Ure 2F071 Pretest

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 2F071
Volumes I, II, III UREs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?

    • A.

      A liquid is far less compressible than a gas.

    • B.

      A gas is far less compressible than a liquid.

    • C.

      A liquid is more combustible than a gas.

    • D.

      A gas is more combustible than a liquid.

    Correct Answer
    A. A liquid is far less compressible than a gas.
  • 2. 

    What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

    • A.

      Laminar

    • B.

      Interface

    • C.

      Buoyance

    • D.

      Dynamic pressure

    Correct Answer
    C. Buoyance
  • 3. 

    Which best describes immiscible liquids?

    • A.

      They mix well together

    • B.

      One liquid will float on the other

    • C.

      They will become an entrained solution

    • D.

      They will repel each other and react violently

    Correct Answer
    B. One liquid will float on the other
  • 4. 

    Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?

    • A.

      Feet per second

    • B.

      Gallons per minute

    • C.

      Cubic feet per second

    • D.

      Cubic gallons per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. Feet per second
  • 5. 

    Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?

    • A.

      Friction, applied forces, and gravity

    • B.

      Friction, inertia, and atmospheric pressure

    • C.

      Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and inertia

    • D.

      Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces

    Correct Answer
    D. Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces
  • 6. 

    What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

    • A.

      The size of the pipe

    • B.

      The specific gravity of the fuel

    • C.

      The change in gallons per minute

    • D.

      The amount of extinguished velocity

    Correct Answer
    D. The amount of extinguished velocity
  • 7. 

    Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

    • A.

      Kilograms

    • B.

      Pounds

    • C.

      Tons

    • D.

      Pounds per square inch

    Correct Answer
    D. Pounds per square inch
  • 8. 

    The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

    • A.

      13.1 psi

    • B.

      14.7 psi

    • C.

      15.2 psi

    • D.

      17.0 psi

    Correct Answer
    B. 14.7 psi
  • 9. 

    What type of pressure reading is also referred to as overpressure?

    • A.

      Zero pressure

    • B.

      Gauge pressure

    • C.

      Absolute pressure

    • D.

      Atmospheric pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Gauge pressure
  • 10. 

    What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?

    • A.

      Overpressure

    • B.

      Gauge pressure

    • C.

      Absolute pressure

    • D.

      Atmospheric pressure

    Correct Answer
    C. Absolute pressure
  • 11. 

       Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

    • A.

      Kelvin scale

    • B.

      Rankine scale

    • C.

      Reaumur scale

    • D.

      Fahrenheit scale

    Correct Answer
    A. Kelvin scale
  • 12. 

    Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?

    • A.

      Boyle’s law

    • B.

      Charles’ law

    • C.

      Dalton’s law

    • D.

      Gay-Lussac’s law

    Correct Answer
    B. Charles’ law
  • 13. 

    Two or more atoms combined is called a

    • A.

      A compound

    • B.

      An element

    • C.

      A molecule

    • D.

      A mixture

    Correct Answer
    C. A molecule
  • 14. 

    According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

    • A.

      Protons, neutrons, and electrons

    • B.

      Neutrons, elements, and protons

    • C.

      Electrons, molecules, and elements

    • D.

      Electrons, neutrons, and matter

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons, neutrons, and electrons
  • 15. 

    How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

    • A.

      Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges

    • B.

      Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges

    • C.

      Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges

    • D.

      Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges

    Correct Answer
    D. Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges
  • 16. 

    The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

    • A.

      Electrical potential

    • B.

      Free electrons

    • C.

      Electric current

    • D.

      Ionization

    Correct Answer
    C. Electric current
  • 17. 

    Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

    • A.

      The outermost shell

    • B.

      The middle shell

    • C.

      The second shell

    • D.

      The first shell

    Correct Answer
    A. The outermost shell
  • 18. 

    Which statement best describes a positive ion?

    • A.

      An atom that lost a proton and has more electrons

    • B.

      An atom that lost an electron and has more protons

    • C.

      An atom that has an equal number of electrons and protons

    • D.

      An atom that cannot throw off any protons

    Correct Answer
    B. An atom that lost an electron and has more protons
  • 19. 

    What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?

    • A.

      Heat

    • B.

      Magnetism

    • C.

      Chemical

    • D.

      Reactance

    Correct Answer
    B. Magnetism
  • 20. 

    What is the unit of measurement of electrical power?

    • A.

      Watts

    • B.

      Volts

    • C.

      Amps

    • D.

      Ohms

    Correct Answer
    A. Watts
  • 21. 

    A 3-hoursepower motor consumes how much power?

    • A.

      755 W

    • B.

      1,534 W

    • C.

      2,023 W

    • D.

      2,238 W

    Correct Answer
    D. 2,238 W
  • 22. 

    A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called?

    • A.

      A natural magnet

    • B.

      An electromagnet

    • C.

      An artificial magnet

    • D.

      An electromechanical magnet

    Correct Answer
    C. An artificial magnet
  • 23. 

    When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?

    • A.

      When the north pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • B.

      When the south pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • C.

      When a permanent magnet and a temporary magnet are put together.

    • D.

      Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.

    Correct Answer
    D. Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.
  • 24. 

    What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?

    • A.

      Magnetic and heat

    • B.

      Chemical and heat

    • C.

      Chemical and mechanical

    • D.

      Magnetic and mechanical

    Correct Answer
    C. Chemical and mechanical
  • 25. 

    What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?

    • A.

      Open current

    • B.

      Direct current

    • C.

      Latent current

    • D.

      Alternating current

    Correct Answer
    B. Direct current
  • 26. 

    What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?

    • A.

      Latent current

    • B.

      Direct current

    • C.

      Latent and open current

    • D.

      Alternating and direct current

    Correct Answer
    B. Direct current
  • 27. 

    What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?

    • A.

      Coil, core, and current

    • B.

      Magnet, housing, and prime mover

    • C.

      Coil, conductors, and relative motion

    • D.

      Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion

    Correct Answer
    D. Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion
  • 28. 

    What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R-11?

    • A.

      Titanium

    • B.

      Stainless steel

    • C.

      Sheet aluminum alloy

    • D.

      Steel-reinforced carbon fiber

    Correct Answer
    C. Sheet aluminum alloy
  • 29. 

    Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?

    • A.

      Gear

    • B.

      Piston

    • C.

      Rotary

    • D.

      Centrifugal

    Correct Answer
    D. Centrifugal
  • 30. 

    What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

    • A.

      Separation

    • B.

      Integration

    • C.

      Coalescing

    • D.

      Commingling

    Correct Answer
    C. Coalescing
  • 31. 

    What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

    • A.

      Air eliminator

    • B.

      Water slug valve

    • C.

      Float control valve

    • D.

      Mainline control valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Air eliminator
  • 32. 

    What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?

    • A.

      Tri-rotor, positive displacement

    • B.

      Bi-rotor, positive displacement

    • C.

      Single-stage, bi-directional

    • D.

      Dual-stage, bi-directional

    Correct Answer
    B. Bi-rotor, positive displacement
  • 33. 

    What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?

    • A.

      Automatic reset-type circuit breakers

    • B.

      Manual reset-type circuit breakers

    • C.

      Twenty-five amp Bosch-type fuse

    • D.

      Ten amp ATO fuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatic reset-type circuit breakers
  • 34. 

    What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?

    • A.

      Thirty-weight motor oil

    • B.

      Ninety-weight gear oil

    • C.

      Synthetic gear lube

    • D.

      Silicone grease

    Correct Answer
    B. Ninety-weight gear oil
  • 35. 

    What component found on R-11s and R-12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?

    • A.

      PTO interlock system

    • B.

      Throttle interlock system

    • C.

      Emergency shutdown switch

    • D.

      Emergency engine kill switch

    Correct Answer
    B. Throttle interlock system
  • 36. 

    What fuel dispensing system component controls system fuel pressure?

    • A.

      Bypass system

    • B.

      Mainline system

    • C.

      Hose reel control

    • D.

      Deadman control

    Correct Answer
    A. Bypass system
  • 37. 

    During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?

    • A.

      The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading

    • B.

      The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump

    • C.

      The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module

    • D.

      The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid

    Correct Answer
    D. The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid
  • 38. 

    When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Semiannually

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Biennially

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
  • 39. 

    What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?

    • A.

      Clean coalescer elements

    • B.

      Damaged coalescer screens

    • C.

      Clogged or dirty coalescers

    • D.

      A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers

    Correct Answer
    D. A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers
  • 40. 

    When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?

    • A.

      ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter

    • B.

      ½ gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter

    • C.

      1 gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter

    • D.

      1 gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter

    Correct Answer
    A. ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter
  • 41. 

    Initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include all of the following except

    • A.

      Nomenclature

    • B.

      Quantity on hand

    • C.

      Quantity authorized

    • D.

      Tool national stock number (NSN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Quantity on hand
  • 42. 

    How often should joint inventories for all individual tool kits (ITK) be accomplished?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
  • 43. 

    Which is not a responsibility of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) customer service element when setting up a bench stock?

    • A.

      Replenish and deliver items

    • B.

      Establish the master bench detail record

    • C.

      Ensure proper use, care, and security of bench stock items

    • D.

      Install, maintain, and update on-base bench stock placards

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure proper use, care, and security of bench stock items
  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not a reason for adding items to bench stock?

    • A.

      The unit of issue is not compatible with the unit of use

    • B.

      The FMFC feels the flight can’t wait for items to be delivered from the warehouse

    • C.

      A geographically separated location uses the item and the item must be at the using location

    • D.

      The item is not included in the AFMC initial spares support list for the equipment being supported

    Correct Answer
    D. The item is not included in the AFMC initial spares support list for the equipment being supported
  • 45. 

    When may deletions from the bench stock listing be processed?

    • A.

      When requested by the flight only

    • B.

      When requested by the flight, or when the bench stock review listing shows no consumption in the past 270 days

    • C.

      At the discretion of LRS customer service element only

    • D.

      At the discretion of LRS customer service element, or when the bench stock review listing shows no consumption in the past 270 days

    Correct Answer
    B. When requested by the flight, or when the bench stock review listing shows no consumption in the past 270 days
  • 46. 

    How often are Phase I bench stock reviews conducted?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
  • 47. 

    What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for safety conditions which, if left uncorrected, could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?

    • A.

      Urgent action

    • B.

      Routine action

    • C.

      Scheduled action

    • D.

      Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action
  • 48. 

    Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?

    • A.

      10 days

    • B.

      20 days

    • C.

      30 days

    • D.

      60 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 days
  • 49. 

    Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?

    • A.

      TCTO

    • B.

      Service bulletin

    • C.

      Technical manual

    • D.

      Manufacturer’s recall

    Correct Answer
    B. Service bulletin
  • 50. 

    What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?

    • A.

      Service bulletin

    • B.

      Urgent action TCTO

    • C.

      Manufacturers recall

    • D.

      Immediate action TCTO

    Correct Answer
    C. Manufacturers recall

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 30, 2011
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 09, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Fuels_training
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