CDC Z3d053 Volume 1.

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1. 19. (008) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

Explanation

The well-known ports range from 0 to 1023. Well-known ports are reserved for services that are commonly used and recognized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). These ports are assigned to specific protocols such as HTTP (port 80), HTTPS (port 443), FTP (port 21), and many others. By reserving these ports, it ensures that these services can be easily identified and accessed by users and applications.

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About This Quiz
Cybersecurity Quizzes & Trivia

CDC Z3D053 Volume 1 quiz assesses key competencies in cybersecurity, focusing on duties like intrusion detection and firewall protection, managing network devices, and understanding risk management processes. It's tailored for cyber surety journeymen, enhancing skills crucial for safeguarding digital environments.

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2. 7. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

Explanation

The correct answer is fiber optic. Fiber optic cables consist of a core, which carries the light signals, surrounded by cladding, which helps to keep the light signals contained within the core. Additionally, fiber optic cables often have a second layer of protection, such as glass or plastic, to further protect the core and cladding. This design allows for efficient and high-speed transmission of data through the use of light signals.

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3. 21. (008) Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?

Explanation

Port 80 is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP). HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting web pages and other web resources over the internet. When a user types a website URL into their browser, the browser sends an HTTP request to the server hosting the website on port 80. The server then responds with the requested web page, which is displayed in the user's browser. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP, although it can be changed if needed.

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4. 37. (014) The definition of integrity as it's applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

Explanation

The correct answer is "the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission." This means that integrity, in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption, refers to ensuring that information remains unchanged and unaltered, and that no unauthorized modifications or destruction of information have occurred. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data, and preventing any unauthorized tampering or manipulation.

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5. 16. (007) Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol by default?

Explanation

The correct answer is 80. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet. By default, HTTP uses TCP port 80 for communication. TCP port 80 is specifically designated for HTTP traffic, allowing web servers and web browsers to establish a connection and exchange data.

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6. 5. (002) Human error causes approximately what percentage of all accidents?

Explanation

Human error is responsible for approximately 95% of all accidents. This means that the majority of accidents are caused by mistakes, lapses in judgment, or negligence on the part of individuals. This highlights the importance of human factors in accident prevention and the need for effective training, safety protocols, and risk management strategies to minimize the occurrence of human errors and their potential consequences.

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7. 18. (008) A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as

Explanation

A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as a port. A port is a specific endpoint on a network device, such as a computer or a router, that allows communication between different devices. It acts as a gateway for data to enter or exit a device, enabling the transfer of information packets. Ports are identified by numbers and are used to establish connections and facilitate the exchange of data between devices in a network.

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8. 30. (011) What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?

Explanation

802.11n is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available. This standard was introduced in 2009 and offers faster speeds and better range compared to previous standards like 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. It supports multiple antennas and uses MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) technology to improve performance. 802.11n is backward compatible with older standards, allowing devices that support 802.11n to connect to networks using older standards. It also operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, providing more flexibility and less interference.

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9. 51. (019) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a

Explanation

A Trojan horse is a type of malicious program that disguises itself as a legitimate software or file, tricking users into downloading or installing it. Once installed, it can perform various harmful actions without the user's knowledge, such as stealing personal information, damaging files, or allowing unauthorized access to the system. Unlike a boot sector virus, which infects the boot sector of a computer's hard drive, a Trojan horse does not directly infect system files or the boot process. Therefore, a Trojan horse is the correct answer for a program that contains or installs a malicious program.

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10. 13. (006) Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited broadcasts?

Explanation

The IP address 255.255.255.255 is used for limited broadcasts. This address is known as the broadcast address and is used to send a message to all devices on the network. When a device sends a message to this address, it is received by all devices on the network, allowing for efficient communication. This address is reserved specifically for limited broadcasts and cannot be assigned to any individual device on the network.

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11. 83. (030) In which information assurance control must an organization ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user?

Explanation

In order to ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user, an organization must implement Audit and Accountability (AU) controls. These controls help in monitoring and recording user activities within the system, allowing for the identification of any unauthorized or suspicious actions. By implementing AU controls, organizations can track user actions, detect security breaches, and hold individuals accountable for their actions, thereby enhancing the overall security and integrity of the information system.

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12. 55. (020) When classified information is inadvertently sent through unclassified e-mail it is considered

Explanation

When classified information is sent through unclassified e-mail unintentionally, it is considered a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information has been transmitted through a channel that is not authorized to handle such information, posing a potential security risk. The incident highlights a breach in security protocols and the need for corrective actions to prevent similar occurrences in the future.

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13. 41. (014) The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?

Explanation

The correct answer is Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA). The contract manager must use this agency to validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate. This agency is responsible for verifying the contractor's identity and ensuring that they have a legitimate reason for needing the certificate. They play a crucial role in the PKI certification process and help maintain the security of the government's digital infrastructure.

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14. 58. (023) What determines the number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization?

Explanation

The number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization is determined by the mission need. This means that the organization will assess its requirements and determine how many alternate IAOs are necessary to fulfill those needs. The number of information systems, number of personnel assigned, and type of organization may also play a role in this determination, but ultimately it is the mission need that drives the decision.

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15. 46. (018) Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered

Explanation

Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered vulnerabilities. Vulnerabilities refer to any flaw, loophole, or weakness in a security system that can potentially be exploited by attackers or threats. These vulnerabilities can exist in hardware, software, network configurations, or even human behavior. Identifying and addressing vulnerabilities is crucial for maintaining a robust and secure security system.

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16. 47. (018) Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?

Explanation

Securing a UNIX system involves various measures such as shutting down ports, using strong passwords, and disabling unused/unneeded services. However, ensuring remote access is not directly related to securing the system. In fact, allowing remote access can introduce additional vulnerabilities if not properly configured and monitored. Therefore, it is important to implement strong security measures for remote access, such as using secure protocols and authentication methods, to ensure the system remains secure.

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17. 44. (017) Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?

Explanation

This question is asking about the type of access given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews. The correct answer is "Administrative" because these tasks require elevated privileges and access to make changes to the system. End-users typically do not have this level of access, remote users may have limited access, and limited (general) access would not provide the necessary privileges for these tasks.

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18. 86. (031) What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to?

Explanation

The correct answer is Colonel (O–6). This means that the minimum rank at which the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated is Colonel. This implies that individuals below the rank of Colonel do not have the authority to approve AFIN connections.

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19. 2. (001) Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments?

Explanation

Client Systems (3D1X1) is the correct answer because this career field specifically deals with deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in both fixed and deployed environments. This job involves working with various technologies and equipment to ensure that the network and communication systems are functioning properly and securely.

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20. 8. (004) Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?

Explanation

Fiber optic is not an example of unbound media because it is a type of guided media. Unbound media refers to wireless communication methods that do not require physical connections, such as radio frequency and satellite microwave. Terrestrial communication also falls under unbound media as it uses wireless signals for transmission. However, fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data and are considered guided media because they require physical connections.

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21. 9. (005) In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?

Explanation

In a bus topology, a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network sends a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see. However, only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes the message. This is because all devices in a bus topology are connected to a single shared communication line, and when a device sends a message, it is received by all devices on the network. However, each device has a unique address, and only the device with the matching address accepts and processes the message, while the others ignore it.

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22. 20. (008) Which port is used for telnet?

Explanation

Port 23 is used for telnet. Telnet is a network protocol that allows users to remotely access and control devices or computers over a network. It provides a command-line interface where users can execute commands on the remote device. Port 23 is specifically assigned for telnet communication, making it the correct answer.

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23. 12. (006) Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?

Explanation

Class E IP addresses are reserved for experimental purposes and are not intended to be used in public networks. These addresses range from 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 and are not allocated to any specific organization or country. They are meant to be used by researchers and developers for testing and experimentation.

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24. 26. (009) Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure point-to-point communication?

Explanation

Tunneling is the type of transition technology used to set up secure point-to-point communication. Tunneling involves encapsulating one network protocol within another, creating a "tunnel" through which data can be securely transmitted. This allows for the secure transmission of data between two points, protecting it from unauthorized access or interception. Dual layer, dual stack, and peer-to-peer are not specifically related to setting up secure point-to-point communication.

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25. 50. (019) A companion file virus is one that

Explanation

A companion file virus is one that renames the original file and writes itself with the original file's name. This means that the virus disguises itself as the original file, making it difficult for users to detect. By renaming the file and replacing it with the virus, the attacker can gain control over the system and potentially infect other files. This technique allows the virus to spread and carry out its malicious activities without being easily detected or removed.

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26. 17. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) based network?

Explanation

The correct answer is Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). DHCP is an IETF standard that simplifies the process of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP network. It allows hosts to obtain IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters automatically from a DHCP server. This reduces the administrative burden and complexity of manually configuring each host on the network. DHCP is widely used in both small and large networks to streamline the network configuration process.

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27. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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28. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The explanation for why Option 1 is the correct answer is not available as the question does not provide any context or criteria for selecting a preferred option.

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29. Which one do you like?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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30. 40. (014) What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provide?

Explanation

The common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provides non-repudiation. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender of the e-mail cannot deny sending it, as the digital signature provided by the CAC certificate verifies the identity of the sender and ensures the integrity of the message. This helps to prevent any disputes or denials regarding the authenticity of the e-mail.

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31. 65. (025) How often must a degausser be recertified during its first 2 years of operation?

Explanation

A degausser is a device used to erase data from magnetic storage media. During its first 2 years of operation, it is recommended to recertify the degausser every 6 months. This is to ensure that the device is functioning properly and effectively erasing the data. Regular recertification helps to maintain the performance and reliability of the degausser, reducing the risk of data breaches or incomplete erasure.

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32. 15. (007) Which protocol does the Internet support as the "language" computers use to find and connect with each other?

Explanation

The correct answer is Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). TCP/IP is the protocol that the Internet supports as the "language" computers use to find and connect with each other. TCP/IP is a set of rules that governs the transfer of data over the Internet. It ensures reliable and secure communication between computers by breaking down data into packets, addressing them, and reassembling them at the destination. TCP handles the reliable delivery of data, while IP handles the routing of packets across networks.

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33. 73. (027) An installation commander can authorize keeping which classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage?

Explanation

An installation commander can authorize keeping confidential and secret classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage. This means that only information classified as confidential or secret can be stored in the designated areas on the flight line. Other classifications such as top secret or unclassified are not authorized for storage in these areas.

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34. 10. (006) When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?

Explanation

Each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has 8 positions when viewed in binary form. In binary representation, each position can hold either a 0 or a 1, allowing for a total of 8 possible combinations. This is because binary is a base-2 numbering system, meaning it only uses two digits (0 and 1) to represent numbers. Therefore, each octet in an IP address, which is made up of 8 bits, has 8 positions.

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35. 45. (017) Which device provides the initial entry point into a network?

Explanation

A network access server provides the initial entry point into a network by allowing users to connect to the network and access its resources. It acts as a gateway, authenticating and authorizing users, and providing them with access to the network. A router, firewall, and proxy server are all important components of a network, but they do not specifically serve as the initial entry point into the network like a network access server does.

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36. 71. (027) Which standard form (SF) is used to record the opening and closing of security containers?

Explanation

SF 702 is the correct answer because it is the standard form used to record the opening and closing of security containers. The other options (SF 700, SF 704, and SF 705) are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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37. 32. (012) Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach for establishing

Explanation

Defense-in-depth is a strategy used by the Department of Defense (DOD) to establish an adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment. This approach recognizes that no single security measure is sufficient to protect against all threats, so multiple layers of security controls are implemented to provide a comprehensive defense. By using defense-in-depth, the DOD aims to mitigate risks and protect sensitive information in a shared-risk environment.

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38. 80. (029) Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered

Explanation

Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered confidential.

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39. 52. (019) The two fundamental concepts of network security are

Explanation

The correct answer is authentication and authorization. Authentication refers to the process of verifying the identity of a user or device, ensuring that they are who they claim to be. Authorization, on the other hand, involves granting or denying access to specific resources or actions based on the authenticated user's privileges. These two concepts are fundamental in network security as they help ensure that only authorized individuals or devices can access sensitive information or perform certain actions within a network.

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40. 6. (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?

Explanation

A wireless wide area network (WWAN) is a type of network that typically provides wireless broadband data services. Unlike a wireless local area network (WLAN) or wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN), which have limited coverage areas, WWANs offer wide coverage areas and can be used to connect devices over long distances. This makes WWANs suitable for providing wireless broadband data services, such as internet access, to large geographical areas.

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41. 90. (033) Which of the following is not a phase in the information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process?

Explanation

The information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process involves several phases, including Design, Define need, Build and test. However, Define need review is not a phase in this process. It is important to define the needs and requirements before proceeding with the design and development stages. The Define need review may refer to a review or assessment of the defined needs, but it is not a separate phase in the IT Lean reengineering process.

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42. 28. (010) Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?

Explanation

To ensure that replacement administrators can accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, it is important for administrators to keep complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference for future administrators, allowing them to understand the network setup and make necessary changes or troubleshoot issues effectively. Without proper documentation, it would be difficult for replacement administrators to understand the network's configuration and perform their tasks efficiently.

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43. 59. (024) What is the minimum grade requirement for an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team chief?

Explanation

The minimum grade requirement for an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team chief is SNCO. SNCO stands for Senior Non-Commissioned Officer, which indicates a higher rank and level of experience compared to NCO (Non-Commissioned Officer). GS-07 and GS-09 refer to the General Schedule pay scale used for federal employees, but they do not specify the specific rank or level of authority required for the IAAP team chief position.

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44. 48. (018) Which UNIX command allows remote logins?

Explanation

The correct answer is telnet. Telnet is a UNIX command that allows remote logins by establishing a virtual terminal connection with a remote host over a network. It enables users to log in and access the remote system as if they were physically present at the machine. Telnet provides a way to remotely manage and control UNIX systems, making it a commonly used command for remote administration purposes.

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45. 74. (028) Which term identifies any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?

Explanation

The term "RED" is used to identify any equipment or area in which classified information is processed. This term is commonly used in security protocols to designate areas or systems that handle sensitive information. It helps to ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect classified data from unauthorized access or disclosure.

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46. Match the following
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47. 31. (011) Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?

Explanation

Wired equivalency privacy (WEP) was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption. WEP was the first security protocol used in Wi-Fi networks and was designed to provide confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over wireless networks. However, it was later found to have several vulnerabilities, making it less secure compared to other security protocols such as Wi-Fi protected access (WPA).

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48. 29. (011) Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?

Explanation

802.11b is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard because it operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data transfer rate of 11 Mbps. While it may not offer the fastest speeds compared to other WiFi standards like 802.11n or 802.11ac, it is still commonly used for basic internet browsing and email purposes. Additionally, 802.11b devices are generally cheaper and more widely available compared to newer WiFi standards.

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49. 42. (015) Which of the following represents a strong password?

Explanation

The password "GwL18!np*Z&fB3q" represents a strong password because it is a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. It is also long and does not contain any easily guessable patterns or common words. This makes it more difficult for hackers to guess or crack the password, increasing the security of the account or system it is used for.

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50. 43. (016) Which category of information must be stored on removable media?

Explanation

Classified information refers to sensitive information that requires a higher level of security and protection. Storing classified information on removable media allows for easier transport and secure storage when not in use. Unclassified, sensitive but unclassified, and for official use only (FOUO) information do not require the same level of security and can be stored on other forms of media.

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51. 64. (025) How many times should you wipe each active surface of the media being degaussed when using a degaussing wand?

Explanation

When using a degaussing wand to degauss a media's active surface, it is recommended to wipe the surface three times. This ensures that the magnetic field generated by the wand adequately erases the data stored on the media. Wiping the surface multiple times helps to ensure that all traces of data are effectively removed, reducing the risk of any residual information being recoverable.

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52. 1. (001) Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?

Explanation

A cyber surety journeyman is responsible for detecting and preventing cyber threats and attacks. This includes activities such as real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection. They are tasked with monitoring network traffic and systems to identify any unauthorized access or malicious activities. By actively detecting and responding to potential threats, they help ensure the security and integrity of the organization's information systems.

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53. 22. (008) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?

Explanation

A sweep scan is a type of port scan where the scanner connects to the same port on multiple machines. This scan is used to gather information about open ports on different machines within a network. By connecting to the same port on multiple machines, the scanner can identify potential vulnerabilities and gather information about the network's security. Strobe scan, fragment packet scan, and FTP bounce scan are not types of port scans that involve connecting to the same port on multiple machines.

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54. 34. (013) Which of the following is not a result of initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users?

Explanation

Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users focuses on educating them about their role in IA and training them on network security. It aims to ensure that users are aware of the importance of network security and their responsibilities in maintaining it. It also helps users satisfy network access requirements by providing them with the necessary knowledge and skills. However, meeting investigative requirements is not a direct result of IA awareness training. Investigative requirements typically involve specific procedures and protocols for conducting investigations, which may not be covered in IA awareness training.

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55. 38. (014) Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least what type of secure socket layer?

Explanation

Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least 128-bit secure socket layer. This level of encryption provides a high level of security for transmitting sensitive information such as login credentials. The higher the number of bits, the stronger the encryption, making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to intercept and decipher the data. Therefore, 128-bit encryption is considered a standard and secure choice for protecting logon and password information.

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56. 39. (014) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Identification. In order to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR), a common access card (CAC) certificate for identification purposes would be used. This certificate verifies the identity of the person signing the report, ensuring that it is authentic and trustworthy. The identification certificate is specifically designed to provide proof of identity and is commonly used for various official purposes, including signing important documents like performance reports.

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57. 49. (018) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products, Microsoft releases

Explanation

When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products, Microsoft releases bulletins. Bulletins are official announcements or notifications that provide information about the vulnerabilities and the necessary steps to address them. These bulletins typically include details about the affected software, the severity of the vulnerability, and any patches or updates that have been released to fix the issue. By releasing bulletins, Microsoft ensures that users are aware of the vulnerabilities and can take appropriate actions to protect their systems.

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58. 72. (027) Personnel removing top secret material from storage must use

Explanation

Personnel removing top secret material from storage must use an Air Force (AF) Form 144. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of documenting the removal of top secret material. The other options, SF 704, SF 705, and SF 706, are not applicable in this context and do not serve the same purpose as AF Form 144.

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59. 79. (029) An emission security (EMSEC) manager documents an EMSEC assessment on

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 4170. This form is used by an emission security (EMSEC) manager to document an EMSEC assessment. The EMSEC manager will use this form to record the findings and recommendations from the assessment, ensuring that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible for future reference. The other options (AF Form 6170, Standard Form 700, and Standard Form 701) are not specifically designed for EMSEC assessments and would not be appropriate for documenting this type of assessment.

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60. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The given question asks for a personal preference, and the answer indicates that the person likes Option 1. Without further context or information about the options, it is difficult to provide a specific explanation for why Option 1 is preferred.

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61. 23. (008) Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?

Explanation

A synchronous (SYN) scan is also known as a half open scan. In this type of scan, the attacker sends a SYN packet to the target system and waits for a response. If the target system responds with a SYN-ACK packet, it means the port is open. However, instead of completing the handshake by sending an ACK packet, the attacker closes the connection. This allows the attacker to gather information about open ports without fully establishing a connection, making it a stealthy scanning technique.

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62. 63. (025) Where are thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges sent for sanitization?

Explanation

Thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges are sent to the National Security Agency (NSA) for sanitization. This suggests that these cartridges contain sensitive information that needs to be securely handled and sanitized by a specialized agency like the NSA. The other options, such as the Communications squadron (CS), General Services Administration (GSA), and Wing Information Assurance Office (WIAO), do not have the same level of expertise or security measures as the NSA.

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63. 14. (006) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a

Explanation

The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a routing prefix. This routing prefix helps in determining the network address and the host address within that network. It is used in routing tables to determine the next hop for forwarding packets in an IP network.

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64. 36. (013) Who initiates a local files check prior to allowing volunteers access to the AF network?

Explanation

The unit security manager is responsible for initiating a local files check before granting volunteers access to the AF network. This is because the unit security manager is in charge of ensuring the security of the unit's information systems and safeguarding sensitive data. By conducting a local files check, the unit security manager can verify the volunteers' background and ensure that they do not pose any security risks before granting them access to the network.

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65. 70. (027) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon and prohibit the use of government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?

Explanation

Authorizing officials have the authority to impose restrictions and prohibit the use of government-owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks. They are responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of classified information and have the power to determine who can access and use such media. Major command (MAJCOM), Wing (WG) commander, and Officer in charge (OIC) may have some decision-making authority, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the authorizing officials.

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66. 25. (009) How is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address written?

Explanation

An Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address is written with eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons. This format allows for a larger number of unique IP addresses compared to the previous IPv4 format, which uses four groups of three decimal numbers separated by periods. The use of hexadecimal numbers in IPv6 allows for a more efficient representation of the address, as it can represent a larger range of values using fewer characters. The colons separate each group of numbers, making it easier to read and interpret the address.

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67. 78. (029) Who is the installation's focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters?

Explanation

The Wing Information Assurance Office (WIAO) is responsible for handling emission security (EMSEC) matters at the installation. EMSEC involves protecting sensitive information from being intercepted or compromised through electromagnetic emissions. The WIAO is in charge of implementing and enforcing policies and procedures to ensure the security of communication and information systems within the wing. They work closely with other personnel, such as the Information Security System Manager (ISPM) and the Communications and Information System Officer (CSO), to maintain a secure and reliable network infrastructure.

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68. 54. (020) An incident in which an Air Force computer, information system, or network was denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic is category

Explanation

The correct answer is IV. An incident in which an Air Force computer, information system, or network was denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic is categorized as an availability incident. This means that the incident affected the availability of the system or network, making it inaccessible or unusable for its intended purpose.

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69. 66. (026) When destroying DVD storage devices, what is the maximum particle size allowable on the normal edge dimensions?

Explanation

When destroying DVD storage devices, the maximum particle size allowable on the normal edge dimensions is 25 square millimeters. This means that any particle that exceeds this size should not be present when destroying the DVD storage devices.

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70. 82. (030) What type of impact occurs when the loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) could be expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or people?

Explanation

A moderate impact occurs when the loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) could have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, assets, or people. This means that the impact is significant but not to the extent of causing extreme or catastrophic damage. It suggests that there would be noticeable consequences and potential harm, but it is not the highest level of severity.

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71. 3. (002) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

Explanation

The risk management (RM) process consists of five steps: identify risks, analyze risks, evaluate risks, treat risks, and monitor and review risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and minimizing their impact on an organization. Therefore, the correct answer is 5.

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72. 11. (006) How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

Explanation

An internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address consists of 32 bits. This means that there are 2^32 (or approximately 4.3 billion) unique IPv4 addresses available. Each bit in the address represents a binary value of either 0 or 1, resulting in a total of 32 bits. These bits are used to identify and locate devices on a network, allowing for communication and data transfer between them.

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73. 33. (012) What is assigned to all Department of Defense (DOD) information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives?

Explanation

The correct answer is mission assurance category. The mission assurance category is assigned to all Department of Defense (DOD) information systems based on the importance of the information contained in them relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives. This classification helps to prioritize the level of protection and security measures that need to be implemented for each system.

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74. 62. (025) When sanitizing sealed disks with a degausser, what percentage of the overwritten information should be randomly reread to confirm only the overwritten characters are recovered?

Explanation

When sanitizing sealed disks with a degausser, only 1% of the overwritten information should be randomly reread to confirm that only the overwritten characters are recovered. This small percentage ensures that the process is effective in completely erasing the original data and reducing the risk of any sensitive information being recovered.

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75. 75. (028) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters is considered to be in facility zone

Explanation

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters is considered to be in facility zone. This means that the facility falls within a specific zone designated for facilities with a certain range of inspectable space. Option B is the correct answer as it aligns with this explanation.

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76. 88. (032) Integrated Network Operations Security Centers (I-NOSC) use security and network monitoring tools to do all of the following except

Explanation

I-NOSCs are responsible for security and network monitoring, which includes monitoring network health, identifying system vulnerabilities, and restoring systems. However, reviewing the contents of fixed disks is not typically part of their responsibilities.

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77. 27. (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while

Explanation

Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats. This means that by monitoring and controlling the network, potential threats can be identified and mitigated, reducing the risk of cyber attacks or breaches. This is an important aspect of network security as it helps protect the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of the network and its resources.

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78. 67. (026) How many years are the records of destruction of a hard drive maintained?

Explanation

The records of destruction of a hard drive are maintained for 5 years. This means that any documentation or evidence related to the destruction of a hard drive, such as a log or report, will be kept on record for a period of 5 years. This is likely done for legal and compliance purposes, as well as for auditing and accountability purposes. By maintaining these records, organizations can ensure that they have a documented trail of the destruction process, which can be useful in case of any disputes or investigations.

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79. 57. (022) Continuity of operations plans (COOP) are not used in which of the following situations?

Explanation

Continuity of operations plans (COOP) are designed to ensure that essential functions and services can continue during and after a disruption or disaster. They are typically used in situations such as accidents, man-made disasters, and health-related incidents. However, operating system failure refers to a technical issue with the computer system, which may disrupt operations but does not necessarily require the implementation of a COOP. Therefore, COOPs are not used in the situation of operating system failure.

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80. 61. (025) Which form is used to annotate that storage media from an information system has been cleared?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 711. SF 711 is the form used to annotate that storage media from an information system has been cleared. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is used to document the clearing of storage media to ensure that sensitive information is properly erased and cannot be accessed or recovered.

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81. 4. (002) What is the third step in the risk management (RM) process?Assets hazards.

Explanation

The third step in the risk management process is to develop controls and make decisions. This involves identifying and assessing potential risks, determining the best course of action to mitigate or eliminate those risks, and making decisions on the implementation of controls. This step is crucial in effectively managing risks and ensuring the safety and security of assets. Supervising and evaluating the effectiveness of the controls comes later in the process.

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82. 56. (021) Who tracks Air Force information condition (INFOCON) status to ensure directed actions are accomplished in a timely manner?

Explanation

The Air Force network operating center network control division is responsible for tracking the Air Force information condition (INFOCON) status to ensure that directed actions are completed promptly. They are specifically tasked with monitoring and managing the Air Force network, making them the appropriate entity to oversee the INFOCON status and ensure timely execution of necessary actions.

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83. 76. (028) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters is considered to be in equipment zone considered to be in facility zone

Explanation

Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters is considered to be in the facility zone. This means that the equipment is within the range where it can potentially emit electromagnetic radiation that can be intercepted and exploited by attackers. The facility zone is a designated area where countermeasures are implemented to protect against TEMPEST attacks. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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84. 81. (030) How many steps are in the risk management framework process?

Explanation

The risk management framework process consists of six steps. These steps include identifying the risks, analyzing and assessing the risks, developing risk mitigation strategies, implementing the strategies, monitoring the risks, and reviewing and updating the risk management plan. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and minimizing risks within an organization.

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85. 77. (029) What type of equipment is used for acquisition, storage and manipulation of voice and data?

Explanation

Information technology equipment is used for the acquisition, storage, and manipulation of voice and data. This includes devices such as computers, servers, routers, and switches that are essential for processing and managing information. System equipment refers to the overall infrastructure and components required for a specific system, but it may not necessarily involve voice and data. Cryptographic equipment is used for encryption and decryption of data, while communications equipment is primarily focused on transmitting and receiving signals. Therefore, information technology equipment is the most appropriate choice for this question.

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86. 85. (031) In which phase of the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP) do you initiate and plan for certification and accreditation (C&A)?

Explanation

In the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP), the initiation and planning for certification and accreditation (C&A) is done in Phase I. This phase involves identifying the system, determining the scope of the C&A effort, and establishing a C&A team. It also includes developing a C&A strategy and plan, as well as conducting initial risk assessments and identifying any necessary resources. This phase sets the foundation for the entire C&A process and ensures that all necessary preparations are made before moving forward.

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87. 69. (027) Which standard form (SF) label is used as a data descriptor label?

Explanation

SF 711 is the correct answer because it is the standard form (SF) label used as a data descriptor label. The other options, SF 701, SF 706, and SF 710, are not used for this purpose.

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88. 53. (020) An incident in which an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer, information system, or network device is considered category

Explanation

Category II refers to an incident where an unauthorized person gains user-level privileges on an Air Force computer, information system, or network device. This means that the unauthorized person has been able to access and manipulate the system or device at a level that is typically reserved for authorized users. This type of incident is significant as it indicates a breach in security and the potential for further unauthorized access or damage to the system.

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89. 68. (026) When overwriting hard drives, you must examine no less than what percentage of all overwritten hard drives to verify the overwriting process?

Explanation

When overwriting hard drives, it is necessary to examine at least 10% of all overwritten hard drives to verify the overwriting process. This means that a random sample of 10% of the drives should be checked to ensure that the data has been successfully overwritten and cannot be recovered. This verification process helps to ensure that sensitive information is properly erased and cannot be accessed by unauthorized individuals.

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90. 35. (013) Who is the approval authority for foreign nationals to access unclassified systems?

Explanation

The AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander is the approval authority for foreign nationals to access unclassified systems. This individual is responsible for overseeing network operations and ensuring the security of the network. They have the authority to grant or deny access to foreign nationals based on the policies and procedures in place. The other options, such as the Wing commander and Wing information assurance officer (WIAO), may have some level of authority but the AFNETOPS commander is the highest authority in this situation.

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91. 60. (024) Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using an AF Form 4170 every two years or sooner?

Explanation

Major commands (MAJCOM) conduct assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using an AF Form 4170 every two years or sooner. This means that the higher-level command is responsible for evaluating the IA programs of the wings under its jurisdiction. The other options, such as Wings (WG), Squadrons (SG), and Headquarters Air Force Network Integration Center (HQ AFNIC), do not have the authority or responsibility to conduct these assessments at the MAJCOM level.

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92. 84. (030) How many steps are in the system development life cycle?

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 because the system development life cycle (SDLC) typically consists of five steps: requirements gathering and analysis, system design, coding, testing, and implementation. These steps are followed in a sequential manner to ensure the successful development and deployment of a system.

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93. 89. (032) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with approval of the

Explanation

ASIM transcripts contain sensitive information regarding security incidents, therefore their release is controlled. The approval for releasing these transcripts lies with the Air Force network operations center (AFNOC). This suggests that AFNOC has the authority and responsibility to determine when and to whom these transcripts should be released, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to this information.

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94. 87. (031) Who is the connection approval authority for mission assurance category I (MAC I) systems?

Explanation

The AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander is the connection approval authority for mission assurance category I (MAC I) systems. This means that they have the authority to approve connections for these systems, ensuring their security and reliability. The AFNETOPS commander is responsible for overseeing the network operations and ensuring that all connections meet the necessary requirements for mission assurance.

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95. 24. (008) Which organization is responsible for developing Air Force ports, protocols and services (PPS) policies and procedures?

Explanation

The Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC) is responsible for developing Air Force ports, protocols, and services (PPS) policies and procedures. They are in charge of ensuring that the Air Force's network operations are efficient, secure, and aligned with the organization's goals. AFNIC plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the Air Force's network infrastructure, making them the most suitable organization to develop PPS policies and procedures.

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19. (008) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
7. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a...
21. (008) Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?
37. (014) The definition of integrity as it's applied to...
16. (007) Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by...
5. (002) Human error causes approximately what percentage of all...
18. (008) A logical connection point for the transmission of...
30. (011) What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely...
51. (019) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is...
13. (006) Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited...
83. (030) In which information assurance control must an organization...
55. (020) When classified information is inadvertently sent through...
41. (014) The contract manager must use what agency to validate a...
58. (023) What determines the number of alternate information...
46. (018) Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered
47. (018) Which of the following options is not involved when securing...
44. (017) Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or...
86. (031) What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN)...
2. (001) Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and...
8. (004) Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?
9. (005) In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with...
20. (008) Which port is used for telnet?
12. (006) Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used...
26. (009) Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure...
50. (019) A companion file virus is one that
17. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)...
Which one do you like?
Which one do you like?
Which one do you like?
40. (014) What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to...
65. (025) How often must a degausser be recertified during its first 2...
15. (007) Which protocol does the Internet support as the "language"...
73. (027) An installation commander can authorize keeping which...
10. (006) When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet...
45. (017) Which device provides the initial entry point into a...
71. (027) Which standard form (SF) is used to record the opening and...
32. (012) Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach...
80. (029) Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security...
52. (019) The two fundamental concepts of network security are
6. (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband...
90. (033) Which of the following is not a phase in the information...
28. (010) Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it...
59. (024) What is the minimum grade requirement for an information...
48. (018) Which UNIX command allows remote logins?
74. (028) Which term identifies any equipment or area in which...
Match the following
31. (011) Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a...
29. (011) Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?
42. (015) Which of the following represents a strong password?
43. (016) Which category of information must be stored on removable...
64. (025) How many times should you wipe each active surface of the...
1. (001) Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety...
22. (008) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the...
34. (013) Which of the following is not a result of initial...
38. (014) Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with...
39. (014) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to...
49. (018) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows...
72. (027) Personnel removing top secret material from storage must use
79. (029) An emission security (EMSEC) manager documents an EMSEC...
Which one do you like?
23. (008) Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?
63. (025) Where are thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges...
14. (006) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol...
36. (013) Who initiates a local files check prior to allowing...
70. (027) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon and...
25. (009) How is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address...
78. (029) Who is the installation's focal point for emission security...
54. (020) An incident in which an Air Force computer, information...
66. (026) When destroying DVD storage devices, what is the maximum...
82. (030) What type of impact occurs when the loss of confidentiality,...
3. (002) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
11. (006) How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4...
33. (012) What is assigned to all Department of Defense (DOD)...
62. (025) When sanitizing sealed disks with a degausser, what...
75. (028) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters,...
88. (032) Integrated Network Operations Security Centers (I-NOSC) use...
27. (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and...
67. (026) How many years are the records of destruction of a hard...
57. (022) Continuity of operations plans (COOP) are not used in which...
61. (025) Which form is used to annotate that storage media from an...
4. (002) What is the third step in the risk management (RM)...
56. (021) Who tracks Air Force information condition (INFOCON) status...
76. (028) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of...
81. (030) How many steps are in the risk management framework process?
77. (029) What type of equipment is used for acquisition, storage and...
85. (031) In which phase of the Department of Defense information...
69. (027) Which standard form (SF) label is used as a data descriptor...
53. (020) An incident in which an unauthorized person gained...
68. (026) When overwriting hard drives, you must examine no less than...
35. (013) Who is the approval authority for foreign nationals to...
60. (024) Which agency conducts assessments of wing information...
84. (030) How many steps are in the system development life cycle?
89. (032) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts...
87. (031) Who is the connection approval authority for mission...
24. (008) Which organization is responsible for developing Air Force...
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