4a051 Entire Volume 5

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 122

| Attempts: 122

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1/64 Questions

Why is it necessary to ensure all personnel are educated and able to use the virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF) tools?
- Our force is decreasing
- Personnel can commit more time to work.
- Personnel information should just be viewed by each member
- Routine personnel actions are not important enough for face to face interaction.

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge related to Air Force personnel management systems, including the use of vMPF, MilPDS, PCIII, and DTS. It covers essentials such as leave policies and travel management, crucial for efficient military personnel administration and cost-effectiveness.

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2.

What is the Air Force’s primary human resource system?
- Personnel concepts III (PCIII).
- Defense Travel System (DTS).
- Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).
- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
Correct Answer

A. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

Explanation

The Air Force's primary human resource system is the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS). This system is responsible for managing and maintaining the personnel records of Air Force members. It includes information such as personal data, assignments, promotions, and training records. MilPDS is crucial for ensuring accurate and up-to-date information on Air Force personnel, which is essential for effective human resource management within the organization.

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3.

What system allows commanders and managers near real-time retrieval capability for alpha rosters and other routine reports?
- Personnel concepts III (PCIII).
- Defense Travel System (DTS).
- Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).
- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
Correct Answer

A. Personnel concepts III (PCIII).

Explanation

PCIII is a system that provides commanders and managers with near real-time retrieval capability for alpha rosters and other routine reports. This system allows them to quickly access and retrieve important personnel information, enabling them to effectively manage and make informed decisions.

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4.

What was designed to make official travel management easy and efficient for Defense Department personnel and save taxpayer money?
- Computer access system.
- Defense Travel System (DTS).
- Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).
- Department of Defense (DOD) accounting system.
Correct Answer

A. Defense Travel System (DTS).

Explanation

The Defense Travel System (DTS) was designed to make official travel management easy and efficient for Defense Department personnel and save taxpayer money. It is a computer access system specifically created for this purpose, allowing personnel to manage their travel arrangements and expenses in a streamlined and cost-effective manner. The other options mentioned, such as the Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF) and the Department of Defense (DOD) accounting system, are not specifically designed for travel management and do not have the same focus on efficiency and cost savings.

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5.

Air Force members cannot carry leave in excess of how many days into the next fiscal year if they are not eligible for special leave accrual?
- 30 days.
- 45 days
- 60 days
- 90 days
Correct Answer

A. 60 days

Explanation

Air Force members who are not eligible for special leave accrual cannot carry leave in excess of 60 days into the next fiscal year. This means that if they have accumulated more than 60 days of leave, they will lose the excess days and will only be able to carry forward a maximum of 60 days into the next fiscal year.

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6.

What is the maximum number of unused leave days the Air Force can pay members for?
- 30 days
- 45 days
- 60 days
- 90 days
Correct Answer

A. 60 days

Explanation

The maximum number of unused leave days that the Air Force can pay members for is 60 days. This means that if a member has accumulated more than 60 days of unused leave, they will not be compensated for the additional days.

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7.

What is emergency leave?
- Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member’s presence.
- Nonchargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member’s presence.
- Chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.
- Nonchargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.
Correct Answer

A. Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member’s presence.

Explanation

Emergency leave refers to a type of leave that is granted to military members in situations where they need to attend to a personal or family emergency. This leave is chargeable, meaning it is deducted from the member's accrued, advance, or excess leave balance. The leave is granted within the limits set for these types of leave, and it is only given when the member's presence is required for the emergency situation.

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8.

How many continental US (CONUS) or outside of CONUS (OCONUS) permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?
- 20 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.
- 30 days CONUS/20 days OCONUS.
- 30 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.
- 20 days CONUS/45 days OCONUS.
Correct Answer

A. 20 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.

Explanation

A losing commander may approve 20 days of permissive TDY (Temporary Duty) for eligible members within the continental US (CONUS) and 30 days of permissive TDY outside of CONUS (OCONUS). This means that eligible members can take up to 20 days of leave within the continental US and up to 30 days of leave outside of the continental US.

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9.

Which of the following factors is not considered when a commander decides if a member is entitled to BAS?
- Duty hours.
- Time in grade
- Dining hall capacity.
- Special duty, i.e., honor guard, recruiting, band.
Correct Answer

A. Time in grade

Explanation

When a commander decides if a member is entitled to BAS (Basic Allowance for Subsistence), they consider various factors such as duty hours, dining hall capacity, and special duty assignments. However, time in grade is not considered in this decision-making process. Time in grade refers to the amount of time a member has spent in their current rank, and it is not directly related to their entitlement to BAS.

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10.

How often is a unit required to conduct reviews to verify members entitled to BAS are receiving it?
- Monthly.
- Annualy
- Semiannually.
- As requested by the financial services office.
Correct Answer

A. Annualy

Explanation

The correct answer is "annually." This means that a unit is required to conduct reviews once a year to verify that members entitled to BAS (Basic Allowance for Subsistence) are receiving it. Conducting these reviews annually ensures that the members are receiving the appropriate entitlement and helps to prevent any discrepancies or errors in the distribution of BAS.

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11.

How many copies of the substance-in-kind (SIK) roster is provided monthly to each unit?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Fice
Correct Answer

A. Two

Explanation

Each unit is provided with two copies of the substance-in-kind (SIK) roster monthly.

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12.

Within how many days must a substance-in-kind (SIK) letter on newly assigned personnel be prepared and submitted to food services?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Five
Correct Answer

A. Three

Explanation

A substance-in-kind (SIK) letter is a document that outlines the details of newly assigned personnel who will be handling food services. It is important to prepare and submit this letter within a specific timeframe to ensure that the food services department is aware of any changes in personnel and can take appropriate action. The correct answer is "Three," indicating that the SIK letter must be prepared and submitted within three days of the personnel assignment.

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13.

What is used by commanders to perform various quality force actions?
- Control roster.
- Quality force tools.
- Substance-in-kind (SIK) roster.
- Unfavorable information file (UIF).
Correct Answer

A. Unfavorable information file (UIF).

Explanation

Commanders use the Unfavorable Information File (UIF) to perform various quality force actions. The UIF is a tool that allows commanders to document and track any unfavorable information about an individual, such as disciplinary actions or negative performance reviews. It is used to make informed decisions regarding promotions, assignments, and other personnel actions. The UIF helps commanders maintain a high standard of quality and discipline within their units.

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14.

Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member’s unfavorable information file (UIF)?
- Rater
- Commander
- First sergeant
- Staff judge advocate
Correct Answer

A. Commander

Explanation

The commander determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF). The UIF is a record that contains information about disciplinary actions, adverse administrative actions, and other negative information about a member. The commander is responsible for deciding which documents are relevant and should be included in the file. This decision is based on the severity and impact of the information on the member's career and overall performance.

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15.

Today, the commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, putting a staff sergeant on the control roster. What is the final disposition date?
- Tomorrow.
- Thirty days from today.
- Six months from today.
- Twelve months from today.
Correct Answer

A. Twelve months from today.

Explanation

The commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, which puts a staff sergeant on the control roster. The final disposition date is the date when the staff sergeant will be removed from the control roster. Since the question states that the commander signed the form today, the final disposition date will be twelve months from today. This means that the staff sergeant will remain on the control roster for a year before being removed.

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16.

Which document is an optional item that may be filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)?
- Article 15 punishment.
- Control roster action.
- Record of failure in substance abuse.
- Record of conviction adjudged by court martial.
Correct Answer

A. Article 15 punishment.

Explanation

An Article 15 punishment is a disciplinary action that can be imposed on a service member for minor offenses. It is considered an optional item that may be filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF). UIF is a record that contains adverse information about a service member's conduct or performance. While the other options may also result in negative consequences for the service member, they are not specifically mentioned as optional items for filing in a UIF.

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17.

How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF)?
- 3
- 5
- 10
- 30
Correct Answer

A. 3

Explanation

A member has to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF) within 3 duty days. This means that they must respond or acknowledge the notice within three working days. This is important as it ensures that the member is aware of the intended action and has the opportunity to address any concerns or provide any necessary information before the UIF is established.

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18.

What is marked on the front and the back of an unfavorable information file (UIF) folder?
- The words “Privacy Act of 1974”.
- The words “For Official Use Only”.
- The final and interim disposition dates
- The name of the commander who initiated the UIF.
Correct Answer

A. The words “For Official Use Only”.

Explanation

The correct answer is "The words 'For Official Use Only'." This is because the phrase "For Official Use Only" is typically marked on the front and the back of an unfavorable information file (UIF) folder. This indicates that the contents of the folder are restricted and should only be accessed by authorized personnel for official purposes.

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19.

Who should not be allowed to access an unfavorable information file?
- Social actions personnel.
- Inspection team members.
- The person on whom the file is kept.
- Members of enlisted promotion selection boards.
Correct Answer

A. Members of enlisted promotion selection boards.

Explanation

Members of enlisted promotion selection boards should not be allowed to access an unfavorable information file because it could potentially bias their decision-making process. These boards are responsible for selecting individuals for promotion, and if they have access to negative information about a candidate, it could unfairly influence their decision and hinder the individual's chances of promotion. It is important to ensure a fair and unbiased selection process, which is why members of enlisted promotion selection boards should not have access to unfavorable information files.

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20.

Upon assumption of command, when must a commander review all unit favorable information files (UIF)?
- Within 30 days.
- Within 90 days.
- During the next scheduled annual review.
- During the next scheduled semiannual review.
Correct Answer

A. Within 90 days.

Explanation

Upon assumption of command, a commander must review all unit favorable information files (UIF) within 90 days. This is an important responsibility for a commander to ensure that they are aware of any favorable information or records pertaining to their unit. Reviewing the UIF allows the commander to have a comprehensive understanding of the unit's history, achievements, and any outstanding issues that may need attention. This review should be conducted within the first 90 days of assuming command to ensure that the commander is up to date and well-informed.

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21.

When does the unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor remove documentation pertaining to Article 15 action?
- When the member becomes eligible for retirement.
- When the member becomes selected for an assignment.
- Upon receipt of a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that punishment was set aside.
- Upon notification from the unit commander that the member’s behavior has improved and he or she will be removed from the control roster.
Correct Answer

A. Upon receipt of a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that punishment was set aside.

Explanation

The unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor removes documentation pertaining to Article 15 action when they receive a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that the punishment has been set aside. This means that if the member's punishment is overturned or canceled, the documentation related to the Article 15 action will be removed from the UIF.

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22.

What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an unfavorable information file (UIF) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station after completion of TDY?
- Destroy the package when the member completes the TDY.
- Send the completed package to the member’s unit commander.
- Give the package to the member to hand carry to the unit commander.
- Send the UIF summary and a memorandum explaining the unacceptable conduct.
Correct Answer

A. Send the completed package to the member’s unit commander.

Explanation

When an unfavorable information file (UIF) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station after completion of TDY, the temporary duty (TDY) commander is responsible for sending the completed package to the member's unit commander. This ensures that the unit commander is aware of the unfavorable information and can take appropriate action or make informed decisions regarding the member's future assignments or responsibilities.

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23.

Who can place a member on a control roster?
- First sergeant.
- Unit commander.
- Immediate supervisor.
- Command chief master sergeant.
Correct Answer

A. Unit commander.

Explanation

The unit commander has the authority to place a member on a control roster. This means that they have the power to assign certain restrictions or limitations on the member's activities or privileges. The first sergeant, immediate supervisor, and command chief master sergeant may have some level of influence or input in the decision-making process, but ultimately it is the unit commander who has the final say in placing a member on a control roster.

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24.

What is the maximum time an individual’s name can remain on the control roster?
- 3 months.
- 6 months.
- 1 year.
- 2 years
Correct Answer

A. 6 months.

Explanation

The maximum time an individual's name can remain on the control roster is 6 months. This means that after being placed on the control roster, the individual's name will be removed within 6 months.

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25.

How often is duty status reporting accomplished?
- Daily.
- Monthly.
- Yearly.
- Whenever changes occur.
Correct Answer

A. Whenever changes occur.

Explanation

Duty status reporting is not accomplished on a fixed schedule such as daily, monthly, or yearly. Instead, it is done whenever changes occur in the duty status of an individual. This means that whenever there is a change in the person's duty status, such as starting or ending a shift, taking a break, or any other change, they are required to report it. This ensures that accurate and up-to-date information about the duty status of individuals is maintained.

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26.

Who is responsible for updating, maintaining, and correcting duty status conditions?
- First sergeant.
- Member’s unit.
- Unit leave monitor.
- Military Personnel Flight (MPF).
Correct Answer

A. Member’s unit.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Member's unit." The member's unit is responsible for updating, maintaining, and correcting duty status conditions. This includes keeping track of the member's duty status, such as whether they are on leave, on duty, or on temporary duty. The unit is also responsible for making any necessary corrections or updates to the member's duty status as needed. This ensures that accurate records are maintained and that the member's duty status is properly reflected in the system.

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27.

You change members’ duty status to “absent without leave – AWOL” when they have an unauthorized absence of more than
- 24 hours, but less than 15 days.
- 24 hours, but less than 30 days.
- 48 hours, but less than 15 days.
- 48 hours, but less than 30 days.
Correct Answer

A. 24 hours, but less than 30 days.

Explanation

When a member of a group has an unauthorized absence for more than 24 hours, but less than 30 days, their duty status is changed to "absent without leave - AWOL". This means that they are considered to be absent without proper permission or authorization for a significant period of time.

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28.

What is one of the most important aspect of in-processing?
- Deleting from database.
- Creating a suspense file.
- Inprocessing into database.
- Completing government travel card (GTC) form.
Correct Answer

A. Creating a suspense file.

Explanation

One of the most important aspects of in-processing is creating a suspense file. This file is used to keep track of any outstanding tasks or documents that need to be completed or reviewed. It helps ensure that all necessary paperwork and processes are completed in a timely manner, preventing any delays or issues in the in-processing procedure. By creating a suspense file, the in-processing team can effectively manage and prioritize tasks, ensuring a smooth and efficient transition for the individual or organization being processed.

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29.

What is the result if members do not out-process?
- The out-processing checklist is filed wrong.
- The gaining unit’s database will become unreliable.
- Individual base agencies will be unable to track member.
- Member will be put in the wrong air expeditionary force (AEF).
Correct Answer

A. Individual base agencies will be unable to track member.

Explanation

If members do not out-process, individual base agencies will be unable to track the member. Out-processing is a procedure that allows members to officially leave a base or unit. By not completing this process, the member's information will not be updated in the base agencies' records, making it difficult for them to track the member's whereabouts or provide necessary support and services.

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30.

What is not an action a personnel action changes (PAC) worksheet can communicate to the commander’s support staff (CSS)?
- Permanent change of assignment (PCA).
- Permanent change of station (PCS)-in.
- Change of reporting official (CRO).
- Promotion.
Correct Answer

A. Promotion.

Explanation

A personnel action changes (PAC) worksheet can communicate various changes to the commander's support staff (CSS), such as a permanent change of assignment (PCA), a permanent change of station (PCS)-in, or a change of reporting official (CRO). However, promotion is not something that can be communicated through a PAC worksheet. Promotions typically involve a separate process and documentation, and therefore, it is not considered an action that can be conveyed through a PAC worksheet.

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31.

What is a tool used for notifying units that they have inbound personnel?
- Allocation notice.
- Personnel action change.
- Welcome letter.
- Sponsorship letter.
Correct Answer

A. Allocation notice.

Explanation

An allocation notice is a tool used to notify units that they have inbound personnel. This notice is typically sent to the unit's leadership or administrative staff to inform them of the impending arrival of new personnel. It allows the unit to make necessary preparations and allocate resources accordingly to accommodate the incoming individuals.

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32.

Through what system are allocation notices generated?
- Defense Travel System (DTS).
- Personnel concepts III (PCIII).
- Medical unit readiness training (MURT).
- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
Correct Answer

A. Personnel concepts III (PCIII).

Explanation

The correct answer is Personnel concepts III (PCIII). PCIII is the system through which allocation notices are generated.

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33.

Which of the following service characterizations is not authorized for administrative separation?
- Honorable.
- Dishonorable.
- Under honorable conditions (general).
- Under other than honorable conditions.
Correct Answer

A. Dishonorable.

Explanation

The question is asking which service characterization is not authorized for administrative separation. The options given are Honorable, Dishonorable, Under honorable conditions (general), and Under other than honorable conditions. Out of these options, Dishonorable is not authorized for administrative separation. This is because a Dishonorable discharge is typically reserved for serious offenses such as desertion, espionage, or murder, and is usually the result of a court-martial rather than administrative separation.

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34.

Which of the following is not a reason members may be retained beyond their expiration time of separation (ETS)?
- To complete separation processing
- For medical treatment or evaluation.
- To await disposition by foreign courts.
- For completion of involuntary discharge processing.
Correct Answer

A. For completion of involuntary discharge processing.

Explanation

Members may be retained beyond their expiration time of separation (ETS) for various reasons such as completing separation processing, receiving medical treatment or evaluation, or awaiting disposition by foreign courts. However, they would not be retained for the purpose of completing involuntary discharge processing. This implies that involuntary discharge processing can be completed within the designated time frame, and therefore, it is not a reason for members to be retained beyond their ETS.

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35.

Which of the following is not a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?
- The family is separated.
- Separation will eliminate the conditions.
- The dependency or hardship is not temporary.
- Every reasonable effort has been made to remedy the situation.
Correct Answer

A. The family is separated.

Explanation

The family being separated is not a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation. This suggests that even if the family is separated, it does not qualify as a hardship that would warrant a voluntary separation. The other options mention factors that are typically considered for a hardship voluntary separation, such as eliminating the conditions causing the hardship, the hardship not being temporary, and making reasonable efforts to resolve the situation.

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36.

When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?
- Drug abuse.
- Alcohol abuse.
- Homosexual conduct
- Fraudulent enlistment.
Correct Answer

A. Alcohol abuse.

Explanation

Involuntary discharge is not mandatory in cases of alcohol abuse. This means that individuals who engage in alcohol abuse may not be automatically discharged from their position. However, it is important to note that alcohol abuse can still have consequences and may require intervention or disciplinary measures depending on the severity of the issue.

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37.

Within how many days should personnel be notified of reassignment?
- 14 calendar days.
- 7 calendar days.
- 14 duty days.
- 7 duty days.
Correct Answer

A. 7 calendar days.

Explanation

Personnel should be notified of reassignment within 7 calendar days. This means that the notification should be given within a week from the decision being made. This timeframe allows for a timely and efficient process of reassignment, ensuring that personnel are informed promptly and can make necessary arrangements or preparations for their new assignment.

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38.

Who approves a member’s projected departure date on the assignment notification printout?
- CSS personnel.
- First sergeant.
- Commander.
- Supervisor.
Correct Answer

A. Commander.

Explanation

The commander approves a member's projected departure date on the assignment notification printout. This is because the commander is responsible for overseeing all aspects of the member's assignment, including approving their departure date. The CSS personnel may assist in preparing the assignment notification printout, but the final approval lies with the commander. The first sergeant and supervisor may have their roles in the assignment process, but they do not have the authority to approve the departure date.

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39.

When considering an airman for reenlistment, commanders should consider all of the following except
- Airman’s career goals.
- Enlisted performance report ratings.
- Unfavorable information from any substantiated sources.
- Airman’s willingness to comply with Air Force standards.
Correct Answer

A. Airman’s career goals.

Explanation

When considering an airman for reenlistment, commanders should consider enlisted performance report ratings, unfavorable information from any substantiated sources, and the airman's willingness to comply with Air Force standards. However, the airman's career goals should not be a determining factor in the reenlistment decision. The focus should be on the airman's performance, conduct, and adherence to standards rather than their personal career aspirations.

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40.

MSgt Bryce has over 20 years active service. When will he be considered under the selective reenlistment program (SRP)?
- Never, he is retirement eligible
- Never; he is within 36 months of his high year of tenure (HYT).
- When he is less than 33 months from his high year of tenure (HYT).
- When he is within 13 months of his expiration term of service (ETS).
Correct Answer

A. When he is within 13 months of his expiration term of service (ETS).

Explanation

MSgt Bryce will be considered under the selective reenlistment program (SRP) when he is within 13 months of his expiration term of service (ETS). This means that he will be eligible to reenlist and continue his service in the military if he chooses to do so. The other options provided in the question are incorrect because they either state that he is retirement eligible or within 36 months of his high year of tenure (HYT), which would not make him eligible for the SRP.

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41.

The Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster, part 1, identifies for the commander’s support staff airmen who
- Were previously selected for reenlistment that now have questionable quality indicators.
- Must have SRP consideration due to a projected assignment.
- Were previously identified as ineligible for reenlistment.
- Are due SRP consideration or reconsideration.
Correct Answer

A. Are due SRP consideration or reconsideration.

Explanation

The correct answer is "are due SRP consideration or reconsideration." This is because the SRP roster, part 1, is used to identify airmen who need to be considered or reconsidered for the Selective Reenlistment Program. This could be due to various reasons such as questionable quality indicators or a projected assignment. The roster helps the commander's support staff to keep track of these airmen and take appropriate actions regarding their reenlistment.

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42.

To whom does a career airman with 14 years active service appeal when the unit commander does not select him or her for reenlistment?
- Wing commander.
- Group commander.
- Major command commander.
- Military personnel flight commander.
Correct Answer

A. Wing commander.

Explanation

A career airman with 14 years of active service would appeal to the Wing commander if the unit commander does not select him or her for reenlistment. The Wing commander is the commanding officer of the wing, which is a larger organizational unit within the Air Force. They have the authority to make decisions regarding reenlistment and can review and potentially overturn the unit commander's decision. The Wing commander holds a higher rank and has more influence, making them the appropriate person to appeal to in this situation.

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43.

What part of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster identifies airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation?
- Part I, SRP actions.
- Part II, SRP monitor.
- Part III, Career Job Reservation.
- Part IV, Reenlistment Ineligibility.
Correct Answer

A. Part III, Career Job Reservation.

Explanation

Part III of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster identifies airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation. This means that airmen listed in this part have not expressed their intention to reserve a specific job for their future career. It is important to identify these individuals so that appropriate actions can be taken to ensure they are aware of the opportunity and can make an informed decision regarding their career path.

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44.

First term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a career job reservation (CJR) as early as the first duty day after he or she completes how many months on his or her current enlistment?
- 35.
- 43.
- 59.
- 67.
Correct Answer

A. 59.
45.

Which of the following is not a rank order factor when personnel are given a waiting-list position number?
- Projected Grade.
- Unfavorable information file.
- Last 5 enlisted performance reports.
- Total active federal military service.
Correct Answer

A. Last 5 enlisted performance reports.

Explanation

The last 5 enlisted performance reports are not a rank order factor when personnel are given a waiting-list position number. This means that the performance reports of the personnel in their last five enlisted positions do not play a role in determining their rank on the waiting list. Other factors such as projected grade, unfavorable information file, and total active federal military service may be considered in determining the rank order.

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46.

Who can not be a rater?
- An officer or noncommissioned officer of a US military service.
- An officer or noncommissioned officer of a foreign military service.
- A civilian (GS–05 or higher) serving in a supervisory position that is higher than the rate in the ratee’s rating chain.
- A Senior Airman who has not completed Airman Leadership School.
Correct Answer

A. A Senior Airman who has not completed Airman Leadership School.

Explanation

A Senior Airman who has not completed Airman Leadership School cannot be a rater because it is a requirement for them to complete this school in order to be eligible for a supervisory position.

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47.

When should the commander’s support staff send the rater a computer-generated performance feedback notice?
- 30 days after supervision began.
- 30 days before the performance report is due
- 60 days before the performance report is due
- Anytime within the first 90 days of supervision.
Correct Answer

A. 30 days after supervision began.

Explanation

The commander's support staff should send the rater a computer-generated performance feedback notice 30 days after supervision began. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the rater to observe and assess the performance of the individual being supervised before providing feedback. It also ensures that the feedback notice is given in a timely manner, allowing for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made before the performance report is due.

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48.

What form is used for an enlisted performance report on a SrA?
- AF Form 910.
- AF Form 911.
- AF Form 707A
- AF Form 707B.
Correct Answer

A. AF Form 910.

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 910. This form is used for an enlisted performance report on a SrA.

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49.

Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?
- Air Force Personnel Center or Air Reserve Personnel Center.
- Air Education and Training Command.
- Headquarters US Air Force.
- Member’s major command.
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Personnel Center or Air Reserve Personnel Center.

Explanation

Upon completion of the evaluation, it is forwarded to either the Air Force Personnel Center or the Air Reserve Personnel Center. These centers are responsible for processing and managing personnel evaluations within the Air Force. They review and assess the evaluations to ensure accuracy and compliance with regulations. By forwarding the evaluation to these centers, the appropriate authorities can track and maintain personnel records effectively.

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4a051 Entire Volume 5

Why is it necessary to ensure all personnel are educated and able to use the virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF) tools?

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