Urine Analysis MCQ Quiz With Answers

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Urine Analysis MCQ Quiz With Answers - Quiz


Hello and welcome to this fantastic 'Urine Analysis MCQ Quiz'. A urinalysis is simply a test of the urine. It is typically done to detect any health issues that may be occurring that affect the urinary system. It involves checking the color and content of the urine. An abnormal urinalysis can explain an underlying health problem. If you want to know more about urinalysis, take this quiz. It will help you gain further knowledge about urine analysis and its related concepts.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Normal urine primarily consist of:

    • A.

      Water, protein, and sodium

    • B.

      Water, urea, and protein

    • C.

      Water, urea, and sodium chloride

    • D.

      Water, urea, and bilirubin

    Correct Answer
    C. Water, urea, and sodium chloride
    Explanation
    Normal urine primarily consists of water, urea, and sodium chloride. Water is the main component of urine, making up the majority of its volume. Urea is a waste product produced by the liver during the breakdown of proteins and is excreted in urine. Sodium chloride, also known as table salt, is an electrolyte that helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body and is excreted in urine. Protein and bilirubin are not normally present in urine in significant amounts.

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  • 2. 

    Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine with:

    • A.

      Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity

    • B.

      Decreased volume and increased specific gravity

    • C.

      Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

    • D.

      Increased volume and increased specific gravity

    Correct Answer
    D. Increased volume and increased specific gravity
    Explanation
    Patients with diabetes mellitus often have increased urine volume, a condition known as polyuria, due to the excess glucose in their blood being excreted in the urine. This increased volume is caused by the kidneys attempting to remove the excess glucose from the body. Additionally, diabetes mellitus can lead to increased specific gravity of the urine, as the high levels of glucose in the urine can cause it to become more concentrated. Therefore, the correct answer is increased volume and increased specific gravity.

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  • 3. 

    Cessation of urine flow is defined as:

    • A.

      Azotemia

    • B.

      Dysuria

    • C.

      Diuresis

    • D.

      Anuria

    Correct Answer
    D. Anuria
    Explanation
    Anuria is the correct answer because it refers to the complete cessation or absence of urine flow. It is a medical condition characterized by the inability to produce or excrete urine. This can be caused by various factors such as kidney failure, urinary tract blockage, or severe dehydration. Anuria is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention as it can lead to the buildup of toxins in the body.

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  • 4. 

    Upon standing at room temperature a urine pH typically:

    • A.

      Decreases

    • B.

      Increases

    • C.

      Remains the same

    • D.

      Changes depending on bacterial concentration

    Correct Answer
    B. Increases
    Explanation
    When urine is left at room temperature, it undergoes a process called ammonium ion formation. This process leads to the breakdown of urea into ammonia, which causes the urine pH to increase. Therefore, the correct answer is "increases."

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  • 5. 

    Antidiretic hormone regulates the reabsorption of:

    • A.

      Water

    • B.

      Glucose

    • C.

      Potassium

    • D.

      Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Water
    Explanation
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is responsible for regulating the reabsorption of water in the kidneys. When ADH is released, it acts on the kidneys to increase the permeability of the collecting ducts, allowing more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. This helps to conserve water and prevent excessive water loss through urine. ADH does not directly regulate the reabsorption of glucose, potassium, or calcium.

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  • 6. 

    A 17-year-old girl decided to go on a starvation diet. After 1 week of starving herself, what substance would most likely be found in her urine?

    • A.

      Protein

    • B.

      Ketones

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      Blood

    Correct Answer
    B. Ketones
    Explanation
    When the body does not get enough carbohydrates from food, it starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Ketones are byproducts of fat metabolism and are usually present in small amounts in the urine. In the case of a person who is on a starvation diet, the body would rely heavily on fat breakdown for energy, leading to an increased production of ketones. Therefore, it is most likely that ketones would be found in the urine of a 17-year-old girl after a week of starving herself.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine?

    • A.

      Calcium carbonate

    • B.

      Calcium oxalate

    • C.

      Calcium phosphate

    • D.

      Triple phosphate

    Correct Answer
    B. Calcium oxalate
    Explanation
    Calcium oxalate crystals may be found in acidic urine because they are more likely to form in an acidic environment. Oxalate is a common component of many foods, and when it combines with calcium in the urine, it can form crystals. These crystals can contribute to the formation of kidney stones and can be seen under a microscope in urine samples. Therefore, the presence of calcium oxalate crystals in urine may indicate an increased risk for kidney stone formation.

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  • 8. 

    A woman in her ninth month of pregnancy has a urine sugar that is negative with the urine reagent strip but gives a positive reaction with the copper reduction method. The sugar most likely responsible for these results is:

    • A.

      Maltose

    • B.

      Galactose

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      Lactose

    Correct Answer
    D. Lactose
    Explanation
    In a woman in her ninth month of pregnancy, a negative result with the urine reagent strip suggests that there is no glucose in the urine. However, a positive reaction with the copper reduction method indicates the presence of reducing sugars. Lactose is a reducing sugar that can give a positive reaction with the copper reduction method. Therefore, lactose is the most likely sugar responsible for these results.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following casts is most indicative of severe renal disease?

    • A.

      Hemoglobin

    • B.

      Granular

    • C.

      Cellular

    • D.

      Waxy

    Correct Answer
    D. Waxy
    Explanation
    Waxy casts in the urine are most indicative of severe renal disease. Waxy casts are formed when there is significant damage to the renal tubules, leading to the accumulation of protein and cellular debris. These casts have a smooth and shiny appearance, resembling wax, and are often associated with chronic kidney disease or end-stage renal disease. The presence of waxy casts suggests severe impairment of renal function and is a sign of advanced kidney damage.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is the primary reagent in the copper reduction tablet?

    • A.

      Sodium carbonate

    • B.

      Copper sulfate

    • C.

      Glucose oxidase

    • D.

      Polymerized diazonium salt

    Correct Answer
    B. Copper sulfate
    Explanation
    Copper sulfate is the primary reagent in the copper reduction tablet. This is because copper sulfate is commonly used as a source of copper ions in various chemical reactions. In the context of the copper reduction tablet, it is likely that copper sulfate is used to provide the necessary copper ions for the reduction process.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate?

    • A.

      Cystine

    • B.

      Tyrosine

    • C.

      Leucine

    • D.

      Cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Cystine
    Explanation
    Cystine is an abnormal crystal that is described as a hexagonal plate. This means that when cystine crystallizes, it forms flat, six-sided structures. This is in contrast to the other options, tyrosine, leucine, and cholesterol, which do not typically form hexagonal plates when they crystallize.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following cells is the largest?

    • A.

      Glitter

    • B.

      WBC

    • C.

      Transitional epithelial

    • D.

      Renal epithelial

    Correct Answer
    C. Transitional epithelial
    Explanation
    Transitional epithelial cells are the largest among the given options. These cells are found in the lining of the urinary bladder, ureters, and parts of the urethra. They are called "transitional" because they can change shape and stretch when the organ they line, such as the bladder, is filled with urine. This ability to stretch allows the transitional epithelial cells to accommodate the expansion and contraction of the bladder, making them larger in size compared to other cell types mentioned in the options.

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  • 13. 

    What cell is MOST commonly associated with vaginal contamination?

    • A.

      White

    • B.

      Transitional

    • C.

      Squamous

    • D.

      Glitter

    Correct Answer
    C. Squamous
    Explanation
    Squamous cells are the most commonly associated with vaginal contamination. Squamous cells are flat, thin cells that make up the outer layer of the vaginal walls. They are shed naturally as part of the body's normal process. Therefore, when examining a vaginal sample, the presence of squamous cells is expected and considered normal. The other options, such as white, transitional, and glitter cells, are not commonly associated with vaginal contamination.

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  • 14. 

    Urinary calculi most often consist of:

    • A.

      Calcium

    • B.

      Uric acid

    • C.

      Leucine

    • D.

      Cystine

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Urinary calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, are most often composed of calcium. Calcium stones form when there is an excess of calcium in the urine, which can be caused by various factors such as high levels of dietary calcium, dehydration, or certain medical conditions. These stones can vary in size and can cause severe pain and discomfort when they pass through the urinary tract. Treatment options for calcium stones may include medication, dietary changes, or in some cases, surgical intervention.

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  • 15. 

    Small round objects found in a urine sediment that dissolve after addition of dilute acetic acid and do not polarize most likely are:

    • A.

      Air bubbles

    • B.

      Calcium oxalate

    • C.

      Red blood cells

    • D.

      Yeast cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Red blood cells
    Explanation
    Small round objects found in a urine sediment that dissolve after addition of dilute acetic acid and do not polarize are most likely red blood cells. Red blood cells are commonly found in urine sediment and can appear as small round objects. When diluted acetic acid is added, it helps to dissolve any calcium oxalate crystals that may be present, but it does not affect red blood cells. Additionally, red blood cells do not polarize, which further supports this answer.

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  • 16. 

    Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment. They most likely are:

    • A.

      Calcium oxalate

    • B.

      Calcium carbonate

    • C.

      Calcium phosphate

    • D.

      Amorphous phosphate

    Correct Answer
    B. Calcium carbonate
    Explanation
    Calcium carbonate is the most likely answer because it forms colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals in alkaline urine sediment. Calcium oxalate crystals are typically brown and have a different shape. Calcium phosphate crystals are usually colorless but have a different shape as well. Amorphous phosphate refers to a non-crystalline form of phosphate and does not match the description given. Therefore, calcium carbonate is the best fit.

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  • 17. 

    A clean-catch urine sample is submitted to the laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and the specimen is then sent to microbiology for culture. The specimen should:

    • A.

      Be centrifuged and the supernatant cultured

    • B.

      Be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis

    • C.

      Not be cultured if no bacteria are seen

    • D.

      Be immediately processed for culture regardless of urinalysis results

    Correct Answer
    B. Be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis." This is because routine urinalysis involves the use of chemicals and reagents that may interfere with the growth of bacteria in the culture. Therefore, there is a risk of false-positive results if the specimen is cultured after routine urinalysis. It is important to obtain a clean-catch urine sample specifically for culture to minimize the risk of contamination and ensure accurate results.

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  • 18. 

    A 24-hour urine from a man who had no evidence of kidney impairment was sent to the laboratory for hormone determination. The volume was 600 mL, but there was some question as to the completeness of the 24-hour collection. The next step would be to:

    • A.

      Perform the hormone determination, since 600 mL is a normal urine 24-hour volume

    • B.

      Check the creatinine level; if it is less than 1g do the procedure

    • C.

      Report the hormone determination in milligrams per deciliter in case the specimen was incomplete

    • D.

      Check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g do the procedure

    Correct Answer
    D. Check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g do the procedure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g, do the procedure. Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine. By checking the creatinine level in the urine, it can help determine if the 24-hour collection was complete. A high creatinine level suggests that the urine collection was likely incomplete, and therefore, the hormone determination should not be performed until a complete collection is obtained.

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  • 19. 

    Urine samples should be examined with 1 hour of voiding because:

    • A.

      Red blood cells, leukocytes, and casts agglutinate after standing for several hours at room temperature

    • B.

      Urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to light

    • C.

      Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine

    • D.

      Ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine
    Explanation
    Bacterial contamination can cause alkalinization of the urine. This means that the pH of the urine will increase and become more alkaline. Bacteria in the urine can produce ammonia as a byproduct of their metabolism, which can raise the pH. This can affect the accuracy of urine tests, as certain substances and cells in the urine may be affected by changes in pH. Therefore, it is important to examine urine samples within 1 hour of voiding to ensure accurate results.

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  • 20. 

    The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on:

    • A.

      An enzyme reaction

    • B.

      Protein error of indicators

    • C.

      Copper reduction

    • D.

      The toluidine reaction

    Correct Answer
    B. Protein error of indicators
    Explanation
    The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on the protein error of indicators. Protein error of indicators occurs when certain indicators, such as bromphenol blue or tetrabromophenol blue, change color in the presence of proteins. This color change is used to detect the presence of protein in urine. The indicators react specifically with proteins, allowing for a reliable and accurate measurement of protein levels in urine samples.

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  • 21. 

    After receiving a 24-hour urine sample for quantitative total protein anaylsis, the technician must first:

    • A.

      Subculture the urine for bacteria

    • B.

      Add the appropriate preservative

    • C.

      Screen for albumin using a dipstick

    • D.

      Measure the total volume

    Correct Answer
    D. Measure the total volume
    Explanation
    The technician must first measure the total volume of the 24-hour urine sample before performing any other analysis. This is important because the total volume of urine collected over a 24-hour period is needed to accurately calculate the concentration of various substances, such as total protein, in the urine. By measuring the total volume, the technician can ensure that the subsequent quantitative total protein analysis is done accurately and the results are reliable.

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  • 22. 

    Which of following is the best guide to consistent centrifugation?

    • A.

      Potentiometer setting

    • B.

      Armature settings

    • C.

      Tachnometer readings

    • D.

      Rheostat readings

    Correct Answer
    C. Tachnometer readings
    Explanation
    The best guide to consistent centrifugation is tachnometer readings. Tachnometer readings provide information about the speed of the centrifuge, which is crucial for achieving consistent results. By monitoring the tachnometer readings, one can ensure that the centrifuge is running at the desired speed, preventing variations in the centrifugal force and allowing for accurate separation of samples. Potentiometer setting, armature settings, and rheostat readings do not provide information specifically about the speed of the centrifuge and therefore are not as reliable guides for consistent centrifugation.

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  • 23. 

    In addition to the sperm count in a fertility study, analysis of seminal fluid should also include:

    • A.

      Time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology

    • B.

      Motility, morphology, test for alkaline phosphatase

    • C.

      Tiem of liquefaction, test for acid phosphatase, qualitative test for hemoglobin

    • D.

      Time of liquefaction, qualitative test for hemoglobin and motility

    Correct Answer
    A. Time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology
    Explanation
    The analysis of seminal fluid in a fertility study should include the time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, and morphology. Liquefaction refers to the process in which semen changes from a gel-like state to a liquid state, and the time of liquefaction can provide valuable information about the health of the sperm. Estimation of motility involves assessing the movement of the sperm, which is an important factor in determining fertility. Morphology refers to the size and shape of the sperm, and abnormalities in morphology can also impact fertility. Therefore, including these parameters in the analysis of seminal fluid can provide a comprehensive evaluation of male fertility.

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  • 24. 

    A physician attampts to aspirate a knee joint and obtains 0.1 mL of slightly bloody fluid. Addtion of acetic acid results in turbidity and a clot. This indicates that:

    • A.

      The fluid is synovial fluid

    • B.

      Plasma was obtained

    • C.

      Red blood cells caused a false-positive reaction

    • D.

      The specimen is not adequate

    Correct Answer
    A. The fluid is synovial fluid
    Explanation
    The presence of turbidity and clot formation after adding acetic acid suggests that the fluid is synovial fluid. Synovial fluid is normally present in the knee joint and is responsible for lubrication. It contains substances that can cause turbidity and clot formation when acetic acid is added. Therefore, this reaction confirms that the fluid obtained is synovial fluid.

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  • 25. 

    Urine from a 50-year-old man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This change is caused by:

    • A.

      Glucose

    • B.

      Porphyrins

    • C.

      Urochrome

    • D.

      Creatinine

    Correct Answer
    B. Porphyrins
    Explanation
    The correct answer is porphyrins. Porphyrins are a group of compounds that are responsible for the red color of urine. They are formed during the breakdown of hemoglobin and can accumulate in the urine, causing it to turn dark red. This can be a sign of certain medical conditions such as porphyria or liver disease. Glucose, urochrome, and creatinine are not typically associated with causing a change in the color of urine.

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  • 26. 

    The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:

    • A.

      Hyaluronate

    • B.

      Albumin

    • C.

      Orosomucoid

    • D.

      Pepsin

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyaluronate
    Explanation
    Hyaluronate is the correct answer because it is the main mucin found in synovial fluid. Mucins are large glycoproteins that provide lubrication and protection to the joints. Hyaluronate specifically helps to maintain the viscosity and elasticity of synovial fluid, allowing for smooth movement of the joints. Albumin, orosomucoid, and pepsin are not mucins and are not typically found in synovial fluid.

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  • 27. 

    The synovial fluid easily forms small drops from the aspirating syringe. This viscosity is:

    • A.

      Normal

    • B.

      Increased

    • C.

      Associated with inflammation

    • D.

      Associated with hypothyroidism

    Correct Answer
    C. Associated with inflammation
    Explanation
    The synovial fluid easily forming small drops from the aspirating syringe suggests that the viscosity is increased. This is because inflammation can cause an increase in the viscosity of synovial fluid, making it thicker and more sticky. When the fluid is thicker, it tends to form smaller drops when being aspirated, as opposed to flowing smoothly. Therefore, the increased viscosity of the synovial fluid is associated with inflammation.

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  • 28. 

    Pleural transudates differ from pleural exudates in the transudates have:

    • A.

      Protein values of >4g/100mL

    • B.

      Specific gravity values of >1.020

    • C.

      LD values of >200U/L

    • D.

      Relatively low cell counts

    Correct Answer
    D. Relatively low cell counts
    Explanation
    Pleural transudates and pleural exudates are both types of fluids that can accumulate in the pleural space. The main difference between them is the underlying cause. Transudates are caused by an imbalance in hydrostatic and oncotic pressures, leading to fluid leakage into the pleural space. Exudates, on the other hand, are caused by inflammation or infection. One of the distinguishing characteristics of transudates is that they typically have relatively low cell counts. This is because the fluid is primarily composed of plasma filtrate, rather than inflammatory cells.

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  • 29. 

    A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a pass through reaction and is diluted by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops water. This is a dilution of:

    • A.

      1 to 4

    • B.

      1 to 5

    • C.

      1 to 6

    • D.

      1 to 8

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 to 6
    Explanation
    The dilution of adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops of water results in a total volume of 12 drops. This means that the ratio of urine to water is 2:10, which simplifies to 1:5. However, since the question asks for the dilution, the answer should be expressed as the ratio of water to urine, which is 5:1. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 to 6, indicating that the urine is diluted six times.

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  • 30. 

    Urine osmolality is related to:

    • A.

      PH

    • B.

      Filtration

    • C.

      Specific gravity

    • D.

      Volume

    Correct Answer
    C. Specific gravity
    Explanation
    Urine osmolality is related to specific gravity. Specific gravity is a measure of the concentration of solutes in urine, which directly affects its osmolality. Higher specific gravity indicates higher osmolality, meaning the urine is more concentrated with solutes. This can be an indication of dehydration or certain medical conditions. Conversely, lower specific gravity reflects lower osmolality and a more diluted urine. Monitoring specific gravity can provide valuable information about a person's hydration status and kidney function.

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  • 31. 

    A micropipet graduated to the tip and calibrated to contain should:

    • A.

      Be drained

    • B.

      Be rinsed

    • C.

      Not be blown out

    • D.

      Not be rinsed

    Correct Answer
    B. Be rinsed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "be rinsed." When a micropipette is graduated to the tip and calibrated to contain, it means that the volume of liquid it can hold is measured up to the tip. To ensure accurate measurements, it is important to rinse the micropipette with the liquid that will be used before aspirating the desired volume. This removes any residue or contaminants from the previous use, preventing them from affecting the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, rinsing the micropipette is necessary in this case.

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  • 32. 

    The primary consituent of hyaline casts is:

    • A.

      Fat

    • B.

      Cells

    • C.

      Protein

    • D.

      Mucus

    Correct Answer
    C. Protein
    Explanation
    Hyaline casts are formed in the kidneys and are composed predominantly of protein. These casts are commonly found in the urine and can indicate various kidney conditions such as glomerulonephritis or renal tubular damage. The presence of hyaline casts suggests proteinuria, which is the abnormal presence of protein in the urine. Therefore, the primary constituent of hyaline casts is protein.

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  • 33. 

    The knob between the eyepieces on a binocular microscope is used to:

    • A.

      Correct for optical differences between the right and left eyes

    • B.

      Adjust for distances between one's eyes

    • C.

      Change the magnification of the oculars

    • D.

      Improve the equibalent focus of the microscope

    Correct Answer
    B. Adjust for distances between one's eyes
    Explanation
    The knob between the eyepieces on a binocular microscope is used to adjust for distances between one's eyes. This allows the user to customize the interpupillary distance, which is the distance between the centers of the pupils of the two eyes. By adjusting this distance, the user can ensure that the microscope's eyepieces align properly with their eyes, providing a comfortable and clear view of the specimen.

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  • 34. 

    Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain:

    • A.

      Melanin

    • B.

      Porphyrins

    • C.

      Bilirubin

    • D.

      Urobilinogen

    Correct Answer
    B. Porphyrins
    Explanation
    Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain porphyrins. Porphyrins are organic compounds that are involved in the production of heme, a component of hemoglobin. When there is an excess of porphyrins in the body, they can be excreted in the urine, resulting in a characteristic color change. This can be seen in conditions such as porphyria, a group of rare genetic disorders that affect the production of heme.

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  • 35. 

    To avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts:

    • A.

      Use an aliquot from the fist tube collected

    • B.

      Use only those specimens showing no turbidity

    • C.

      Centrifuge all specimens before counting

    • D.

      Select an aliquot from the last tube collected

    Correct Answer
    D. Select an aliquot from the last tube collected
    Explanation
    To avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts, it is recommended to select an aliquot from the last tube collected. This is because the last tube collected is likely to have the most accurate representation of the spinal fluid composition, as it would have undergone a more complete mixing process. The earlier tubes may have been affected by factors such as settling or incomplete mixing, which could lead to inaccuracies in the cell count. Therefore, selecting an aliquot from the last tube collected would provide a more reliable measurement of spinal fluid cell count.

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  • 36. 

    The volume of urine excreted in a 24-hour period by an adult patient was 500 mL. This condition would be termed:

    • A.

      Anuria

    • B.

      Oliguria

    • C.

      Polyuria

    • D.

      Dysuria

    Correct Answer
    B. Oliguria
    Explanation
    Oliguria is the correct answer because it refers to a decreased urine output, typically less than 400 mL in a 24-hour period. In this case, the patient excreted 500 mL of urine, which is still considered a reduced volume and falls within the definition of oliguria. Anuria refers to the absence of urine production, polyuria refers to excessive urine production, and dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination, none of which are applicable in this scenario.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following can give a false-negative urine protein reading?

    • A.

      Contamination with vaginal discharge

    • B.

      Heavy mucus

    • C.

      Presence of blood

    • D.

      Very dilute urine

    Correct Answer
    D. Very dilute urine
    Explanation
    Very dilute urine can give a false-negative urine protein reading because when urine is highly diluted, the concentration of proteins in the urine decreases, making it difficult to detect the presence of proteins using standard urine protein tests. This can lead to a false-negative result, indicating that there is no protein present in the urine when in fact there might be.

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  • 38. 

    An acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of:

    • A.

      Myoglobin

    • B.

      Sulfhemoglobin

    • C.

      Methenoglobin

    • D.

      Red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Methenoglobin
    Explanation
    When urine that contains hemoglobin darkens on standing, it is due to the formation of methemoglobin. Methemoglobin is a form of hemoglobin that has been oxidized and cannot bind oxygen. It appears brownish in color, which causes the urine to darken. This can occur in conditions such as hemolytic anemia or urinary tract infections, where red blood cells may be present in the urine.

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  • 39. 

    A centrifuge head has a diameter of 60 cm and spins at 3000 rpm. What is the maximum achievable g force (g=0.00001 x radius in cm x rpm^2)?

    • A.

      1.8g

    • B.

      2700g

    • C.

      27,000g

    • D.

      90,000g

    Correct Answer
    B. 2700g
    Explanation
    The maximum achievable g force can be calculated using the formula g = 0.00001 x radius in cm x rpm^2. In this case, the radius is half the diameter, so it is 30 cm. Plugging in the values, we get g = 0.00001 x 30 cm x (3000 rpm)^2 = 0.00001 x 30 cm x 90000000 = 2700g. Therefore, the correct answer is 2700g.

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  • 40. 

    Osmolality is a measure of:

    • A.

      Dissolved particles, including ions

    • B.

      Undissociated molecules only

    • C.

      Total salt concentration

    • D.

      Molecule size

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissolved particles, including ions
    Explanation
    Osmolality is a measure of dissolved particles, including ions. It quantifies the concentration of solutes in a solution, taking into account both dissolved particles and ions. This measurement is important in determining the osmotic pressure and osmotic balance across cell membranes. By considering all the dissolved particles, including ions, osmolality provides a comprehensive assessment of the solute concentration in a solution.

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  • 41. 

    Urine with an increased protein has a high specific gravity. Which of the following would be a more accurate measure of urine concentration?

    • A.

      Osmolality

    • B.

      Ketones

    • C.

      Refractive index

    • D.

      PH

    Correct Answer
    A. Osmolality
    Explanation
    Urine concentration is better measured by osmolality rather than protein, ketones, refractive index, or pH. Osmolality refers to the concentration of solutes in a solution, including electrolytes, urea, and other substances present in urine. It provides a more accurate measure of urine concentration because it takes into account all solutes present, not just protein. Protein in urine may indicate kidney damage or other health conditions, but it does not directly reflect urine concentration. Osmolality, on the other hand, directly measures the concentration of solutes and provides a more precise assessment of urine concentration.

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