Urinalysis Study Questions

170 Questions | Total Attempts: 1486

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Urinalysis Study Questions

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Each kidney is composed of more than a million complete urinary functional units called
    • A. 

      Glomeruli

    • B. 

      Nephrons

    • C. 

      Photons

    • D. 

      Medullas

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is not one of the 4 main functions of the kidney?
    • A. 

      To rid the body of excess protein

    • B. 

      To rid the body of waste products of metabolism

    • C. 

      To rid the body of foreign substance

    • D. 

      To maintain acid-base equilibrium

  • 3. 
    The process performed by the glomerulus as a part of urine formation is called
    • A. 

      Filtration

    • B. 

      Secretion

    • C. 

      Absorption

    • D. 

      Transudation

  • 4. 
    An increased cystatin C corresponds to a descreased creatinine clearance and to impaired kidney function.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    During urine formation which of the following substances is generally not allowed to filter through the glomerular capillaries?
    • A. 

      Ascorbic acid

    • B. 

      Plasma protein

    • C. 

      Urea

    • D. 

      Creatinine

  • 6. 
    Which of the following substances makes up the majority of total urinary dissolved organic solids?
    • A. 

      Protein

    • B. 

      Urea

    • C. 

      Creatinine

    • D. 

      Sodium

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is true of the estimated glomerular filtration rate test/calculation (eGFR)?
    • A. 

      A larger urine sample is needed for the eGFR than for a creatinine clearance test

    • B. 

      Only a blood samples is needed for the eGFR

    • C. 

      Patient race is a factor in the formula

    • D. 

      None of the above

    • E. 

      More than one of the above

  • 8. 
    The total renal blood flow is approximately:
    • A. 

      40 mL/min

    • B. 

      120 mL/min

    • C. 

      600 mL/min

    • D. 

      1200 mL/min

  • 9. 
    In which part of the kidney does concentration of urine mostly take place?
    • A. 

      The glomeruli and bowman's capsules

    • B. 

      The loop of henle

    • C. 

      The proximal convoluted tubules

    • D. 

      The distal convoluted tubules and the collecting duct

  • 10. 
    During the flow of filtrate through the tubules, which of the following substances is not absorbed in significant amounts?
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Creatinine

    • D. 

      Phosphate

    • E. 

      Sulfate

  • 11. 
    Which of the answers below represents the direction of the flow of filtrate through the nephron?
    • A. 

      Loop of henle, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, glomerular space (bowman's capsule), collecting tubule

    • B. 

      Collecting tubule, distal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, proximal convoluted tubule, glomerular space (bowman's capsule)

    • C. 

      Proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, glomerular space (bowman's capsule), loop of henle, collecting tubule

    • D. 

      Glomerular space (bowman's capsule), proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting tubule

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is NOT an organic substance found in the urine?
    • A. 

      Urea

    • B. 

      Uric acid

    • C. 

      Creatinine

    • D. 

      Ammonia

  • 13. 
    The average amount of urine passed by a normal adult in 24 hours is approximately:
    • A. 

      300-400 ml

    • B. 

      600-700 ml

    • C. 

      900-1000 ml

    • D. 

      1200-1500 ml

  • 14. 
    The principle site of urea formation is the:
    • A. 

      Spleen

    • B. 

      Kidney

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Bladder

  • 15. 
    The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is responsible for all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Lowering the glomerular blood pressure

    • B. 

      Vasoconstriction of the renal arterioles

    • C. 

      Reabsorption of sodium

    • D. 

      Release of aldosterone

  • 16. 
    Production of antidiuretic hormone is controlled by the:
    • A. 

      Osmotic gradient of the medulla

    • B. 

      Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

    • C. 

      State of body hydration

    • D. 

      Cells of the renal cortex

  • 17. 
    The first morning specimen of urine is requested often because the:
    • A. 

      Patient rested all night

    • B. 

      Urine remains in the bladder for a longer time

    • C. 

      Urine is more concentrated

    • D. 

      Specimen is easier to collect

  • 18. 
    The primary chemical constituents of urine are water,
    • A. 

      Protein and sodium

    • B. 

      Chloride and bilirubin

    • C. 

      Urea and chloride

    • D. 

      Urea and protein

  • 19. 
    The solid, undissolved particles in the urine are preserved:
    • A. 

      Better in acid urine

    • B. 

      Better in neutral urine

    • C. 

      Better in alkaline urine

    • D. 

      Equally well at any pH

  • 20. 
    A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Nonmatching label and requisition form

    • B. 

      Specimen and contaminated with feces

    • C. 

      Contamination on the exterior of the container

    • D. 

      The container uses a screw-top lid

  • 21. 
    Upon standing, normal urine becomes alkaline chiefly due to:
    • A. 

      Acid ash

    • B. 

      Increased protein

    • C. 

      Increased quinic acids

    • D. 

      Bacterial action on urea

  • 22. 
    Which of the following will be LEAST affected in an unpreserved specimen left at room temperature overnight?
    • A. 

      Bilirubin

    • B. 

      Urbilinogen

    • C. 

      RBCs

    • D. 

      Protein

  • 23. 
    The preferred method of urine preservation in the laboratory is:
    • A. 

      Refrigeration

    • B. 

      Boric acid

    • C. 

      Sodium fluoride

    • D. 

      Commercial tablets

  • 24. 
    Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be:
    • A. 

      Warmed to 37 degrees C

    • B. 

      Examined for crystal formation

    • C. 

      Examined for changes in color

    • D. 

      Returned to room temperature

  • 25. 
    Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activites should be performed on a:
    • A. 

      Random specimen

    • B. 

      First morning specimen

    • C. 

      24 hour specimen

    • D. 

      2 hour postprandial specimen

  • 26. 
    Will ketones be increased or decreased as a reault of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 27. 
    Will glucose be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 28. 
    Will pH be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 29. 
    Will nitrite be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 30. 
    Will turbidity be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 31. 
    Will urobilinogen be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 32. 
    Will bilirubin be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 33. 
    Will cells be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?
    • A. 

      Increased

    • B. 

      Decreased

  • 34. 
    The specific gravity of the urine is determined by its composition. One percent concentration of urinary protein would increase the specific gravity by what figure?
    • A. 

      0.003

    • B. 

      0.005

    • C. 

      0.010

    • D. 

      0.015

    • E. 

      0.020

  • 35. 
    The normal color of the urine is mostly due to what pigment?
    • A. 

      Urochrome

    • B. 

      Creatinine

    • C. 

      Uric acid

    • D. 

      Bilirubin

  • 36. 
    A pale colored urine usually indicates that:
    • A. 

      The urine is dilute

    • B. 

      Glucose is present

    • C. 

      Protein is present

    • D. 

      The patient is an alcoholic

  • 37. 
    A urine that is yellowish-brown and, on shaking, produces yellow foam MOST likely contains:
    • A. 

      Prophyrins

    • B. 

      Melanin

    • C. 

      Bilirubin

    • D. 

      Indican

  • 38. 
    The most probably cause of a white precipitate that is macroscopically visible in urine is:
    • A. 

      Amorphous urates

    • B. 

      Lipids

    • C. 

      Amorphous phosphates

    • D. 

      Radiographic contrast media

  • 39. 
    Crenated RBCs would MOST likely be found in a urine with a specific gravity of
    • A. 

      1.003

    • B. 

      1.015

    • C. 

      1.021

    • D. 

      1.038

  • 40. 
    Specimens that contain intact RBCs cal be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because
    • A. 

      Hemoglobin produces a brighter red color

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin produces a cloudy, pink specimen

    • C. 

      RBCs produce a cloudy specimen

    • D. 

      RBCs are rapidly converted to hemoglobin

  • 41. 
    An ADH deficiency is associated with urine with a:
    • A. 

      Specific gravity close to 1.025

    • B. 

      Low specific gravity

    • C. 

      High specific gravity

    • D. 

      Variable specific gravity

  • 42. 
    The refractive index compares:
    • A. 

      Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids

    • B. 

      Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

    • C. 

      Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions

    • D. 

      Light scattering by particles in solutions

  • 43. 
    The specific gravity of the urine is the result of the dissolved substances that are present
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the continuous excretion of dilute urine.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    Dilute urine is usually dark yellow.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    In diabetes insipidus the specific gravity of urine is approximately 1.001 - 1.005
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    The NORMAL relationship of urine volume and specific gravity is inverse
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    A refractormeter reads 1.003 with distilled water. The techologist should:
    • A. 

      Subtract 0.003 from the specimen results

    • B. 

      Add 0.003 to the specimen results

    • C. 

      Use a urinometer to measure the specific gravity

    • D. 

      Adjust the set screw.

  • 49. 
    Orthostatic proteinuria is most frequently ovserved in a specimen obtained
    • A. 

      Upon arising in the morning

    • B. 

      2 hours after arising in the morning

    • C. 

      2 hours after a heavy meal

    • D. 

      At the end of the day.

  • 50. 
    Bence Jones protein differs from other urinary protein by its
    • A. 

      Solubility at boiling temperature

    • B. 

      Reaction with toluidine

    • C. 

      Solubility in sulfurinc acid

    • D. 

      Quantity

  • 51. 
    Bence Jones proteinuria occurs in
    • A. 

      Toxemia of pregnancy

    • B. 

      Chronic glomerulonephritits

    • C. 

      Multiple myloma

    • D. 

      Lipoid nephrosis

  • 52. 
    The protein section of the multistix reagent strip is most sensitive to
    • A. 

      Albumin

    • B. 

      Mucoprotein

    • C. 

      Bence Jones protein

    • D. 

      Globulin

  • 53. 
    To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for
    • A. 

      Bence Jones protein

    • B. 

      Microabluminuria

    • C. 

      Orthostatic protein

    • D. 

      Glucose and ketones

  • 54. 
    Which urine chemical test is the best single indicator of glomerular damage?
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Protein

    • C. 

      Nitrite

    • D. 

      Ketones

  • 55. 
    A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be:
    • A. 

      Tested further for metabolic or respiratory alkalosis

    • B. 

      Changed to a high meat diet to lower the pH

    • C. 

      Placed on medication to lower the pH

    • D. 

      Asked to collect a new specimen

  • 56. 
    A urine with a high pH contains a
    • A. 

      High concentration of chloride ions

    • B. 

      High concentration of hydrogen ions

    • C. 

      Low concentration of chloride ions

    • D. 

      Low concentration of hydrogen ions

  • 57. 
    When testing urine with dipstick methods, the glucose result is normally negative because glucose
    • A. 

      Does not pass through the glomerulus

    • B. 

      Is used up by the loops of henle

    • C. 

      Breaks down in the medulla

    • D. 

      Is absorbed in the convoluted tubules.

  • 58. 
    Glycosuria is most frequently observed in a specimen obtained
    • A. 

      Upon arising in the morning

    • B. 

      2 hours after arising in the morning

    • C. 

      2 hours after heavy meal

    • D. 

      2 hours after retiring for the night

  • 59. 
    Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of
    • A. 

      Glucose using clinitest

    • B. 

      Galactose using multistix

    • C. 

      Lactose using multistix

    • D. 

      Glactose using clinitest

  • 60. 
    Which of the following could explain how the same specimen could give a negative clinitest result and a positive reagent strip result
    • A. 

      Presence of a non-glucose reducing substance

    • B. 

      Possible oxidizing agent interference

    • C. 

      Small amount of glucose present

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 61. 
    Which of the following could explain how the same specimen could give a positive clinitest result and a negative reagent strip result.
    • A. 

      Presence of a non-glucose reducing substance

    • B. 

      Possible oxidizing agent interference

    • C. 

      Small amount of glucose present

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 62. 
    Ketone bodies occur when there is
    • A. 

      A reduction of protein intake

    • B. 

      Alkalosis

    • C. 

      Abnormal oxidation of fatty acid

    • D. 

      Ingestion of large quantities of purines

  • 63. 
    Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with
    • A. 

      Acetone

    • B. 

      Acetoacetic acid

    • C. 

      Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 64. 
    A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates:
    • A. 

      Hematuria

    • B. 

      Hemoglobinuria

    • C. 

      Myoglobinuria

    • D. 

      Porphyrinuria

  • 65. 
    Which of the following is not true about the icotest?
    • A. 

      Bilirubin is concentrated on the surface of an absorbent pad

    • B. 

      Interfering pigments can be washed into the pad

    • C. 

      It uses the same principle as the reagent strip

    • D. 

      It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test

  • 66. 
    With biliary duct obstruction, it is common for reagent strip tests to show:
    • A. 

      Bilirubin: 0, Urobilinogen: 0.1 EU

    • B. 

      Bilirubin: ++, Urobilinogen: 0.1 EU

    • C. 

      Bilirubin: 0, Urobilinogen: 4 EU

    • D. 

      Bilirubin: ++, Urobilinogen: 4 EU

  • 67. 
    Reagent strip results associated with hemolytic disease would correspond with which of the following?
    • A. 

      Bilirubin: 0, Urobilinogen: 1 EU

    • B. 

      Bilirubin: ++, Urobilinogen: 1 EU

    • C. 

      Bilirubin: 0, Urobilinogen: 8 EU

    • D. 

      Bilirubin: ++, Urobilinogen: 8 EU

  • 68. 
    Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent is used in the determination of which of the following:
    • A. 

      Bile acid

    • B. 

      Bilirubin

    • C. 

      Urobilinogen

    • D. 

      Urobilin

  • 69. 
    Ehrlich's reagent is:
    • A. 

      Sodium alizarin sulfonate

    • B. 

      Brilliant cresyl blue

    • C. 

      Phenolphthalein

    • D. 

      Paradiethylaminobenzaldehyde

  • 70. 
    All of the following will produce a positive Leukocyte Esterase reaction EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Monocytes

    • B. 

      Trichomonas

    • C. 

      Neutrophils

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

  • 71. 
    Leaving a Multistix test strip in contact with urine too long may:
    • A. 

      Cause a positive reaction for all test pads

    • B. 

      Cause a negative reaction for red blood cells

    • C. 

      Result in no change of reaction

    • D. 

      Cause leaching of reagents

  • 72. 
    Multistix may become unreliable if they are
    • A. 

      Not used immediately

    • B. 

      Subjected to cold

    • C. 

      Allowed to absorb moisture

    • D. 

      Not used at room temperature

  • 73. 
    A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of
    • A. 

      10 to the 3rd organisms/ml

    • B. 

      10 to the 4th organisms/ml

    • C. 

      10 to the 5th organisms/ml

    • D. 

      10 to the 6th organisms/ml

  • 74. 
    Which of the following factors is NOT associated with stored urine sediment?
    • A. 

      Loss of amorphous deposits and crystals

    • B. 

      Loss of casts

    • C. 

      Loss of red cells

    • D. 

      Loss of white cells

  • 75. 
    Which of the following is the most common chemical constituent found in renal or bladder stones?
    • A. 

      Calcium oxalate

    • B. 

      Cystine

    • C. 

      Triple phosphate

    • D. 

      Uric acid/urates

  • 76. 
    The recommended centrifugation for preparing the urine sediment is:
    • A. 

      400 RPM for 10 minutes

    • B. 

      1000 RPM for 5 minutes

    • C. 

      400 RCF for 5 minutes

    • D. 

      1000 RCF for 10 minutes

  • 77. 
    Crenation of red cells in the urine denotes that the urine is:
    • A. 

      Hypertonic

    • B. 

      Isotonic

    • C. 

      Hypotonic

  • 78. 
    Casts are precipitates of protein formed mostly in the:
    • A. 

      Bladder

    • B. 

      Loop of henle

    • C. 

      Distal convoluted tubule

    • D. 

      Proximal convoluted tubule

  • 79. 
    If sediment of RBCs obscures the remaining sediment in urine, the precipitate should be removed by adding:
    • A. 

      Dilute sodium hydroxide

    • B. 

      Dilute ammonium hydroxide

    • C. 

      Concentrated nitric acid

    • D. 

      Dilute acetic acid

  • 80. 
    Are uric acid crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?
    • A. 

      Acid

    • B. 

      Alkaline

  • 81. 
    Are phosphate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?
    • A. 

      Acid

    • B. 

      Alkaline

  • 82. 
    Are carbonate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?
    • A. 

      Acid

    • B. 

      Alkaline

  • 83. 
    Are urates found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?
    • A. 

      Acid

    • B. 

      Alkaline

  • 84. 
    Are ammonium biurate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?
    • A. 

      Acid

    • B. 

      Alkaline

  • 85. 
    Are calcium oxalate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?
    • A. 

      Acid

    • B. 

      Alkaline

  • 86. 
    What is the best way to identify formed elements in urine sediment as being yeast?
    • A. 

      Look for buds

    • B. 

      Dissolve with acetic acid

    • C. 

      Lyse with water

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 87. 
    How are fibers distinguished from casts in a microscopic exam of a urine sediment?
    • A. 

      Casts are more refractile than fibers

    • B. 

      Fibers often polarize light

    • C. 

      Casts are much larger than fibers

    • D. 

      The two structures often exist in different planes

  • 88. 
    Cylindroids are urinary structures that resemble:
    • A. 

      Fibers

    • B. 

      Renal cells

    • C. 

      Pus cells

    • D. 

      Cellular casts

    • E. 

      Hyaline casts

  • 89. 
    Macroscopically, amorphous phosphates are usually the following color:
    • A. 

      Yellow

    • B. 

      White

    • C. 

      Pink

    • D. 

      Black

  • 90. 
    All of the following are reported as the quantity per high power field except:
    • A. 

      Casts

    • B. 

      RBCs

    • C. 

      WBCs

    • D. 

      Bacteria

  • 91. 
    Substances found in the urinary sediment that are more easily identified using polarized light are:
    • A. 

      WBCs

    • B. 

      Casts

    • C. 

      Ketone bodies

    • D. 

      Lipids

  • 92. 
    To increase the probability of detecting urine sediment constituents that have a low refractive index, clinical laboratories often use:
    • A. 

      Phase contrast microscopy

    • B. 

      Polarizing microscopy

    • C. 

      Interference-contrast microscopy

    • D. 

      Bright field microscopy

  • 93. 
    Dilute alkaline urine should be examined carefully for the presence of:
    • A. 

      Yeast

    • B. 

      Renal tubular epithelial cells

    • C. 

      Ghost RBCs

    • D. 

      Fatty casts

  • 94. 
    Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Observation of budding in yeast cells

    • B. 

      Increased refractility of oil droplets

    • C. 

      Lysis of yeast cells be acetic acid

    • D. 

      Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

  • 95. 
    Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be ovserved closely for the presence of:
    • A. 

      Hyaline casts

    • B. 

      Granular casts

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Urothelial cells

  • 96. 
    The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in descending order is:
    • A. 

      Squamous, transitional, renal tubular

    • B. 

      Transitional, renal tubular, squamous

    • C. 

      Renal tubular, transitional, squamous

    • D. 

      Squamous, renal tubular, urothelial

  • 97. 
    The organisms attached to a clue cell are:
    • A. 

      Gardenerella vaginalis

    • B. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • C. 

      Escherichia coli

    • D. 

      Candida albicans

  • 98. 
    Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of kidney damage?
    • A. 

      Erthrocytes

    • B. 

      WBCs

    • C. 

      Squamous epithelial cells

    • D. 

      Renal tubular cells

  • 99. 
    The primary factor that favors the formation of casts is:
    • A. 

      Urinary stasis

    • B. 

      High pH

    • C. 

      Positive blood

    • D. 

      Specific gravity

  • 100. 
    Which of the following elements would most likely be found in an acidic concentrated urine that contains protein?
    • A. 

      Ghost RBCs

    • B. 

      Casts

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Triple phosphate crystals

  • 101. 
    The only type of cast capable of polarization is the
    • A. 

      Waxy cast

    • B. 

      Hyaline cast

    • C. 

      Fatty cast

    • D. 

      Granular cast

  • 102. 
    The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of
    • A. 

      Fecal contamination

    • B. 

      Recent strenuous exercise

    • C. 

      Early urinary tract infection

    • D. 

      Analyzing an old specimen

  • 103. 
    The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the
    • A. 

      RBC

    • B. 

      RBC cast

    • C. 

      WBC cast

    • D. 

      Hyaline cast

  • 104. 
    All of the following are associated with severe urinary stasis except:
    • A. 

      Granular casts

    • B. 

      Waxy casts

    • C. 

      WBC casts

    • D. 

      Broad casts

  • 105. 
    Information that aids in the identification of crystals includes all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Urine volume

    • B. 

      Urine pH

    • C. 

      Crystal solubility

    • D. 

      Crystal birefringence

  • 106. 
    Formation of crystals due to medications is most frequently caused by:
    • A. 

      Inadequate hydration

    • B. 

      Incorrect timing of medication doses

    • C. 

      Medication overdoses

    • D. 

      Use of expired antibiotics

  • 107. 
    Which of the following results should be repeated?
    • A. 

      Positive blood and protein

    • B. 

      PH 7.5 with uric acid crystals

    • C. 

      Positive bilirubin and urobilinogen

    • D. 

      PH 8.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals

  • 108. 
    Motility by which of the following is most noticeable during the urine sediment examination?
    • A. 

      Spermatozoa

    • B. 

      Candida albicans

    • C. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • D. 

      Escherichia coli

  • 109. 
    Specimens containing mucus may be erroneously reported as containing:
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Yeast

    • C. 

      Hyaline casts

    • D. 

      Oval fat bodies

  • 110. 
    The most common parasite found in the urine is:
    • A. 

      Ascaris lumbriocoides

    • B. 

      Wuchereria bancrofti

    • C. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • D. 

      Nector americanus

  • 111. 
    Which of the following is not characteristic of leukocytes in urine?
    • A. 

      Contain nuclei

    • B. 

      Larger than renal epithelial cells

    • C. 

      Not dissolved by acetic acid

    • D. 

      Larger than erythrocytes

  • 112. 
    Collection of a midstream, clean catch urine specimen will prevent contamination by:
    • A. 

      RBCs

    • B. 

      Renal tubular epithelial cells

    • C. 

      Squamous epithelial cells

    • D. 

      WBC casts

  • 113. 
    Identify the disorder associated with the presence of RBC casts in a urine sediment.
    • A. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • B. 

      Nephritic syndrome

    • C. 

      Pyelonephritis

    • D. 

      Tubular necrosis

  • 114. 
    Identify the disorder associated with the presence of WBC casts in a urine sediment
    • A. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • B. 

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • C. 

      Pyelonephritis

    • D. 

      Tubular necrosis

  • 115. 
    Identify the disorder associated with the presence of oval fat bodies in a urine sediment
    • A. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • B. 

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • C. 

      Pyelonephritis

    • D. 

      Tubular necrosis

  • 116. 
    Identify the disorder associated with the presence of renal tubular epithelial cells in a urine sediment
    • A. 

      Glomerulonephritis

    • B. 

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • C. 

      Pyelonephritis

    • D. 

      Tubular necrosis

  • 117. 
    What causes phenylketonuria?
    • A. 

      Absence of tyrosine

    • B. 

      Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase

    • C. 

      Absence of homogentistic acid

    • D. 

      Absence of beta hydroxylbutyric acid

  • 118. 
    The abnormal metabolite that is present in the urine in alkaptonuria is:
    • A. 

      Homogentisic acid

    • B. 

      Alkaptonpyruvate

    • C. 

      Phenylpyruvate

    • D. 

      Tyrosine

  • 119. 
    The presence of maple syrup urine disease is first suspected by the presence of abnormal urine:
    • A. 

      Color

    • B. 

      Protein

    • C. 

      Odor

    • D. 

      Amino acids

  • 120. 
    Under normal conditions, tryptophan that is not reabsorbed in the intestine is removed from the body as:
    • A. 

      Indican in the urine

    • B. 

      Indole in the liver

    • C. 

      Indole in the feces

    • D. 

      Serotonin in the urine

  • 121. 
    Porphyrins are intermediary compounds in the formation of:
    • A. 

      Amino acids

    • B. 

      Serotonin

    • C. 

      Heme

    • D. 

      Bilirubin

  • 122. 
    Characteristic urine odors are associated with all of the following diseases except:
    • A. 

      Alkaptonuria

    • B. 

      PKU

    • C. 

      Maple syrup urine disease

    • D. 

      Isovaleric acidemia

  • 123. 
    Persons diagnosed with PKU should avoid food containing
    • A. 

      Aspartame

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Lactose

    • D. 

      Isoleucine

  • 124. 
    The presence of which of the following crystals is associated with the nephrotic syndrome?
    • A. 

      Cholesterol

    • B. 

      Tyrosine

    • C. 

      Cystine

    • D. 

      Ampicillin

  • 125. 
    The presence of heavy proteinuria is most characteristic of
    • A. 

      Acute glomerulonephritis

    • B. 

      Actue interstitial nephritis

    • C. 

      Pyelonephritis

    • D. 

      Nephrotic syndrome

  • 126. 
    Infection of the bladder is termed
    • A. 

      Pyelitis

    • B. 

      Nephritis

    • C. 

      Cystitis

    • D. 

      Bacteriuria

  • 127. 
    Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by:
    • A. 

      Performing a cystoscopy

    • B. 

      The presence of WBC casts

    • C. 

      Performing blood cultures

    • D. 

      The presence of bacteriuria

  • 128. 
    All of the follownig may be helpful in preventing the formation of renal calculi except:
    • A. 

      Increased hydration

    • B. 

      Increased exercise

    • C. 

      Dietary restrictions

    • D. 

      Adjustment of urine pH

  • 129. 
    Clearance tests used to deterine the glomerular filtration rate must measure substances that are:
    • A. 

      Not filtered by the glomerulus

    • B. 

      Completely reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule

    • C. 

      Secreted in the distal convoluted tubule

    • D. 

      Neither reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules

  • 130. 
    Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from the following data. Urine volume: 720 mL for 12 hours Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
    • A. 

      40 ml/min

    • B. 

      80 ml/min

    • C. 

      0.0125 ml/min

    • D. 

      100 ml/min

  • 131. 
    Measurement of urine osmolarity is a more accurate measure of renal concentrating ability than specific gravity because:
    • A. 

      Osmolarity is measured by instrumentation

    • B. 

      Specific gravity is not influenced by urea and glucose molecules

    • C. 

      Osmolarity is influenced equally by small and large molecules

    • D. 

      Specific gravity measures only urea and glucose molecules

  • 132. 
    The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by measuring
    • A. 

      Serum creatinine

    • B. 

      Urine creatinine

    • C. 

      Serum osmolarity

    • D. 

      Urine and serum osmolarity

  • 133. 
    The funcitions of the cerebrospinal fluid include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Nutritional enrichment of nervous tissue

    • B. 

      Transmission of neurologic impulses

    • C. 

      Removal of metabolic waste products

    • D. 

      Protection of neurologic tissue from trauma

  • 134. 
    The CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the:
    • A. 

      Arachnoid mater

    • B. 

      Choroid plexuses

    • C. 

      Dura mater

    • D. 

      Subarachnoid space

  • 135. 
    Three tubes of CSF labeled #1, #2 and #3 are received in the laboratory. They should be distributed as follows:
    • A. 

      Hematology #1, chemistry #2, and microbiology #3

    • B. 

      Hematology #2, chemistry #3, and microbiology #1

    • C. 

      Hematology #3, chemistry #1, and microbilogy #2

    • D. 

      Hematology #1, chemistry #3, and microbiology #2

  • 136. 
    Differential counts on CSF are performed on:
    • A. 

      Cells as they are counted in the hemocytometer

    • B. 

      Coverslipped wet preparations

    • C. 

      Stained smears prepared from the undiluted specimen

    • D. 

      Stained smears prepared from a concentrated specimen

  • 137. 
    To determine the WBC count on a cloudy CSF specimen that contains both RBCs and WBCs, it is necessary to:
    • A. 

      Dilute the specimen using glacial acetic acid

    • B. 

      Dilute the specimen using saline

    • C. 

      Determine the percentage of polynuclear and mononuclear cells in the counting chamber

    • D. 

      Centrifuge the specimen before diluting with saline and gentian violet

  • 138. 
    A slightly hazy CSF specimen is diluted 1:10 with acetic acid. Fifty cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the Neubauer counting chamber. The count is reported as:
    • A. 

      50 cells/L

    • B. 

      55 WBCs/L

    • C. 

      250 cells/L

    • D. 

      500 WBCs/L

  • 139. 
    A CSF specimen in which there is uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and clots are detected is an indication of:
    • A. 

      Menigitis

    • B. 

      Cerebral hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Multiple sclerosis

    • D. 

      Traumatic tap

  • 140. 
    The normal CSF protein is:
    • A. 

      15 to 45 mg/dL

    • B. 

      15 to 45 g/dL

    • C. 

      50 to 100 mg/dL

    • D. 

      50 to 100 g/dL

  • 141. 
    Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with:
    • A. 

      Cerebral hemorrhage

    • B. 

      Multiple sclerosis

    • C. 

      Bacterial meningitis

    • D. 

      Neurosyphilis

  • 142. 
    CSF electrophoresis to confirm the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis would be expected to show:
    • A. 

      Increased IgG with oligoclonal bands not seen on serum electrophoresis

    • B. 

      Increased IgG with oligoclonal bands similar to those seen on serum electrophoresis

    • C. 

      Decreased IgG with antibody-apecific oligoclonal bands

    • D. 

      Decreased IgG with oligoclonal bands resembling those seen on serum electrophoresis

  • 143. 
    The IgG index is a comparison between the:
    • A. 

      CSF IgG and serum IgG

    • B. 

      CSF albumin index and serum IgG

    • C. 

      CSF/serum albumin index and CSF/serum IgG index

    • D. 

      Serum albumin and CSF/serum IgG index

  • 144. 
    Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed:
    • A. 

      Within 1 week

    • B. 

      1 month postvasectomy

    • C. 

      Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm

    • D. 

      Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no viable sperm

  • 145. 
    Abnormal sperm morphology is determined by:
    • A. 

      Head and tail morphology and size

    • B. 

      Head size and shape

    • C. 

      Tail presence and appearance

    • D. 

      Staining reactions

  • 146. 
    Crystals found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are:
    • A. 

      Monosodium urate

    • B. 

      Calcium pyrophosphate

    • C. 

      Cholesterol

    • D. 

      Apatite

  • 147. 
    Synovial fluid is produced by:
    • A. 

      Selective filtration of plasma

    • B. 

      Ultrafiltration of plasma

    • C. 

      Metabolic waste products from synoviocytes

    • D. 

      Reabsorption of interstitial fluid

  • 148. 
    The primary cells seen in normal synovial fluid include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Macrophages

    • B. 

      Neutrophils

    • C. 

      Monocytes

    • D. 

      Synovial tissue cells

  • 149. 
    A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with 100,000 WBCs, a predominance of neutrophils, and a decreased glucose would be classified as:
    • A. 

      Noninflammatory

    • B. 

      Inflammatory

    • C. 

      Septic

    • D. 

      Crystal-induced

  • 150. 
    The most frequently performed tests on synovial fluid include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Gram stain

    • B. 

      WBC count

    • C. 

      Uric acid

    • D. 

      Differential

  • 151. 
    Examination of synovial fluid under direct polarized light reveals intracellular needle-shaped crystals that appear white against the black background. When a red compensator is added and the crystals are aligned with the slow vibration, they appear yellow against the red background. These crystals are:
    • A. 

      Monosodium urate showing positive birefringence

    • B. 

      Monosodium urate showing negative birefringence

    • C. 

      Calcium pyrophosphate showing positive birefringence

    • D. 

      Calcium pryrophosphate showing negative birefringence

  • 152. 
    All of the following diseases are frequently associated with joint disorders except:
    • A. 

      Lyme disease

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis

    • C. 

      Lupus erythematosus

    • D. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

  • 153. 
    The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is termed a(an):
    • A. 

      Transudate

    • B. 

      Abscess

    • C. 

      Exudate

    • D. 

      Effusion

  • 154. 
    Which of the following statements about transudates and exudates is TRUE?
    • A. 

      A transudate is caused by conditions that damage serous membranes

    • B. 

      A transudate has increased numbers of cells

    • C. 

      An exudate is a disruption of fluid production and regulation

    • D. 

      An exudate is frequently cloudy

  • 155. 
    The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily:
    • A. 

      Neutrophils

    • B. 

      Mesothelial cells

    • C. 

      Lymphocytes

    • D. 

      Spindle-shaped cells

  • 156. 
    The function of serous fluid is to:
    • A. 

      Provide nutrients to the serous membranes

    • B. 

      Protect organs from trauma

    • C. 

      Provide lubrication for the serous membranes

    • D. 

      Remove excess fluid from body cavities

  • 157. 
    The primary function of amniotic fluid is to:
    • A. 

      Provide nourishment to the fetus

    • B. 

      Provide protection for the fetus

    • C. 

      Remove waste products from the fetus

    • D. 

      Facilitate oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange

  • 158. 
    The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:
    • A. 

      Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin

    • B. 

      Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein

    • C. 

      Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidylglycerol

    • D. 

      Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase

  • 159. 
    Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by:
    • A. 

      Delaying production of blood cells

    • B. 

      Affecting liver function

    • C. 

      Destroying fetal bone marrow

    • D. 

      Causing anemia

  • 160. 
    The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:
    • A. 

      Undigested foodstuffs

    • B. 

      Urobilin

    • C. 

      Pancreatic enzymes

    • D. 

      Cellulose

  • 161. 
    Stools of a bleeding ulcer (duodenal) patient will appear to be what color?
    • A. 

      Clay

    • B. 

      Light yellow

    • C. 

      Medium brown

    • D. 

      Black

  • 162. 
    "Hidden blood" in feces is termed:
    • A. 

      Remnant blood

    • B. 

      Gross blood

    • C. 

      Occult blood

    • D. 

      Gastric blood

  • 163. 
    Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:
    • A. 

      Barium sulfate

    • B. 

      Mucus

    • C. 

      Blood

    • D. 

      Fat