Take Home Quiz Chapter 11

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  • 1/90 Questions

    Which specimen requires esspceially strict identification and labeling procedures?

    • Aldosterone
    • Cross-match
    • Plasminogen
    • Valproic acid
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About This Quiz

The 'Take Home Quiz Chapter 11' assesses knowledge in forensic toxicology, TB test procedures, urine drug screens, blood culture collection, lactose tolerance tests, and paternity testing. It is designed for learners to understand medical pathology and toxicological implications in legal and health contexts.

Medical Science Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    Increased blood glucose is called:

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Hyperinsulinism

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Hypernatremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperglycemia
    Explanation
    Hyperglycemia refers to a condition where there is an abnormally high level of glucose in the blood. This can occur due to various reasons, such as insufficient insulin production or ineffective insulin utilization. Hyperglycemia is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, a chronic condition characterized by high blood sugar levels. It can lead to symptoms like increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. If left untreated, hyperglycemia can cause long-term complications such as cardiovascular disease, kidney damage, and nerve damage. Therefore, hyperglycemia is the correct term to describe increased blood glucose levels.

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  • 3. 

    The hormone detected in urine pregnacny testing is:

    • ACT

    • HCG

    • PPD

    • TSH

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    The hormone detected in urine pregnancy testing is hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). hCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and can be detected in the urine of pregnant women. This hormone is used as a marker to confirm pregnancy in home pregnancy tests. ACT, PPD, and TSH are not hormones related to pregnancy testing.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of specimen may require colection of a discard tube before the test specimen is collected?

    • Blood culture

    • Coagulation

    • Drug Testing

    • Paternity

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulation
    Explanation
    In coagulation testing, a discard tube is required before collecting the test specimen. This is because the discard tube is used to remove any residual anticoagulant or tissue factor present in the needle and tubing, which could interfere with the accuracy of the coagulation test results. By discarding the initial blood sample, any potential contamination is eliminated, ensuring that the subsequent test specimen collected is free from any interfering substances.

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  • 5. 

    Which one of the following should be deleted from the list of those allowed to order paternity testing?

    • Child support agent.

    • Child who is a minor

    • Defense attorney

    • Family physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Child who is a minor
    Explanation
    The child who is a minor should be deleted from the list of those allowed to order paternity testing because minors do not have the legal capacity to make such decisions. Paternity testing involves medical procedures and legal implications, and it is typically the responsibility of the parents or legal guardians to make decisions on behalf of minors. Therefore, allowing a minor to order paternity testing would not be appropriate or legally valid.

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  • 6. 

    A typical unit of donated blood contrains approximately:

    • 250 ml.

    • 450 ml.

    • 750 ml.

    • L.

    Correct Answer
    A. 450 ml.
    Explanation
    A typical unit of donated blood contains approximately 450 ml. This is the most common volume for a unit of donated blood. It is important to have a standardized volume for blood donations to ensure consistency and safety in the process. This volume allows for efficient testing and processing of the donated blood, while also being a safe amount for the donor to give.

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  • 7. 

    If an assumed parent in a paternity case cannot be excluded by abo grouping, which of the following additional tests may be required?

    • Alkaline phosphatase

    • Buccal sample for dna

    • C-reactive protein

    • Complete urinalysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Buccal sample for dna
    Explanation
    If an assumed parent in a paternity case cannot be excluded by ABO grouping, an additional test that may be required is a buccal sample for DNA. ABO grouping is a blood typing test that determines the ABO blood type of an individual. However, it does not provide conclusive evidence of paternity. DNA testing, on the other hand, can accurately determine the biological relationship between individuals by comparing their genetic profiles. A buccal sample, which is collected from the inside of the cheek, is a common method for obtaining DNA for testing purposes. Therefore, a buccal sample for DNA would be a suitable additional test in this scenario.

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  • 8. 

    Which type of test is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual was the father of a particular child?

    • Coagulation

    • Cross-match

    • Paternity

    • RBC indices

    Correct Answer
    A. Paternity
    Explanation
    Paternity testing is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual is the biological father of a particular child. This test analyzes the genetic markers in the DNA of both the child and the potential father to establish a biological relationship. By comparing the genetic profiles, the likelihood of paternity can be calculated with a high degree of accuracy.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following activities has no effect on glucose tolerance test (GTT) results?

    • Chewing sugarless gum

    • Drinking tea without sugar

    • Lying down during the test

    • Smoking low-tar cigarettes

    Correct Answer
    A. Lying down during the test
    Explanation
    Lying down during the glucose tolerance test (GTT) has no effect on the test results because the position of the body does not influence the body's ability to process glucose. The GTT measures how well the body metabolizes glucose and evaluates the body's response to it. Activities such as chewing sugarless gum, drinking tea without sugar, and smoking low-tar cigarettes can potentially affect the test results by altering blood sugar levels or insulin response. However, lying down does not have any impact on these factors, thus it does not affect the GTT results.

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  • 10. 

    Erythema means:

    • Hardness.

    • Inflamed.

    • Redness.

    • Swollen

    Correct Answer
    A. Redness.
    Explanation
    Erythema refers to redness of the skin, which can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, infection, or irritation. It is a common symptom that can occur in response to sunburn, allergic reactions, or certain medical conditions. The term "erythema" specifically describes the red appearance of the skin and does not imply hardness, inflammation, or swelling.

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  • 11. 

    A parient undergoing a GTT vomits within 30 minutes of drinking the flocose beverage. What action should the phlebotomist take?

    • Continue the test and note on the lab slip that the patient vomited and at what time.

    • Discontinue the test and write on the requisition that the patient vomited the drink

    • Give the patient another dose of the glucose beverage and continue wit the test.

    • Notify the nurse or physician immediately to see if the test should be rescheduled.

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the nurse or physician immediately to see if the test should be rescheduled.
    Explanation
    The phlebotomist should notify the nurse or physician immediately to see if the test should be rescheduled. Vomiting within 30 minutes of drinking the glucose beverage can affect the accuracy of the test results. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate course of action, which may involve rescheduling the test or taking other necessary steps.

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  • 12. 

    All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have which of the following in common?

    • The ability to use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples?.

    • Data can be downloaded to a data management program.

    • They require the use of an authorized operator ID number

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have the ability to use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples. This means that they can analyze glucose levels in blood samples obtained from different sources. Additionally, these analyzers have the capability to download data to a data management program, allowing for easy tracking and analysis of glucose levels over time. Finally, they require the use of an authorized operator ID number, ensuring that only authorized personnel can access and operate the analyzer. Therefore, all of the given options are common features of POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use.

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  • 13. 

    Eligibility requirements for donating blood include:

    • Age 17 to 66 years, 110 pounds or more.

    • Age 18 to 75 years, 110 pounds or more.

    • Age 21 to 65, at least 100 pounds.

    • Minimum of 21 years old, 100 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Age 17 to 66 years, 110 pounds or more.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Age 17 to 66 years, 110 pounds or more." This answer combines the age requirement of being between 17 and 66 years old with the weight requirement of being at least 110 pounds. This means that individuals who are within this age range and meet the weight requirement are eligible to donate blood.

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  • 14. 

    The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is:

    • Needle gauge.

    • Skin antisepsis.

    • Specimen handling.

    • Volume collected

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin antisepsis.
    Explanation
    Skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect of blood culture collection because it helps to reduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the bloodstream during the collection process. Properly cleaning and disinfecting the skin before inserting the needle helps to minimize the chance of bacterial or fungal contamination, which could lead to false-positive results or misdiagnosis. Ensuring aseptic technique during skin antisepsis is crucial in preventing infections and ensuring accurate and reliable blood culture results. Needle gauge, specimen handling, and volume collected are important factors as well, but skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect for maintaining the integrity of the blood culture sample.

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  • 15. 

    Which specimen tubes must contain a 9-to-1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant to be accepted for testing?

    • Blood bank

    • Chemistry

    • Coagulation

    • Hematology

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulation
  • 16. 

    Which of the following specimens may require chain-of-custody documentation when it is collected?

    • Blood culture

    • Cross match

    • Drug screen

    • Trace elements

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug screen
    Explanation
    A drug screen is a test used to detect the presence of drugs or their metabolites in a person's body. Due to the potential legal implications and consequences associated with drug use, it is important to maintain a proper chain-of-custody documentation for the specimen collected. This documentation ensures the integrity and accountability of the specimen from the moment it is collected until it is analyzed in the laboratory, preventing any tampering or mishandling of the sample. Therefore, a drug screen is a specimen that may require chain-of-custody documentation when collected.

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  • 17. 

    Donor units of blood are typically collected using needles that are:

    • 16 to 18 gauge

    • 18 to 28 gauge

    • 20 to 22 gauge

    • 23 to 25 gauge

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 to 18 gauge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 16 to 18 gauge. This is because larger gauge needles allow for a faster flow of blood, which is important when collecting blood from donors. The larger size also reduces the risk of hemolysis, which is the breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, using 16 to 18 gauge needles is the most suitable option for collecting donor units of blood.

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  • 18. 

    The definition of toxicology is:

    • A protocol for drug trafficking.

    • The scientific study of poisons.

    • The study of drug therapy levels.

    • The tracking of illicit drug trade,

    Correct Answer
    A. The scientific study of poisons.
    Explanation
    Toxicology is the scientific study of poisons, including their nature, effects, and detection. It involves understanding how toxic substances interact with living organisms and the mechanisms by which they cause harm. This field is crucial in assessing the safety of chemicals, drugs, and environmental pollutants, as well as in forensic investigations involving poisoning cases. By studying the effects of poisons on biological systems, toxicologists can develop strategies to prevent and treat poisoning incidents, ensuring public health and safety.

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  • 19. 

    This test detects occult blood.

    • BAC

    • Guaiac

    • Lactose

    • Skin test

    Correct Answer
    A. Guaiac
    Explanation
    Guaiac is a substance that reacts with the heme component of hemoglobin, the molecule responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. When guaiac comes into contact with occult blood (blood that is not visible to the naked eye), it produces a blue color. Therefore, the test mentioned in the question is likely using guaiac to detect the presence of occult blood.

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  • 20. 

    Blood gases can be monitored using the:

    • AXOVimeter.

    • Cardiac status.

    • Cholestech.

    • Triage Meter Pro.

    Correct Answer
    A. AXOVimeter.
    Explanation
    The AXOVimeter is a device used for monitoring blood gases. It is specifically designed for this purpose and provides accurate measurements of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Other options such as cardiac status, Cholestech, and Triage Meter Pro are not specifically designed for monitoring blood gases and may not provide accurate readings. Therefore, the correct answer is AXOVimeter.

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  • 21. 

    Septicemia is:

    • A positive test for transmissible disease

    • Bacteria measurement in whole blood.

    • Fever in which the cause is not known

    • Microorganisms found in the blood.

    Correct Answer
    A. Microorganisms found in the blood.
    Explanation
    Septicemia refers to a condition where microorganisms, such as bacteria, are present in the bloodstream. This can occur when an infection spreads from a localized site to the bloodstream, leading to the dissemination of bacteria throughout the body. It is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention.

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  • 22. 

    A peak drug level has been ordered for 0900 hours. You draw the specimen 10 minutes late because of unavoidable circumstances. What additional action does this necessitate?

    • Draw two tubes for duplicate drug screening.

    • Establish the last dosage time from the chart

    • Fill out a delay slip and leave with the desk clerk

    • Record the actual time of specimen collection

    Correct Answer
    A. Record the actual time of specimen collection
    Explanation
    When drawing a peak drug level, it is important to accurately record the time of specimen collection. In this scenario, the specimen was drawn 10 minutes late due to unavoidable circumstances. To ensure accurate interpretation of the drug level, it is necessary to record the actual time of specimen collection. This information will be important for the healthcare provider to properly interpret the drug level and make appropriate decisions regarding medication dosages or adjustments.

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  • 23. 

    Forensic toxicology is corncerned with

    • Deliberate, not accidental toxin contact.

    • Legal consequences of toxin exposure.

    • Toxin contamination in water resources.

    • Treatment for the effects of the toxins.

    Correct Answer
    A. Legal consequences of toxin exposure.
    Explanation
    Forensic toxicology is a branch of science that deals with the analysis of toxins and their effects on the human body in the context of legal matters. It involves the identification and quantification of toxins in biological samples and the interpretation of the results to determine the possible role of toxins in criminal investigations or legal cases. The focus is on deliberate toxin exposure and its potential legal consequences, rather than accidental contact or treatment for toxin effects.

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  • 24. 

    TB test administration involves:

    • Applying pressure right after injection.

    • Checking for a reaction in 12 to 24 hours.

    • Cleaning the site with povidone-iodine.

    • Injecting the antigen just under the skin.

    Correct Answer
    A. Injecting the antigen just under the skin.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is injecting the antigen just under the skin. This is because the TB test, also known as the Mantoux test, involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin antigen just beneath the skin. This allows for the body's immune response to be assessed by checking for a reaction in 12 to 24 hours. Applying pressure after injection and cleaning the site with povidone-iodine are not specific steps involved in TB test administration.

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  • 25. 

    In using a cell-salvagine procedure during surgery, what analyte must be evaluated before the patient's blood can be reinfused?

    • Chemical toxins

    • Free hemoglobulin

    • Plasma glucose

    • White cell count.

    Correct Answer
    A. Free hemoglobulin
    Explanation
    During a cell-salvage procedure, the patient's blood is collected, processed, and then reinfused back into their body. Before the blood can be reinfused, it is important to evaluate the level of free hemoglobin in the blood. Free hemoglobin can be released into the bloodstream during surgery and can cause complications such as kidney damage. By evaluating the level of free hemoglobin, medical professionals can ensure that it is within a safe range before reinfusing the blood back into the patient.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following tests is collected from patients with FUO to rule out septicemia?

    • Blood cultures times two

    • Nasopharynegal culture

    • Urine culture and sensitivity

    • Wound and skin culture

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood cultures times two
    Explanation
    Blood cultures are collected from patients with FUO (Fever of Unknown Origin) to rule out septicemia, which is a serious bloodstream infection. Collecting blood cultures times two increases the chances of detecting any bacteria or fungi that may be causing the infection. By culturing the blood, healthcare providers can identify the specific pathogen responsible for the septicemia and guide appropriate treatment. Nasopharyngeal, urine, wound, and skin cultures are not specifically used to rule out septicemia, although they may be useful in diagnosing other types of infections.

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  • 27. 

    Point-of-care detection of group a strep normally requires a:

    • Blood Sample.

    • Nasal Collection.

    • Throat swab.

    • Urine specimen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Throat swab.
    Explanation
    Group A strep, also known as Streptococcus pyogenes, is a bacterium that commonly causes infections in the throat and tonsils, such as strep throat. To detect the presence of group A strep, a throat swab is typically required. This involves using a cotton swab to collect a sample from the back of the throat, where the bacteria are most likely to be present. This sample can then be analyzed in a laboratory to identify the presence of group A strep. Blood samples, nasal collections, and urine specimens are not typically used for the detection of group A strep.

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  • 28. 

    A bleeding time (BT) test assesses the functioning of which of the following cellular elements?

    • Erythrocyte

    • Leukocytes

    • Neutrophils

    • Thrombocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrombocytes
    Explanation
    A bleeding time (BT) test assesses the functioning of thrombocytes, also known as platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. By measuring the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a small incision, the BT test can provide information about the platelet count and their ability to form clots. This test is commonly used to evaluate bleeding disorders or monitor the effectiveness of certain medications that affect platelet function.

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  • 29. 

    The most common reason for glucose monitoring through POCT is to:

    • Check for sporadic glucose in the urine.

    • Diagnose glucose metabolism problems.

    • Monitor glucose levels for diabetic care.

    • Control medication-induced mood swings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor glucose levels for diabetic care.
    Explanation
    Glucose monitoring through POCT (Point-of-Care Testing) is commonly done to monitor glucose levels for diabetic care. This is because individuals with diabetes need to regularly monitor their blood glucose levels to manage their condition effectively. By monitoring glucose levels, they can make necessary adjustments to their diet, exercise, and medication to keep their blood sugar within a target range. This helps prevent complications and maintain overall health. Monitoring sporadic glucose in the urine, diagnosing glucose metabolism problems, and controlling medication-induced mood swings are not the primary reasons for glucose monitoring through POCT.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a skin test for tuberculosis exposure?

    • Cocci

    • Histo

    • PPD

    • Schick

    Correct Answer
    A. PPD
    Explanation
    PPD stands for purified protein derivative, which is a substance used in a skin test called the Mantoux test to determine if a person has been exposed to tuberculosis. A small amount of PPD is injected just under the skin, and if the person has been exposed to tuberculosis, a raised bump will appear at the injection site within 48 to 72 hours. This test helps to identify individuals who have been infected with the bacteria that cause tuberculosis, even if they do not have active symptoms of the disease. Cocci, Histo, and Schick are not related to tuberculosis exposure or testing.

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  • 31. 

    Which one of the following statements about autologous donations is untrue?

    • Blood can be collected up to 72 hours before surgery.

    • Patients must have a written order from their physician.

    • Unused autologous units may be used by other patients.

    • Risks

    Correct Answer
    A. Unused autologous units may be used by other patients.
    Explanation
    Unused autologous units may not be used by other patients because autologous donations are specifically collected for a particular patient, usually in preparation for a planned surgery. These units are not suitable for use by other patients due to the risk of incompatibility and potential transmission of diseases. Autologous donations are collected up to 72 hours before surgery with a written order from the physician to ensure that the patient's own blood is available for transfusion if needed during the surgery.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following tests is collected using special skin decontamination procedures?

    • Blood area nitrogen

    • Complete blood count

    • Set of blood cultures

    • Type and cross match

    Correct Answer
    A. Set of blood cultures
    Explanation
    A set of blood cultures is collected using special skin decontamination procedures. This is because blood cultures are used to detect the presence of bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream. To ensure accurate results and prevent contamination, the skin must be properly cleaned and disinfected before collecting the blood samples for culture. This involves using specific antiseptic solutions and techniques to eliminate any potential sources of contamination on the skin surface.

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  • 33. 

    A site for blood culture collection can typically be cleaned with which of the following?

    • Chlorhexidene gluconate

    • Hydrogen peroxide

    • Sodium hypochlorite

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Chlorhexidene gluconate
    Explanation
    Chlorhexidine gluconate is typically used to clean the site for blood culture collection. It is a common antiseptic that is effective against a wide range of microorganisms. It is often preferred over hydrogen peroxide and sodium hypochlorite because it has a longer-lasting antimicrobial effect and is less likely to cause tissue damage or irritation. Therefore, chlorhexidine gluconate is the recommended choice for cleaning the site before blood culture collection.

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  • 34. 

    A phlebotomist arrives to collect a 2-hour postprandial glucose specimen on an inpatient and discovers that 2 hours have not elapsed since the patient's last meal. What should the phlebotomist do?

    • Ask the patient's nurse to verify the correct collection time.

    • Come back later at the time the patient tells you is correct.

    • Draw the specimen and write the time collected on the label.

    • Fill out an incident report form and return to the laboratory.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask the patient's nurse to verify the correct collection time.
    Explanation
    The phlebotomist should ask the patient's nurse to verify the correct collection time. This is important because the accuracy of the postprandial glucose test relies on the blood sample being collected exactly 2 hours after the patient's last meal. By confirming the correct collection time with the nurse, the phlebotomist ensures that the test results are reliable and accurate.

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  • 35. 

    Patient preparation before a GTT involves:

    • Eating meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate 3 days prior.

    • Exercising for 3 hours a day for a week prior to having the test.

    • Fasting for at least 2 hours before having the fasting specimen drawn.

    • No chewing gum before or during the test unless it is sugarless.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eating meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate 3 days prior.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is eating meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate 3 days prior. This is because the GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test) is a test used to diagnose diabetes or gestational diabetes. By consuming meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate, it helps to standardize the amount of glucose in the body before the test. This allows for accurate measurement of how the body processes and handles glucose. The other options, such as exercising or fasting, may have an impact on glucose levels but are not specifically mentioned as part of the patient preparation for a GTT.

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  • 36. 

    Some individuals lack the necessary mucosal enzyme to convert which of the following sugars so that it can be digested?

    • Glucose

    • Glucagon

    • Lactose

    • Pentose

    Correct Answer
    A. Lactose
    Explanation
    Lactose is a sugar found in milk and dairy products. In order to be digested, lactose needs to be broken down into its component sugars, glucose and galactose, by an enzyme called lactase. However, some individuals lack the necessary mucosal enzyme, lactase, to break down lactose. This condition is known as lactose intolerance, and it can cause digestive symptoms such as bloating, gas, and diarrhea when lactose is consumed. Therefore, individuals who lack the necessary mucosal enzyme are unable to digest lactose properly.

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  • 37. 

    Which type of additive is best for collecting an etha- nol specimen?

    • CPA + adenine

    • Potassium EDTA

    • Sodium citrate

    • Sodium fluoride

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium fluoride
    Explanation
    Sodium fluoride is the best additive for collecting an ethanol specimen. This is because sodium fluoride acts as a preservative and inhibits the growth of microorganisms in the specimen. It also prevents the breakdown of ethanol by inhibiting the enzyme that metabolizes it. This ensures that the ethanol levels in the specimen remain stable and accurate for testing purposes.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is one of the most common beside or POCT tests?

    • Bilirubin

    • Cholesterol

    • Glucose

    • Troponin

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose
    Explanation
    Glucose is one of the most common beside or POCT tests because it is a vital indicator of a person's blood sugar levels. Glucose tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as diabetes. They are also important in assessing overall health and detecting potential complications. Monitoring glucose levels helps individuals manage their diet, medication, and lifestyle choices to maintain optimal health.

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  • 39. 

    At what inervals is the blood blotted during a bleeding-time test?

    • 10 seconds

    • 20 seconds

    • 30 seconds

    • 60 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 seconds
    Explanation
    During a bleeding-time test, the blood is blotted at 30-second intervals. This means that after a small incision is made, a piece of filter paper is placed on the wound every 30 seconds to absorb the blood. The purpose of this test is to assess the blood's ability to clot and determine if there are any abnormalities in the clotting process. By blotting the blood at regular intervals, healthcare professionals can monitor the time it takes for the bleeding to stop, which can provide valuable information about a person's bleeding tendencies and overall clotting function.

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  • 40. 

    In performing the bleeding-time test, a sphygmomanometer is inflated to:

    • 20 mm Hg.

    • 40 mm Hg.

    • 60 mm Hg.

    • 100 mm Hg.

    Correct Answer
    A. 40 mm Hg.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 40 mm Hg. The bleeding-time test is used to evaluate platelet function and assess the ability of blood to clot. By inflating the sphygmomanometer to 40 mm Hg, an appropriate amount of pressure is applied to the site of the incision to allow for the formation of a platelet plug and subsequent clotting. Lower pressures may not provide enough pressure to initiate clotting, while higher pressures may cause excessive clotting and skew the results of the test. Therefore, 40 mm Hg is the optimal pressure for performing the bleeding-time test.

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  • 41. 

    A transfusion of incompatible blood is often fatal because it:

    • Causes a major allergic reaction, releasing too much histamine.

    • Causes lysis, or rupturing, of rbc's, within the vascular system.

    • Overwhelms the patient's lungs with the non-functioning rbc's

    • Results in hemochromatosis in the patent's circulatory system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes lysis, or rupturing, of rbc's, within the vascular system.
    Explanation
    A transfusion of incompatible blood is often fatal because it causes lysis, or rupturing, of red blood cells (rbc's) within the vascular system. When incompatible blood is transfused, the recipient's immune system recognizes the foreign blood cells as invaders and attacks them. This immune response leads to the destruction of the red blood cells, causing their rupture and release of their contents into the bloodstream. This can result in a cascade of harmful effects, including organ damage, clotting disorders, and potentially death.

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  • 42. 

    Potassium is least likely to play a major role in:

    • Muscle function.

    • Nerve conduction.

    • Osmotic pressure.

    • Transporting Hgb.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transporting Hgb.
    Explanation
    Potassium plays a major role in muscle function and nerve conduction, as it is involved in the generation and transmission of electrical impulses. It also contributes to osmotic pressure, which helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body. However, potassium does not play a direct role in transporting hemoglobin (Hgb), which is primarily carried out by red blood cells. Therefore, it is least likely to play a major role in transporting Hgb.

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  • 43. 

    To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that you:

    • Collect the royal-blue tube last in the order of draw.

    • Draw by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system.

    • Use a syringe and transfer blood into the royal-blue tube last

    • Use only a royal-blue short-draw tube with heparin or EDTA.

    Correct Answer
    A. Draw by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system.
    Explanation
    To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested to draw the blood by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system. This method ensures that there is no cross-contamination from other tubes or substances that may interfere with the trace-element analysis. Using a separate syringe or evacuated tube system minimizes the risk of introducing any contaminants and ensures accurate results for the trace-element collection.

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  • 44. 

    This test is also referrred to as packed cell volume

    • ESR

    • HCT

    • Hgb

    • HMT

    Correct Answer
    A. HCT
    Explanation
    HCT stands for hematocrit, which is a test that measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. It is also commonly referred to as packed cell volume. The test is used to evaluate the overall health of a person's blood and can help diagnose conditions such as anemia or dehydration. By measuring the proportion of red blood cells, HCT provides valuable information about the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can aid in the diagnosis and monitoring of various medical conditions.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following are coagulation tests that can be monitored using a POC instrument?

    • BNP and HCT

    • BUN and UA

    • HCO3 - and Tni

    • INR and PTT

    Correct Answer
    A. INR and PTT
    Explanation
    The International Normalized Ratio (INR) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are both coagulation tests that can be monitored using a Point-of-Care (POC) instrument. INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, while PTT is used to assess the overall functioning of the coagulation cascade. These tests are commonly performed in clinical settings to evaluate a patient's clotting ability and to monitor the effects of medication or disease on the coagulation system.

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  • 46. 

    Which BC is inoculated first when the specimenhas been collected by needle and syringe?

    • Aerobic media

    • Anaerobic vial

    • ARD container

    • It does not matter

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaerobic vial
    Explanation
    When a specimen has been collected by needle and syringe, the anaerobic vial is inoculated first. This is because the anaerobic vial is specifically designed to create an environment without oxygen, which is necessary for the growth of certain types of bacteria. By inoculating the specimen into the anaerobic vial first, it ensures that the bacteria that require an oxygen-free environment have the best chance of growing and being detected in the laboratory analysis.

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  • 47. 

    The Siemens Patient Identification Check-Blood Administration system is a:

    • Complete management system for IV chemotherapy.

    • Plasma/low hemoglobin point-of-care analyzer

    • Portable bar-code scanning system for positive patient ID

    • Special ID bracelet having a self-carbon adhesive label

    Correct Answer
    A. Portable bar-code scanning system for positive patient ID
    Explanation
    The Siemens Patient Identification Check-Blood Administration system is a portable bar-code scanning system for positive patient ID. This system allows healthcare providers to accurately identify patients by scanning their barcodes, ensuring that the right medication or treatment is given to the right patient. It helps prevent medication errors and improves patient safety by reducing the risk of administering medication to the wrong patient.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following pieces of equipment can be eliminated from a list needed for a bleeding-time test?

    • Butterfly bandage

    • Incision template

    • Small stopwatch

    • Vinyl tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    A. Vinyl tourniquet
    Explanation
    The vinyl tourniquet can be eliminated from the list needed for a bleeding-time test because it is not necessary for the procedure. A bleeding-time test measures the time it takes for a small puncture wound to stop bleeding, and the vinyl tourniquet is not used in this process. The other items on the list, such as the butterfly bandage, incision template, and small stopwatch, are all essential for performing the test accurately.

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  • 49. 

    An uncorrected imbalance of this analyte in a patient can quickly lead to death.

    • Hemoglobin

    • Potassium

    • Prothrombin

    • Troponin T

    Correct Answer
    A. Potassium
    Explanation
    An uncorrected imbalance of potassium in a patient can quickly lead to death. Potassium is an essential electrolyte that plays a crucial role in maintaining proper functioning of the heart, muscles, and nerves. Imbalances in potassium levels can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to monitor and correct potassium imbalances promptly to prevent fatal consequences.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 10, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Phbmuststudy

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