Ure 2F071 Pretest

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1. What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 2F071
Volumes I, II, III UREs

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2. Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

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3. During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

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4. At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

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5. Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

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6. When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?

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7. When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?

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8. If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF-2 that is received during

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9. Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

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10. On what grades of fuel can the R-22 be designed to operate?

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11. The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

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12. What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

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13. When making a cash sale, what other forms of currency besides United States currency are acceptable for cash sale payments?

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14. Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

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15. On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R-14 ATHRS oeprate

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16. Which best describes immiscible liquids?

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17. The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

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18. What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?

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19. What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

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20. How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling  operations?

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21. When you are performing fuels controlling duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

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22. How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?

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23. Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU-27M for air shipment?

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24. Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

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25. Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

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26.    Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

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27. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture.  This variance should fall into what category?

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28. What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?

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29. What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?

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30. Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R-14 operation?

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31. To aid in priming, the PMU-27M is equipped with a priming

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32. Two or more atoms combined is called a

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33. According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

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34. What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R-11?

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35. What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

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36. On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

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37. When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?

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38. When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?

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39. When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

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40. With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are performing the bottle method test?

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41. How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?

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42. How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile their statement of account?

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43. When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?

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44. What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?

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45. What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation?

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46. During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

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47. The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as

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48. When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU-27M?

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49. How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?

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50. What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?

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51. Which statement best describes a positive ion?

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52. What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

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53. What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?

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54. On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?

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55. How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?

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56. When you are generating queries in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the query should consist of at least one field, comparison and

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57. When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

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58. What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

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59. What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?

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60. How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification training?

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61. What is the primary purpose of the R-14 ATHRS?

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62. When preparing the R-20 filter separator for shipment, drain all the following components except the

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63. All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R-19 filter separator unit except

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64. Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?

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65. On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?

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66. When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

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67. At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored to detect releases?

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68. Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?

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69. What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test?

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70. What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R-18 pumping unit's handheld remote?

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71. A temporary movement of a MSRP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a

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72. Accountability for a transferred MSRP kit temporary rests with the

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73. Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?

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74. During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?

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75. How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?

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76. What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full?

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77. What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot refueling system?

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78. How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

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79. When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the Fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the

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80. What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder?

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81. When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the R-18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

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82. The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals per sortie?

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83. What is the unit of measurement of electrical power?

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84. What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?

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85. Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?

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86. When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?

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87. Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

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88. What environmental regulations establishes “cradle to grave” control of hazardous substances?

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89. What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment(PPE) for workers?

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90. When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E) which status board should you use to document transfers?

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91. When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E) log sheet, what information should you enter in the Defuel field when entering a defuel request?

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92. Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?

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93. When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Sysytem (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from you after you hace place the ground products order?

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94. How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?

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95. When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much fuel must be flushed through a filter separator?

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96. At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R-14 limit high flow?

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97. The FFU-15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter elements?

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98. Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from

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99. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater that how many minutes?

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100. What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

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101. How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

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102. When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?

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103. What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?

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104. When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure

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105. What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?

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106. When you are submitting an 1884 inventory report, the report should reflect product quantities as of

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107. When entering sample information in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), what information should you record in the SAMPLE block?

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108. What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R-14 prior to air shipment?

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109. What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI-4T-4A portable additive injector?

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110. What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?

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111. A 3-hoursepower motor consumes how much power?

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112. Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?

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113. Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all following aircraft except the

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114. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by all of the following conditions except

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115. When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that “T” Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by

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116. When encoding vehicle link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) document control file?

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117. How often should Cryotainers be sampled for purity, order and minor constituents?

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118. What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel?

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119. The PMU-27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal sealed drums?

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120. With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

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121. What component found on R-11s and R-12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?

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122. Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements?

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123. What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system to open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?

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124. What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system?

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125. Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities?

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126. How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for order and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?

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127. To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of

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128. During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for

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129. If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to nonavailability of equipment at the installation, submit a core task waiver request to the

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130. The fuels training supervisor should review all training records

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131. All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R-22 except

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132. What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?

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133. How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?

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134. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what rpm setting?

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135. What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?

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136. Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?

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137. Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

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138. The Inventory Management Plan (IMP) is published

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139. When starting the PMU-27M, the throttle should be placed at

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140. Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?

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141. Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?

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142. What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment?

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143. When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system

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144. Which Air Force Petroleum Agency(AFPET) division performs contracting support for all AFPET contracted and cost recovery programs?

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145. Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?

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146. How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample?

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147. For air shpiment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of

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148. What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot refueling system?

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149. When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds.  This indicates a

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150. When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2-8-116WC-1 should you complete?

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151. When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 95, what information should you enter in block 1?

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152. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?

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153. When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon successful completion of end-of-year closeout actions, how long should you retain the twelve monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?

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154. What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading?

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155. Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of how many months retainability?

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156. The R-22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of how many gallons of fuel per day?

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157. On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

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158. Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?

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159. What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

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160. When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the forms is not properly filled out?

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161. When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents?

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162. Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (REPOL)?

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163. Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils?

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164. Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with wpecial experience identifiers (SEI) is the responsibility of

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165. What maximum number of additives can the TPI-4T-4A portable additive injector simultaneously inject?

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166. How many filter elements does the PMU-27M filter separator contain?

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167. When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less that what degree of slope?

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168. When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control decisions?

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169. All of the following are important considerations when planning for cryogenics support except

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170. What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?

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171. Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?

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172. When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?

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173. Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you use the spill response kit?

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174. When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?

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175. What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

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176. Providing supply and equipment forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the

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177. What component on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine?

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178. What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider when selecting a site for fuels operations?

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179. How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU) -15E?

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180. What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?

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181. What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

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182. What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?

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183. At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?

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184. On the type V hydrant system, the deadman control valve is operated

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185. Who may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?

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186. When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests be calibrated?

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187. When setting up the R-22, prime the centrifugal pump with approximately how many gallons of fuel?

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188. What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?

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189. What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?

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190. How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system that has a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minute (gpm)?

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191. On the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft can be hot refueled simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes, depending on the type of aircraft?

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192. When rating an inspection, the compliance and environmental element may use the five-tier rating at the discretion of the

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193. Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23-110, Volume 2, Part 2?

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194. The centrifugal, self priming pump on the PMU-27M can deliver fuel at what rate?

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195. What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?

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196. What maximum number of receiver aircraft can a FAM cart service simultaneously?

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197. The control valves will close if there is a communication loss between the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit and the lead pump unit exceeding how many minutes?

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198. What form is used to record limited technical inspections (LTI) on used vehicles?

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199. Where do the type III hydrant system pressure indicating transmitters sense pressure?

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200. What type of thermometer should you use when performing a cloud point analysis?

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What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken...
At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation...
Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is...
When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system,...
When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what...
If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold...
Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?
On what grades of fuel can the R-22 be designed to operate?
The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many...
What term is used to define the process that takes place when water...
When making a cash sale, what other forms of currency besides United...
Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American...
On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R-14 ATHRS oeprate
Which best describes immiscible liquids?
The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on...
What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator...
How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot...
When you are performing fuels controlling duties, how often should you...
How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be...
Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the...
Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally...
Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many...
   Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific...
When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive...
What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher...
Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R-14...
To aid in priming, the PMU-27M is equipped with a priming
Two or more atoms combined is called a
According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R-11?
What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving...
On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling...
When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form...
When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of...
When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash...
With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are...
How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile...
When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by...
What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant...
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning...
The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense...
When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU-27M?
How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?
What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?
Which statement best describes a positive ion?
What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging...
What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for...
How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is...
When you are generating queries in Business Systems...
When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental...
What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a...
What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the...
How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification...
What is the primary purpose of the R-14 ATHRS?
When preparing the R-20 filter separator for shipment, drain all the...
All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements...
Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?
On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel...
When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any,...
At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored...
Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over...
What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle...
What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R-18...
A temporary movement of a MSRP kit from home station to another...
Accountability for a transferred MSRP kit temporary rests with the
Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?
During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the...
How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?
What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is...
What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot...
How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?
When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency,...
What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a...
When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman...
The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals per sortie?
What is the unit of measurement of electrical power?
What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components...
Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers...
When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart...
Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or...
What environmental regulations establishes “cradle to grave”...
What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all...
When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems...
When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems...
Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and...
When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt...
How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine...
When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much...
At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R-14 limit high...
The FFU-15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter...
Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from
When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-20 multi-aircraft...
What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer...
How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?
What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3...
When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to...
What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support...
When you are submitting an 1884 inventory report, the report should...
When entering sample information in Business Systems...
What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R-14 prior to air...
What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI-4T-4A portable...
What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?
A 3-hoursepower motor consumes how much power?
Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than...
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation...
When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in...
When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you...
When encoding vehicle link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain...
How often should Cryotainers be sampled for purity, order and minor...
What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor...
The PMU-27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal sealed...
With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions...
What component found on R-11s and R-12s prevents the auxiliary...
Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing...
What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system...
What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with...
Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for...
How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for...
To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum...
During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for
If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to...
The fuels training supervisor should review all training records
All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping...
What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R-20...
How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?
When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit,...
What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?
Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?
Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the...
The Inventory Management Plan (IMP) is published
When starting the PMU-27M, the throttle should be placed at
Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and...
Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require...
What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a...
When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel...
Which Air Force Petroleum Agency(AFPET) division performs contracting...
Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and...
How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical...
For air shpiment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized...
What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot...
When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding...
When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed...
When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force...
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX)...
When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon...
What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a...
Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or...
The R-22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of...
On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator...
Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often...
What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO)...
When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any,...
When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the...
Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency...
Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category...
Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with wpecial experience...
What maximum number of additives can the TPI-4T-4A portable additive...
How many filter elements does the PMU-27M filter separator contain?
When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have...
When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control...
All of the following are important considerations when planning for...
What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?
When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference...
Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you...
When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for...
What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum...
Providing supply and equipment forecasts through the fuels management...
What component on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a...
What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member...
How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel...
What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?
What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R-20...
What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all...
At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?
On the type V hydrant system, the deadman control valve is operated
Who may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms...
When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor...
When setting up the R-22, prime the centrifugal pump with...
What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle...
What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer...
How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the...
On the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft can be hot refueled...
When rating an inspection, the compliance and environmental element...
Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined in...
The centrifugal, self priming pump on the PMU-27M can deliver fuel at...
What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?
What maximum number of receiver aircraft can a FAM cart service...
The control valves will close if there is a communication loss between...
What form is used to record limited technical inspections (LTI) on...
Where do the type III hydrant system pressure indicating transmitters...
What type of thermometer should you use when performing a cloud point...
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