A Trivia Quiz On Urinalysis Problem!

48 Questions | Total Attempts: 4782

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A Trivia Quiz On Urinalysis Problem!

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Normal urine primarily consist of:
    • A. 

      Water, protein, and sodium

    • B. 

      Water, urea, and protein

    • C. 

      Water, urea, and sodium chloride

    • D. 

      Water, urea, and bilirubin

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity

    • B. 

      Decreased volume and increased specific gravity

    • C. 

      Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

    • D. 

      Increased volume and increased specific gravity

  • 3. 
    Cessation of urine flow is defined as:
    • A. 

      Azotemia

    • B. 

      Dysuria

    • C. 

      Diuresis

    • D. 

      Anuria

  • 4. 
    Upon standing at room temperature a urine pH typically:
    • A. 

      Decreases

    • B. 

      Increases

    • C. 

      Remains the same

    • D. 

      Changes depending on bacterial concentration

  • 5. 
    Antidiretic hormone regulates the reabsorption of:
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Potassium

    • D. 

      Calcium

  • 6. 
    Calibration of refractometers is done by measuring the specific gravity of:
    • A. 

      Distilled water and protein

    • B. 

      Distilled water and glucose

    • C. 

      Distilled water and sodium chloride

    • D. 

      Distilled water and urea

  • 7. 
    A 17-year-old girl decided to go on a starvation diet. After 1 week of starving herself, what substance would most likely be found in her urine?
    • A. 

      Protein

    • B. 

      Ketones

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Blood

  • 8. 
    Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine?
    • A. 

      Calcium carbonate

    • B. 

      Calcium oxalate

    • C. 

      Calcium phosphate

    • D. 

      Triple phosphate

  • 9. 
    Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine?
    • A. 

      Sodium nitroprusside

    • B. 

      Acetoacetic acid

    • C. 

      Acetone

    • D. 

      Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Maltose

    • B. 

      Galactose

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Lactose

  • 11. 
    Which of the following casts is most indicative of severe renal disease?
    • A. 

      Hemoglobin

    • B. 

      Granular

    • C. 

      Cellular

    • D. 

      Waxy

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is the primary reagent in the copper reduction tablet?
    • A. 

      Sodium carbonate

    • B. 

      Copper sulfate

    • C. 

      Glucose oxidase

    • D. 

      Polymerized diazonium salt

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate?
    • A. 

      Cystine

    • B. 

      Tyrosine

    • C. 

      Leucine

    • D. 

      Cholesterol

  • 14. 
    Which of the following cells is the largest?
    • A. 

      Glitter

    • B. 

      WBC

    • C. 

      Transitional epithelial

    • D. 

      Renal epithelial

  • 15. 
    What cell is MOST commonly associated with vaginal contamination?
    • A. 

      White

    • B. 

      Transitional

    • C. 

      Squamous

    • D. 

      Glitter

  • 16. 
    Urinary calculi most often consist of:
    • A. 

      Calcium

    • B. 

      Uric acid

    • C. 

      Leucine

    • D. 

      Cystine

  • 17. 
    Small round objects found in a urine sediment that dissolve after addition of dilute acetic acid and do not polarize most likely are:
    • A. 

      Air bubbles

    • B. 

      Calcium oxalate

    • C. 

      Red blood cells

    • D. 

      Yeast cells

  • 18. 
    Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment. They most likely are:
    • A. 

      Calcium oxalate

    • B. 

      Calcium carbonate

    • C. 

      Calcium phosphate

    • D. 

      Amorphous phosphate

  • 19. 
    A 24-year-old obese diabetic woman had the following blood and urine test results from specimens obtained at the same time: pH=7.5, Protein=30mg/dL, Glucose=negative, Ketones=15mg/dL, Bilirubin=negative, Blood=negative, Nitrite=negative, Urobilinogen=1EU/dL, SG=1.008Microscopic: Epithelial cells=3-5, bacteria=many, Yeast=many, Amorphous=moderate, Blood sugar=195mg/dLWhich of the following is the most likely explanation for the negative urine glucose finding?
    • A. 

      There is a false-negative glucose due to oxidizing contaminants.

    • B. 

      There is a false-negative glucose due to the alkaline pH.

    • C. 

      The specimen is probably old and the bacteria and yeast have consumed the glucose.

    • D. 

      Glucose would not be present in the urine specimen since the blood sugar was normal.

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Be centrifuged and the supernatant cultured

    • B. 

      Be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis

    • C. 

      Not be cultured if no bacteria are seen

    • D. 

      Be immediately processed for culture regardless of urinalysis results

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Perform the hormone determination, since 600 mL is a normal urine 24-hour volume

    • B. 

      Check the creatinine level; if it is less than 1g do the procedure

    • C. 

      Report the hormone determination in milligrams per deciliter in case the specimen was incomplete

    • D. 

      Check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g do the procedure

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Red blood cells, leukocytes, and casts agglutinate after standing for several hours at room temperature

    • B. 

      Urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to light

    • C. 

      Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine

    • D. 

      Ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

  • 23. 
    The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on:
    • A. 

      An enzyme reaction

    • B. 

      Protein error of indicators

    • C. 

      Copper reduction

    • D. 

      The toluidine reaction

  • 24. 
    After receiving a 24-hour urine sample for quantitative total protein anaylsis, the technician must first:
    • A. 

      Subculture the urine for bacteria

    • B. 

      Add the appropriate preservative

    • C. 

      Screen for albumin using a dipstick

    • D. 

      Measure the total volume

  • 25. 
    Which of following is the best guide to consistent centrifugation?
    • A. 

      Potentiometer setting

    • B. 

      Armature settings

    • C. 

      Tachnometer readings

    • D. 

      Rheostat readings

  • 26. 
    In addition to the sperm count in a fertility study, analysis of seminal fluid should also include:
    • A. 

      Time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology

    • B. 

      Motility, morphology, test for alkaline phosphatase

    • C. 

      Tiem of liquefaction, test for acid phosphatase, qualitative test for hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Time of liquefaction, qualitative test for hemoglobin and motility

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      The fluid is synovial fluid

    • B. 

      Plasma was obtained

    • C. 

      Red blood cells caused a false-positive reaction

    • D. 

      The specimen is not adequate

  • 28. 
    A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in two large squares of the Neubauer counting chamber. The sperm count in mLs is:
    • A. 

      5000

    • B. 

      50,000

    • C. 

      500,000

    • D. 

      5,000,000

  • 29. 
    Ammonium sulfate was added to red urine. The urine has a positive reaction for blood, but no RBCs were seen on microscopic examination. After centrifugation the supernatant fluid is red. The abnormal color is caused by:
    • A. 

      Pyridium

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin

    • C. 

      Porphyrins

    • D. 

      Myoglobin

  • 30. 
    Urine from a 50-year-old man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This change is caused by:
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Porphyrins

    • C. 

      Urochrome

    • D. 

      Creatinine

  • 31. 
    The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:
    • A. 

      Hyaluronate

    • B. 

      Albumin

    • C. 

      Orosomucoid

    • D. 

      Pepsin

  • 32. 
    A turbid cerebrospinal fluid is most commonly caused by:
    • A. 

      Increased white blood cells

    • B. 

      Increased protein

    • C. 

      Increased glucose

    • D. 

      Increased bacterial organisms

  • 33. 
    The synovial fluid easily forms small drops from the aspirating syringe. This viscosity is:
    • A. 

      Normal

    • B. 

      Increased

    • C. 

      Associated with inflammation

    • D. 

      Associated with hypothyroidism

  • 34. 
    Pleural transudates differ from pleural exudates in the transudates have:
    • A. 

      Protein values of >4g/100mL

    • B. 

      Specific gravity values of >1.020

    • C. 

      LD values of >200U/L

    • D. 

      Relatively low cell counts

  • 35. 
    A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a pass through reaction and is diluted by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops water. This is a dilution of:
    • A. 

      1 to 4

    • B. 

      1 to 5

    • C. 

      1 to 6

    • D. 

      1 to 8

  • 36. 
    The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is appoximately:
    • A. 

      50mg/dL

    • B. 

      100mg/dL

    • C. 

      160mg/dL

    • D. 

      300mg/dL

  • 37. 
    Urine osmolality is related to:
    • A. 

      PH

    • B. 

      Filtration

    • C. 

      Specific gravity

    • D. 

      Volume

  • 38. 
    A micropipet graduated to the tip and calibrated to contain should:
    • A. 

      Be drained

    • B. 

      Be rinsed

    • C. 

      Not be blown out

    • D. 

      Not be rinsed

  • 39. 
    The primary consituent of hyaline casts is:
    • A. 

      Fat

    • B. 

      Cells

    • C. 

      Protein

    • D. 

      Mucus

  • 40. 
    The knob between the eyepieces on a binocular microscope is used to:
    • A. 

      Correct for optical differences between the right and left eyes

    • B. 

      Adjust for distances between one's eyes

    • C. 

      Change the magnification of the oculars

    • D. 

      Improve the equibalent focus of the microscope

  • 41. 
    Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain:
    • A. 

      Melanin

    • B. 

      Porphyrins

    • C. 

      Bilirubin

    • D. 

      Urobilinogen

  • 42. 
    To avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts:
    • A. 

      Use an aliquot from the fist tube collected

    • B. 

      Use only those specimens showing no turbidity

    • C. 

      Centrifuge all specimens before counting

    • D. 

      Select an aliquot from the last tube collected

  • 43. 
    The volume of urine excreted in a 24-hour period by an adult patient was 500 mL. This condition would be termed:
    • A. 

      Anuria

    • B. 

      Oliguria

    • C. 

      Polyuria

    • D. 

      Dysuria

  • 44. 
    Which of the following can give a false-negative urine protein reading?
    • A. 

      Contamination with vaginal discharge

    • B. 

      Heavy mucus

    • C. 

      Presence of blood

    • D. 

      Very dilute urine

  • 45. 
    An acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of:
    • A. 

      Myoglobin

    • B. 

      Sulfhemoglobin

    • C. 

      Methenoglobin

    • D. 

      Red blood cells

  • 46. 
    A centrifuge head has a diameter of 60 cm and spins at 3000 rpm. What is the maximum achievable g force (g=0.00001 x radius in cm x rpm^2)?
    • A. 

      1.8g

    • B. 

      2700g

    • C. 

      27,000g

    • D. 

      90,000g

  • 47. 
    Osmolality is a measure of:
    • A. 

      Dissolved particles, including ions

    • B. 

      Undissociated molecules only

    • C. 

      Total salt concentration

    • D. 

      Molecule size

  • 48. 
    Urine with an increased protein has a high specific gravity. Which of the following would be a more accurate measure of urine concentration?
    • A. 

      Osmolality

    • B. 

      Ketones

    • C. 

      Refractive index

    • D. 

      PH