CDC Z3d053 Volume 1.

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  • 1/95 Questions

    19. (008) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

    • 0 to 1023
    • 1024 to 23535.
    • 23536 to 49151.
    • 49152 to 65535.
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About This Quiz

CDC Z3D053 Volume 1 quiz assesses key competencies in cybersecurity, focusing on duties like intrusion detection and firewall protection, managing network devices, and understanding risk management processes. It's tailored for cyber surety journeymen, enhancing skills crucial for safeguarding digital environments.

Cybersecurity Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    7. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

    • CAT–6.

    • Coaxial.

    • Fiber optic.

    • Twisted pair.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber optic.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is fiber optic. Fiber optic cables consist of a core, which carries the light signals, surrounded by cladding, which helps to keep the light signals contained within the core. Additionally, fiber optic cables often have a second layer of protection, such as glass or plastic, to further protect the core and cladding. This design allows for efficient and high-speed transmission of data through the use of light signals.

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  • 3. 

    21. (008) Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?

    • 21

    • 22

    • 60

    • 80

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
    Explanation
    Port 80 is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP). HTTP is the protocol used for transmitting web pages and other web resources over the internet. When a user types a website URL into their browser, the browser sends an HTTP request to the server hosting the website on port 80. The server then responds with the requested web page, which is displayed in the user's browser. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP, although it can be changed if needed.

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  • 4. 

    5. (002) Human error causes approximately what percentage of all accidents?

    • 40

    • 60

    • 75

    • 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 95
    Explanation
    Human error is responsible for approximately 95% of all accidents. This means that the majority of accidents are caused by mistakes, lapses in judgment, or negligence on the part of individuals. This highlights the importance of human factors in accident prevention and the need for effective training, safety protocols, and risk management strategies to minimize the occurrence of human errors and their potential consequences.

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  • 5. 

    16. (007) Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol by default?

    • 50

    • 80

    • 5050

    • 8080

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 80. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet. By default, HTTP uses TCP port 80 for communication. TCP port 80 is specifically designated for HTTP traffic, allowing web servers and web browsers to establish a connection and exchange data.

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  • 6. 

    37. (014) The definition of integrity as it’s applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • Having information ready when needed.

    • Not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • The protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

    Correct Answer
    A. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission." This means that integrity, in the context of identification, authentication, and encryption, refers to ensuring that information remains unchanged and unaltered, and that no unauthorized modifications or destruction of information have occurred. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data, and preventing any unauthorized tampering or manipulation.

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  • 7. 

    13. (006) Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited broadcasts?

    • X.x.x.0.

    • X.x.x.255.

    • 127.x.x.x.

    • 255.255.255.255.

    Correct Answer
    A. 255.255.255.255.
    Explanation
    The IP address 255.255.255.255 is used for limited broadcasts. This address is known as the broadcast address and is used to send a message to all devices on the network. When a device sends a message to this address, it is received by all devices on the network, allowing for efficient communication. This address is reserved specifically for limited broadcasts and cannot be assigned to any individual device on the network.

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  • 8. 

    18. (008) A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as

    • A port.

    • A protocol.

    • A service point.

    • An entrance point.

    Correct Answer
    A. A port.
    Explanation
    A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as a port. A port is a specific endpoint on a network device, such as a computer or a router, that allows communication between different devices. It acts as a gateway for data to enter or exit a device, enabling the transfer of information packets. Ports are identified by numbers and are used to establish connections and facilitate the exchange of data between devices in a network.

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  • 9. 

    30. (011) What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?

    • 802.11a.

    • 802.11b.

    • 802.11g.

    • 802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11n.
    Explanation
    802.11n is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available. This standard was introduced in 2009 and offers faster speeds and better range compared to previous standards like 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. It supports multiple antennas and uses MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) technology to improve performance. 802.11n is backward compatible with older standards, allowing devices that support 802.11n to connect to networks using older standards. It also operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, providing more flexibility and less interference.

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  • 10. 

    51. (019) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a

    • Boot sector virus.

    • Worm program.

    • Trojan horse.

    • Macro virus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trojan horse.
    Explanation
    A Trojan horse is a type of malicious program that disguises itself as a legitimate software or file, tricking users into downloading or installing it. Once installed, it can perform various harmful actions without the user's knowledge, such as stealing personal information, damaging files, or allowing unauthorized access to the system. Unlike a boot sector virus, which infects the boot sector of a computer's hard drive, a Trojan horse does not directly infect system files or the boot process. Therefore, a Trojan horse is the correct answer for a program that contains or installs a malicious program.

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  • 11. 

    83. (030) In which information assurance control must an organization ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user?

    • Risk Assessment (RA).

    • Personnel Security (PS).

    • Audit and Accountability (AU).

    • System and Information Integrity (SI).

    Correct Answer
    A. Audit and Accountability (AU).
    Explanation
    In order to ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user, an organization must implement Audit and Accountability (AU) controls. These controls help in monitoring and recording user activities within the system, allowing for the identification of any unauthorized or suspicious actions. By implementing AU controls, organizations can track user actions, detect security breaches, and hold individuals accountable for their actions, thereby enhancing the overall security and integrity of the information system.

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  • 12. 

    2. (001) Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments?

    • Client Systems (3D1X1).

    • Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

    • Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

    • Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

    Correct Answer
    A. Client Systems (3D1X1).
    Explanation
    Client Systems (3D1X1) is the correct answer because this career field specifically deals with deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in both fixed and deployed environments. This job involves working with various technologies and equipment to ensure that the network and communication systems are functioning properly and securely.

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  • 13. 

    8. (004) Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?

    • Fiber optic.

    • Terrestrial.

    • Radio frequency.

    • Satellite microwave.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber optic.
    Explanation
    Fiber optic is not an example of unbound media because it is a type of guided media. Unbound media refers to wireless communication methods that do not require physical connections, such as radio frequency and satellite microwave. Terrestrial communication also falls under unbound media as it uses wireless signals for transmission. However, fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data and are considered guided media because they require physical connections.

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  • 14. 

    9. (005) In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?

    • Bus.

    • Star.

    • Ring.

    • Tree.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus.
    Explanation
    In a bus topology, a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network sends a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see. However, only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes the message. This is because all devices in a bus topology are connected to a single shared communication line, and when a device sends a message, it is received by all devices on the network. However, each device has a unique address, and only the device with the matching address accepts and processes the message, while the others ignore it.

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  • 15. 

    12. (006) Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?

    • B.

    • C.

    • D.

    • E.

    Correct Answer
    A. E.
    Explanation
    Class E IP addresses are reserved for experimental purposes and are not intended to be used in public networks. These addresses range from 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 and are not allocated to any specific organization or country. They are meant to be used by researchers and developers for testing and experimentation.

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  • 16. 

    20. (008) Which port is used for telnet?

    • 7

    • 20

    • 23

    • 53

    Correct Answer
    A. 23
    Explanation
    Port 23 is used for telnet. Telnet is a network protocol that allows users to remotely access and control devices or computers over a network. It provides a command-line interface where users can execute commands on the remote device. Port 23 is specifically assigned for telnet communication, making it the correct answer.

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  • 17. 

    26. (009) Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure point-to-point communication?

    • Tunneling.

    • Dual layer.

    • Dual stack.

    • Peer-to-peer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling.
    Explanation
    Tunneling is the type of transition technology used to set up secure point-to-point communication. Tunneling involves encapsulating one network protocol within another, creating a "tunnel" through which data can be securely transmitted. This allows for the secure transmission of data between two points, protecting it from unauthorized access or interception. Dual layer, dual stack, and peer-to-peer are not specifically related to setting up secure point-to-point communication.

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  • 18. 

    41. (014) The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?

    • Wing (WG).

    • Air Force (AF).

    • Department of Defense (DOD).

    • Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA). The contract manager must use this agency to validate a contractor employee's need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate. This agency is responsible for verifying the contractor's identity and ensuring that they have a legitimate reason for needing the certificate. They play a crucial role in the PKI certification process and help maintain the security of the government's digital infrastructure.

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  • 19. 

    44. (017) Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?

    • End-user.

    • Remote user.

    • Administrative.

    • Limited (general).

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative.
    Explanation
    This question is asking about the type of access given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews. The correct answer is "Administrative" because these tasks require elevated privileges and access to make changes to the system. End-users typically do not have this level of access, remote users may have limited access, and limited (general) access would not provide the necessary privileges for these tasks.

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  • 20. 

    46. (018) Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered

    • Threats.

    • Exploits.

    • Vulnerabilities.

    • Breaches of security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerabilities.
    Explanation
    Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered vulnerabilities. Vulnerabilities refer to any flaw, loophole, or weakness in a security system that can potentially be exploited by attackers or threats. These vulnerabilities can exist in hardware, software, network configurations, or even human behavior. Identifying and addressing vulnerabilities is crucial for maintaining a robust and secure security system.

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  • 21. 

    47. (018) Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?

    • Shutting down ports.

    • Using strong passwords.

    • Ensuring remote access.

    • Disabling unused/unneeded services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring remote access.
    Explanation
    Securing a UNIX system involves various measures such as shutting down ports, using strong passwords, and disabling unused/unneeded services. However, ensuring remote access is not directly related to securing the system. In fact, allowing remote access can introduce additional vulnerabilities if not properly configured and monitored. Therefore, it is important to implement strong security measures for remote access, such as using secure protocols and authentication methods, to ensure the system remains secure.

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  • 22. 

    55. (020) When classified information is inadvertently sent through unclassified e-mail it is considered

    • An e-mail incident.

    • A message incident.

    • A classified e-mail incident.

    • A classified message incident.

    Correct Answer
    A. A classified message incident.
    Explanation
    When classified information is sent through unclassified e-mail unintentionally, it is considered a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information has been transmitted through a channel that is not authorized to handle such information, posing a potential security risk. The incident highlights a breach in security protocols and the need for corrective actions to prevent similar occurrences in the future.

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  • 23. 

    58. (023) What determines the number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization?

    • Number of information systems.

    • Number of personnel assigned.

    • Type of organization.

    • Mission need.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission need.
    Explanation
    The number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization is determined by the mission need. This means that the organization will assess its requirements and determine how many alternate IAOs are necessary to fulfill those needs. The number of information systems, number of personnel assigned, and type of organization may also play a role in this determination, but ultimately it is the mission need that drives the decision.

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  • 24. 

    86. (031) What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to?

    • Major General (O–8).

    • Brigadier General (O–7).

    • Colonel (O–6).

    • Lieutenant Colonel (O–5).

    Correct Answer
    A. Colonel (O–6).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Colonel (O–6). This means that the minimum rank at which the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated is Colonel. This implies that individuals below the rank of Colonel do not have the authority to approve AFIN connections.

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  • 25. 

    17. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) based network?

    • Internet protocol (IP).

    • Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • Transmission control protocol (TCP).

    • Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP). DHCP is an IETF standard that simplifies the process of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP network. It allows hosts to obtain IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters automatically from a DHCP server. This reduces the administrative burden and complexity of manually configuring each host on the network. DHCP is widely used in both small and large networks to streamline the network configuration process.

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  • 26. 

    50. (019) A companion file virus is one that

    • Writes itself before the original file.

    • Writes itself to the end of the original file.

    • Writes itself between file sections of 32-bit file.

    • Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.

    Correct Answer
    A. Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.
    Explanation
    A companion file virus is one that renames the original file and writes itself with the original file's name. This means that the virus disguises itself as the original file, making it difficult for users to detect. By renaming the file and replacing it with the virus, the attacker can gain control over the system and potentially infect other files. This technique allows the virus to spread and carry out its malicious activities without being easily detected or removed.

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  • 27. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
    Explanation
    The explanation for why Option 1 is the correct answer is not available as the question does not provide any context or criteria for selecting a preferred option.

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  • 28. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 29. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 30. 

    10. (006) When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 8
    Explanation
    Each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has 8 positions when viewed in binary form. In binary representation, each position can hold either a 0 or a 1, allowing for a total of 8 possible combinations. This is because binary is a base-2 numbering system, meaning it only uses two digits (0 and 1) to represent numbers. Therefore, each octet in an IP address, which is made up of 8 bits, has 8 positions.

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  • 31. 

    15. (007) Which protocol does the Internet support as the “language” computers use to find and connect with each other?

    • User datagram protocol (UDP).

    • Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    • Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). TCP/IP is the protocol that the Internet supports as the "language" computers use to find and connect with each other. TCP/IP is a set of rules that governs the transfer of data over the Internet. It ensures reliable and secure communication between computers by breaking down data into packets, addressing them, and reassembling them at the destination. TCP handles the reliable delivery of data, while IP handles the routing of packets across networks.

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  • 32. 

    40. (014) What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provide?

    • Integrity.

    • Availability.

    • Confidentiality.

    • Non-repudiation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-repudiation.
    Explanation
    The common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provides non-repudiation. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender of the e-mail cannot deny sending it, as the digital signature provided by the CAC certificate verifies the identity of the sender and ensures the integrity of the message. This helps to prevent any disputes or denials regarding the authenticity of the e-mail.

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  • 33. 

    65. (025) How often must a degausser be recertified during its first 2 years of operation?

    • Every 3 months.

    • Every 6 months.

    • Every 12 months.

    • Only once during the first two years.

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 6 months.
    Explanation
    A degausser is a device used to erase data from magnetic storage media. During its first 2 years of operation, it is recommended to recertify the degausser every 6 months. This is to ensure that the device is functioning properly and effectively erasing the data. Regular recertification helps to maintain the performance and reliability of the degausser, reducing the risk of data breaches or incomplete erasure.

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  • 34. 

    73. (027) An installation commander can authorize keeping which classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage?

    • Secret and top secret.

    • Confidential and secret.

    • Unclassified and confidential.

    • All classifications may be kept on the flight line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidential and secret.
    Explanation
    An installation commander can authorize keeping confidential and secret classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage. This means that only information classified as confidential or secret can be stored in the designated areas on the flight line. Other classifications such as top secret or unclassified are not authorized for storage in these areas.

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  • 35. 

    6. (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?

    • Global network.

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    • Wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wireless wide area network (WWAN).
    Explanation
    A wireless wide area network (WWAN) is a type of network that typically provides wireless broadband data services. Unlike a wireless local area network (WLAN) or wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN), which have limited coverage areas, WWANs offer wide coverage areas and can be used to connect devices over long distances. This makes WWANs suitable for providing wireless broadband data services, such as internet access, to large geographical areas.

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  • 36. 

    28. (010) Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?

    • Installing all applicable security patches.

    • Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

    • Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
    Explanation
    To ensure that replacement administrators can accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, it is important for administrators to keep complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes. This documentation serves as a reference for future administrators, allowing them to understand the network setup and make necessary changes or troubleshoot issues effectively. Without proper documentation, it would be difficult for replacement administrators to understand the network's configuration and perform their tasks efficiently.

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  • 37. 

    32. (012) Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach for establishing

    • An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.

    • An adequate IA posture in the AF environment.

    • A federal desktop configuration.

    • A federal server configuration.

    Correct Answer
    A. An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.
    Explanation
    Defense-in-depth is a strategy used by the Department of Defense (DOD) to establish an adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment. This approach recognizes that no single security measure is sufficient to protect against all threats, so multiple layers of security controls are implemented to provide a comprehensive defense. By using defense-in-depth, the DOD aims to mitigate risks and protect sensitive information in a shared-risk environment.

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  • 38. 

    45. (017) Which device provides the initial entry point into a network?

    • Router.

    • Firewall.

    • Proxy server.

    • Network access server.

    Correct Answer
    A. Network access server.
    Explanation
    A network access server provides the initial entry point into a network by allowing users to connect to the network and access its resources. It acts as a gateway, authenticating and authorizing users, and providing them with access to the network. A router, firewall, and proxy server are all important components of a network, but they do not specifically serve as the initial entry point into the network like a network access server does.

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  • 39. 

    52. (019) The two fundamental concepts of network security are

    • Authorization and confidentiality.

    • Authentication and authorization.

    • Confidentiality and integrity.

    • Authorization and integrity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentication and authorization.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is authentication and authorization. Authentication refers to the process of verifying the identity of a user or device, ensuring that they are who they claim to be. Authorization, on the other hand, involves granting or denying access to specific resources or actions based on the authenticated user's privileges. These two concepts are fundamental in network security as they help ensure that only authorized individuals or devices can access sensitive information or perform certain actions within a network.

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  • 40. 

    71. (027) Which standard form (SF) is used to record the opening and closing of security containers?

    • SF 700.

    • SF 702.

    • SF 704.

    • SF 705.

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 702.
    Explanation
    SF 702 is the correct answer because it is the standard form used to record the opening and closing of security containers. The other options (SF 700, SF 704, and SF 705) are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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  • 41. 

    80. (029) Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered

    • Secret.

    • Top secret.

    • Unclassified.

    • Confidential.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidential.
    Explanation
    Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered confidential.

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  • 42. 

    90. (033) Which of the following is not a phase in the information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process?

    • Design.

    • Define need.

    • Build and test.

    • Define need review.

    Correct Answer
    A. Define need review.
    Explanation
    The information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process involves several phases, including Design, Define need, Build and test. However, Define need review is not a phase in this process. It is important to define the needs and requirements before proceeding with the design and development stages. The Define need review may refer to a review or assessment of the defined needs, but it is not a separate phase in the IT Lean reengineering process.

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  • 43. 

    29. (011) Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?

    • 802.11a.

    • 802.11b.

    • 802.11g.

    • 802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11b.
    Explanation
    802.11b is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard because it operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data transfer rate of 11 Mbps. While it may not offer the fastest speeds compared to other WiFi standards like 802.11n or 802.11ac, it is still commonly used for basic internet browsing and email purposes. Additionally, 802.11b devices are generally cheaper and more widely available compared to newer WiFi standards.

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  • 44. 

    31. (011) Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?

    • WiFi protected access (WPA).

    • Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).

    • Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).
    Explanation
    Wired equivalency privacy (WEP) was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption. WEP was the first security protocol used in Wi-Fi networks and was designed to provide confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over wireless networks. However, it was later found to have several vulnerabilities, making it less secure compared to other security protocols such as Wi-Fi protected access (WPA).

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  • 45. 

    48. (018) Which UNIX command allows remote logins?

    • Rsh.

    • Telnet.

    • Finger.

    • File transfer protocol (FTP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Telnet.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is telnet. Telnet is a UNIX command that allows remote logins by establishing a virtual terminal connection with a remote host over a network. It enables users to log in and access the remote system as if they were physically present at the machine. Telnet provides a way to remotely manage and control UNIX systems, making it a commonly used command for remote administration purposes.

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  • 46. 

    59. (024) What is the minimum grade requirement for an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team chief?

    • NCO.

    • SNCO.

    • GS–07.

    • GS–09.

    Correct Answer
    A. SNCO.
    Explanation
    The minimum grade requirement for an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team chief is SNCO. SNCO stands for Senior Non-Commissioned Officer, which indicates a higher rank and level of experience compared to NCO (Non-Commissioned Officer). GS-07 and GS-09 refer to the General Schedule pay scale used for federal employees, but they do not specify the specific rank or level of authority required for the IAAP team chief position.

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  • 47. 

    74. (028) Which term identifies any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?

    • TEMPEST.

    • BLACK.

    • EMSEC.

    • RED.

    Correct Answer
    A. RED.
    Explanation
    The term "RED" is used to identify any equipment or area in which classified information is processed. This term is commonly used in security protocols to designate areas or systems that handle sensitive information. It helps to ensure that proper security measures are in place to protect classified data from unauthorized access or disclosure.

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  • 48. 

    1. (001) Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?

    • Sustain cryptographic equipment.

    • Install and maintain servers or other computer systems.

    • Manage data, information, and knowledge sharing services.

    • Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.
    Explanation
    A cyber surety journeyman is responsible for detecting and preventing cyber threats and attacks. This includes activities such as real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection. They are tasked with monitoring network traffic and systems to identify any unauthorized access or malicious activities. By actively detecting and responding to potential threats, they help ensure the security and integrity of the organization's information systems.

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  • 49. 

    22. (008) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?

    • Strobe scan.

    • Sweep scan.

    • Fragment packet scan.

    • File transfer protocol (FTP) bounce scan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sweep scan.
    Explanation
    A sweep scan is a type of port scan where the scanner connects to the same port on multiple machines. This scan is used to gather information about open ports on different machines within a network. By connecting to the same port on multiple machines, the scanner can identify potential vulnerabilities and gather information about the network's security. Strobe scan, fragment packet scan, and FTP bounce scan are not types of port scans that involve connecting to the same port on multiple machines.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 26, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    CDCs4dayz
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