Urinalysis Study Questions

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1. Match each of the following urinary odors with the word or words which apply to it.
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Urinalysis Study Questions - Quiz

The 'Urinalysis Study Questions' quiz assesses knowledge on renal physiology, focusing on nephrons, kidney functions, and urine formation. It's designed for learners to understand key renal processes and... see moremarkers of kidney health, essential for medical education. see less

2. The first morning specimen of urine is requested often because the:

Explanation

The first morning specimen of urine is requested often because the urine is more concentrated. During the night, the body goes through a period of water conservation, leading to a higher concentration of waste products in the urine. This concentrated urine sample provides a better representation of the body's metabolic processes and can help in the diagnosis of certain conditions or monitoring of treatment effectiveness. Additionally, the higher concentration makes it easier to detect any abnormalities or substances of interest in the urine sample.

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3. The normal color of the urine is mostly due to what pigment?

Explanation

Urochrome is the pigment responsible for the normal color of urine. It is a yellow pigment that is produced when the body breaks down hemoglobin from old red blood cells. Urochrome is excreted by the kidneys and gives urine its characteristic yellow color. Creatinine, uric acid, and bilirubin are not responsible for the normal color of urine. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism, uric acid is a waste product of purine metabolism, and bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced during the breakdown of red blood cells, but their presence in urine is abnormal and may indicate underlying health issues.

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4. A pale colored urine usually indicates that:

Explanation

A pale colored urine usually indicates that the urine is dilute. Dilute urine means that there is a higher concentration of water and a lower concentration of waste products. This can be caused by drinking a lot of fluids or having a well-hydrated body. In contrast, concentrated urine is usually darker in color and indicates that there is a higher concentration of waste products and a lower concentration of water. Therefore, a pale colored urine suggests that the body is well-hydrated and the urine is less concentrated.

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5. The process performed by the glomerulus as a part of urine formation is called

Explanation

The process performed by the glomerulus as a part of urine formation is called filtration. Filtration is the movement of fluid and solutes from the blood in the glomerulus into the Bowman's capsule. This process allows small molecules such as water, ions, and waste products to pass through the filtration membrane, while larger molecules like proteins and blood cells are retained in the blood. Filtration is the first step in urine formation and plays a crucial role in removing waste products from the body.

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6. Dilute urine is usually dark yellow.

Explanation

Dilute urine is usually pale or clear in color, not dark yellow. Dark yellow urine can indicate dehydration or a high concentration of waste products in the urine.

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7. The most common parasite found in the urine is:

Explanation

Trichomonas vaginalis is a parasite that commonly infects the urinary tract and causes a sexually transmitted infection called trichomoniasis. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can be found in both males and females. The parasite can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort during urination. It is important to diagnose and treat trichomoniasis to prevent further complications and reduce the risk of transmission to sexual partners.

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8. Are uric acid crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?

Explanation

Uric acid crystals are found more commonly in acid urine. This is because uric acid is less soluble in acidic conditions, causing it to precipitate and form crystals. In alkaline urine, uric acid is more soluble and tends to stay dissolved, reducing the likelihood of crystal formation. Therefore, acid urine is more conducive to the formation of uric acid crystals.

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9. Each kidney is composed of more than a million complete urinary functional units called

Explanation

Each kidney is composed of more than a million complete urinary functional units called nephrons. Nephrons are microscopic structures responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine. They consist of a glomerulus, which filters the blood, and a tubule, which reabsorbs necessary substances and excretes waste products. The correct answer is nephrons because they are the functional units of the kidneys and play a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid and electrolyte balance.

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10. The preferred method of urine preservation in the laboratory is:

Explanation

Refrigeration is the preferred method of urine preservation in the laboratory because it helps to maintain the integrity of the urine sample. By keeping the urine at a low temperature, bacterial growth and degradation of the sample are minimized. This ensures that accurate and reliable test results can be obtained from the preserved urine sample. Additionally, refrigeration also helps to prevent the formation of crystals or precipitation in the urine, which could interfere with the analysis.

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11. Will pH be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

When a urine sample sits at room temperature for a prolonged period, it undergoes a process called bacterial decomposition. During this process, bacteria in the urine break down urea into ammonia, leading to an increase in the pH level of the sample. Therefore, the pH of the urine sample would be increased as a result of prolonged sitting at room temperature.

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12. Are phosphate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?

Explanation

Phosphate crystals are found more commonly in alkaline urine because the solubility of phosphate salts decreases in alkaline conditions. In alkaline urine, the pH is higher, which promotes the formation of phosphate crystals. On the other hand, in acidic urine, the pH is lower, leading to the dissolution of phosphate crystals. Therefore, alkaline urine is more conducive to the formation and presence of phosphate crystals.

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13. The specific gravity of the urine is the result of the dissolved substances that are present

Explanation

The specific gravity of urine refers to the density of the urine compared to that of water. It indicates the concentration of dissolved substances in the urine, such as salts, proteins, and waste products. Therefore, the statement that the specific gravity of urine is the result of the dissolved substances that are present is true. The more dissolved substances present in the urine, the higher the specific gravity will be.

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14. Will turbidity be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

Turbidity refers to the cloudiness or haziness of a liquid caused by the presence of suspended particles. When a urine sample sits at room temperature for a prolonged period, it allows time for any particles or sediment present in the urine to settle. As a result, the concentration of suspended particles increases, leading to an increase in turbidity. Therefore, the correct answer is increased.

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15. The average amount of urine passed by a normal adult in 24 hours is approximately:

Explanation

The correct answer is 1200-1500 ml. This range represents the average amount of urine passed by a normal adult in 24 hours. It is important to note that individual urine output can vary depending on factors such as fluid intake, activity level, and overall health. However, this range is generally considered to be within the normal range for adults.

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16. "Hidden blood" in feces is termed:

Explanation

Occult blood refers to the presence of blood in the feces that is not visible to the naked eye. It can be detected through laboratory tests, such as a fecal occult blood test (FOBT), which can help identify various medical conditions, including gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, polyps, or colorectal cancer. The term "occult" implies that the blood is hidden or concealed, as it cannot be easily seen during a regular examination of the stool. Therefore, the correct answer is occult blood.

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17. Will nitrite be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

Prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature can lead to an increase in nitrite levels. Nitrite is a byproduct of bacterial metabolism in the urinary tract, and its presence in urine is usually indicative of a urinary tract infection. When a urine sample sits at room temperature for an extended period, any bacteria present in the sample can continue to metabolize and produce more nitrite, resulting in an increase in its levels. Therefore, the correct answer is increased.

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18. An increased cystatin C corresponds to a descreased creatinine clearance and to impaired kidney function.

Explanation

An increased cystatin C level indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Cystatin C is a protein that is filtered by the kidneys, and its levels in the blood increase when the kidneys are not able to effectively clear it from the body. This is often seen in individuals with impaired kidney function. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is a measure of how well the kidneys are able to remove waste products from the blood. A decrease in creatinine clearance is also indicative of impaired kidney function. Therefore, an increased cystatin C level corresponds to a decreased creatinine clearance and impaired kidney function.

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19. A urine that is yellowish-brown and, on shaking, produces yellow foam MOST likely contains:

Explanation

A urine that is yellowish-brown and produces yellow foam when shaken is most likely to contain bilirubin. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed from the breakdown of red blood cells in the liver. When present in high levels in the urine, it can cause the urine to have a yellowish-brown color and produce foam when shaken. This can be an indication of liver dysfunction or a problem with the breakdown of red blood cells.

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20. The protein section of the multistix reagent strip is most sensitive to

Explanation

The protein section of the multistix reagent strip is most sensitive to albumin. This means that the strip is designed to detect and measure the presence of albumin in a sample. Albumin is the most abundant protein in the blood and plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure and transporting various substances in the body. Detecting abnormal levels of albumin can indicate kidney damage or dysfunction, as the kidneys are responsible for filtering and reabsorbing albumin. Therefore, the sensitivity of the multistix reagent strip to albumin allows for the early detection of kidney problems.

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21. Are urates found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?

Explanation

Urates are more commonly found in acid urine. This is because uric acid, which is the primary component of urates, tends to precipitate out of solution in alkaline conditions. In acidic urine, uric acid remains soluble and does not form crystals. Therefore, the presence of urates in urine is indicative of an acidic pH.

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22. The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:

Explanation

Urobilin is a brown pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down in the liver. It is then excreted in the bile and gives the feces its normal brown color. Undigested foodstuffs, pancreatic enzymes, and cellulose do not contribute to the brown color of feces.

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23. The primary chemical constituents of urine are water,

Explanation

Urine is primarily composed of water along with various dissolved substances. Urea, a waste product of protein metabolism, is one of the main chemical constituents of urine. It is produced in the liver and excreted through the kidneys. Chloride is an electrolyte that helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body and is also excreted in urine. Therefore, urea and chloride are the correct primary chemical constituents of urine.

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24. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the continuous excretion of dilute urine.

Explanation

Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by the inability of the kidneys to properly regulate the balance of water in the body. This leads to the continuous excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, resulting in increased thirst and dehydration. Therefore, the statement that diabetes insipidus is characterized by the continuous excretion of dilute urine is true.

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25. Abnormal sperm morphology is determined by:

Explanation

Abnormal sperm morphology refers to abnormalities in the shape and size of the sperm's head and tail. This means that the head and tail of the sperm may have irregularities in their morphology, such as being misshapen or having an abnormal size. These abnormalities can be determined through various methods, including microscopic examination and staining reactions. By assessing the head and tail morphology and size, one can identify and classify abnormalities in sperm morphology.

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26. Match the following hormones and functions.
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27. Upon standing, normal urine becomes alkaline chiefly due to:

Explanation

When urine is initially produced, it is slightly acidic. However, upon standing, the urea present in urine can be broken down by bacteria into ammonia. This bacterial action on urea leads to an increase in the pH of urine, making it alkaline. Therefore, the correct answer is bacterial action on urea.

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28. In diabetes insipidus the specific gravity of urine is approximately 1.001 - 1.005

Explanation

In diabetes insipidus, the specific gravity of urine is indeed approximately 1.001 - 1.005. Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and the production of large amounts of diluted urine. This occurs due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or an insensitivity of the kidneys to ADH. As a result, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine effectively, leading to a low specific gravity. Therefore, the statement is true.

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29. Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be:

Explanation

A refrigerated urine specimen needs to be returned to room temperature before analysis because cold temperatures can affect the accuracy of certain tests. Some tests require the urine to be at a specific temperature, usually room temperature, to ensure reliable results. By allowing the specimen to warm up to room temperature, any potential changes in the urine's composition due to refrigeration can be minimized, allowing for more accurate analysis.

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30. Will glucose be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

Prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature can lead to bacterial growth and metabolism of glucose in the urine. This results in the consumption of glucose by bacteria, leading to a decrease in the glucose levels in the urine sample. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased.

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31. Collection of a midstream, clean catch urine specimen will prevent contamination by:

Explanation

Collecting a midstream, clean catch urine specimen helps prevent contamination by squamous epithelial cells. Squamous epithelial cells are typically found in the external genitalia and can contaminate the urine sample if not properly collected. By ensuring a midstream, clean catch technique, the sample will have a lower chance of containing these cells, leading to a more accurate analysis of the urine. This is important as the presence of squamous epithelial cells can interfere with the interpretation of other urinary components and may lead to inaccurate test results.

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32. Will bilirubin be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

Prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature can lead to the breakdown of bilirubin. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. It is normally excreted in the urine. However, when a urine sample is left at room temperature for a long time, the activity of enzymes that break down bilirubin increases, causing a decrease in its concentration. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased.

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33. What is the best way to identify formed elements in urine sediment as being yeast?

Explanation

To identify formed elements in urine sediment as being yeast, the best way is to look for buds. Yeast cells typically reproduce by budding, where a small bud or outgrowth appears on the parent cell. By observing the presence of buds, it is possible to confirm the presence of yeast in the urine sediment. Dissolving with acetic acid or lysing with water are not effective methods for specifically identifying yeast cells.

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34. The NORMAL relationship of urine volume and specific gravity is inverse

Explanation

The relationship between urine volume and specific gravity is inverse. This means that as the urine volume increases, the specific gravity decreases, and vice versa. This is because specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in urine, and when there is a larger volume of urine, the concentration of solutes is diluted, resulting in a lower specific gravity. Conversely, when there is a smaller volume of urine, the concentration of solutes is higher, leading to a higher specific gravity. Therefore, the statement is true.

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35. Will cells be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

Prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature can lead to bacterial growth and multiplication, which can cause the breakdown of cells in the urine. This breakdown of cells can result in a decrease in the number of cells present in the urine sample. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased.

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36. Are calcium oxalate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?

Explanation

Calcium oxalate crystals are found more commonly in acid urine. This is because acidic urine provides an environment that promotes the formation and precipitation of calcium oxalate crystals. In alkaline urine, the solubility of calcium oxalate increases, making it less likely for crystals to form. Therefore, the presence of calcium oxalate crystals is typically associated with acid urine.

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37. Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of kidney damage?

Explanation

Renal tubular cells are only indicative of kidney damage because they are the cells that line the tubules of the kidneys. An increase in the number of renal tubular cells in the urine sediment suggests that these cells are being shed from the tubules, which can occur due to injury or damage to the kidneys. This can be a sign of various kidney diseases or conditions, such as tubular necrosis or acute kidney injury. Therefore, the presence of renal tubular cells in increased numbers in the urine sediment is a specific indicator of kidney damage.

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38. Which of the answers below represents the direction of the flow of filtrate through the nephron?

Explanation

The correct answer represents the correct direction of the flow of filtrate through the nephron. The filtrate first enters the glomerular space (Bowman's capsule), then moves to the proximal convoluted tubule, followed by the loop of Henle. After that, it passes through the distal convoluted tubule and finally reaches the collecting tubule. This sequence represents the correct flow of filtrate through the nephron in the renal system.

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39. Which urine chemical test is the best single indicator of glomerular damage?

Explanation

Protein is the best single indicator of glomerular damage because the glomerulus, a part of the kidney, normally prevents the filtration of proteins into the urine. When there is damage to the glomerulus, proteins can pass through and appear in the urine. Therefore, the presence of protein in the urine is a strong indication of glomerular damage.

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40. Glycosuria is most frequently observed in a specimen obtained

Explanation

Glycosuria refers to the presence of glucose in the urine, which can be an indication of high blood sugar levels. It is most frequently observed 2 hours after a heavy meal because during this time, the body is actively digesting and absorbing the carbohydrates from the meal, leading to an increase in blood glucose levels. As a result, the kidneys may not be able to reabsorb all the glucose, causing it to be excreted in the urine. The other options, such as upon arising in the morning or 2 hours after retiring for the night, are less likely to result in high blood sugar levels and therefore glycosuria.

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41. Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be ovserved closely for the presence of:

Explanation

Urine sediments containing increased white blood cells (WBCs) should be observed closely for the presence of bacteria. This is because an increased number of WBCs in the urine can indicate an infection in the urinary tract. Bacteria are commonly associated with urinary tract infections, so their presence in the urine sediment should be monitored closely to diagnose and treat the infection appropriately. The other options, such as hyaline casts, granular casts, and urothelial cells, may also be present in the urine sediment but are not specifically related to the presence of bacteria.

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42. The presence of maple syrup urine disease is first suspected by the presence of abnormal urine:

Explanation

Maple syrup urine disease is a metabolic disorder characterized by the inability to break down certain amino acids, resulting in the buildup of harmful substances in the body. One of the key symptoms is the presence of a distinctive sweet odor in the urine, which is caused by the accumulation of specific organic acids. Therefore, the presence of an abnormal odor in the urine can be an early indication of maple syrup urine disease.

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43. Will urobilinogen be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

Prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature can lead to the breakdown of urobilinogen by bacterial action. Urobilinogen is a byproduct of bilirubin metabolism and is normally present in small amounts in urine. However, when the sample is left sitting, bacteria can convert urobilinogen into urobilin, which is a more stable compound. This conversion reduces the levels of urobilinogen in the urine, resulting in a decrease.

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44. The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of

Explanation

The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of recent strenuous exercise. During intense physical activity, there can be increased breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can then be filtered by the kidneys and appear in the urine as granular casts. This finding is transient and should resolve with time. Fecal contamination, early urinary tract infection, and analyzing an old specimen are less likely explanations in an otherwise healthy individual.

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45. Information that aids in the identification of crystals includes all of the following except:

Explanation

The given question is asking about the information that aids in the identification of crystals, and the answer is "urine volume". This means that urine volume does not aid in the identification of crystals. The other options listed, such as urine pH, crystal solubility, and crystal birefringence, are factors that can be used to identify crystals.

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46. Bence Jones proteinuria occurs in

Explanation

Bence Jones proteinuria is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormal proteins called Bence Jones proteins in the urine. These proteins are typically seen in patients with multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce excessive amounts of Bence Jones proteins, which can then be detected in the urine. Therefore, the correct answer is multiple myeloma.

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47. Ehrlich's reagent is:

Explanation

Paradiethylaminobenzaldehyde is the correct answer because Ehrlich's reagent is a color reagent used in the detection of indoles, which are compounds that contain an indole ring structure. Paradiethylaminobenzaldehyde reacts with indoles to produce a deep blue or purple color, allowing for their identification and analysis. Sodium alizarin sulfonate, brilliant cresyl blue, and phenolphthalein are not commonly used as reagents in the detection of indoles.

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48. The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily:

Explanation

The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily mesothelial cells. Mesothelial cells are a type of epithelial cells that form a protective lining called the mesothelium. They are found in the pleural cavities, which surround the lungs, and play a crucial role in lubricating and protecting the lungs during breathing. These cells are flat and thin, allowing for easy movement and reducing friction between the lungs and the chest wall. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, and spindle-shaped cells are not the primary cells found in the pleural cavities.

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49. A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

Explanation

A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the given reasons except for the container using a screw-top lid. The other reasons mentioned, such as nonmatching label and requisition form, specimen contaminated with feces, and contamination on the exterior of the container, are valid reasons for rejection as they can affect the accuracy and reliability of the test results. However, the type of lid used on the container does not impact the quality of the specimen itself, so it would not be a reason for rejection.

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50. Are ammonium biurate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?

Explanation

Ammonium biurate crystals are more commonly found in alkaline urine. This is because ammonium biurate is a compound that forms when there is an excess of ammonia in the urine, which typically occurs in alkaline conditions. In acidic urine, the solubility of ammonium biurate decreases, leading to the formation of other types of crystals. Therefore, alkaline urine is more favorable for the formation of ammonium biurate crystals.

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51. The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding within the nephron is the

Explanation

The presence of RBC casts in the urinary sediment indicates bleeding within the nephron. RBC casts are formed when red blood cells aggregate and become trapped in the renal tubules. This suggests that there is active bleeding within the kidney, as the red blood cells are being filtered out of the blood and into the urine. The other options, such as RBCs alone, WBC casts, and hyaline casts, may also be present in various kidney conditions, but RBC casts specifically indicate bleeding within the nephron.

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52. Which of the following is not one of the 4 main functions of the kidney?

Explanation

The kidney plays a crucial role in maintaining the acid-base equilibrium, eliminating waste products of metabolism, and getting rid of foreign substances from the body. However, the primary function of the kidney is not to rid the body of excess protein. While the kidney does filter and excrete small amounts of protein, its main function regarding protein is to reabsorb it and prevent its loss in the urine. Therefore, the correct answer is to rid the body of excess protein.

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53. Crenation of red cells in the urine denotes that the urine is:

Explanation

Crenation of red cells in the urine indicates that the urine is hypertonic. This means that the concentration of solutes in the urine is higher than that of the red blood cells. In a hypertonic solution, water tends to move out of the cells, causing them to shrink and develop a crenated or wrinkled appearance. Therefore, the presence of crenated red cells suggests that the urine has a higher solute concentration, making it hypertonic.

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54. All of the following diseases are frequently associated with joint disorders except:

Explanation

Tuberculosis is not frequently associated with joint disorders. While tuberculosis can affect the bones and joints, it is not a common manifestation of the disease. Joint involvement in tuberculosis is known as tuberculous arthritis, and it occurs in a small percentage of cases. In contrast, Lyme disease, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are all known to frequently cause joint disorders.

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55. Identify the disorder associated with the presence of WBC casts in a urine sediment

Explanation

Pyelonephritis is the disorder associated with the presence of WBC casts in a urine sediment. Pyelonephritis is a bacterial infection of the kidneys, typically caused by a urinary tract infection that has spread from the bladder. The presence of WBC casts in the urine sediment indicates inflammation and infection in the renal tubules, which is a characteristic feature of pyelonephritis. Glomerulonephritis is associated with the presence of RBC casts, nephrotic syndrome is associated with proteinuria and edema, and tubular necrosis is associated with the presence of renal tubular epithelial cell casts.

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56. Stools of a bleeding ulcer (duodenal) patient will appear to be what color?

Explanation

The stools of a bleeding ulcer (duodenal) patient will appear black. This is because when there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, the blood gets partially digested by stomach acid, resulting in a black, tarry appearance of the stool called melena. This occurs due to the presence of iron in the blood. It is important to note that black stools can also be caused by other conditions such as gastrointestinal bleeding from other sources or the consumption of certain medications or foods.

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57. What causes phenylketonuria?

Explanation

Phenylketonuria is caused by the absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme is responsible for converting the amino acid phenylalanine into another amino acid called tyrosine. Without phenylalanine hydroxylase, phenylalanine builds up in the body and can cause various health problems.

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58. If sediment of RBCs obscures the remaining sediment in urine, the precipitate should be removed by adding:

Explanation

Dilute acetic acid should be added to remove the precipitate of RBCs in urine. Acetic acid is a weak acid that helps to dissolve the sediment and clear the urine. It is commonly used in urine analysis to improve visibility and allow for accurate examination of the remaining sediment. Sodium hydroxide, ammonium hydroxide, and nitric acid are not suitable for this purpose and may cause further complications or interfere with the analysis.

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59. During urine formation which of the following substances is generally not allowed to filter through the glomerular capillaries?

Explanation

During urine formation, plasma proteins are generally not allowed to filter through the glomerular capillaries. This is because the glomerular capillaries have small pores that only allow small molecules like water, ions, and waste products to pass through. Plasma proteins are large molecules that are important for maintaining osmotic pressure and other functions in the blood, so they are usually retained in the bloodstream and not filtered into the urine.

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60. Which of the following substances makes up the majority of total urinary dissolved organic solids?

Explanation

Urea is the correct answer because it is the main component of urinary dissolved organic solids. Urea is a waste product formed in the liver when proteins are broken down. It is then filtered out of the blood by the kidneys and excreted in urine. Protein, creatinine, and sodium are also present in urine, but they do not make up the majority of urinary dissolved organic solids.

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61. Macroscopically, amorphous phosphates are usually the following color:

Explanation

Amorphous phosphates are usually white in color when observed macroscopically. This means that when looking at a larger scale, such as with the naked eye or a microscope, the phosphates appear white. This is a characteristic color for amorphous phosphates and can help in their identification and differentiation from other substances.

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62. A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates:

Explanation

A spotted reaction on the reagent strip for blood indicates hematuria. Hematuria refers to the presence of red blood cells in the urine, which can be caused by various conditions such as urinary tract infections, kidney stones, or bladder cancer. The reagent strip detects the presence of blood by reacting with the heme component of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. Therefore, a positive reaction on the reagent strip indicates the presence of blood in the urine, suggesting hematuria.

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63. Match the following conditions and lab results
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64. Improper storage of the urine and improper use of the microscope in studying the urinary sediment result in errors. Match the improper procedure with the corresponding errors.
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65. Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent is used in the determination of which of the following:

Explanation

Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent is used in the determination of urobilinogen. Urobilinogen is a colorless compound that is formed in the intestines by the reduction of bilirubin. It is then absorbed into the bloodstream and excreted in the urine. Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent reacts with urobilinogen to form a pink to red color, allowing for its detection and measurement. This test is commonly used in the diagnosis of liver diseases and disorders that affect the breakdown and excretion of bilirubin.

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66. Are carbonate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?

Explanation

Carbonate crystals are more commonly found in alkaline urine. This is because alkaline urine has a higher pH, which promotes the formation of certain types of crystals, including carbonate crystals. On the other hand, acid urine, which has a lower pH, is less likely to support the formation of carbonate crystals. Therefore, alkaline urine is the more favorable environment for the presence of carbonate crystals.

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67. All of the following are reported as the quantity per high power field except:

Explanation

Casts are cylindrical structures that are formed in the renal tubules and are typically composed of cellular debris or protein. They are not normally present in the urine, but their presence can indicate various kidney disorders. The other options, RBCs, WBCs, and bacteria, are all commonly reported as the quantity per high power field in a urine analysis, indicating the presence of red blood cells, white blood cells, and bacteria in the urine, respectively.

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68. Which of the following is NOT an organic substance found in the urine?

Explanation

Ammonia is not an organic substance found in urine. Organic substances are compounds that contain carbon atoms bonded to hydrogen atoms. Urea, uric acid, and creatinine are all organic substances that are normally present in urine. Ammonia, on the other hand, is a compound that does not contain carbon-hydrogen bonds and is typically excreted in the form of ammonium ions rather than as ammonia gas in urine.

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69. Which of the following is the most common chemical constituent found in renal or bladder stones?

Explanation

Calcium oxalate is the most common chemical constituent found in renal or bladder stones. Renal or bladder stones are formed when certain substances in the urine, such as calcium and oxalate, become highly concentrated and crystallize. Calcium oxalate stones can form due to various factors, including a diet high in oxalate-rich foods, low fluid intake, and certain medical conditions. These stones can cause symptoms such as severe pain, blood in the urine, and frequent urination. Treatment options may include medication, dietary changes, and in some cases, surgical intervention.

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70. The normal CSF protein is:

Explanation

The normal CSF protein level is measured in milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL). The range of 15 to 45 mg/dL is considered normal. This means that the concentration of protein in the cerebrospinal fluid falls within this range in a healthy individual. Protein levels outside of this range may indicate certain medical conditions or abnormalities in the central nervous system.

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71. Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activites should be performed on a:

Explanation

Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on a 24-hour specimen. This is because a 24-hour specimen provides a more comprehensive and accurate representation of the substance's levels throughout the entire day, capturing any fluctuations that may occur due to daily activities. Other specimens, such as random or first morning specimens, may only capture a snapshot of the substance's levels at a specific time, which may not be representative of its overall variation. A 2-hour postprandial specimen, on the other hand, is specifically used to measure the substance's levels after a meal and may not provide a complete picture of its daily variation.

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72. Will ketones be increased or decreased as a reault of prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature?

Explanation

Ketones are unstable compounds that can degrade over time, especially when exposed to room temperature. Prolonged sitting of a urine sample at room temperature can lead to the breakdown of ketones, resulting in a decrease in their concentration. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased.

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73. Crystals found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are:

Explanation

During attacks of gout, crystals found in synovial fluid are monosodium urate. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the blood, leading to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. These crystals can cause severe pain, inflammation, and swelling. Therefore, the presence of monosodium urate crystals in synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis of gout. Calcium pyrophosphate crystals, cholesterol, and apatite are not typically associated with gout.

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74. Porphyrins are intermediary compounds in the formation of:

Explanation

Porphyrins are intermediary compounds in the formation of heme. Heme is an important molecule involved in various biological processes, including oxygen transport and energy production. Porphyrins are synthesized in the body and undergo a series of chemical reactions to eventually form heme. Heme is then incorporated into proteins such as hemoglobin and myoglobin, which are crucial for the transport and storage of oxygen in the body. Therefore, heme is the correct answer as it represents the final product of the formation of porphyrins.

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75. Which of the following is not characteristic of leukocytes in urine?

Explanation

Leukocytes in urine are typically larger than renal epithelial cells, contain nuclei, and are not dissolved by acetic acid. Therefore, the characteristic that is not associated with leukocytes in urine is being larger than erythrocytes.

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76. The total renal blood flow is approximately:

Explanation

The correct answer is 1200 mL/min. This is because the kidneys receive a large amount of blood flow in order to filter waste products and maintain fluid balance in the body. The kidneys receive about 20% of the total cardiac output, which is approximately 6000 mL/min. Therefore, the total renal blood flow is estimated to be around 1200 mL/min.

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77. Multistix may become unreliable if they are

Explanation

Multistix may become unreliable if they are allowed to absorb moisture. This is because the presence of moisture can cause the reagents on the Multistix to degrade or react prematurely, leading to inaccurate results. It is important to store Multistix in a dry environment and use them promptly to ensure their reliability.

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78. An ADH deficiency is associated with urine with a:

Explanation

An ADH deficiency impairs the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine, resulting in the excretion of a larger volume of more dilute urine. This leads to a low specific gravity, as the urine is less concentrated and contains a higher proportion of water.

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79. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be:

Explanation

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should be asked to collect a new specimen. This is because a pH of 9.0 is highly alkaline and outside the normal range for urine pH, which is typically between 4.6 and 8.0. It is possible that there was an error in the collection or testing process, leading to an inaccurate result. Collecting a new specimen will help ensure a more accurate assessment of the patient's urinary pH.

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80. Leaving a Multistix test strip in contact with urine too long may:

Explanation

Leaving a Multistix test strip in contact with urine for too long can cause leaching of reagents. This means that the chemical substances in the test strip, which are responsible for producing a reaction and indicating the presence or absence of certain substances in the urine, may dissolve and spread into the surrounding urine. As a result, the accuracy and reliability of the test may be compromised, leading to incorrect or inconclusive results.

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81. In which part of the kidney does concentration of urine mostly take place?

Explanation

The concentration of urine mostly takes place in the distal convoluted tubules and the collecting duct of the kidney. These structures are responsible for reabsorbing water and solutes from the filtrate, thereby concentrating the urine. The loop of Henle is primarily involved in establishing a concentration gradient, while the glomeruli and Bowman's capsules are responsible for the initial filtration of blood. The proximal convoluted tubules also play a role in reabsorption, but not as significant as the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct in concentrating urine.

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82. Formation of crystals due to medications is most frequently caused by:

Explanation

Inadequate hydration can lead to the formation of crystals due to medications. When the body is not properly hydrated, the concentration of the medication in the urine increases, making it more likely for crystals to form. Adequate hydration helps to dilute the medication and prevent the formation of crystals. Therefore, inadequate hydration is the most common cause of crystal formation in relation to medications.

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83. To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for

Explanation

Diabetic patients are tested for microalbuminuria to detect the presence of early renal disease. Microalbuminuria refers to the presence of small amounts of albumin (a protein) in the urine. This is an important marker for kidney damage in diabetic patients, as it indicates the early stages of diabetic nephropathy. Regular screening for microalbuminuria allows for early detection and intervention to prevent further kidney damage and complications.

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84. The primary factor that favors the formation of casts is:

Explanation

Urinary stasis refers to the condition where urine remains stagnant or does not flow properly. This can occur due to various reasons such as urinary tract obstruction or impaired bladder emptying. Urinary stasis creates an ideal environment for the formation of casts, which are cylindrical structures composed of protein and cellular debris. When urine stagnates, the concentration of these substances increases, leading to their precipitation and subsequent formation of casts. Therefore, urinary stasis is the primary factor that favors the formation of casts.

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85. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is "lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid". This is because acetic acid does not cause lysis or destruction of yeast cells. Lysis refers to the breaking down or disintegration of cells, which can be caused by various factors such as chemicals or enzymes. However, yeast cells are not affected by acetic acid in this way. Therefore, using acetic acid to induce lysis would not be an effective method for differentiating among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets.

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86. Ketone bodies occur when there is

Explanation

Ketone bodies occur when there is an abnormal oxidation of fatty acids. During this process, fatty acids are broken down to produce energy, and ketone bodies are formed as byproducts. This can happen when the body is not able to effectively use glucose for energy, such as in conditions like diabetes or during prolonged fasting. The presence of ketone bodies in the blood can indicate a state of ketosis, which can have various implications for health and metabolism.

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87. Infection of the bladder is termed

Explanation

Cystitis is the correct answer because it refers to the infection of the bladder. The term "cyst" in cystitis refers to the bladder, and the suffix "-itis" indicates inflammation or infection. Pyelitis refers to the infection of the renal pelvis, nephritis refers to the inflammation of the kidneys, and bacteriuria refers to the presence of bacteria in the urine.

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88. Measurement of urine osmolarity is a more accurate measure of renal concentrating ability than specific gravity because:

Explanation

Osmolarity is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, regardless of their size or type. It takes into account all solute molecules, both small and large, and provides a more comprehensive assessment of the renal concentrating ability. Specific gravity, on the other hand, is influenced by the presence of certain solute molecules such as urea and glucose, but it does not consider the concentration of other solute particles. Therefore, osmolarity is a more accurate measure of renal concentrating ability as it considers all solute particles equally.

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89. The most probably cause of a white precipitate that is macroscopically visible in urine is:

Explanation

The most probable cause of a white precipitate that is macroscopically visible in urine is amorphous phosphates. Amorphous phosphates are a type of crystal that can form in urine when there is an excess of phosphate ions. This can occur due to a variety of reasons, such as a high protein diet or urinary tract infections. When these crystals precipitate out of the urine, they can appear as a white sediment. Lipids and radiographic contrast media are not typically present in urine in sufficient quantities to cause visible precipitates, and amorphous urates would appear as a reddish-brown sediment rather than white.

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90. The principle site of urea formation is the:

Explanation

The liver is the correct answer because it is the main organ responsible for urea formation. Urea is a waste product that is formed in the liver during the breakdown of proteins. The liver plays a crucial role in metabolism and detoxification, and one of its functions is to convert ammonia, a toxic byproduct of protein metabolism, into urea. Urea is then transported to the kidneys for excretion in the urine. The spleen, kidney, and bladder do not have a significant role in urea formation.

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91. Identify the disorder associated with the presence of RBC casts in a urine sediment.

Explanation

The presence of RBC casts in a urine sediment is indicative of glomerulonephritis. Glomerulonephritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, which are the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys responsible for filtering waste and excess fluid from the blood. This inflammation can cause damage to the glomeruli, leading to the presence of RBC casts in the urine. Other symptoms of glomerulonephritis may include blood in the urine, proteinuria, high blood pressure, and decreased urine output.

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92. Which of the following will be LEAST affected in an unpreserved specimen left at room temperature overnight?

Explanation

Protein is the correct answer because it is the most stable out of the options listed. When a specimen is left at room temperature overnight, bilirubin and urobilinogen can degrade, leading to changes in their levels. RBCs can also lyse and break down, causing changes in their appearance and count. However, proteins are generally more resistant to degradation and can remain relatively stable even when left unpreserved for a short period of time.

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93. The specific gravity of the urine is determined by its composition. One percent concentration of urinary protein would increase the specific gravity by what figure?

Explanation

A 1% concentration of urinary protein would increase the specific gravity of urine by 0.003. This means that for every 1% increase in the concentration of urinary protein, the specific gravity of urine would increase by 0.003.

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94. Bence Jones protein differs from other urinary protein by its

Explanation

Bence Jones protein is a type of protein that is found in the urine of individuals with multiple myeloma, a type of cancer. It is characterized by its unique property of being soluble at boiling temperature. Unlike other urinary proteins, Bence Jones protein remains dissolved in urine even when heated, which allows for its detection through laboratory tests. This solubility at boiling temperature is a distinguishing feature of Bence Jones protein and helps in its identification and diagnosis.

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95. Crenated RBCs would MOST likely be found in a urine with a specific gravity of

Explanation

Crenated RBCs are red blood cells that have shriveled and developed abnormal, spiky shapes due to dehydration or exposure to hypertonic solutions. A specific gravity of 1.038 indicates a highly concentrated urine, which means there is a higher concentration of solutes in the urine compared to pure water. This concentration can cause dehydration and lead to the crenation of red blood cells. Therefore, crenated RBCs are most likely to be found in a urine sample with a specific gravity of 1.038.

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96. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with stored urine sediment?

Explanation

Stored urine sediment is typically associated with the presence of various components such as casts, red cells, and white cells. However, amorphous deposits and crystals are not typically found in stored urine sediment. These substances are more commonly observed in freshly collected urine samples due to their solubility and tendency to dissolve over time. Therefore, the absence or loss of amorphous deposits and crystals in stored urine sediment is expected.

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97. Motility by which of the following is most noticeable during the urine sediment examination?

Explanation

Trichomonas vaginalis is a parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. During a urine sediment examination, the motility of Trichomonas vaginalis would be most noticeable. This is because Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated organism, meaning it has whip-like structures called flagella that allow it to move. The movement of Trichomonas vaginalis can be easily observed under a microscope, making it the most noticeable motility during a urine sediment examination.

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98. Casts are precipitates of protein formed mostly in the:

Explanation

Casts are precipitates of protein that are formed mostly in the distal convoluted tubule. This part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing water and electrolytes from the filtrate, and any excess proteins that are not reabsorbed can form casts in this region. Casts can indicate various kidney diseases or conditions, such as glomerulonephritis or tubular damage. Therefore, the presence of casts in the urine can be a sign of underlying kidney problems.

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99. Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from the following data. Urine volume: 720 mL for 12 hours Urine creatinine: 120 mg/dL Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL

Explanation

The creatinine clearance is calculated by dividing the urine creatinine concentration by the serum creatinine concentration and multiplying by the urine volume over time. In this case, the urine creatinine concentration is 120 mg/dL, the serum creatinine concentration is 1.5 mg/dL, and the urine volume is 720 mL for 12 hours (which is equivalent to 60 mL/hour).

Creatinine clearance = (Urine creatinine concentration / Serum creatinine concentration) x Urine volume over time
Creatinine clearance = (120 mg/dL / 1.5 mg/dL) x 60 mL/hour
Creatinine clearance = 80 ml/min

Therefore, the correct answer is 80 ml/min.

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100. Dilute alkaline urine should be examined carefully for the presence of:

Explanation

Ghost RBCs are red blood cells that have lost their hemoglobin content, leaving behind a pale, transparent appearance. Dilute alkaline urine can cause the hemoglobin to be washed out of the RBCs, resulting in the formation of ghost RBCs. Therefore, when examining dilute alkaline urine, it is important to carefully look for the presence of ghost RBCs.

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101. The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:

Explanation

Increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (MSAFP) is a marker for fetal neural tube disorders such as spina bifida and anencephaly. MSAFP is a protein produced by the fetus and normally found in the amniotic fluid and maternal serum. However, when there is a defect in the neural tube, such as an incomplete closure, MSAFP leaks into the amniotic fluid and then into the maternal bloodstream. Therefore, an increased level of MSAFP in the maternal serum suggests the presence of a fetal neural tube disorder.

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102. Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:

Explanation

Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of fat. Steatorrhea is a condition characterized by the presence of excessive fat in the stool, indicating malabsorption of dietary fats. This can be caused by various factors such as pancreatic insufficiency, celiac disease, or liver disease. The excess fat in the stool gives it a greasy appearance and is often accompanied by foul-smelling stools and weight loss.

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103. Which of the following results should be repeated?

Explanation

The result that should be repeated is pH 7.5 with uric acid crystals. This is because an abnormal pH level combined with the presence of uric acid crystals may indicate a potential kidney or urinary tract issue. Repeating the test can help confirm the accuracy of the initial result and provide further information for diagnosis and treatment.

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104. A CSF specimen in which there is uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and clots are detected is an indication of:

Explanation

The uneven distribution of blood among the three tubes and the presence of clots in a CSF specimen indicate a traumatic tap. A traumatic tap occurs when there is an accidental injury to a blood vessel during the collection of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to blood mixing with the CSF, resulting in an uneven distribution and the formation of clots. Other conditions like meningitis, cerebral hemorrhage, and multiple sclerosis may have different indications in a CSF specimen, making traumatic tap the most likely explanation based on the given information.

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105. The organisms attached to a clue cell are:

Explanation

Gardenerella vaginalis is the correct answer because it is a bacterium commonly associated with bacterial vaginosis, a condition characterized by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina. Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells that are covered with bacteria, and the presence of Gardenerella vaginalis on these cells is indicative of bacterial vaginosis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, not bacterial vaginosis. Escherichia coli is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is not typically associated with clue cells. Candida albicans is a yeast that can cause vaginal yeast infections, but it is not typically associated with clue cells or bacterial vaginosis.

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106. The only type of cast capable of polarization is the

Explanation

Fatty casts are the only type of cast capable of polarization. Polarization is a technique used to identify the presence of certain substances in a sample. Fatty casts are formed when there is lipid accumulation in the renal tubules, which can be seen under polarized light due to their birefringent properties. Hyaline casts are composed of protein and do not polarize. Waxy casts are formed in the presence of severe renal disease and do not polarize either. Granular casts are made up of cellular debris and do not exhibit polarization. Therefore, the correct answer is fatty cast.

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107. The function of serous fluid is to:

Explanation

The serous fluid serves as a lubricant for the serous membranes. These membranes line the body cavities and organs, reducing friction between them and allowing for smooth movement. The fluid's lubricating properties enable the organs to glide against each other without causing damage or discomfort. It also helps to prevent friction-related inflammation and irritation within the body cavities.

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108. The primary function of amniotic fluid is to:

Explanation

Amniotic fluid serves as a protective cushion for the fetus, shielding it from external pressure and impact. It acts as a shock absorber, preventing any potential harm to the developing fetus during movement or trauma. Additionally, the fluid helps maintain a stable temperature around the fetus, protecting it from temperature fluctuations. It also serves as a barrier against infections, preventing harmful bacteria or viruses from reaching the fetus. Overall, the primary function of amniotic fluid is to provide protection for the fetus throughout its development.

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109. The solid, undissolved particles in the urine are preserved:

Explanation

Solid, undissolved particles in urine are better preserved in acid urine because acidic conditions help to prevent the breakdown or dissolution of these particles. Acidic urine creates an environment that is less favorable for the degradation or solubility of these particles, allowing them to remain intact and visible. In contrast, neutral or alkaline urine may promote the dissolution or degradation of these particles, making them less visible or causing them to dissolve completely. Therefore, acid urine is more effective in preserving the solid particles in urine.

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110. Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with:

Explanation

Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with multiple sclerosis. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, causing inflammation and damage to the myelin sheath, which is the protective covering of nerve fibers. Measurement of myelin basic protein levels in the CSF can help in diagnosing and monitoring the progression of multiple sclerosis, as elevated levels indicate ongoing damage to the myelin sheath. This test is not specific to other conditions such as cerebral hemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, or neurosyphilis.

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111. During the flow of filtrate through the tubules, which of the following substances is not absorbed in significant amounts?

Explanation

Creatinine is not absorbed in significant amounts during the flow of filtrate through the tubules.

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112. Three tubes of CSF labeled #1, #2 and #3 are received in the laboratory. They should be distributed as follows:

Explanation

The correct answer is hematology #3, chemistry #1, and microbiology #2 because according to the given distribution, tube #3 should be assigned to hematology, tube #1 should be assigned to chemistry, and tube #2 should be assigned to microbiology.

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113. Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by:

Explanation

The presence of WBC casts is a key differentiating factor between cystitis and pyelonephritis. WBC casts are indicative of inflammation in the kidneys, which is a characteristic of pyelonephritis. In cystitis, the inflammation is limited to the bladder and does not typically involve the kidneys. Therefore, the presence of WBC casts suggests pyelonephritis rather than cystitis. The other options, such as performing a cystoscopy, performing blood cultures, and the presence of bacteriuria, may be helpful in diagnosing urinary tract infections but are not specific to differentiating between cystitis and pyelonephritis.

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114. The CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the:

Explanation

The CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the subarachnoid space. The subarachnoid space is a narrow space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, two of the protective layers surrounding the brain and spinal cord. This space is filled with CSF, which acts as a cushion, providing support and protection to the brain and spinal cord. It also helps to remove waste products and deliver nutrients to the nervous tissue.

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115. Substances found in the urinary sediment that are more easily identified using polarized light are:

Explanation

Lipids are substances that are more easily identified using polarized light in the urinary sediment. When polarized light is passed through a sample containing lipids, it causes the lipids to exhibit characteristic birefringence, which allows for their identification. On the other hand, WBCs, casts, and ketone bodies do not exhibit this birefringence and cannot be easily identified using polarized light.

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116. Persons diagnosed with PKU should avoid food containing

Explanation

Persons diagnosed with PKU should avoid food containing aspartame because it contains phenylalanine, an amino acid that individuals with PKU cannot metabolize properly. PKU is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down phenylalanine, leading to a buildup of this amino acid in the blood. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener commonly found in diet sodas, sugar-free gum, and other low-calorie products. Consuming aspartame can increase the levels of phenylalanine in the body, which can be harmful to individuals with PKU. Therefore, it is important for them to avoid foods and beverages that contain aspartame.

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117. A refractormeter reads 1.003 with distilled water. The techologist should:

Explanation

The refractometer reading of 1.003 with distilled water indicates that the instrument is not calibrated correctly. To ensure accurate results, the technologist should adjust the set screw on the refractometer to correct the calibration.

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118. The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in descending order is:

Explanation

The correct answer is renal tubular, transitional, squamous. This order is based on the location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract. The renal tubular epithelial cells are found in the renal tubules, which are part of the kidney. Transitional epithelial cells are found in the transitional epithelium lining the bladder and ureters. Squamous epithelial cells are found in the urethra and the outermost layer of the bladder. Therefore, the correct order is renal tubular, transitional, squamous.

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119. Which of the following could explain how the same specimen could give a positive clinitest result and a negative reagent strip result.

Explanation

The presence of a non-glucose reducing substance could explain how the same specimen could give a positive clinitest result and a negative reagent strip result. This means that even though the clinitest detected the presence of a reducing substance, it is not glucose. The reagent strip, on the other hand, did not detect any glucose in the specimen. Therefore, the presence of a non-glucose reducing substance can explain this discrepancy between the two tests.

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120. Specimens containing mucus may be erroneously reported as containing:

Explanation

When specimens contain mucus, they may be mistakenly reported as containing hyaline casts. This is because both mucus and hyaline casts can appear similar under microscopic examination. Hyaline casts are formed from proteinaceous material and can be found in the urine, while mucus is a gel-like substance produced by various body tissues. Therefore, the presence of mucus in a specimen can lead to a misinterpretation and false identification of hyaline casts.

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121. When testing urine with dipstick methods, the glucose result is normally negative because glucose

Explanation

The correct answer is "is absorbed in the convoluted tubules." When testing urine with dipstick methods, the glucose result is normally negative because glucose is absorbed in the convoluted tubules. The glomerulus filters waste products from the blood, including glucose, but normally reabsorbs it back into the bloodstream through the convoluted tubules. Therefore, in a healthy individual, there should be no glucose present in the urine as it has been reabsorbed.

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122. Cylindroids are urinary structures that resemble:

Explanation

Cylindroids are urinary structures that resemble hyaline casts. Hyaline casts are transparent, colorless cylinders that are composed of protein and are commonly found in the urine. Cylindroids are similar in appearance to hyaline casts but are smaller and more irregular in shape. They can be seen in various kidney disorders, such as glomerulonephritis, and may indicate damage to the renal tubules.

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123. Specimens that contain intact RBCs cal be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because

Explanation

RBCs produce a cloudy specimen because they are larger in size and have a higher refractive index compared to hemoglobin. This causes light to scatter when it passes through the specimen, resulting in a cloudy appearance. On the other hand, hemoglobin, being a pigment, does not scatter light as much and therefore does not produce a cloudy specimen.

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124. The refractive index compares:

Explanation

The refractive index compares the speed of light in air with the speed of light in solutions. The refractive index is a measure of how much the speed of light changes when it passes through a medium, and it is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the medium. Therefore, comparing the speed of light in air with the speed of light in solutions allows us to determine the refractive index of the solution.

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125. To determine the WBC count on a cloudy CSF specimen that contains both RBCs and WBCs, it is necessary to:

Explanation

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126. A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with 100,000 WBCs, a predominance of neutrophils, and a decreased glucose would be classified as:

Explanation

A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with a high number of white blood cells (WBCs), predominantly neutrophils, and decreased glucose levels is indicative of an infection. This suggests that there is a bacterial presence in the synovial fluid, causing an inflammatory response. This classification is known as septic arthritis, which is characterized by joint inflammation due to a bacterial infection.

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127. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is responsible for all of the following except:

Explanation

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is responsible for vasoconstriction of the renal arterioles, reabsorption of sodium, and release of aldosterone. However, it does not play a role in lowering the glomerular blood pressure. In fact, the system is activated in response to low blood pressure or low blood volume in order to increase blood pressure and maintain adequate perfusion to the kidneys.

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128. A urine with a high pH contains a

Explanation

A urine with a high pH indicates that it is more alkaline or basic. This means that there is a low concentration of hydrogen ions in the urine. Hydrogen ions are responsible for making a solution acidic, so a low concentration of hydrogen ions results in a higher pH. Therefore, the correct answer is "low concentration of hydrogen ions."

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129. With biliary duct obstruction, it is common for reagent strip tests to show:

Explanation

In biliary duct obstruction, the bile flow from the liver to the intestines is blocked, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a pigment that is normally excreted in the bile and gives urine its yellow color. Therefore, in the case of biliary duct obstruction, there will be an increased level of bilirubin in the urine, indicated by the presence of "++" in the reagent strip test for bilirubin. On the other hand, urobilinogen is a product of bilirubin breakdown in the intestines. Since the obstruction prevents bilirubin from reaching the intestines, there will be a decreased level of urobilinogen in the urine, indicated by a low value of 0.1 EU.

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130. To increase the probability of detecting urine sediment constituents that have a low refractive index, clinical laboratories often use:

Explanation

Phase contrast microscopy is often used in clinical laboratories to increase the probability of detecting urine sediment constituents that have a low refractive index. This technique enhances the contrast and visibility of transparent and low-contrast objects by converting phase differences into brightness differences. By using phase contrast microscopy, the subtle differences in refractive index between the urine sediment constituents and the surrounding medium can be highlighted, making it easier to detect and analyze them.

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131. Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of

Explanation

Pediatric urine specimens are tested for the presence of glucose, galactose, and lactose using different methods. In this case, the correct answer is "glactose using clinitest." This means that the clinitest method is used to test for the presence of galactose in pediatric urine specimens.

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132. Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by:

Explanation

Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by causing anemia. This condition occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to their destruction. As a result, the fetus experiences a decrease in the number of healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia. Anemia can be dangerous for the fetus as it affects the delivery of oxygen to the body's tissues and organs, potentially leading to complications and developmental issues.

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133. Production of antidiuretic hormone is controlled by the:

Explanation

The production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is controlled by the state of body hydration. ADH is released by the hypothalamus and acts on the kidneys to regulate water reabsorption. When the body is dehydrated, ADH levels increase, causing the kidneys to reabsorb more water and produce concentrated urine. On the other hand, when the body is well-hydrated, ADH levels decrease, leading to increased urine production and dilution. Therefore, the state of body hydration plays a crucial role in regulating ADH production and water balance in the body.

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134. The presence of which of the following crystals is associated with the nephrotic syndrome?

Explanation

The presence of cholesterol crystals is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by high levels of protein in the urine, low levels of protein in the blood, high cholesterol levels, and swelling in the body. Cholesterol can accumulate in the kidneys and form crystals, which can contribute to the development of nephrotic syndrome. These crystals can cause damage to the kidneys and disrupt their normal functioning, leading to the symptoms associated with the syndrome.

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135. The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is termed a(an):

Explanation

Effusion refers to the abnormal buildup of fluid in a body cavity. This can occur due to various reasons such as inflammation, infection, or injury. Unlike an abscess, which is a localized collection of pus, an effusion involves a more generalized accumulation of fluid. Transudate, on the other hand, refers to a specific type of fluid that is formed due to increased pressure within blood vessels. Exudate is a fluid that is rich in proteins and cells and is typically associated with inflammation or infection. Therefore, effusion is the correct term to describe the pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity.

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136. Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with

Explanation

Reagent strip reactions for ketones primarily react with acetoacetic acid. This is because acetoacetic acid is a type of ketone that can be detected using reagent strips. Acetone and beta-hydroxybutyric acid are also ketones, but they may not react as strongly or may not be detected by the specific reagent used in the test. Therefore, the correct answer is acetoacetic acid.

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137. A slightly hazy CSF specimen is diluted 1:10 with acetic acid. Fifty cells are counted in five large squares on both sides of the Neubauer counting chamber. The count is reported as:

Explanation

The counting chamber is used to determine the concentration of cells in a given volume of fluid. In this case, the CSF specimen is diluted with acetic acid to make it easier to count the cells. The counting is done in five large squares on both sides of the chamber, and a total of 50 cells are counted. The count is then reported as the number of cells per liter of fluid. In this case, the count is 500 WBCs/L, indicating that there are 500 white blood cells per liter of the CSF specimen.

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138. Reagent strip results associated with hemolytic disease would correspond with which of the following?

Explanation

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139. How are fibers distinguished from casts in a microscopic exam of a urine sediment?

Explanation

Fibers can be distinguished from casts in a microscopic exam of a urine sediment because fibers often polarize light. This means that when light passes through the fibers, it becomes polarized and exhibits specific patterns. On the other hand, casts do not typically polarize light. This difference in the behavior of light allows for the differentiation between fibers and casts in a urine sediment examination.

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140. Which of the following is not true about the icotest?

Explanation

The icotest is a diagnostic test that measures bilirubin levels. The statement "it is less sensitive than the reagent strip test" is not true because the icotest is actually more sensitive than the reagent strip test. The icotest is designed to detect even low levels of bilirubin, making it a highly sensitive test for diagnosing conditions such as jaundice.

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141. Synovial fluid is produced by:

Explanation

Synovial fluid is produced through the process of ultrafiltration of plasma. Ultrafiltration involves the passage of fluid through a semipermeable membrane, which allows small molecules and ions to pass while retaining larger molecules. In the case of synovial fluid production, plasma is filtered through the synovial membrane, selectively allowing certain components to pass through and form the fluid. This process helps in maintaining the lubrication and nourishment of the joints by providing essential nutrients and removing waste products.

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142. CSF electrophoresis to confirm the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis would be expected to show:

Explanation

CSF electrophoresis is a diagnostic test used to confirm the presence of multiple sclerosis. In multiple sclerosis, there is an immune response in the central nervous system, leading to increased levels of IgG antibodies in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). These increased IgG levels can be detected through electrophoresis. Additionally, oligoclonal bands, which are bands of immunoglobulins, are often seen in the CSF of patients with multiple sclerosis. These bands are not typically seen in serum electrophoresis, which is why the correct answer states that CSF electrophoresis would show increased IgG with oligoclonal bands not seen on serum electrophoresis.

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143. The most frequently performed tests on synovial fluid include all of the following except:

Explanation

The question asks for the test that is not typically performed on synovial fluid. Synovial fluid analysis is commonly used to diagnose joint-related conditions. Gram stain is performed to detect bacterial infection, WBC count is done to assess inflammation, and differential is used to identify different types of cells in the fluid. However, uric acid test is not typically performed on synovial fluid as it is more commonly used to diagnose gout or kidney stones.

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144. All of the following are associated with severe urinary stasis except:

Explanation

WBC casts are not associated with severe urinary stasis. WBC casts are formed when there is inflammation in the kidneys or urinary tract, indicating an infection or inflammation. On the other hand, granular casts, waxy casts, and broad casts are associated with severe urinary stasis. Granular casts are formed when there is degeneration of renal tubular cells, waxy casts indicate chronic renal disease, and broad casts are seen in severe renal disease or chronic renal failure.

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145. Which of the following is true of the estimated glomerular filtration rate test/calculation (eGFR)?

Explanation

The correct answer is that only a blood sample is needed for the eGFR. This test is used to estimate how well the kidneys are functioning by measuring the level of creatinine in the blood. It does not require a urine sample or take into account the patient's race in the calculation.

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146. The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by measuring

Explanation

The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by measuring urine and serum osmolarity. Osmolarity is a measure of the concentration of solutes in a solution. By comparing the osmolarity of urine and serum, we can determine how much the kidney is able to concentrate the filtrate. If the urine osmolarity is higher than the serum osmolarity, it indicates that the kidney is effectively concentrating the filtrate.

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147. A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of

Explanation

A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of 10 to the 4th organisms/ml. This means that there are at least 10,000 organisms per milliliter of the sample. The nitrite test is used to detect the presence of bacteria in urine, specifically those that can convert nitrate to nitrite. The higher the number of organisms/ml, the more likely it is that there is a urinary tract infection. Therefore, a positive nitrite test with a minimum of 10 to the 4th organisms/ml indicates a significant bacterial infection.

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148. Identify the disorder associated with the presence of oval fat bodies in a urine sediment

Explanation

The presence of oval fat bodies in a urine sediment is associated with tubular necrosis. Oval fat bodies are altered renal tubular epithelial cells that contain fat droplets. In tubular necrosis, there is damage to the renal tubules, causing the shedding of these altered cells into the urine. This condition can be caused by various factors such as ischemia, toxins, or certain medications. Glomerulonephritis is a different condition characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidney. Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine. Pyelonephritis is a bacterial infection of the kidneys.

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149. The recommended centrifugation for preparing the urine sediment is:

Explanation

The recommended centrifugation for preparing the urine sediment is 400 RCF for 5 minutes. RCF stands for Relative Centrifugal Force, which is a measure of the force applied to the sample during centrifugation. This specific combination of speed and time is likely to provide optimal separation of the urine sediment, allowing the heavier particles to settle at the bottom of the tube. This centrifugation protocol is commonly used in laboratories to concentrate and collect the sediment for further analysis, such as microscopic examination.

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150. All of the follownig may be helpful in preventing the formation of renal calculi except:

Explanation

Increased exercise may not directly prevent the formation of renal calculi. Renal calculi, also known as kidney stones, are formed when certain substances in the urine crystallize and form solid masses. Increased hydration helps to dilute the urine and prevent the concentration of these substances. Dietary restrictions can also help by avoiding foods high in oxalate or calcium, which are common components of kidney stones. Adjustment of urine pH can be helpful in preventing certain types of stones. However, exercise alone does not have a direct impact on the formation of kidney stones.

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151. The funcitions of the cerebrospinal fluid include all of the following except:

Explanation

The cerebrospinal fluid performs several important functions in the body, including nutritional enrichment of nervous tissue, removal of metabolic waste products, and protection of neurologic tissue from trauma. However, it does not directly participate in the transmission of neurologic impulses. Impulses are transmitted through the neurons themselves, not through the cerebrospinal fluid.

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152. The IgG index is a comparison between the:

Explanation

The IgG index is a comparison between the CSF/serum albumin index and the CSF/serum IgG index. This index is used to assess the integrity of the blood-brain barrier. The CSF/serum albumin index measures the ratio of albumin in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to albumin in the serum, while the CSF/serum IgG index measures the ratio of IgG in the CSF to IgG in the serum. By comparing these two ratios, it helps to determine if there is an abnormal increase in IgG in the CSF, indicating a disruption in the blood-brain barrier.

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153. Orthostatic proteinuria is most frequently ovserved in a specimen obtained

Explanation

Orthostatic proteinuria is a condition where protein is found in the urine only when a person is upright and disappears when they lie down. This condition is most commonly observed at the end of the day. This is because throughout the day, as a person stands and walks, the pressure in the blood vessels of the kidneys increases, causing protein to leak into the urine. However, when the person lies down, the pressure decreases and the proteinuria resolves. Therefore, collecting a specimen at the end of the day is more likely to detect the presence of protein in the urine in cases of orthostatic proteinuria.

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154. Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed:

Explanation

The correct answer is until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm. Semen analysis should be performed on postvasectomy patients until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm to confirm the success of the procedure. This is because it can take several months for all remaining sperm to be cleared from the reproductive system after a vasectomy. Monitoring the sperm count over a period of time ensures that the procedure was effective in preventing pregnancy.

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155. The abnormal metabolite that is present in the urine in alkaptonuria is:

Explanation

In alkaptonuria, the abnormal metabolite present in the urine is homogentisic acid. This condition is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase, which leads to the accumulation of homogentisic acid in the body. Homogentisic acid is then excreted in the urine, causing it to darken and turn black upon exposure to air. This condition is characterized by the darkening of connective tissues, such as cartilage and skin, leading to joint and spine problems, as well as dark spots on the skin.

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156. Under normal conditions, tryptophan that is not reabsorbed in the intestine is removed from the body as:

Explanation

Tryptophan is an essential amino acid that is not reabsorbed in the intestine. Instead, it is converted into indole in the liver. Indole is then excreted in the feces, making it the correct answer. Indican is a derivative of indole that can be found in the urine, but it is not the primary form of excretion for tryptophan. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is derived from tryptophan, but it is not excreted in the urine as a waste product. Therefore, the correct answer is indole in the feces.

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157. Match the following abnormal pigments with the colors they produce in the urine.
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158. All of the following will produce a positive Leukocyte Esterase reaction EXCEPT:

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that are not typically associated with inflammation or infection. Leukocyte esterase is an enzyme found in white blood cells, and a positive reaction indicates the presence of white blood cells in the urine, suggesting an infection or inflammation. Since lymphocytes are not typically involved in these processes, they would not produce a positive leukocyte esterase reaction.

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159. Characteristic urine odors are associated with all of the following diseases except:

Explanation

Alkaptonuria is a metabolic disorder that causes urine to turn dark when exposed to air, resulting in a strong odor. PKU, maple syrup urine disease, and isovaleric acidemia are also metabolic disorders that can cause distinct odors in urine. Therefore, the correct answer is alkaptonuria, as it is not associated with a characteristic urine odor.

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160. Identify the disorder associated with the presence of renal tubular epithelial cells in a urine sediment

Explanation

Tubular necrosis is the disorder associated with the presence of renal tubular epithelial cells in a urine sediment. This condition occurs when the tubular cells in the kidneys die or become damaged, leading to the release of these cells into the urine. Tubular necrosis can be caused by various factors such as ischemia, toxins, or certain medications. It is often characterized by acute kidney injury and can result in impaired kidney function.

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161. Which of the following statements about transudates and exudates is TRUE?

Explanation

An exudate is frequently cloudy because it contains a higher concentration of proteins, cells, and debris compared to a transudate. This increased cellular and protein content causes the exudate to appear turbid or cloudy.

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162. Clearance tests used to deterine the glomerular filtration rate must measure substances that are:

Explanation

Clearance tests are used to determine the glomerular filtration rate, which is a measure of how well the kidneys are functioning. In order to accurately measure this rate, the substances used in the test must not be filtered by the glomerulus, as this would affect the accuracy of the measurement. Additionally, the substances must not be completely reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule or secreted in the distal convoluted tubule, as this would also affect the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, the substances used in clearance tests must be neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules in order to provide an accurate measurement of the glomerular filtration rate.

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163. The primary cells seen in normal synovial fluid include all of the following except:

Explanation

The primary cells seen in normal synovial fluid include macrophages, monocytes, and synovial tissue cells. Neutrophils are not typically present in normal synovial fluid. Neutrophils are usually associated with inflammation and infection, so their absence in normal synovial fluid suggests that there is no active inflammation or infection present.

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164. Examination of synovial fluid under direct polarized light reveals intracellular needle-shaped crystals that appear white against the black background. When a red compensator is added and the crystals are aligned with the slow vibration, they appear yellow against the red background. These crystals are:

Explanation

Examination of synovial fluid under direct polarized light reveals intracellular needle-shaped crystals that appear white against the black background. When a red compensator is added and the crystals are aligned with the slow vibration, they appear yellow against the red background. This indicates negative birefringence. Monosodium urate crystals are known to exhibit negative birefringence, so the correct answer is monosodium urate showing negative birefringence.

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165. The presence of heavy proteinuria is most characteristic of

Explanation

The presence of heavy proteinuria, which is the excessive excretion of protein in the urine, is most characteristic of nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder that results in damage to the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys. This damage causes the glomeruli to become more permeable, allowing large amounts of protein to leak into the urine. Acute glomerulonephritis, acute interstitial nephritis, and pyelonephritis may also cause proteinuria, but it is most commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.

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166. Which of the following could explain how the same specimen could give a negative clinitest result and a positive reagent strip result

Explanation

The presence of a small amount of glucose can explain how the same specimen could give a negative clinitest result and a positive reagent strip result. Even though the amount of glucose is small, it can still be detected by the reagent strip, leading to a positive result. However, the clinitest may not be sensitive enough to detect such a small amount of glucose, resulting in a negative result. Therefore, the presence of a small amount of glucose can explain the discrepancy between the two tests.

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167. Match each of the following multistix reaction principles or reagents with the substance listed.
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168. Differential counts on CSF are performed on:

Explanation

Differential counts on CSF are performed on stained smears prepared from a concentrated specimen. This is because staining the smears allows for better visualization and differentiation of different types of cells present in the CSF. By preparing the smears from a concentrated specimen, a higher number of cells can be observed and counted, providing a more accurate representation of the cell types present in the CSF sample.

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169. Match the follwoing crystals and descriptions
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170. Which of the following elements would most likely be found in an acidic concentrated urine that contains protein?

Explanation

In an acidic concentrated urine that contains protein, the presence of bacteria is most likely. Bacteria can thrive in an acidic environment and their presence in urine may indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI) or another type of bacterial infection. The acidic pH of the urine can provide an ideal environment for bacteria to grow and multiply. Therefore, the presence of bacteria in acidic concentrated urine with protein suggests a possible infection.

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Match each of the following urinary odors with the word or words which...
The first morning specimen of urine is requested often because the:
The normal color of the urine is mostly due to what pigment?
A pale colored urine usually indicates that:
The process performed by the glomerulus as a part of urine formation...
Dilute urine is usually dark yellow.
The most common parasite found in the urine is:
Are uric acid crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline...
Each kidney is composed of more than a million complete urinary...
The preferred method of urine preservation in the laboratory is:
Will pH be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting of...
Are phosphate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline...
The specific gravity of the urine is the result of the dissolved...
Will turbidity be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged...
The average amount of urine passed by a normal adult in 24 hours is...
"Hidden blood" in feces is termed:
Will nitrite be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged...
An increased cystatin C corresponds to a descreased creatinine...
A urine that is yellowish-brown and, on shaking, produces yellow foam...
The protein section of the multistix reagent strip is most sensitive...
Are urates found more commonly in acid or alkaline urine?
The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:
The primary chemical constituents of urine are water,
Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the continuous excretion of...
Abnormal sperm morphology is determined by:
Match the following hormones and functions.
Upon standing, normal urine becomes alkaline chiefly due to:
In diabetes insipidus the specific gravity of urine is approximately...
Before analysis, a refrigerated urine specimen must be:
Will glucose be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged...
Collection of a midstream, clean catch urine specimen will prevent...
Will bilirubin be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged...
What is the best way to identify formed elements in urine sediment as...
The NORMAL relationship of urine volume and specific gravity is...
Will cells be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged sitting...
Are calcium oxalate crystals found more commonly in acid or...
Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine...
Which of the answers below represents the direction of the flow of...
Which urine chemical test is the best single indicator of glomerular...
Glycosuria is most frequently observed in a specimen obtained
Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be ovserved closely...
The presence of maple syrup urine disease is first suspected by the...
Will urobilinogen be increased or decreased as a result of prolonged...
The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an...
Information that aids in the identification of crystals includes all...
Bence Jones proteinuria occurs in
Ehrlich's reagent is:
The cells lining the pleural cavities are primarily:
A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the...
Are ammonium biurate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline...
The urinary sediment constituent most closely associated with bleeding...
Which of the following is not one of the 4 main functions of the...
Crenation of red cells in the urine denotes that the urine is:
All of the following diseases are frequently associated with joint...
Identify the disorder associated with the presence of WBC casts in a...
Stools of a bleeding ulcer (duodenal) patient will appear to be what...
What causes phenylketonuria?
If sediment of RBCs obscures the remaining sediment in urine, the...
During urine formation which of the following substances is generally...
Which of the following substances makes up the majority of total...
Macroscopically, amorphous phosphates are usually the following color:
A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates:
Match the following conditions and lab results
Improper storage of the urine and improper use of the microscope in...
Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent is used in the determination of which...
Are carbonate crystals found more commonly in acid or alkaline...
All of the following are reported as the quantity per high power field...
Which of the following is NOT an organic substance found in the urine?
Which of the following is the most common chemical constituent found...
The normal CSF protein is:
Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activites should be...
Will ketones be increased or decreased as a reault of prolonged...
Crystals found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are:
Porphyrins are intermediary compounds in the formation of:
Which of the following is not characteristic of leukocytes in urine?
The total renal blood flow is approximately:
Multistix may become unreliable if they are
An ADH deficiency is associated with urine with a:
A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 indicates that the patient should...
Leaving a Multistix test strip in contact with urine too long may:
In which part of the kidney does concentration of urine mostly take...
Formation of crystals due to medications is most frequently caused by:
To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are...
The primary factor that favors the formation of casts is:
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be...
Ketone bodies occur when there is
Infection of the bladder is termed
Measurement of urine osmolarity is a more accurate measure of renal...
The most probably cause of a white precipitate that is macroscopically...
The principle site of urea formation is the:
Identify the disorder associated with the presence of RBC casts in a...
Which of the following will be LEAST affected in an unpreserved...
The specific gravity of the urine is determined by its composition....
Bence Jones protein differs from other urinary protein by its
Crenated RBCs would MOST likely be found in a urine with a specific...
Which of the following factors is NOT associated with stored urine...
Motility by which of the following is most noticeable during the urine...
Casts are precipitates of protein formed mostly in the:
Calculate the creatinine clearance for a patient of average size from...
Dilute alkaline urine should be examined carefully for the presence...
The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:
Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of:
Which of the following results should be repeated?
A CSF specimen in which there is uneven distribution of blood among...
The organisms attached to a clue cell are:
The only type of cast capable of polarization is the
The function of serous fluid is to:
The primary function of amniotic fluid is to:
The solid, undissolved particles in the urine are preserved:
Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of...
During the flow of filtrate through the tubules, which of the...
Three tubes of CSF labeled #1, #2 and #3 are received in the...
Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by:
The CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord in the:
Substances found in the urinary sediment that are more easily...
Persons diagnosed with PKU should avoid food containing
A refractormeter reads 1.003 with distilled water. The techologist...
The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in descending...
Which of the following could explain how the same specimen could give...
Specimens containing mucus may be erroneously reported as containing:
When testing urine with dipstick methods, the glucose result is...
Cylindroids are urinary structures that resemble:
Specimens that contain intact RBCs cal be visually distinguished from...
The refractive index compares:
To determine the WBC count on a cloudy CSF specimen that contains both...
A cloudy, yellow-green synovial fluid with 100,000 WBCs, a...
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is responsible for all of the...
A urine with a high pH contains a
With biliary duct obstruction, it is common for reagent strip tests to...
To increase the probability of detecting urine sediment constituents...
Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of
Hemolytic disease of the newborn endangers the fetus by:
Production of antidiuretic hormone is controlled by the:
The presence of which of the following crystals is associated with the...
The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is termed a(an):
Reagent strip reactions for ketones react primarily with
A slightly hazy CSF specimen is diluted 1:10 with acetic acid. Fifty...
Reagent strip results associated with hemolytic disease would...
How are fibers distinguished from casts in a microscopic exam of a...
Which of the following is not true about the icotest?
Synovial fluid is produced by:
CSF electrophoresis to confirm the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis...
The most frequently performed tests on synovial fluid include all of...
All of the following are associated with severe urinary stasis except:
Which of the following is true of the estimated glomerular filtration...
The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate...
A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of
Identify the disorder associated with the presence of oval fat bodies...
The recommended centrifugation for preparing the urine sediment is:
All of the follownig may be helpful in preventing the formation of...
The funcitions of the cerebrospinal fluid include all of the following...
The IgG index is a comparison between the:
Orthostatic proteinuria is most frequently ovserved in a specimen...
Semen analysis on postvasectomy patients should be performed:
The abnormal metabolite that is present in the urine in alkaptonuria...
Under normal conditions, tryptophan that is not reabsorbed in the...
Match the following abnormal pigments with the colors they produce in...
All of the following will produce a positive Leukocyte Esterase...
Characteristic urine odors are associated with all of the following...
Identify the disorder associated with the presence of renal tubular...
Which of the following statements about transudates and exudates is...
Clearance tests used to deterine the glomerular filtration rate must...
The primary cells seen in normal synovial fluid include all of the...
Examination of synovial fluid under direct polarized light reveals...
The presence of heavy proteinuria is most characteristic of
Which of the following could explain how the same specimen could give...
Match each of the following multistix reaction principles or reagents...
Differential counts on CSF are performed on:
Match the follwoing crystals and descriptions
Which of the following elements would most likely be found in an...
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