Usaf CDC Quiz 2F071 Volume 3

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Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 730

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1/70 Questions

What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?
- Transferring large quantities of fuel
- Blending multiple fuel additives at different ratios
- Servicing aircraft where permanent systems are not available
- Servicing small aircraft and transferring small quantities of fuel

About This Quiz

For USAF POL to help in preparation for EOC and SKT testing.

Quiz Preview

2.

On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?
- Jet fuel and gasoline
- Diesel fuel and jet fuel
- Diesel fuel and gasoline
- Diesel fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline
Correct Answer

A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel

Explanation

The engine on the R-14 ATHRS can operate on diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is capable of running on both types of fuel, allowing for flexibility in its usage. Diesel fuel and jet fuel are commonly used in different types of engines, so having the ability to run on both fuels expands the range of applications for the R-14 ATHRS engine.

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3.

At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one 2-inch hose?
- 100 gpm
- 200 gpm
- 300 gpm
- 600 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 100 gpm

Explanation

The R-14 is capable of servicing a flow rate of 100 gpm through one 2-inch hose.

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4.

At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit high flow?
- 300 gpm
- 350 gpm
- 600 gpm
- 650 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 600 gpm

Explanation

The adjustable pilot valve on the R-14 limits high flow at a rate of 600 gpm. This means that when the flow rate exceeds 600 gpm, the pilot valve will take action to restrict or control the flow to prevent it from going any higher.

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5.

Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?
- 10 ft
- 20 ft
- 50 ft
- 100 ft
Correct Answer

A. 50 ft

Explanation

Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This means that anyone within a 50-foot radius of the operation should wear hearing protection to prevent damage to their ears. The R-14 operation likely involves loud noises or machinery that can be harmful to one's hearing if proper precautions are not taken. Therefore, it is necessary to wear hearing protection within this specified distance to ensure safety.

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6.

What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R–14 prior to air shipment?
- JP–4
- JP–5
- JP–8
- JPTS
Correct Answer

A. JP–5

Explanation

JP-5 should be used to flush the R-14 prior to air shipment. This is because JP-5 is a type of jet fuel that is commonly used in military aircraft. It has a lower flash point and is less volatile compared to other jet fuels such as JP-4 and JP-8. Flushing the R-14 with JP-5 ensures that any residue or contaminants are removed effectively, preparing it for safe air shipment. JPTS is not a recognized grade of fuel and therefore not a suitable option for flushing the R-14.

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7.

What maximum ramp angle can the R–14 negotiate in the high mobility position?
- 5°
- 10°
- 15°
- 20°
Correct Answer

A. 20°

Explanation

The R-14 can negotiate a maximum ramp angle of 20° in the high mobility position. This means that the vehicle is able to climb a slope with a steepness of up to 20° without losing stability or control. A higher ramp angle would likely exceed the capabilities of the vehicle and could result in it tipping over or becoming stuck. Therefore, 20° is the maximum angle that the R-14 can safely navigate in this position.

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8.

On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .
- MOGAS
- MOGAS and jet fuel
- Diesel fuel
- Diesel fuel and jet fuel
Correct Answer

A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel

Explanation

The R-22 can be designed to operate on both diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it has the capability to run on either of these grades of fuel, giving it flexibility in terms of fuel options.

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9.

When setting up the R–22, prime the centrifugal pump with approximately how many gallons of fuel?
- 5
- 10
- 15
- 20
Correct Answer

A. 10

Explanation

When setting up the R-22, it is necessary to prime the centrifugal pump with approximately 10 gallons of fuel.

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10.

All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except
- Thoroughly clean the unit
- Drain all fuel from the piping
- Disconnect and drain all hose assemblies
- Place the unit in the low mobility position
Correct Answer

A. Place the unit in the low mobility position

Explanation

Prior to shipping the R-22, it is important to thoroughly clean the unit, drain all fuel from the piping, and disconnect and drain all hose assemblies. However, placing the unit in the low mobility position is not necessary before shipping. This suggests that the unit does not need to be prepared for easy movement or transportation, as it will not be moved or transported in the low mobility position.

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11.

At what maximum flow rate can the FFU–15E filter separator filter gasoline?
- 450 gpm
- 600 gpm
- 750 gpm
- 900 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 750 gpm

Explanation

The FFU-15E filter separator can filter gasoline at a maximum flow rate of 750 gpm.

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12.

The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter elements?
- 6
- 12
- 18
- 24
Correct Answer

A. 6

Explanation

The FFU-15E filter separator is equipped with 6 filter elements.

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13.

What maximum number of additives can the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector simultaneously inject?
- Two
- Three
- Four
- Five
Correct Answer

A. Three

Explanation

The TPI-4T-4A portable additive injector can simultaneously inject a maximum of three additives.

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14.

What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector?
- None
- Flow control
- Bi-directional
- Positive displacement
Correct Answer

A. None

Explanation

The correct answer is "None". This means that there is no type of meter installed on the TPI-4T-4A portable additive injector. This suggests that the injector does not have a built-in mechanism for measuring or controlling the flow of additives.

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15.

The centrifugal, self priming pump on the PMU–27M can deliver fuel at what flow rate?
- 50 gpm
- 100 gpm
- 150 gpm
- 300 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 50 gpm

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 gpm. This means that the centrifugal, self-priming pump on the PMU-27M can deliver fuel at a flow rate of 50 gallons per minute.

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16.

How many filter elements does the PMU–27M filter separator contain?
- 3
- 6
- 15
- 30
Correct Answer

A. 3

Explanation

The PMU-27M filter separator contains three filter elements.

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17.

When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?
- Never
- After initial start up
- Prior to air shipment
- Any time the system has been purged of fuel
Correct Answer

A. Any time the system has been purged of fuel

Explanation

Priming the PMU-27M is necessary any time the system has been purged of fuel. When the system is purged of fuel, it means that there is no fuel in the system, which can result in air pockets. Priming the PMU-27M ensures that there are no air pockets in the fuel system, which can cause issues with fuel flow and engine performance. Therefore, it is necessary to prime the PMU-27M after the system has been purged of fuel to ensure proper functioning.

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18.

The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal. sealed drums?
- Two
- Three
- Four
- Six
Correct Answer

A. Four

Explanation

The PMU-27M may be connected to a maximum of four 500-gal. sealed drums.

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19.

When starting the PMU–27M, the throttle should be placed at
- Idle
- Half speed
- Two-thirds speed
- Full speed
Correct Answer

A. Half speed

Explanation

When starting the PMU-27M, the throttle should be placed at half speed. This is because starting the engine at full speed can cause excessive wear and tear on the engine components. Starting at idle may not provide enough power to start the engine smoothly. Starting at two-thirds speed may be too high and may cause the engine to start abruptly. Therefore, half speed is the optimal choice for starting the PMU-27M.

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20.

To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming
- Stem
- Hose
- Valve
- Coupler
Correct Answer

A. Valve

Explanation

The PMU-27M is equipped with a priming valve to aid in priming. This valve allows for the controlled release of fluid or air to fill the system and remove any air pockets or blockages. By using the valve, the priming process becomes more efficient and ensures that the system is properly primed before operation. The valve also allows for easy maintenance and troubleshooting, as it can be closed to isolate the system if needed.

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21.

Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?
- Disconnect all hose assemblies
- Drain all the fuel from the piping
- Remove the filter separator elements
- Install dust plugs and caps on all fittings and hoses
Correct Answer

A. Remove the filter separator elements

Explanation

When preparing the PMU-27M for air shipment, all the steps mentioned are accomplished except for removing the filter separator elements.

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22.

What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?
- 300 gpm
- 350 gpm
- 450 gpm
- 600 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 600 gpm

Explanation

The total flow rate of the ABFDS is 600 gpm. This means that 600 gallons of fluid pass through the ABFDS per minute.

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23.

How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?
- 162 ft
- 173 ft
- 186 ft
- 190 ft
Correct Answer

A. 186 ft

Explanation

The ABFDS contains 186 feet of connecting hose.

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24.

How many filter elements does the ABFDS ACE contain?
- Two
- Three
- Four
- Six
Correct Answer

A. Three

Explanation

The ABFDS ACE contains three filter elements.

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25.

What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?
- Epoxy coated
- Single ply nylon
- Double ply kevlar
- Rubber impregnated
Correct Answer

A. Single ply nylon

Explanation

Fuel bladders are made of single ply nylon fabric because it is a lightweight and durable material that is resistant to fuel and other chemicals. Nylon is also flexible, allowing the fuel bladder to be easily folded and stored when not in use. Additionally, the single ply construction ensures that the bladder is strong and leak-proof, providing a reliable containment system for fuel.

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26.

Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from
- -15° F to 135° F
- -25° F to 145° F
- -40° F to 160° F
- -50° F to 170° F
Correct Answer

A. -40° F to 160° F

Explanation

Fuel bladders are designed to hold and transport fuel safely. The given answer states that fuel bladders can withstand temperatures ranging from -40° F to 160° F. This means that the bladders are able to function and maintain their structural integrity within this temperature range. Temperatures below -40° F or above 160° F may cause damage to the bladders, potentially leading to leaks or other safety hazards. Therefore, it is important to operate fuel bladders within the specified temperature range to ensure their proper functioning and prevent any accidents or fuel loss.

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27.

What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder?
- 3 in
- 5 in
- 6 ½ in
- 7 ½ in
Correct Answer

A. 7 ½ in

Explanation

The correct answer is 7 ½ in. A 7 ½ in sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder. The sealing clamp needs to be larger than the hole to ensure a secure and effective repair.

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28.

What maximum number of receiver aircraft can a FAM cart service simultaneously?
- Two
- Three
- Five
- Six
Correct Answer

A. Three

Explanation

A FAM cart is a specialized vehicle used for servicing aircraft. The question is asking how many receiver aircraft can be serviced simultaneously by a FAM cart. The correct answer is three, which means that the FAM cart is capable of servicing three aircraft at the same time. This suggests that the FAM cart has the capacity and resources to handle the servicing needs of multiple aircraft simultaneously, making it an efficient and time-saving tool for aircraft maintenance operations.

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29.

At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?
- 175 gpm
- 300 gpm
- 365 gpm
- 600 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 365 gpm

Explanation

The FAM cart pump can deliver fuel at a maximum flow rate of 365 gpm. This means that it is capable of pumping fuel at a rate of 365 gallons per minute.

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30.

The FAM cart is equipped with all of the following nozzles except
- Overwing nozzle
- D–1 single point nozzle
- D–2 single point nozzle
- Closed circuit refueling nozzle
Correct Answer

A. D–2 single point nozzle

Explanation

The FAM cart is equipped with all of the listed nozzles except for the D-2 single point nozzle.

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31.

For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of
- 10 to 15 psig
- 15 to 25 psig
- 25 to 30 psig
- 30 to 40 psig
Correct Answer

A. 15 to 25 psig

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 to 25 psig. When shipping cryotainers by air, the inner tanks are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas to maintain a positive pressure. This is necessary to prevent the collapse of the tanks due to the low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes during air travel. A pressure range of 15 to 25 psig ensures that the tanks remain sufficiently pressurized throughout the journey, providing the necessary stability and safety for the transportation of cryogenic materials.

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32.

Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured
- Bronze disc
- Adhesive label
- Wooden placard
- Round aluminum disc
Correct Answer

A. Round aluminum disc

Explanation

The round aluminum disc is used to identify the tank vent valve. This suggests that the disc is specifically designed for this purpose and is likely to be durable and resistant to the conditions present in a fuel tank environment. The use of aluminum also indicates that it is lightweight and corrosion-resistant, making it a suitable material for this application.

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33.

During air shipment, the cryotainer inner tank pressure should not exceed what maximum psi reading?
- 35 psi
- 40 psi
- 50 psi
- 55 psi
Correct Answer

A. 40 psi

Explanation

During air shipment, it is important to ensure that the cryotainer inner tank pressure does not exceed a certain maximum psi reading. In this case, the correct answer is 40 psi. This means that the pressure inside the cryotainer should not go beyond 40 psi during air shipment. Exceeding this pressure limit could potentially lead to safety hazards or damage to the cryotainer or its contents.

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34.

How many R–18 pumping units are included in a fuels operational readiness capability equipment module?
- 1
- 3
- 4
- 5
Correct Answer

A. 5

Explanation

The question is asking for the number of R-18 pumping units included in a fuels operational readiness capability equipment module. The correct answer is 5, indicating that there are 5 R-18 pumping units included in the module.

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35.

The R–18 pumping unit is capable of pumping at what maximum gpm?
- 450 gpm
- 600 gpm
- 900 gpm
- 1250 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 900 gpm

Explanation

The R-18 pumping unit has a maximum pumping capacity of 900 gpm. This means that it can pump a maximum of 900 gallons of fluid per minute.

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36.

The R–19 filter separator unit can filter fuel at what maximum gpm rate?
- 450 gpm
- 600 gpm
- 750 gpm
- 1200 gpm
Correct Answer

A. 1200 gpm

Explanation

The R-19 filter separator unit is capable of filtering fuel at a maximum rate of 1200 gpm. This means that it can effectively remove impurities and contaminants from fuel at a flow rate of up to 1200 gallons per minute. It is important to have a high maximum gpm rate in order to ensure efficient and effective filtration of fuel in industrial or commercial settings where large volumes of fuel are being processed.

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37.

What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine?
- Stop light
- Beacon light
- Warning light
- Emergency stop activated indicator
Correct Answer

A. Stop light

Explanation

The stop light on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine. This light serves as a warning sign that there is a significant issue that needs immediate attention. It alerts the operator to stop the unit and take necessary actions to resolve the problem before any further damage occurs.

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38.

What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit’s handheld remote?
- ON and OFF
- ON and IDLE
- OFF and RUN
- RUN and IDLE
Correct Answer

A. RUN and IDLE

Explanation

The correct answer is RUN and IDLE. These are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R-18 pumping unit's handheld remote. The throttle switch allows the operator to control the speed of the pumping unit. The RUN position is used when the unit needs to operate at full speed, while the IDLE position is used when the unit needs to operate at a lower speed or when it is not actively pumping.

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39.

The system shutdown indicator on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform will illuminate when the level in the sump tank reaches what capacity?
- 70 percent
- 75 percent
- 90 percent
- 95 percent
Correct Answer

A. 95 percent

Explanation

The system shutdown indicator on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform will illuminate when the level in the sump tank reaches 95 percent capacity. This indicates that the tank is almost full and may require immediate attention or maintenance to prevent overflow or damage to the system.

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40.

The control valves will close if there is a communication loss between the R–20 multiaircraft servicing unit and the lead pumping unit exceeding how many minutes?
- 2 minutes
- 3 minutes
- 4 minutes
- 5 minutes
Correct Answer

A. 5 minutes

Explanation

If there is a communication loss between the R-20 multiaircraft servicing unit and the lead pumping unit for more than 5 minutes, the control valves will close. This suggests that the control valves have a safety mechanism in place to automatically shut off if there is a prolonged loss of communication between the two units.

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41.

What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?
- Battery charging
- Battery charge low
- Battery disconnected
- Battery at middle capacity
Correct Answer

A. Battery disconnected

Explanation

A steady red light on the battery status LED of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicates that the battery is disconnected. This means that the battery is not properly connected to the platform and is not providing power.

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42.

The FORCE system allows what maximum number of R–20s to be used within the same system for fuel servicing?
- 3
- 5
- 6
- 10
Correct Answer

A. 10

Explanation

The FORCE system allows a maximum of 10 R-20s to be used within the same system for fuel servicing.

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43.

Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?
- 1,000 feet
- 1,500 feet
- 3,000 feet
- 4,500 feet
Correct Answer

A. 1,500 feet

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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44.

How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct Answer

A. 2

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because the question asks for the number of fillstand assemblies included in the FORCE system. Since the answer options range from 1 to 4, we can determine that there are only 2 fillstand assemblies in the system.

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45.

When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?
- ON
- OFF
- OFFLOAD
- NO DEADMAN
Correct Answer

A. NO DEADMAN

Explanation

The correct answer is "NO DEADMAN" because when performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the R-18 pumping unit should not be engaged. The deadman switch is typically used as a safety feature to shut off the system in case of an emergency or if the operator becomes incapacitated. However, during offload operations, the deadman switch is not necessary as the system is not actively being used.

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46.

When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what rpm setting?
- 1,550 rpm
- 1,850 rpm
- 1,950 rpm
- 2,250 rpm
Correct Answer

A. 2,250 rpm

Explanation

The correct answer is 2,250 rpm. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to 2,250 rpm. This specific rpm setting is likely recommended for optimal fuel efficiency and performance during fuel servicing operations.

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47.

When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than how many minutes?
- 1 minute
- 2 minutes
- 4 minutes
- 5 minutes
Correct Answer

A. 2 minutes

Explanation

When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, it is recommended to press and release the deadman switch on the hand-held remote at intervals no greater than 2 minutes. This is important to ensure the safety of the operation and to minimize any potential risks or accidents that may occur during the fuel servicing process. By regularly pressing and releasing the deadman switch, it helps to maintain control and monitoring of the fueling operation, allowing for prompt action if any issues arise.

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48.

When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the
- Sump tank
- Control valves
- Micronic filter
- Surge suppressors
Correct Answer

A. Surge suppressors

Explanation

When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, it is necessary to drain all components except for the surge suppressors. This is because surge suppressors are designed to protect electrical equipment from voltage spikes and surges, and they do not contain any liquids or gases that need to be drained. Therefore, it is not necessary to drain the surge suppressors before shipping the unit.

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49.

What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
- ABFDS
- Ocean tanker
- Aircraft systems
- The same source of supply used by the host airfield
Correct Answer

A. The same source of supply used by the host airfield

Explanation

The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply is using the same source of supply as the host airfield. This means that the aircraft can refuel directly from the fuel source that is already available at the airfield, without the need for additional transportation or logistics. This method is efficient and convenient, as it eliminates the need for extra steps or processes in the fuel resupply chain.

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Current Version
Oct 12, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Dec 03, 2012

Quiz Created by
Brandon_tate_198

Usaf CDC Quiz 2F071 Volume 3

What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?

Quiz Preview

On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?

At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one 2-inch hose?

At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit high flow?

Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?

What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R–14 prior to air shipment?

What maximum ramp angle can the R–14 negotiate in the high mobility position?

On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .

When setting up the R–22, prime the centrifugal pump with approximately how many gallons of fuel?

All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except

At what maximum flow rate can the FFU–15E filter separator filter gasoline?

The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter elements?

What maximum number of additives can the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector simultaneously inject?

What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector?

The centrifugal, self priming pump on the PMU–27M can deliver fuel at what flow rate?

How many filter elements does the PMU–27M filter separator contain?

When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?

The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal. sealed drums?

When starting the PMU–27M, the throttle should be placed at

To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming

Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?

What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?

How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?

How many filter elements does the ABFDS ACE contain?

What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?

Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from

What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder?

What maximum number of receiver aircraft can a FAM cart service simultaneously?

At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?

The FAM cart is equipped with all of the following nozzles except

For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of

Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

During air shipment, the cryotainer inner tank pressure should not exceed what maximum psi reading?

How many R–18 pumping units are included in a fuels operational readiness capability equipment module?

The R–18 pumping unit is capable of pumping at what maximum gpm?

The R–19 filter separator unit can filter fuel at what maximum gpm rate?

What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine?

What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit’s handheld remote?

The system shutdown indicator on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform will illuminate when the level in the sump tank reaches what capacity?

The control valves will close if there is a communication loss between the R–20 multiaircraft servicing unit and the lead pumping unit exceeding how many minutes?

What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?

The FORCE system allows what maximum number of R–20s to be used within the same system for fuel servicing?

Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?

When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what rpm setting?

When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than how many minutes?

When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the

What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?