CyberSecurity Fundamentals Quiz: Exam!

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Cybersecurity Fundamentals Quiz: Exam! - Quiz


What do you know about cybersecurity? Would you be interested in this quiz? The internet has grown as a medium, and there is a significant concern for the security of our privacy. There are internet attackers all over the world. Cybersecurity means safeguarding the system on the internet. Network security is of the utmost importance. If you intend to know more about cybersecurity, this is the quiz for you.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Three common controls used to protect the availability of information are:

    • A.

      Redundancy, backups and access controls

    • B.

      Encryption, file permissions and access controls

    • C.

      Access controls, logging and digital signatures

    • D.

      Hashes, logging and backups

    Correct Answer
    A. Redundancy, backups and access controls
    Explanation
    Redundancy, backups, and access controls are three common controls used to protect the availability of information. Redundancy refers to having multiple copies or backups of data or systems to ensure that if one fails, there are others to take its place and maintain availability. Backups involve regularly creating copies of data and storing them in a secure location, so that in the event of data loss or system failure, the information can be restored. Access controls restrict unauthorized access to information, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access and modify it, thereby preserving its availability.

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  • 2. 

    Governance has several goals, including:

    • A.

      Providing strategic direction

    • B.

      Ensuring that objectives are achieved

    • C.

      Verifying that organizational resources are being used apropriately

    • D.

      Directing and monitoring security activities

    • E.

      Ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Providing strategic direction
    B. Ensuring that objectives are achieved
    C. Verifying that organizational resources are being used apropriately
    E. Ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly
    Explanation
    Governance is the process of establishing and implementing policies and procedures to guide an organization towards its goals. One of the goals of governance is to provide strategic direction, which involves setting the overall direction and vision for the organization. Another goal is to ensure that objectives are achieved, meaning that the organization is able to meet its intended targets and goals. Governance also aims to verify that organizational resources are being used appropriately, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently. Lastly, governance is responsible for ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly, meaning that the organization is identifying and addressing potential risks in a timely and effective manner.

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  • 3. 

    Choose three. According to the NIST cybersecurity framework, which of the following are considered key functions necessary for the protection of digital assets?

    • A.

      Encrypt

    • B.

      Protect

    • C.

      Investigate

    • D.

      Recover

    • E.

      Identify

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Protect
    D. Recover
    E. Identify
    Explanation
    According to the NIST cybersecurity framework, the key functions necessary for the protection of digital assets are protect, recover, and identify. Protect refers to implementing safeguards to ensure the security and integrity of digital assets. Recover involves developing and implementing plans and procedures to restore digital assets and capabilities after a cybersecurity incident. Identify entails developing and implementing processes to understand the organization's cybersecurity risks and vulnerabilities. These three functions work together to enhance the overall cybersecurity posture of an organization and safeguard its digital assets.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is the best definition for cybersecurity?

    • A.

      The process by which an organization manages cybersecurity risk to an acceptable level

    • B.

      The protection of information from unauthorized acces or disclosure

    • C.

      The protection of paper documents, digital and intellectual property, and verbal or visual communications

    • D.

      Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported by internetworked information systems

    Correct Answer
    D. Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported by internetworked information systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported by internetworked information systems." This definition encompasses the core concept of cybersecurity, which is safeguarding information assets from potential threats that may arise during the processing, storage, or transportation of information through interconnected information systems. It highlights the importance of addressing these threats to ensure the security and integrity of the information.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following cybersecurity roles is charged with the duty of managing incidents and remediation?

    • A.

      Board of directors

    • B.

      Executive committee

    • C.

      Cybersecurity management

    • D.

      Cybersecurity practitioners

    Correct Answer
    C. Cybersecurity management
    Explanation
    Cybersecurity management is responsible for managing incidents and remediation. This role involves overseeing the overall cybersecurity strategy, implementing security measures, and coordinating incident response efforts. They are in charge of identifying and addressing security incidents, coordinating with relevant teams to mitigate risks, and ensuring that appropriate remediation actions are taken to prevent future incidents. This role plays a crucial role in maintaining the security of an organization's systems and data.

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  • 6. 

    The core duty of cybersecurity is to identify, mitigate, and manage ________ to an organization's digital assets.

    Correct Answer
    cyberrisk, cyber risk , threats , danger , threat , dangers , risk ,risks , cyber risks
    Explanation
    The core duty of cybersecurity is to identify, mitigate, and manage cyberrisk to an organization's digital assets. Cyberrisk refers to the potential threats and vulnerabilities that can compromise the security and integrity of an organization's digital systems and data. By effectively identifying and assessing these risks, cybersecurity professionals can implement appropriate measures and controls to protect the organization's digital assets from potential attacks, breaches, or unauthorized access. This includes implementing security protocols, conducting regular risk assessments, monitoring for potential threats, and responding to incidents in a timely manner.

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  • 7. 

    A ________ is anything capable of acting against an asset in a manner that can cause harm.

    Correct Answer
    threat
    Explanation
    A threat refers to anything that has the potential to cause harm or act against an asset. It can be any entity, action, event, or circumstance that poses a risk to the security or well-being of the asset. Threats can come in various forms such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, theft, or even human errors. Identifying and understanding threats is crucial in order to implement appropriate measures to protect assets and mitigate potential harm.

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  • 8. 

    A ________ is something of value worth protecting.

    Correct Answer
    asset
    Explanation
    An asset is something of value worth protecting. It refers to any valuable resource or property that an individual or organization owns and can be used to generate income or provide future benefits. Assets can include physical possessions, such as real estate or vehicles, as well as intangible assets like intellectual property or investments. Protecting assets is important to ensure their continued value and usefulness, as well as to safeguard against potential risks or threats.

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  • 9. 

    A ________ is a weakness in the design, implementation, operation or internal controls in a process that could be exploited to violate the system security.

    Correct Answer
    vulnerability
    Explanation
    A vulnerability refers to a flaw or weakness in the design, implementation, operation, or internal controls of a process. This vulnerability can be exploited by malicious actors to violate the security of a system. In other words, a vulnerability is a potential entry point or loophole that can be used to compromise the security of a system.

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  • 10. 

    The path or route used to gain access to the target asset is known as a ________.

    Correct Answer
    attack vector
    Explanation
    An attack vector refers to the specific path or method that an attacker uses to gain unauthorized access to a target asset. It can be a vulnerability in a system, a malicious email attachment, a compromised website, or any other means that allows the attacker to exploit weaknesses and infiltrate the target. By understanding the attack vector, security measures can be implemented to mitigate the risk and protect the asset from potential attacks.

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  • 11. 

    In an attack, the container that delivers the exploit to the target is called a ________.

    Correct Answer
    payload
    Explanation
    The term "payload" refers to the container that carries and delivers the exploit to the target during an attack. It contains the malicious code or software that is designed to exploit vulnerabilities in the target system. The payload is responsible for executing the intended actions of the attacker, such as gaining unauthorized access, causing damage, or stealing information.

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  • 12. 

    ________ communicate required and prohibited activities and behaviors.

    Correct Answer
    policies
    Explanation
    Policies are a set of guidelines or rules that communicate the required and prohibited activities and behaviors within an organization or community. They provide a framework for individuals to understand what is expected of them and what actions are not allowed. By clearly outlining these policies, organizations can promote a safe and productive environment, ensuring that everyone is aware of the standards and consequences associated with their actions.

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  • 13. 

    ________ is a class of malware that hides the existence of other malware by modifying the underlying operating system.

    Correct Answer
    rootkit
    Explanation
    A rootkit is a type of malware that is designed to conceal the presence of other malicious software by altering the operating system. It achieves this by modifying system files, processes, and configurations, making it difficult for antivirus programs and other security measures to detect and remove the hidden malware. Rootkits often grant unauthorized access to the attacker, allowing them to control the compromised system remotely and carry out malicious activities undetected.

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  • 14. 

    ________ provides details on how to comply with policies and standards.

    Correct Answer
    procedures
    Explanation
    Procedures provide details on how to comply with policies and standards. They outline the specific steps and actions that need to be followed in order to adhere to the established guidelines and regulations. Procedures serve as a guide for individuals or organizations to ensure that they are meeting the required standards and following the prescribed protocols. They provide a systematic approach to achieving compliance and help in maintaining consistency and uniformity in operations.

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  • 15. 

    ________ provides general guidance and recommendations on what to do in particular circumstances.

    Correct Answer
    guidelines
    Explanation
    Guidelines provide general guidance and recommendations on what to do in particular circumstances. They serve as a set of instructions or suggestions that help individuals or organizations make informed decisions or take appropriate actions. Guidelines are typically based on expert knowledge, best practices, or established standards, and they aim to provide a framework for achieving desired outcomes or addressing specific situations. By following guidelines, individuals or organizations can navigate through complex or unfamiliar scenarios with a sense of direction and clarity.

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  • 16. 

    ________, also called malicious code, is software designed to gain access to targeted computer systems, steal information or disrupt computer operations.

    Correct Answer
    malware
    Explanation
    Malware, also known as malicious code, refers to software that is specifically created with the intention of gaining unauthorized access to computer systems, causing disruption, or stealing sensitive information. It encompasses various forms of malicious software such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, and spyware. The primary purpose of malware is to compromise the security and integrity of targeted computer systems, often resulting in financial loss, data breaches, and system malfunction.

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  • 17. 

    ________ is sued to interpret policies in specific situations.

    Correct Answer
    standards
    Explanation
    Standards are used to interpret policies in specific situations. Standards provide guidelines and criteria that help determine how policies should be applied and implemented in different scenarios. They help ensure consistency and fairness in decision-making by providing a framework for interpreting policies and making judgments. Standards help bridge the gap between general policies and their practical application, allowing for flexibility while still maintaining a level of uniformity and objectivity.

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  • 18. 

    ________ are solutions to software programming and coding errors.

    Correct Answer
    patches
    Explanation
    Patches are solutions to software programming and coding errors. When errors or bugs are identified in software, patches are created to fix these issues. These patches are essentially updates or modifications to the code that address and resolve the specific problems. By applying patches, developers can ensure that the software functions correctly and efficiently, improving its overall performance and user experience.

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  • 19. 

    ________ includes many components such as directory services, authentication and authorization services, and user management capabilities such as provisioning and deprovisioning.

    Correct Answer
    identity management
    Explanation
    Identity management includes many components such as directory services, authentication and authorization services, and user management capabilities such as provisioning and deprovisioning. This means that identity management is a comprehensive system that handles various aspects of managing user identities, including managing user access rights, verifying user identities, and managing user accounts and privileges.

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  • 20. 

    Select all that apply. The internet perimeter should:

    • A.

      Detect and block traffic from infected internal end points

    • B.

      Eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses and worms

    • C.

      Format, encrypt and compress data

    • D.

      Control user traffic bound toward the internet

    • E.

      Monitor internal and external network ports for rogue activity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Detect and block traffic from infected internal end points
    B. Eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses and worms
    D. Control user traffic bound toward the internet
    E. Monitor internal and external network ports for rogue activity
    Explanation
    The internet perimeter should detect and block traffic from infected internal end points because this helps prevent the spread of malware and other threats within the network. It should also eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses, and worms to protect the network and its users. Additionally, it should control user traffic bound toward the internet to ensure that only authorized and safe connections are made. Lastly, it should monitor internal and external network ports for rogue activity to identify and mitigate any unauthorized or suspicious behavior.

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  • 21. 

    The _________ layer of the OSI model ensures that data are transferred reliably in the correct sequence, and the _________ layer coordinates and manages user connections.

    • A.

      Presentation, data link

    • B.

      Transport, session

    • C.

      Physical, application

    • D.

      Data link, network

    Correct Answer
    B. Transport, session
    Explanation
    The transport layer of the OSI model ensures that data are transferred reliably in the correct sequence. It is responsible for segmenting and reassembling data, as well as providing error detection and correction. On the other hand, the session layer coordinates and manages user connections. It establishes, maintains, and terminates connections between users, allowing them to communicate and exchange data.

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  • 22. 

    Choose three. There key benefits of the DMZ system are:

    • A.

      DMZs are based on logical rather than physical connections

    • B.

      An intruder must penetrate three separate devices

    • C.

      Private network addresses are not disclosed to the internet

    • D.

      Excellent performance and scalability as internet usage grows

    • E.

      Internal systems do not have direct access to internet

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. An intruder must penetrate three separate devices
    C. Private network addresses are not disclosed to the internet
    E. Internal systems do not have direct access to internet
    Explanation
    The key benefits of the DMZ system are that an intruder must penetrate three separate devices, which adds an extra layer of security. Additionally, private network addresses are not disclosed to the internet, reducing the risk of unauthorized access. Lastly, internal systems do not have direct access to the internet, minimizing the potential for attacks on the internal network.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following best states the role of encryption within an overall cybersecurity program?

    • A.

      Encryption is the primary means of securing digital assets

    • B.

      Encryption depends upon shared secrets and is therefore an unreliable means of control

    • C.

      A programs encryption elements should be handled by a third party cryptologist

    • D.

      Encryption is an essential but incomplete form of access control

    Correct Answer
    D. Encryption is an essential but incomplete form of access control
    Explanation
    Encryption plays a crucial role in a cybersecurity program as it is an essential form of access control. It helps protect sensitive data by converting it into a coded form that can only be accessed by authorized individuals with the decryption key. However, encryption alone is not sufficient to ensure complete security. Other security measures such as firewalls, authentication protocols, and intrusion detection systems are also necessary to create a comprehensive cybersecurity program. Therefore, while encryption is essential, it is considered incomplete without the implementation of other security measures.

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  • 24. 

    The number and types of layers needed for defense in depth are a function of:

    • A.

      Asset value, criticality, relliability of each control and degree of exposure

    • B.

      Threat agents, governance compliance and mobile device policy

    • C.

      Network configuration, navigation controls, user interface and VPN traffic

    • D.

      Isolation, segmentation, internal controls and external controls

    Correct Answer
    A. Asset value, criticality, relliability of each control and degree of exposure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "asset value, criticality, reliability of each control, and degree of exposure." When implementing defense in depth, the number and types of layers needed depend on several factors. The value and criticality of the assets being protected are important considerations, as higher-value assets may require more layers of defense. The reliability of each control is also crucial, as ineffective controls may necessitate additional layers. Additionally, the degree of exposure to potential threats should be taken into account when determining the appropriate number and types of layers for defense in depth.

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  • 25. 

    What is the correct order of the penetration testing phase?

    • A.

      Planning, discovery, attack, reporting

    • B.

      Attack, discovery, reporting, planning

    • C.

      Planning, attack, discovery, reporting

    • D.

      Attack, planning, discovery, reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning, discovery, attack, reporting
    Explanation
    The correct order of penetration testing phases begins with planning, where the scope, objectives, and rules of engagement are established. This is followed by the discovery phase, where information about the target system is gathered passively. The attack phase comes next, involving active exploitation of identified vulnerabilities. Finally, the reporting phase involves documenting findings, including vulnerabilities, their severity, and mitigation recommendations, in a comprehensive report for the client. This structured approach ensures a systematic and organized assessment of a system's security.

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  • 26. 

    System hardening should implement the principle of __________ or ____________ .

    • A.

      Governance, compliance

    • B.

      Least privilege, access control

    • C.

      Stateful inspection, remote access

    • D.

      Vulnerability assessment, risk mitigation

    Correct Answer
    B. Least privilege, access control
    Explanation
    System hardening should implement the principle of least privilege, which means that users and processes should only have the minimum privileges necessary to perform their tasks. This helps to minimize the potential damage that can be caused by unauthorized access or malicious activities. Additionally, access control should also be implemented to ensure that only authorized individuals or processes can access specific resources or perform certain actions. These two principles work together to enhance the security of the system and protect against potential threats.

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  • 27. 

    Select all that apply. Which of the following are considered functional areas of network management as defined by ISO?

    • A.

      Accounting management

    • B.

      Fault management

    • C.

      Firewall management

    • D.

      Performance management

    • E.

      Security management

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Accounting management
    B. Fault management
    D. Performance management
    E. Security management
    Explanation
    The functional areas of network management as defined by ISO include accounting management, fault management, performance management, and security management. These areas are essential for effectively managing and maintaining a network infrastructure. Accounting management involves tracking and managing network resources and expenses. Fault management focuses on identifying, isolating, and resolving network issues. Performance management involves monitoring and optimizing network performance. Security management is responsible for implementing and maintaining network security measures. Firewall management, although important for network security, is not specifically mentioned as a functional area in the ISO definition.

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  • 28. 

    Virtualization involves:

    • A.

      The creation of a layer between physical and logical access controls

    • B.

      Multiple guests coexisting on the same server in isolation of one another

    • C.

      Simultaneous use of kernel mode and user mode

    • D.

      DNS interrogation, WHOIS queries and network sniffing

    Correct Answer
    B. Multiple guests coexisting on the same server in isolation of one another
    Explanation
    Virtualization involves the creation of multiple guests that can coexist on the same server while being isolated from one another. This means that each guest operates independently and does not have access to the resources or data of other guests. This allows for efficient utilization of server resources and improved security by preventing guest-to-guest interactions.

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  • 29. 

    Vulnerability management begins with an understanding of cybersecurity assets and their locations, which can be accomplished by:

    • A.

      Vulnerability scanning

    • B.

      Penetration testing

    • C.

      Maintaining an asset inventory

    • D.

      Using command line tools

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintaining an asset inventory
    Explanation
    Maintaining an asset inventory is crucial for vulnerability management as it involves keeping track of all cybersecurity assets and their locations. By maintaining an asset inventory, organizations can have a comprehensive understanding of their systems, devices, and software, which enables them to identify potential vulnerabilities and address them effectively. This practice helps in prioritizing and planning vulnerability assessments, patching, and other security measures, leading to an overall improved cybersecurity posture.

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  • 30. 

    What is the correct order of the incident response process?

    • A.

      Preparation, detection and analysis, investigation, mitigation and recovery, postincident analysis

    • B.

      Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned.

    • C.

      Mitigation and recovery, investigation, postincident analysis, preparation, detection and analysis

    • D.

      Investigation, mitigation and recovery, postincident analysis, preparation, detection and analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication, Recovery, Lessons Learned.
    Explanation
    The correct order of the incident response process involves several key phases. It begins with "Preparation," where organizations establish policies, procedures, and teams for incident response. "Detection and Analysis" follow, involving monitoring for security incidents and analyzing their nature and scope. Upon detection, the next steps are "Containment" to limit the incident's impact and "Eradication" to remove the threat. "Recovery" focuses on restoring affected systems and services, and finally, "Lessons Learned" involves post-incident analysis to enhance future incident response efforts based on identified improvements and insights gained from the incident.

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  • 31. 

    Select three. The chain of custody contains information regarding:

    • A.

      Disaster recovery objectives, resources and personnel

    • B.

      Who had access to the evidence, in chronological order

    • C.

      Labor, union and privacy regulations

    • D.

      Proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence

    • E.

      The procedures followed in working with the evidence

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Who had access to the evidence, in chronological order
    D. Proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence
    E. The procedures followed in working with the evidence
    Explanation
    The chain of custody contains information regarding who had access to the evidence, in chronological order. This is important because it helps establish the integrity and reliability of the evidence by documenting who has handled it and when. It also helps ensure that the evidence has not been tampered with or altered. Additionally, the chain of custody includes proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence, which is crucial for maintaining the accuracy and validity of the analysis. Lastly, the chain of custody includes the procedures followed in working with the evidence, which helps ensure that proper protocols were followed throughout the handling and analysis process.

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  • 32. 

    Which element of an incident response plan involves obtaining and preserving evidence?

    • A.

      Preparation

    • B.

      Identification

    • C.

      Containment

    • D.

      Eradication

    Correct Answer
    C. Containment
    Explanation
    Containment is the element of an incident response plan that involves obtaining and preserving evidence. Containment refers to the process of isolating and controlling the incident to prevent further damage or compromise. During this phase, it is crucial to gather and secure evidence related to the incident, which can be used for forensic analysis, identifying the root cause, and potential legal actions. By containing the incident and preserving evidence, organizations can effectively investigate and mitigate the impact of the incident.

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  • 33. 

    NIST defines an ________ as a "violation of imminent threat of violation of computer security policies, acceptable use policies, or standard security practices."

    • A.

      Disaster

    • B.

      Event

    • C.

      Threat

    • D.

      Incident

    Correct Answer
    D. Incident
    Explanation
    NIST defines an incident as a "violation of imminent threat of violation of computer security policies, acceptable use policies, or standard security practices." This means that an incident refers to any unauthorized or malicious activity that compromises the security of computer systems or networks. It can include actions such as unauthorized access, data breaches, malware infections, or any other security breach that goes against established policies and practices.

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  • 34. 

    Select all that apply.  A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) should identify:

    • A.

      The circumstances under which a disaster should be declared.

    • B.

      The estimated probability of the identified threats actually occurring.

    • C.

      The efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls.

    • D.

      A list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers and/or threats.

    • E.

      Which types of data backups (full, incremental and differential) will be used.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. The efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls.
    D. A list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers and/or threats.
    E. Which types of data backups (full, incremental and differential) will be used.
    Explanation
    A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) should identify the efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls to determine if they are sufficient in mitigating potential risks. It should also identify a list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers, and/or threats that the organization may face, in order to prioritize and address them appropriately. Additionally, the BIA should determine which types of data backups (full, incremental, and differential) will be used to ensure the availability and integrity of critical data in case of a disaster.

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  • 35. 

    _________ is defined as "a model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management or service provider interaction."

    • A.

      Software as a service (SaaS)

    • B.

      Cloud computing

    • C.

      Big data

    • D.

      Platform as a service (PaaS)

    Correct Answer
    B. Cloud computing
    Explanation
    Cloud computing is defined as "a model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management or service provider interaction." This definition perfectly aligns with the concept of cloud computing, which involves accessing and utilizing various resources and services over the internet, without the need for physical infrastructure or direct management. Therefore, the correct answer is cloud computing.

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  • 36. 

    Select all that apply. Which of the following statements about advanced persistent threats (APTs) are true?

    • A.

      APTs typically originate from sources such as organized crime groups, activists or goverments

    • B.

      APTs use obfuscation techniques that help them remain undiscovered for months or even years

    • C.

      APTs are often long term, multi phase projects with a focus on reconnaissance

    • D.

      The APT attack cycle begins with target penetration an collection of sensitive information

    • E.

      Although they are often associated with APTs, intelligence agencies are rarely the perpetrators of APT attacks

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. APTs typically originate from sources such as organized crime groups, activists or goverments
    B. APTs use obfuscation techniques that help them remain undiscovered for months or even years
    C. APTs are often long term, multi phase projects with a focus on reconnaissance
    Explanation
    Advanced persistent threats (APTs) are typically initiated by various sources such as organized crime groups, activists, or governments. APTs employ obfuscation techniques to stay hidden for extended periods, sometimes even years. These attacks are often characterized by being long-term projects that involve multiple phases, with a primary emphasis on reconnaissance.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following are benefits to BYOD?

    • A.

      Acceptable Use Policy is easier to implement

    • B.

      Costs shift to the user

    • C.

      Worker satisfaction increases

    • D.

      Security risk is known to the user

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Costs shift to the user
    C. Worker satisfaction increases
    Explanation
    BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) refers to the practice of allowing employees to use their personal devices for work purposes. The benefits of BYOD include cost shifting to the user, as employees are responsible for purchasing and maintaining their own devices, reducing the financial burden on the organization. Additionally, worker satisfaction increases as employees are able to use devices they are comfortable with and prefer. However, the explanation does not mention the security risk being known to the user, which is another benefit of BYOD as employees are more likely to take responsibility for securing their own devices.

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  • 38. 

    Choose three. Which types of risk are typically associated with mobile devices?

    • A.

      Organizational risk

    • B.

      Compliance risk

    • C.

      Technical risk

    • D.

      Physical risk

    • E.

      Transactional risk

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Organizational risk
    C. Technical risk
    D. Physical risk
    Explanation
    Mobile devices are typically associated with organizational risk because they can pose a threat to the organization's data security and confidentiality. Technical risk is also a concern as mobile devices can be vulnerable to hacking, malware, and other technical issues. Additionally, physical risk is a factor as mobile devices can be lost, stolen, or damaged, potentially leading to the loss of sensitive information. Compliance risk, on the other hand, refers to the risk of not adhering to legal and regulatory requirements and is not directly related to mobile devices. Transactional risk is also not specifically associated with mobile devices.

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  • 39. 

    Which three elements of the current threat landscape have provided increased levels of access and connectivity, and, therefore, increased opportunities for cybercrime?

    • A.

      Text messaging, Bluetooth technology and SIM cards

    • B.

      Web applications, botnets and primary malware

    • C.

      Financial gains, intellectual property and politics

    • D.

      Cloud computing, social media and mobile computing

    Correct Answer
    D. Cloud computing, social media and mobile computing
    Explanation
    Cloud computing, social media, and mobile computing have provided increased levels of access and connectivity, creating more opportunities for cybercrime. Cloud computing allows for remote storage and access to data, making it vulnerable to unauthorized access and data breaches. Social media platforms provide a vast amount of personal information, which can be exploited by cybercriminals for identity theft and phishing attacks. Mobile computing, including smartphones and tablets, have become essential in today's world, but they also pose security risks such as malware infections and data breaches due to their constant connectivity to the internet.

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  • 40. 

    A ________ is defined as a system or combination of systems that enforces a boundary between two or more networks, typically forming a barrier between a secure and open environment such as the Internet.

    Correct Answer
    firewall
    Explanation
    A firewall is a system or combination of systems that enforces a boundary between two or more networks, typically forming a barrier between a secure and open environment such as the Internet. Firewalls are designed to monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. They help protect the internal network from unauthorized access and potential threats from the outside world, acting as a barrier between the secure internal network and the less secure external network, such as the Internet.

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  • 41. 

    A ________ is based on logical rather than physical connections, and thus, it allows great flexibility.

    Correct Answer
    VLAN
    Explanation
    A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a network that is logically created instead of physically connected. It allows for great flexibility as it enables the grouping of devices into separate virtual networks, regardless of their physical location. This allows for efficient management and control of network resources, as well as improved security and performance. VLANs can be easily reconfigured and modified without the need for physical changes to the network infrastructure, making them highly flexible.

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  • 42. 

    The ________ functions as a small, isolated network for an organization's public servers, VPN termination and modem pools.

    • A.

      Local area network

    • B.

      Demilitarized zone

    • C.

      Wireless protected area

    • D.

      Virtual private network

    Correct Answer
    B. Demilitarized zone
    Explanation
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a network that acts as a buffer between an organization's internal network and the external network, such as the internet. It is designed to provide additional security by isolating public servers, VPN termination, and modem pools from the internal network. The DMZ allows external users to access these resources while keeping them separate from the internal network, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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  • 43. 

    Unlike the IDS, which simply sends an alert when an attack is happening, the IPS can actually help block the attack.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) only detects and alerts about attacks, while an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) not only detects but also actively blocks or prevents attacks from occurring. The IPS can analyze network traffic in real-time and take immediate action to stop malicious activities, such as blocking suspicious IP addresses or terminating suspicious connections. This proactive approach makes the IPS more effective in protecting the network against cyber threats compared to the IDS.

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  • 44. 

    A ________ covers a small, local area - from a few devices in a single room to a network across a few buildings.

    Correct Answer
    LAN
    Explanation
    A LAN, or Local Area Network, is a network that covers a small, local area, typically within a single building or a few buildings. It connects a limited number of devices, such as computers, printers, and servers, allowing them to communicate and share resources. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, schools, and small businesses to facilitate local communication and data sharing.

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  • 45. 

    Most OS have two modes of operations - ________ for execution of privileged instructions for the internal operation of the system and _________ for normal activities.

    • A.

      Kernel mode, user mode

    • B.

      User mode, kernel mode

    • C.

      Safe mode, user mode

    • D.

      Kernel mode, normal mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Kernel mode, user mode
    Explanation
    Most operating systems have two modes of operation - kernel mode and user mode. In kernel mode, the operating system has full access to the hardware and can execute privileged instructions for the internal operation of the system. In user mode, applications and user processes run, and they have limited access to the hardware and cannot execute privileged instructions. This separation of modes helps to ensure the stability and security of the system by preventing user processes from interfering with the critical operations of the operating system.

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  • 46. 

    Choose three. The SDLC includes:

    • A.

      IT processes for managing and controlling project activity

    • B.

      An objective for each phase of the life cycle that is typically described with key deliverables, a description of recommended tasks and a summary of related control objectives for effective management.

    • C.

      Incremental steps or deliverables that lay the foundation for the next phase

    • D.

      Security tools for protecting assets

    • E.

      Processes for managing and preventing cyber threats

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. IT processes for managing and controlling project activity
    B. An objective for each phase of the life cycle that is typically described with key deliverables, a description of recommended tasks and a summary of related control objectives for effective management.
    C. Incremental steps or deliverables that lay the foundation for the next phase
    Explanation
    The SDLC includes IT processes for managing and controlling project activity, which refers to the systematic approach used to manage and control the development of software systems. It also includes an objective for each phase of the life cycle, which provides a clear goal and direction for that particular phase. Additionally, the SDLC involves incremental steps or deliverables that lay the foundation for the next phase, ensuring a smooth transition and progression throughout the development process. These three elements are essential components of the SDLC and contribute to its effectiveness and success.

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