceable unit index

    • D.

      Line replaceable unit designation

    Correct Answer
    B. Reference designator
    Explanation
    In order to determine the part number of a malfunctioning component, you would check the wiring diagram's reference designator. The reference designator is a code or label assigned to each component on the diagram, which helps identify and locate specific parts. By referring to the reference designator, you can easily find the part number associated with the faulty component and proceed with troubleshooting or replacement.

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  • 38. 

    Revisions are issued when changes exceed what percentage of the basic TO?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      70

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    D. 80
    Explanation
    Revisions are issued when changes exceed 80% of the basic TO. This means that if the changes made to the basic TO (Total Obligations) exceed 80%, a revision is necessary. This indicates that a significant amount of changes have been made, potentially impacting the overall project or budget.

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  • 39. 

    Saftey supplements to technical orders are identified with a border of?

    • A.

      Black SS's on the title page

    • B.

      Red SS's on the title page

    • C.

      Black SS's on all pages

    • D.

      Red SS's on all pages

    Correct Answer
    B. Red SS's on the title page
    Explanation
    Safety supplements to technical orders are identified with a border of red SS's on the title page. This helps to easily distinguish the safety supplements from the regular technical orders. By having a red border on the title page, it alerts the reader that there are additional safety instructions or information included in the supplement. This is important for ensuring that the necessary safety precautions are followed when using the technical order.

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  • 40. 

    Which deficiency report is used for technical order (TO) deficiancy that invovles saftey or the unit mission?

    • A.

      Interim

    • B.

      Urgent

    • C.

      Routine

    • D.

      Emergency

    Correct Answer
    D. Emergency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Emergency" because an emergency deficiency report is used for technical order (TO) deficiencies that involve safety or the unit mission. This type of report is issued when there is an immediate and critical need for corrective action to prevent harm to personnel or equipment, or to ensure the unit can continue its mission without interruption.

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  • 41. 

    Personnel at the Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity must act on an emergency Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 22 report within how many hours of recipt?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      36

    • C.

      48

    • D.

      72

    Correct Answer
    C. 48
    Explanation
    Personnel at the Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity are required to take action on an emergency Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 22 report within 48 hours of receipt. This means that they have two days to address and respond to the emergency situation outlined in the report. Acting promptly within this time frame is crucial to ensure the safety and efficiency of Air Force operations.

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  • 42. 

    How far away from parked aircraft should liquid oxygen (LOX) carts be stored?

    • A.

      25 feet

    • B.

      50 feet

    • C.

      75 feet

    • D.

      100 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 75 feet
    Explanation
    Liquid oxygen (LOX) carts should be stored at least 75 feet away from parked aircraft. This is because liquid oxygen is highly flammable and can cause explosions if it comes into contact with flammable materials or ignition sources. By storing the carts at a safe distance, the risk of accidents and potential damage to the aircraft is minimized.

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  • 43. 

    When you are servicing an aircraft with liquid oxygen (LOX), do not wear?

    • A.

      Cuffless trousers

    • B.

      A battle dress uniform (BDU) cap

    • C.

      Leather welders gauntlet cuff gloves

    • D.

      Shoes which fit loosley around the top

    Correct Answer
    D. Shoes which fit loosley around the top
    Explanation
    When servicing an aircraft with liquid oxygen (LOX), it is important not to wear shoes that fit loosely around the top. This is because LOX is a highly reactive substance and can react violently with certain materials, such as leather or cloth. Loose-fitting shoes can potentially allow LOX to come into contact with the skin, which can cause severe burns or other injuries. Therefore, it is crucial to wear shoes that fit tightly and securely to minimize the risk of any contact with LOX.

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  • 44. 

    Liquid nitrogen must be stored below what minimum temperature to remain in a liquid state?

    • A.

      -310.8F

    • B.

      -315.8F

    • C.

      -320.8F

    • D.

      -325.8F

    Correct Answer
    C. -320.8F
    Explanation
    Liquid nitrogen is a cryogenic liquid that boils at a very low temperature. In order to remain in a liquid state, it must be stored at a temperature below its boiling point. The correct answer of -320.8F indicates that liquid nitrogen must be stored at a temperature below this value to prevent it from boiling and transitioning into a gaseous state.

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  • 45. 

    What type of tasks may you perform in the immediate area of explosives?

    • A.

      Mission critical

    • B.

      Routine

    • C.

      None

    • D.

      Core

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission critical
    Explanation
    In the immediate area of explosives, you may perform mission critical tasks. These tasks are of utmost importance and directly related to the success and safety of the mission. They require immediate attention and precision to ensure the proper handling, storage, and disposal of explosives. Routine tasks, on the other hand, are regular and repetitive activities that do not involve direct contact with explosives. None and core are not relevant to the tasks performed in the immediate area of explosives.

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  • 46. 

    What must you ensure when you are transporting squibs?

    • A.

      Not to exceed the maximum amount of squibs

    • B.

      Other personnel are not in the immediate area

    • C.

      The squibs are in a protective container

    • D.

      The use of a specially designed vehicle

    Correct Answer
    C. The squibs are in a protective container
    Explanation
    When transporting squibs, it is important to ensure that they are in a protective container. This is necessary to prevent any accidental activation or damage to the squibs during transportation. A protective container provides a secure and stable environment for the squibs, reducing the risk of any mishaps or injuries. It also helps to keep the squibs organized and easily identifiable, making it easier to handle and transport them safely.

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  • 47. 

    How much electrical current does it take to cuse muscle paralysis?

    • A.

      .001 amps

    • B.

      .005 amps

    • C.

      .010 amps

    • D.

      .015 amps

    Correct Answer
    D. .015 amps
    Explanation
    Muscle paralysis can be caused by electrical current passing through the body. The higher the current, the greater the risk of muscle paralysis. In this case, the correct answer is .015 amps, which indicates that it takes 0.015 amps of electrical current to cause muscle paralysis.

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  • 48. 

    For personnel electrostatic discharge (ESD) grounding, you must use a skin contact wrist strap connected to the workbench surface. This strap must have a resistance of at least?

    • A.

      1 ohm

    • B.

      10 ohms

    • C.

      1 megaohm

    • D.

      10 megaohms

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 megaohm
    Explanation
    For personnel electrostatic discharge (ESD) grounding, a skin contact wrist strap is used to prevent the buildup of static electricity and protect sensitive electronic components from damage. The strap must have a resistance of at least 1 megaohm. This resistance value ensures that any static charge on the person wearing the strap is safely discharged to the workbench surface, preventing any potential damage to the electronic equipment. A higher resistance value would not provide sufficient grounding, while a lower resistance value could potentially create a pathway for excessive current flow, leading to electrical shock or damage to the equipment.

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  • 49. 

    Which situation illustrates a physical hazard presented by a chemical hazard?

    • A.

      Acute liver damage

    • B.

      Irritation of the kidney

    • C.

      Second degree skin burn

    • D.

      Chronic exposure to vapors

    Correct Answer
    C. Second degree skin burn
    Explanation
    A second degree skin burn is an example of a physical hazard presented by a chemical hazard. Chemicals can cause burns on the skin if they are corrosive or react with the skin. In this case, the chemical has caused enough damage to the skin to result in a second degree burn, indicating a physical hazard.

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  • 50. 

    What is the minimum information required on a hazardous chemical inventory?

    • A.

      Name, location, and detailed ingrediant list of the material

    • B.

      Name, location, and quantity of material authorized

    • C.

      Name and location of the material

    • D.

      Name of the material

    Correct Answer
    D. Name of the material
    Explanation
    The minimum information required on a hazardous chemical inventory is the name of the material. This is because the name of the material is essential for identifying and categorizing the hazardous chemicals present in a facility or workplace. While additional information such as location, quantity, and detailed ingredient list may be useful for further documentation and management purposes, the name of the material is the basic and most important piece of information needed to identify and track hazardous chemicals.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 10, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Nevin Karthikezhiyam

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