4a051 Entire Volume 5

64 Questions | Total Attempts: 30

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4a051 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Why is it necessary to ensure all personnel are educated and able to use the virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF) tools?
    • A. 

      Our force is decreasing

    • B. 

      Personnel can commit more time to work.

    • C. 

      Personnel information should just be viewed by each member

    • D. 

      Routine personnel actions are not important enough for face to face interaction.

  • 2. 
    What is the Air Force’s primary human resource system?
    • A. 

      Personnel concepts III (PCIII).

    • B. 

      Defense Travel System (DTS).

    • C. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

  • 3. 
    What system allows commanders and managers near real-time retrieval capability for alpha rosters and other routine reports?
    • A. 

      Personnel concepts III (PCIII).

    • B. 

      Defense Travel System (DTS).

    • C. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

  • 4. 
    What was designed to make official travel management easy and efficient for Defense Department personnel and save taxpayer money?
    • A. 

      Computer access system.

    • B. 

      Defense Travel System (DTS).

    • C. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) accounting system.

  • 5. 
    Air Force members cannot carry leave in excess of how many days into the next fiscal year if they are not eligible for special leave accrual?
    • A. 

      30 days.

    • B. 

      45 days

    • C. 

      60 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 6. 
    What is the maximum number of unused leave days the Air Force can pay members for?
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      45 days

    • C. 

      60 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 7. 
    What is emergency leave?
    • A. 

      Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member’s presence.

    • B. 

      Nonchargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member’s presence.

    • C. 

      Chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.

    • D. 

      Nonchargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.

  • 8. 
    How many continental US (CONUS) or outside of CONUS (OCONUS) permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?
    • A. 

      20 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.

    • B. 

      30 days CONUS/20 days OCONUS.

    • C. 

      30 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.

    • D. 

      20 days CONUS/45 days OCONUS.

  • 9. 
    Which of the following factors is not considered when a commander decides if a member is entitled to BAS?
    • A. 

      Duty hours.

    • B. 

      Time in grade

    • C. 

      Dining hall capacity.

    • D. 

      Special duty, i.e., honor guard, recruiting, band.

  • 10. 
    How often is a unit required to conduct reviews to verify members entitled to BAS are receiving it?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Annualy

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      As requested by the financial services office.

  • 11. 
    How many copies of the substance-in-kind (SIK) roster is provided monthly to each unit?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Fice

  • 12. 
    Within how many days must a substance-in-kind (SIK) letter on newly assigned personnel be prepared and submitted to food services?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Five

  • 13. 
    What is used by commanders to perform various quality force actions?
    • A. 

      Control roster.

    • B. 

      Quality force tools.

    • C. 

      Substance-in-kind (SIK) roster.

    • D. 

      Unfavorable information file (UIF).

  • 14. 
    Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member’s unfavorable information file (UIF)?
    • A. 

      Rater

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      First sergeant

    • D. 

      Staff judge advocate

  • 15. 
    Today, the commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, putting a staff sergeant on the control roster. What is the final disposition date?
    • A. 

      Tomorrow.

    • B. 

      Thirty days from today.

    • C. 

      Six months from today.

    • D. 

      Twelve months from today.

  • 16. 
    Which document is an optional item that may be filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)?
    • A. 

      Article 15 punishment.

    • B. 

      Control roster action.

    • C. 

      Record of failure in substance abuse.

    • D. 

      Record of conviction adjudged by court martial.

  • 17. 
    How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF)?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      30

  • 18. 
    What is marked on the front and the back of an unfavorable information file (UIF) folder?
    • A. 

      The words “Privacy Act of 1974”.

    • B. 

      The words “For Official Use Only”.

    • C. 

      The final and interim disposition dates

    • D. 

      The name of the commander who initiated the UIF.

  • 19. 
    Who should not be allowed to access an unfavorable information file?
    • A. 

      Social actions personnel.

    • B. 

      Inspection team members.

    • C. 

      The person on whom the file is kept.

    • D. 

      Members of enlisted promotion selection boards.

  • 20. 
    Upon assumption of command, when must a commander review all unit favorable information files (UIF)?
    • A. 

      Within 30 days.

    • B. 

      Within 90 days.

    • C. 

      During the next scheduled annual review.

    • D. 

      During the next scheduled semiannual review.

  • 21. 
    When does the unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor remove documentation pertaining to Article 15 action?
    • A. 

      When the member becomes eligible for retirement.

    • B. 

      When the member becomes selected for an assignment.

    • C. 

      Upon receipt of a record of action from the staff judge advocate showing that punishment was set aside.

    • D. 

      Upon notification from the unit commander that the member’s behavior has improved and he or she will be removed from the control roster.

  • 22. 
    What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an unfavorable information file (UIF) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station after completion of TDY?
    • A. 

      Destroy the package when the member completes the TDY.

    • B. 

      Send the completed package to the member’s unit commander.

    • C. 

      Give the package to the member to hand carry to the unit commander.

    • D. 

      Send the UIF summary and a memorandum explaining the unacceptable conduct.

  • 23. 
    Who can place a member on a control roster?
    • A. 

      First sergeant.

    • B. 

      Unit commander.

    • C. 

      Immediate supervisor.

    • D. 

      Command chief master sergeant.

  • 24. 
    What is the maximum time an individual’s name can remain on the control roster?
    • A. 

      3 months.

    • B. 

      6 months.

    • C. 

      1 year.

    • D. 

      2 years

  • 25. 
    How often is duty status reporting accomplished?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Yearly.

    • D. 

      Whenever changes occur.

  • 26. 
    Who is responsible for updating, maintaining, and correcting duty status conditions?
    • A. 

      First sergeant.

    • B. 

      Member’s unit.

    • C. 

      Unit leave monitor.

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Flight (MPF).

  • 27. 
    You change members’ duty status to “absent without leave – AWOL” when they have an unauthorized absence of more than
    • A. 

      24 hours, but less than 15 days.

    • B. 

      24 hours, but less than 30 days.

    • C. 

      48 hours, but less than 15 days.

    • D. 

      48 hours, but less than 30 days.

  • 28. 
    What is one of the most important aspect of in-processing?
    • A. 

      Deleting from database.

    • B. 

      Creating a suspense file.

    • C. 

      Inprocessing into database.

    • D. 

      Completing government travel card (GTC) form.

  • 29. 
    What is the result if members do not out-process?
    • A. 

      The out-processing checklist is filed wrong.

    • B. 

      The gaining unit’s database will become unreliable.

    • C. 

      Individual base agencies will be unable to track member.

    • D. 

      Member will be put in the wrong air expeditionary force (AEF).

  • 30. 
    What is not an action a personnel action changes (PAC) worksheet can communicate to the commander’s support staff (CSS)?
    • A. 

      Permanent change of assignment (PCA).

    • B. 

      Permanent change of station (PCS)-in.

    • C. 

      Change of reporting official (CRO).

    • D. 

      Promotion.

  • 31. 
    What is a tool used for notifying units that they have inbound personnel?
    • A. 

      Allocation notice.

    • B. 

      Personnel action change.

    • C. 

      Welcome letter.

    • D. 

      Sponsorship letter.

  • 32. 
    Through what system are allocation notices generated?
    • A. 

      Defense Travel System (DTS).

    • B. 

      Personnel concepts III (PCIII).

    • C. 

      Medical unit readiness training (MURT).

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

  • 33. 
    Which of the following service characterizations is not authorized for administrative separation?
    • A. 

      Honorable.

    • B. 

      Dishonorable.

    • C. 

      Under honorable conditions (general).

    • D. 

      Under other than honorable conditions.

  • 34. 
    Which of the following is not a reason members may be retained beyond their expiration time of separation (ETS)?
    • A. 

      To complete separation processing

    • B. 

      For medical treatment or evaluation.

    • C. 

      To await disposition by foreign courts.

    • D. 

      For completion of involuntary discharge processing.

  • 35. 
    Which of the following is not a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?
    • A. 

      The family is separated.

    • B. 

      Separation will eliminate the conditions.

    • C. 

      The dependency or hardship is not temporary.

    • D. 

      Every reasonable effort has been made to remedy the situation.

  • 36. 
    When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?
    • A. 

      Drug abuse.

    • B. 

      Alcohol abuse.

    • C. 

      Homosexual conduct

    • D. 

      Fraudulent enlistment.

  • 37. 
    Within how many days should personnel be notified of reassignment?
    • A. 

      14 calendar days.

    • B. 

      7 calendar days.

    • C. 

      14 duty days.

    • D. 

      7 duty days.

  • 38. 
    Who approves a member’s projected departure date on the assignment notification printout?
    • A. 

      CSS personnel.

    • B. 

      First sergeant.

    • C. 

      Commander.

    • D. 

      Supervisor.

  • 39. 
    When considering an airman for reenlistment, commanders should consider all of the following except
    • A. 

      Airman’s career goals.

    • B. 

      Enlisted performance report ratings.

    • C. 

      Unfavorable information from any substantiated sources.

    • D. 

      Airman’s willingness to comply with Air Force standards.

  • 40. 
    MSgt Bryce has over 20 years active service. When will he be considered under the selective reenlistment program (SRP)?
    • A. 

      Never, he is retirement eligible

    • B. 

      Never; he is within 36 months of his high year of tenure (HYT).

    • C. 

      When he is less than 33 months from his high year of tenure (HYT).

    • D. 

      When he is within 13 months of his expiration term of service (ETS).

  • 41. 
    The Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster, part 1, identifies for the commander’s support staff airmen who
    • A. 

      Were previously selected for reenlistment that now have questionable quality indicators.

    • B. 

      Must have SRP consideration due to a projected assignment.

    • C. 

      Were previously identified as ineligible for reenlistment.

    • D. 

      Are due SRP consideration or reconsideration.

  • 42. 
    To whom does a career airman with 14 years active service appeal when the unit commander does not select him or her for reenlistment?
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Major command commander.

    • D. 

      Military personnel flight commander.

  • 43. 
    What part of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster identifies airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation?
    • A. 

      Part I, SRP actions.

    • B. 

      Part II, SRP monitor.

    • C. 

      Part III, Career Job Reservation.

    • D. 

      Part IV, Reenlistment Ineligibility.

  • 44. 
    First term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a career job reservation (CJR) as early as the first duty day after he or she completes how many months on his or her current enlistment?
    • A. 

      35.

    • B. 

      43.

    • C. 

      59.

    • D. 

      67.

  • 45. 
    Which of the following is not a rank order factor when personnel are given a waiting-list position number?
    • A. 

      Projected Grade.

    • B. 

      Unfavorable information file.

    • C. 

      Last 5 enlisted performance reports.

    • D. 

      Total active federal military service.

  • 46. 
    Who can not be a rater?
    • A. 

      An officer or noncommissioned officer of a US military service.

    • B. 

      An officer or noncommissioned officer of a foreign military service.

    • C. 

      A civilian (GS–05 or higher) serving in a supervisory position that is higher than the rate in the ratee’s rating chain.

    • D. 

      A Senior Airman who has not completed Airman Leadership School.

  • 47. 
    When should the commander’s support staff send the rater a computer-generated performance feedback notice?
    • A. 

      30 days after supervision began.

    • B. 

      30 days before the performance report is due

    • C. 

      60 days before the performance report is due

    • D. 

      Anytime within the first 90 days of supervision.

  • 48. 
    What form is used for an enlisted performance report on a SrA?
    • A. 

      AF Form 910.

    • B. 

      AF Form 911.

    • C. 

      AF Form 707A

    • D. 

      AF Form 707B.

  • 49. 
    Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?
    • A. 

      Air Force Personnel Center or Air Reserve Personnel Center.

    • B. 

      Air Education and Training Command.

    • C. 

      Headquarters US Air Force.

    • D. 

      Member’s major command.

  • 50. 
    In which situation would an LOE not be mandatory?
    • A. 

      Officers when required by AFI 36–3208.

    • B. 

      A1C with 5 months total active military service.

    • C. 

      Enlisted members participating in the World Class Athlete Program.

    • D. 

      Active duty A1Cs and below with less than 20 months’ TAFMS when a CRO occurs

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is awarded only to an organization that performed meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units?
    • A. 

      Air Force Outstanding Unit Award (AFOUA).

    • B. 

      Air Force Organizational Excellence Award (AFOEA).

    • C. 

      Joint Meritorious Unit Award (JMUA).

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) Award

  • 52. 
    Who is responsible for monitoring all decoration program requirements?
    • A. 

      Commander’s support staff.

    • B. 

      Military personnel flight

    • C. 

      First Sergeant.

    • D. 

      Commander.

  • 53. 
    Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
    • A. 

      Only individuals within the nominees’ chain of command.

    • B. 

      Typically, it’s the commander who initiates a recommendation

    • C. 

      The nominees may initiate the recommendations for themselves.

    • D. 

      Any other person having first hand knowledge of the achievement.

  • 54. 
    When are individuals considered for below-the-zone (BTZ) promotion to Senior Airman (SrA)?
    • A. 

      Three months prior to the Airman’s fully qualified 5-skill level date.

    • B. 

      Whenever they reach 20 months time-in-grade and 36 months time-in-service.

    • C. 

      The month prior to the month in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion.

    • D. 

      The month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion.

  • 55. 
    What is the promotion eligibility status (PES) code for Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the military personnel data system (MilPDS)?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 56. 
    In the weighted airman promotion system, what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?
    • A. 

      Promotional fitness examination and enlisted performance reports.

    • B. 

      Specialty knowledge test and promotional fitness examination.

    • C. 

      Promotional fitness examination and time in grade.

    • D. 

      Specialty knowledge test and decorations.

  • 57. 
    In the weighted airman promotion system, time-in-grade is computed at the rate of
    • A. 

      One-fourth point per month in grade up to 10 years.

    • B. 

      One-fourth point per month in grade up to 20 years.

    • C. 

      One-half point per month in grade up to 10 years.

    • D. 

      One-half point per month in grade up to 20 years.

  • 58. 
    What is the enlisted performance report conversion factor?
    • A. 

      27

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      9

  • 59. 
    How many months time-in-grade (TIG) and years total active federal military service (TAFMS) does a 7-level technical sergeant require to be promoted to master sergeant?
    • A. 

      23 months TIG and 7 years TAFMS.

    • B. 

      23 months TIG and 8 years TAFMS.

    • C. 

      24 months TIG and 7 years TAFMS.

    • D. 

      24 months TIG and 8 years TAFMS.

  • 60. 
    Under the stripes for exceptional performers program, no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except
    • A. 

      Senior Airmen.

    • B. 

      Staff Sergeants.

    • C. 

      Technical Sergeants.

    • D. 

      Master Sergeants.

  • 61. 
    In which situation does a member remain eligible for promotion consideration and selection but, if selected, is prevented from assuming the higher grade?
    • A. 

      Receives a letter of reprimand.

    • B. 

      Possesses an unfavorable information file.

    • C. 

      Awaiting a decision on an application as a conscientious objector.

    • D. 

      Is in Phase II of the Weight and Body Fat Management Program.

  • 62. 
    When career enhancements or the commander’s support staff schedules personnel for weighted airmen promotion system (WAPS) testing, they do so by annotating the
    • A. 

      Virtual military personnel flight (vMPF) promotion testing roster.

    • B. 

      Airman promotion data verification record (DVR).

    • C. 

      Unit eligible for promotion testing roster.

    • D. 

      MPF selectee data verification list.

  • 63. 
    Which phase of promotion process begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)?
    • A. 

      Initial.

    • B. 

      Preselect.

    • C. 

      Postselect.

    • D. 

      File build.

  • 64. 
    Which brief is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) military personnel flight (MPF) that is used by all officer selection boards?
    • A. 

      Officer initial selection brief (ISB).

    • B. 

      Officer preselection brief (OPB).

    • C. 

      Officer preselection brief (PSB).

    • D. 

      Officer selection brief (OSB).