Did You Read Urinalysis And Body Fluids?

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  • 1/48 Questions

    A 17-year-old girl decided to go on a starvation diet. After 1 week of starving herself, what substance would most likely be found in her urine?

    • Protein
    • Ketones
    • Glucose
    • Blood
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About This Quiz

Let’s see if you’ve been doing your reading up on the bodily fluids and the process of urinalysis – where the urine is examined to detect medical disorders in a patient. Think you know your stuff? Prove yourself right!

Did You Read Urinalysis And Body Fluids? - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Cessation of urine flow is defined as:

    • Azotemia

    • Dysuria

    • Diuresis

    • Anuria

    Correct Answer
    A. Anuria
    Explanation
    Anuria is the correct answer because it refers to the complete cessation or absence of urine flow. It is a medical condition where the kidneys are unable to produce urine or there is a blockage in the urinary tract preventing the passage of urine. This can be caused by various factors such as kidney damage, urinary tract obstruction, or severe dehydration. Anuria is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention as it can lead to the buildup of toxins in the body.

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  • 3. 

    Antidiretic hormone regulates the reabsorption of:

    • Water

    • Glucose

    • Potassium

    • Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Water
    Explanation
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is responsible for regulating the reabsorption of water in the body. It acts on the kidneys, specifically on the collecting ducts, to increase the permeability of the ducts to water. This allows more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream, reducing the amount of water lost in urine. ADH helps maintain the body's water balance by conserving water when the body is dehydrated and reducing water reabsorption when the body is adequately hydrated. Therefore, the correct answer is water.

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  • 4. 

    Normal urine primarily consist of:

    • Water, protein, and sodium

    • Water, urea, and protein

    • Water, urea, and sodium chloride

    • Water, urea, and bilirubin

    Correct Answer
    A. Water, urea, and sodium chloride
    Explanation
    Normal urine primarily consists of water, urea, and sodium chloride. Water is the main component of urine, making up the majority of its volume. Urea is a waste product produced by the breakdown of proteins in the liver and is eliminated through urine. Sodium chloride, or salt, is also excreted in urine and helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body. Protein and bilirubin are not typically found in normal urine, and their presence may indicate a medical condition.

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  • 5. 

    The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is appoximately:

    • 50mg/dL

    • 100mg/dL

    • 160mg/dL

    • 300mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. 160mg/dL
    Explanation
    The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is approximately 160mg/dL. This means that when blood glucose levels exceed this threshold, the kidneys are unable to reabsorb all of the glucose and it starts to spill into the urine. This is an important mechanism to prevent excessive glucose buildup in the bloodstream.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine?

    • Calcium carbonate

    • Calcium oxalate

    • Calcium phosphate

    • Triple phosphate

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium oxalate
    Explanation
    Calcium oxalate crystals may be found in acidic urine. This is because oxalate is more soluble in acidic urine compared to alkaline urine. When the urine is acidic, it increases the concentration of oxalate ions, which can then combine with calcium ions to form calcium oxalate crystals. These crystals can contribute to the formation of kidney stones and are commonly seen in patients with hyperoxaluria or certain metabolic disorders.

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  • 7. 

    The volume of urine excreted in a 24-hour period by an adult patient was 500 mL. This condition would be termed:

    • Anuria

    • Oliguria

    • Polyuria

    • Dysuria

    Correct Answer
    A. Oliguria
    Explanation
    Oliguria is the correct term to describe the condition of the adult patient excreting 500 mL of urine in a 24-hour period. Oliguria refers to a decreased urine output, typically less than 400 mL per day in adults. This condition can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, kidney disease, urinary tract obstruction, or certain medications.

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  • 8. 

    Upon standing at room temperature a urine pH typically:

    • Decreases

    • Increases

    • Remains the same

    • Changes depending on bacterial concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases
    Explanation
    When urine stands at room temperature, it undergoes a process called ammonium ion formation, where urea is converted to ammonia. This conversion leads to an increase in the pH of urine, making it more alkaline. Therefore, the correct answer is "increases".

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  • 9. 

    What cell is MOST commonly associated with vaginal contamination?

    • White

    • Transitional

    • Squamous

    • Glitter

    Correct Answer
    A. Squamous
    Explanation
    Squamous cells are the most commonly associated with vaginal contamination. This is because squamous cells are the main type of cells found in the lining of the vagina. They are flat and scale-like in shape, and their abundance in the vaginal area makes them more likely to be present in samples collected for testing or examination. Other cell types, such as white blood cells or transitional cells, may also be present but squamous cells are the most prevalent.

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  • 10. 

    After receiving a 24-hour urine sample for quantitative total protein anaylsis, the technician must first:

    • Subculture the urine for bacteria

    • Add the appropriate preservative

    • Screen for albumin using a dipstick

    • Measure the total volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the total volume
    Explanation
    The technician must first measure the total volume of the 24-hour urine sample before performing any other analysis. This is important because it provides an accurate measurement of the amount of urine collected over the specified time period. The total volume is necessary for calculating the concentration of various substances, including total protein, in the urine. By measuring the total volume, the technician can ensure that the subsequent analysis is based on the correct sample size and can accurately interpret the results.

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  • 11. 

    In addition to the sperm count in a fertility study, analysis of seminal fluid should also include:

    • Time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology

    • Motility, morphology, test for alkaline phosphatase

    • Tiem of liquefaction, test for acid phosphatase, qualitative test for hemoglobin

    • Time of liquefaction, qualitative test for hemoglobin and motility

    Correct Answer
    A. Time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology
    Explanation
    The correct answer is time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology. In a fertility study, analyzing seminal fluid is important to assess various factors that can affect fertility. The time of liquefaction is important as it indicates the time taken for the semen to change from a gel-like state to a liquid state, which can affect the ability of sperm to move and fertilize an egg. Estimation of motility refers to assessing the movement of sperm, which is crucial for successful fertilization. Morphology analysis involves evaluating the size, shape, and structure of sperm, as abnormalities can affect fertility. Therefore, all three factors are necessary for a comprehensive analysis of seminal fluid in a fertility study.

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  • 12. 

    Calibration of refractometers is done by measuring the specific gravity of:

    • Distilled water and protein

    • Distilled water and glucose

    • Distilled water and sodium chloride

    • Distilled water and urea

    Correct Answer
    A. Distilled water and sodium chloride
    Explanation
    Refractometers are calibrated by measuring the specific gravity of distilled water and sodium chloride. Specific gravity is a measure of the density of a substance compared to the density of a reference substance, usually water. By measuring the specific gravity of a known solution of distilled water and sodium chloride, the refractometer can be calibrated to accurately measure the concentration of sodium chloride in other solutions. This calibration process ensures that the refractometer provides accurate and reliable measurements of sodium chloride concentration in various samples.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following casts is most indicative of severe renal disease?

    • Hemoglobin

    • Granular

    • Cellular

    • Waxy

    Correct Answer
    A. Waxy
    Explanation
    The presence of waxy casts in urine is most indicative of severe renal disease. Waxy casts are formed when there is a significant impairment in the kidney's ability to filter waste products from the blood. They are often seen in chronic kidney disease and indicate advanced damage to the renal tubules. The presence of waxy casts suggests a poor prognosis and the need for immediate medical intervention to manage the underlying renal disease.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate?

    • Cystine

    • Tyrosine

    • Leucine

    • Cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Cystine
    Explanation
    Cystine is an abnormal crystal that is described as a hexagonal plate. This means that when cystine crystals form, they take on a shape that resembles a hexagon with flat, plate-like surfaces. This is a characteristic feature of cystine crystals and can help in their identification under a microscope.

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  • 15. 

    The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:

    • Hyaluronate

    • Albumin

    • Orosomucoid

    • Pepsin

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyaluronate
    Explanation
    Hyaluronate is the correct answer because it is the principal mucin found in synovial fluid. Mucins are high-molecular-weight glycoproteins that provide lubrication and protection to various tissues. Synovial fluid, which is found in joints, contains hyaluronate as its main mucin component. Hyaluronate helps to maintain the viscosity of the synovial fluid, allowing smooth movement of the joints and providing cushioning to the bones. It also plays a role in the healing process of joint injuries. Therefore, hyaluronate is the most abundant mucin in synovial fluid.

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  • 16. 

    Urinary calculi most often consist of:

    • Calcium

    • Uric acid

    • Leucine

    • Cystine

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Urinary calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, are most often composed of calcium. Calcium stones form when there is an excess of calcium in the urine, which can occur due to various factors such as dietary habits, certain medical conditions, or genetic predisposition. These stones can vary in size and can cause severe pain and discomfort when they obstruct the urinary tract. Treatment options may include medication, lifestyle changes, or surgical intervention depending on the size and location of the stone.

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  • 17. 

    Urine samples should be examined with 1 hour of voiding because:

    • Red blood cells, leukocytes, and casts agglutinate after standing for several hours at room temperature

    • Urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to light

    • Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine

    • Ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine
    Explanation
    Bacterial contamination can cause the urine to become alkaline. This is because bacteria can break down urea in the urine, releasing ammonia and increasing the pH of the urine. Therefore, if urine samples are not examined within 1 hour of voiding, bacterial contamination can occur and lead to alkalinization of the urine.

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  • 18. 

    Urine from a 50-year-old man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This change is caused by:

    • Glucose

    • Porphyrins

    • Urochrome

    • Creatinine

    Correct Answer
    A. Porphyrins
    Explanation
    The dark red color of the urine on standing in a 50-year-old man is caused by porphyrins. Porphyrins are organic compounds that are responsible for the red color in urine and can be indicative of certain medical conditions such as porphyria. Porphyrins are produced during the breakdown of heme, a component of hemoglobin, and can accumulate in the urine, leading to the dark red color. This change in color can be a sign of underlying health issues and should be further investigated.

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  • 19. 

    Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain:

    • Melanin

    • Porphyrins

    • Bilirubin

    • Urobilinogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Porphyrins
    Explanation
    Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain porphyrins. Porphyrins are organic compounds that are involved in the production of heme, a component of hemoglobin. When there is an excess of porphyrins in the body, they can be excreted in the urine, causing it to turn a port wine color. This can be a sign of certain medical conditions such as porphyria, a group of rare genetic disorders that affect the production of heme.

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  • 20. 

    Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine with:

    • Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity

    • Decreased volume and increased specific gravity

    • Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

    • Increased volume and increased specific gravity

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased volume and increased specific gravity
    Explanation
    Patients with diabetes mellitus often have increased urine volume, a condition known as polyuria. This is due to the excess glucose in their bloodstream, which is filtered by the kidneys and excreted in the urine. The increased glucose levels in the urine lead to an osmotic diuresis, causing water to be pulled into the urine, resulting in increased urine volume. Additionally, the presence of glucose in the urine increases its specific gravity, as glucose is a solute that increases the concentration of particles in the urine. Therefore, the correct answer is increased volume and increased specific gravity.

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  • 21. 

    Urine osmolality is related to:

    • PH

    • Filtration

    • Specific gravity

    • Volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific gravity
    Explanation
    Urine osmolality refers to the concentration of solutes in urine. Specific gravity, on the other hand, measures the density of urine compared to the density of water. Since the concentration of solutes affects the density of urine, it can be inferred that urine osmolality is related to specific gravity. The higher the concentration of solutes in urine, the higher the specific gravity and the higher the urine osmolality. Therefore, specific gravity is a useful indicator of urine osmolality.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is the primary reagent in the copper reduction tablet?

    • Sodium carbonate

    • Copper sulfate

    • Glucose oxidase

    • Polymerized diazonium salt

    Correct Answer
    A. Copper sulfate
    Explanation
    The primary reagent in the copper reduction tablet is copper sulfate. Copper sulfate is commonly used in chemical reactions as a source of copper ions, which can participate in redox reactions. In this case, it is likely that the copper sulfate is being used to provide the copper ions necessary for the reduction reaction. Sodium carbonate, glucose oxidase, and polymerized diazonium salt are not typically used as reagents in copper reduction reactions.

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  • 23. 

    A physician attampts to aspirate a knee joint and obtains 0.1 mL of slightly bloody fluid. Addtion of acetic acid results in turbidity and a clot. This indicates that:

    • The fluid is synovial fluid

    • Plasma was obtained

    • Red blood cells caused a false-positive reaction

    • The specimen is not adequate

    Correct Answer
    A. The fluid is synovial fluid
    Explanation
    The presence of turbidity and a clot after adding acetic acid suggests that the fluid is synovial fluid. Synovial fluid is normally present in the knee joint and can become slightly bloody due to injury or inflammation. The reaction with acetic acid causing turbidity and clot formation is a characteristic of synovial fluid, indicating that this is the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine?

    • Sodium nitroprusside

    • Acetoacetic acid

    • Acetone

    • Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium nitroprusside
    Explanation
    Sodium nitroprusside is used to react with ketones in the urine. Ketones are produced when the body breaks down fat for energy, and their presence in urine can indicate conditions such as diabetes or starvation. Sodium nitroprusside reacts with ketones to produce a purple color, allowing for their detection in urine samples. Acetoacetic acid, acetone, and beta-hydroxybutyric acid are all types of ketones that can be detected using sodium nitroprusside.

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  • 25. 

    Small round objects found in a urine sediment that dissolve after addition of dilute acetic acid and do not polarize most likely are:

    • Air bubbles

    • Calcium oxalate

    • Red blood cells

    • Yeast cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Red blood cells
    Explanation
    Red blood cells are small round objects found in urine sediment that can dissolve after the addition of dilute acetic acid. This is because red blood cells are sensitive to the acidic environment created by the acetic acid. On the other hand, air bubbles do not dissolve with the addition of acetic acid, and calcium oxalate and yeast cells do not polarize. Therefore, the most likely explanation is that the small round objects that dissolve after the addition of dilute acetic acid are red blood cells.

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  • 26. 

    A 24-year-old obese diabetic woman had the following blood and urine test results from specimens obtained at the same time: pH=7.5, Protein=30mg/dL, Glucose=negative, Ketones=15mg/dL, Bilirubin=negative, Blood=negative, Nitrite=negative, Urobilinogen=1EU/dL, SG=1.008Microscopic: Epithelial cells=3-5, bacteria=many, Yeast=many, Amorphous=moderate, Blood sugar=195mg/dLWhich of the following is the most likely explanation for the negative urine glucose finding?

    • There is a false-negative glucose due to oxidizing contaminants.

    • There is a false-negative glucose due to the alkaline pH.

    • The specimen is probably old and the bacteria and yeast have consumed the glucose.

    • Glucose would not be present in the urine specimen since the blood sugar was normal.

    Correct Answer
    A. The specimen is probably old and the bacteria and yeast have consumed the glucose.
    Explanation
    The presence of bacteria and yeast in the urine specimen suggests that the specimen is old. Bacteria and yeast have the ability to consume glucose, which could explain the negative urine glucose finding.

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  • 27. 

    The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on:

    • An enzyme reaction

    • Protein error of indicators

    • Copper reduction

    • The toluidine reaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Protein error of indicators
    Explanation
    The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on protein error of indicators. This means that the indicators used in the test react with proteins in the urine, causing a color change. This color change can be measured and used to determine the presence and amount of protein in the urine. The test relies on the fact that certain indicators are sensitive to proteins and will produce a visible result when proteins are present.

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  • 28. 

    A clean-catch urine sample is submitted to the laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and the specimen is then sent to microbiology for culture. The specimen should:

    • Be centrifuged and the supernatant cultured

    • Be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis

    • Not be cultured if no bacteria are seen

    • Be immediately processed for culture regardless of urinalysis results

    Correct Answer
    A. Be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis". When a clean-catch urine sample is submitted for routine urinalysis, there is a chance of contamination from the surrounding genital area. This contamination can interfere with the accuracy of the culture results, as it may introduce non-pathogenic bacteria. Therefore, it is recommended to reject the specimen for culture to avoid false-positive results.

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  • 29. 

    A turbid cerebrospinal fluid is most commonly caused by:

    • Increased white blood cells

    • Increased protein

    • Increased glucose

    • Increased bacterial organisms

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased white blood cells
    Explanation
    A turbid cerebrospinal fluid is most commonly caused by increased white blood cells. When there is an infection or inflammation in the central nervous system, white blood cells are recruited to the area to fight off the infection. This increase in white blood cells leads to a cloudy or turbid appearance of the cerebrospinal fluid. Increased protein, glucose, or bacterial organisms may also be present in certain conditions, but they are not the primary cause of the turbidity.

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  • 30. 

    Osmolality is a measure of:

    • Dissolved particles, including ions

    • Undissociated molecules only

    • Total salt concentration

    • Molecule size

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissolved particles, including ions
    Explanation
    Osmolality is a measure of dissolved particles, including ions. It determines the concentration of solutes in a solution, specifically the number of particles per kilogram of solvent. This includes both dissolved ions and other particles, such as molecules. Osmolality is an important parameter in physiology and medicine, as it affects the movement of water and solutes across cell membranes and plays a role in maintaining proper fluid balance in the body.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following cells is the largest?

    • Glitter

    • WBC

    • Transitional epithelial

    • Renal epithelial

    Correct Answer
    A. Transitional epithelial
    Explanation
    Transitional epithelial cells are the largest among the given options. These cells are found in the lining of organs that undergo expansion and contraction, such as the urinary bladder. They have the ability to stretch and accommodate changes in volume. WBCs (white blood cells) are much smaller and are involved in the immune response. Renal epithelial cells are found in the kidneys and vary in size depending on the specific type. Without further context, it is unclear what "glitter" refers to in this question.

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  • 32. 

    Which of following is the best guide to consistent centrifugation?

    • Potentiometer setting

    • Armature settings

    • Tachnometer readings

    • Rheostat readings

    Correct Answer
    A. Tachnometer readings
    Explanation
    The best guide to consistent centrifugation is tachnometer readings. A tachnometer measures the rotational speed of the centrifuge, which is crucial for achieving consistent results. By monitoring the tachnometer readings, one can ensure that the centrifuge is operating at the desired speed, preventing variations in the centrifugal force and ensuring consistent separation of samples. Potentiometer setting, armature settings, and rheostat readings do not directly measure the rotational speed and therefore do not provide the same level of accuracy and control in achieving consistent centrifugation.

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  • 33. 

    A woman in her ninth month of pregnancy has a urine sugar that is negative with the urine reagent strip but gives a positive reaction with the copper reduction method. The sugar most likely responsible for these results is:

    • Maltose

    • Galactose

    • Glucose

    • Lactose

    Correct Answer
    A. Lactose
    Explanation
    Lactose is the most likely sugar responsible for these results because it is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose. The urine reagent strip may not detect lactose specifically, leading to a negative result. However, the copper reduction method can detect lactose as it is able to break it down into its constituent sugars, glucose and galactose, which then react positively.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following can give a false-negative urine protein reading?

    • Contamination with vaginal discharge

    • Heavy mucus

    • Presence of blood

    • Very dilute urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Very dilute urine
    Explanation
    Very dilute urine can give a false-negative urine protein reading because when urine is highly diluted, the concentration of proteins in the sample decreases. This can lead to a false-negative result, where the test may not detect the presence of proteins in the urine even if they are actually present. It is important to consider the concentration of urine when interpreting urine protein readings to ensure accurate results.

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  • 35. 

    A urine with an increased protein has a high specific gravity. Which of the following would be a more accurate measure of urine concentration?

    • Osmolality

    • Ketones

    • Refractive index

    • PH

    Correct Answer
    A. Osmolality
    Explanation
    Osmolality is a more accurate measure of urine concentration compared to the other options listed. Osmolality measures the concentration of solutes in urine, including proteins, electrolytes, and other substances. It provides a more comprehensive assessment of urine concentration as it takes into account all solutes present, whereas specific gravity only measures the density of urine. Ketones, refractive index, and pH are not directly related to urine concentration and do not provide a comprehensive measure of solute concentration.

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  • 36. 

    The primary consituent of hyaline casts is:

    • Fat

    • Cells

    • Protein

    • Mucus

    Correct Answer
    A. Protein
    Explanation
    Hyaline casts are formed in the kidney tubules and are composed mainly of protein. These casts are transparent and have a glassy appearance. They are commonly found in the urine of individuals with kidney disorders, such as glomerulonephritis or acute tubular necrosis. The presence of hyaline casts can indicate kidney damage or inflammation.

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  • 37. 

    The knob between the eyepieces on a binocular microscope is used to:

    • Correct for optical differences between the right and left eyes

    • Adjust for distances between one's eyes

    • Change the magnification of the oculars

    • Improve the equibalent focus of the microscope

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjust for distances between one's eyes
    Explanation
    The knob between the eyepieces on a binocular microscope is used to adjust for distances between one's eyes. This allows the user to customize the distance between the eyepieces to match the distance between their own eyes, ensuring a comfortable and clear view through the microscope.

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  • 38. 

    To avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts:

    • Use an aliquot from the fist tube collected

    • Use only those specimens showing no turbidity

    • Centrifuge all specimens before counting

    • Select an aliquot from the last tube collected

    Correct Answer
    A. Select an aliquot from the last tube collected
    Explanation
    Selecting an aliquot from the last tube collected can help avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts. This is because the last tube collected is less likely to contain any contaminants or cells that may have been introduced during the collection process. By selecting an aliquot from the last tube, the sample is more likely to accurately represent the true cell count in the spinal fluid.

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  • 39. 

    An acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of:

    • Myoglobin

    • Sulfhemoglobin

    • Methenoglobin

    • Red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Methenoglobin
    Explanation
    Acidic urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of methemoglobin. Methemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that has been oxidized and is unable to bind and transport oxygen effectively. This oxidized form of hemoglobin gives the urine a darker color. Myoglobin is a protein found in muscle tissue, sulfhemoglobin is a rare form of hemoglobin that results from the oxidation of the iron in hemoglobin, and red blood cells are not directly responsible for the darkening of urine.

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  • 40. 

    Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment. They most likely are:

    • Calcium oxalate

    • Calcium carbonate

    • Calcium phosphate

    • Amorphous phosphate

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium carbonate
    Explanation
    Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals found in an alkaline urine sediment are most likely to be calcium carbonate. Calcium carbonate crystals are commonly found in alkaline urine and can appear as dumbbell-shaped structures. They are often seen in conditions such as urinary tract infections or metabolic disorders that cause an increase in urinary pH. Calcium oxalate crystals, on the other hand, are more commonly found in acidic urine and have a different appearance. Calcium phosphate crystals can also be found in alkaline urine, but they typically have a different shape. Amorphous phosphate refers to a non-crystalline form of phosphate and is not likely to be the correct answer in this case.

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  • 41. 

    A 24-hour urine from a man who had no evidence of kidney impairment was sent to the laboratory for hormone determination. The volume was 600 mL, but there was some question as to the completeness of the 24-hour collection. The next step would be to:

    • Perform the hormone determination, since 600 mL is a normal urine 24-hour volume

    • Check the creatinine level; if it is less than 1g do the procedure

    • Report the hormone determination in milligrams per deciliter in case the specimen was incomplete

    • Check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g do the procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g do the procedure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g, do the procedure. Checking the creatinine level is important because it helps determine the accuracy and completeness of the 24-hour urine collection. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscle metabolism and is excreted in the urine at a relatively constant rate. If the creatinine level is greater than 1g, it suggests that the urine collection was incomplete, and therefore, the hormone determination may not be accurate. Performing the procedure without verifying the completeness of the collection could lead to incorrect results.

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  • 42. 

    A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in two large squares of the Neubauer counting chamber. The sperm count in mLs is:

    • 5000

    • 50,000

    • 500,000

    • 5,000,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 5,000,000
  • 43. 

    Ammonium sulfate was added to red urine. The urine has a positive reaction for blood, but no RBCs were seen on microscopic examination. After centrifugation the supernatant fluid is red. The abnormal color is caused by:

    • Pyridium

    • Hemoglobin

    • Porphyrins

    • Myoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Myoglobin
    Explanation
    The abnormal red color in the urine, despite the absence of red blood cells (RBCs) on microscopic examination, suggests that the presence of myoglobin is causing the positive reaction for blood. Myoglobin is a protein found in muscle tissue, and its presence in the urine can indicate muscle damage or breakdown. In this case, the addition of ammonium sulfate may have precipitated and concentrated the myoglobin, leading to the red color in the supernatant fluid after centrifugation. Pyridium, hemoglobin, and porphyrins are not likely to cause this specific observation.

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  • 44. 

    The synovial fluid easily forms small drops from the aspirating syringe. This viscosity is:

    • Normal

    • Increased

    • Associated with inflammation

    • Associated with hypothyroidism

    Correct Answer
    A. Associated with inflammation
    Explanation
    The synovial fluid easily forming small drops from the aspirating syringe indicates that it has a lower viscosity than normal. This lower viscosity is commonly associated with inflammation. Inflammation can cause changes in the synovial fluid, leading to a decrease in viscosity and an increase in the formation of small drops. This can be observed when aspirating the fluid from the joint using a syringe.

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  • 45. 

    Pleural transudates differ from pleural exudates in the transudates have:

    • Protein values of >4g/100mL

    • Specific gravity values of >1.020

    • LD values of >200U/L

    • Relatively low cell counts

    Correct Answer
    A. Relatively low cell counts
    Explanation
    Pleural transudates differ from pleural exudates in that they have relatively low cell counts. This means that there are fewer cells present in pleural transudates compared to pleural exudates. The other given values, such as protein values, specific gravity values, and LD values, do not necessarily differentiate between transudates and exudates. Therefore, the key difference lies in the cell counts.

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  • 46. 

    A centrifuge head has a diameter of 60 cm and spins at 3000 rpm. What is the maximum achievable g force (g=0.00001 x radius in cm x rpm^2)?

    • 1.8g

    • 2700g

    • 27,000g

    • 90,000g

    Correct Answer
    A. 2700g
    Explanation
    The maximum achievable g force can be calculated using the formula g=0.00001 x radius in cm x rpm^2. In this case, the radius is half of the diameter, which is 30 cm. Substituting the values into the formula, we get g= 0.00001 x 30 cm x (3000 rpm)^2. Simplifying the equation, we find that g= 0.00001 x 30 cm x 9,000,000 rpm^2, which equals 2700g. Therefore, the correct answer is 2700g.

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  • 47. 

    A micropipet graduated to the tip and calibrated to contain should:

    • Be drained

    • Be rinsed

    • Not be blown out

    • Not be rinsed

    Correct Answer
    A. Be rinsed
    Explanation
    A micropipet that is graduated to the tip and calibrated to contain should be rinsed. Rinsing the micropipet helps to remove any residual liquid or contaminants that may be present, ensuring accurate and precise measurements. Draining the micropipet alone may not be sufficient to remove all impurities, and blowing out the micropipet can introduce air bubbles that can affect the accuracy of the measurements. Therefore, rinsing is the most appropriate action to take.

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  • 48. 

    A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a pass through reaction and is diluted by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops water. This is a dilution of:

    • 1 to 4

    • 1 to 5

    • 1 to 6

    • 1 to 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 to 6
    Explanation
    When 2 drops of urine are added to 10 drops of water, the total volume becomes 12 drops. Therefore, the urine is diluted by a ratio of 2:12, which can be simplified to 1:6.

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  • 49. 

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 16, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Bartlettw1
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