Take Home Quiz Chapter 11

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1. Increased blood glucose is called:

Explanation

Hyperglycemia refers to a condition where there is an abnormally high level of glucose in the blood. This can occur due to various reasons, such as insufficient insulin production or ineffective insulin utilization. Hyperglycemia is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, a chronic condition characterized by high blood sugar levels. It can lead to symptoms like increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. If left untreated, hyperglycemia can cause long-term complications such as cardiovascular disease, kidney damage, and nerve damage. Therefore, hyperglycemia is the correct term to describe increased blood glucose levels.

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About This Quiz
Medical Science Quizzes & Trivia

The 'Take Home Quiz Chapter 11' assesses knowledge in forensic toxicology, TB test procedures, urine drug screens, blood culture collection, lactose tolerance tests, and paternity testing. It is designed for learners to understand medical pathology and toxicological implications in legal and health contexts.

2. The hormone detected in urine pregnacny testing is:

Explanation

The hormone detected in urine pregnancy testing is hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). hCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and can be detected in the urine of pregnant women. This hormone is used as a marker to confirm pregnancy in home pregnancy tests. ACT, PPD, and TSH are not hormones related to pregnancy testing.

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3. Which specimen requires esspceially strict identification and labeling procedures?

Explanation

Cross-matching is a procedure that involves testing the compatibility of blood between a donor and a recipient before a blood transfusion. It is crucial to ensure that the recipient's immune system does not react negatively to the donor's blood. Therefore, cross-matching requires especially strict identification and labeling procedures to avoid any mix-ups or errors that could lead to severe complications or even fatalities during a blood transfusion.

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4. Which type of specimen may require colection of a discard tube before the test specimen is collected?

Explanation

In coagulation testing, a discard tube is required before collecting the test specimen. This is because the discard tube is used to remove any residual anticoagulant or tissue factor present in the needle and tubing, which could interfere with the accuracy of the coagulation test results. By discarding the initial blood sample, any potential contamination is eliminated, ensuring that the subsequent test specimen collected is free from any interfering substances.

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5. A typical unit of donated blood contrains approximately:

Explanation

A typical unit of donated blood contains approximately 450 ml. This is the most common volume for a unit of donated blood. It is important to have a standardized volume for blood donations to ensure consistency and safety in the process. This volume allows for efficient testing and processing of the donated blood, while also being a safe amount for the donor to give.

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6. Which one of the following should be deleted from the list of those allowed to order paternity testing?

Explanation

The child who is a minor should be deleted from the list of those allowed to order paternity testing because minors do not have the legal capacity to make such decisions. Paternity testing involves medical procedures and legal implications, and it is typically the responsibility of the parents or legal guardians to make decisions on behalf of minors. Therefore, allowing a minor to order paternity testing would not be appropriate or legally valid.

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7. If an assumed parent in a paternity case cannot be excluded by abo grouping, which of the following additional tests may be required?

Explanation

If an assumed parent in a paternity case cannot be excluded by ABO grouping, an additional test that may be required is a buccal sample for DNA. ABO grouping is a blood typing test that determines the ABO blood type of an individual. However, it does not provide conclusive evidence of paternity. DNA testing, on the other hand, can accurately determine the biological relationship between individuals by comparing their genetic profiles. A buccal sample, which is collected from the inside of the cheek, is a common method for obtaining DNA for testing purposes. Therefore, a buccal sample for DNA would be a suitable additional test in this scenario.

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8. Which type of test is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual was the father of a particular child?

Explanation

Paternity testing is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual is the biological father of a particular child. This test analyzes the genetic markers in the DNA of both the child and the potential father to establish a biological relationship. By comparing the genetic profiles, the likelihood of paternity can be calculated with a high degree of accuracy.

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9. Which of the following activities has no effect on glucose tolerance test (GTT) results?

Explanation

Lying down during the glucose tolerance test (GTT) has no effect on the test results because the position of the body does not influence the body's ability to process glucose. The GTT measures how well the body metabolizes glucose and evaluates the body's response to it. Activities such as chewing sugarless gum, drinking tea without sugar, and smoking low-tar cigarettes can potentially affect the test results by altering blood sugar levels or insulin response. However, lying down does not have any impact on these factors, thus it does not affect the GTT results.

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10. Erythema means:

Explanation

Erythema refers to redness of the skin, which can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, infection, or irritation. It is a common symptom that can occur in response to sunburn, allergic reactions, or certain medical conditions. The term "erythema" specifically describes the red appearance of the skin and does not imply hardness, inflammation, or swelling.

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11. A parient undergoing a GTT vomits within 30 minutes of drinking the flocose beverage. What action should the phlebotomist take?

Explanation

The phlebotomist should notify the nurse or physician immediately to see if the test should be rescheduled. Vomiting within 30 minutes of drinking the glucose beverage can affect the accuracy of the test results. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate course of action, which may involve rescheduling the test or taking other necessary steps.

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12. All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have which of the following in common?

Explanation

All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have the ability to use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples. This means that they can analyze glucose levels in blood samples obtained from different sources. Additionally, these analyzers have the capability to download data to a data management program, allowing for easy tracking and analysis of glucose levels over time. Finally, they require the use of an authorized operator ID number, ensuring that only authorized personnel can access and operate the analyzer. Therefore, all of the given options are common features of POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use.

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13. Eligibility requirements for donating blood include:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Age 17 to 66 years, 110 pounds or more." This answer combines the age requirement of being between 17 and 66 years old with the weight requirement of being at least 110 pounds. This means that individuals who are within this age range and meet the weight requirement are eligible to donate blood.

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14. The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is:

Explanation

Skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect of blood culture collection because it helps to reduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the bloodstream during the collection process. Properly cleaning and disinfecting the skin before inserting the needle helps to minimize the chance of bacterial or fungal contamination, which could lead to false-positive results or misdiagnosis. Ensuring aseptic technique during skin antisepsis is crucial in preventing infections and ensuring accurate and reliable blood culture results. Needle gauge, specimen handling, and volume collected are important factors as well, but skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect for maintaining the integrity of the blood culture sample.

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15. Which of the following specimens may require chain-of-custody documentation when it is collected?

Explanation

A drug screen is a test used to detect the presence of drugs or their metabolites in a person's body. Due to the potential legal implications and consequences associated with drug use, it is important to maintain a proper chain-of-custody documentation for the specimen collected. This documentation ensures the integrity and accountability of the specimen from the moment it is collected until it is analyzed in the laboratory, preventing any tampering or mishandling of the sample. Therefore, a drug screen is a specimen that may require chain-of-custody documentation when collected.

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16. Which specimen tubes must contain a 9-to-1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant to be accepted for testing?

Explanation

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17. Donor units of blood are typically collected using needles that are:

Explanation

The correct answer is 16 to 18 gauge. This is because larger gauge needles allow for a faster flow of blood, which is important when collecting blood from donors. The larger size also reduces the risk of hemolysis, which is the breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, using 16 to 18 gauge needles is the most suitable option for collecting donor units of blood.

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18. This test detects occult blood.

Explanation

Guaiac is a substance that reacts with the heme component of hemoglobin, the molecule responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. When guaiac comes into contact with occult blood (blood that is not visible to the naked eye), it produces a blue color. Therefore, the test mentioned in the question is likely using guaiac to detect the presence of occult blood.

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19. The definition of toxicology is:

Explanation

Toxicology is the scientific study of poisons, including their nature, effects, and detection. It involves understanding how toxic substances interact with living organisms and the mechanisms by which they cause harm. This field is crucial in assessing the safety of chemicals, drugs, and environmental pollutants, as well as in forensic investigations involving poisoning cases. By studying the effects of poisons on biological systems, toxicologists can develop strategies to prevent and treat poisoning incidents, ensuring public health and safety.

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20. Blood gases can be monitored using the:

Explanation

The AXOVimeter is a device used for monitoring blood gases. It is specifically designed for this purpose and provides accurate measurements of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Other options such as cardiac status, Cholestech, and Triage Meter Pro are not specifically designed for monitoring blood gases and may not provide accurate readings. Therefore, the correct answer is AXOVimeter.

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21. Septicemia is:

Explanation

Septicemia refers to a condition where microorganisms, such as bacteria, are present in the bloodstream. This can occur when an infection spreads from a localized site to the bloodstream, leading to the dissemination of bacteria throughout the body. It is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention.

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22. A peak drug level has been ordered for 0900 hours. You draw the specimen 10 minutes late because of unavoidable circumstances. What additional action does this necessitate?

Explanation

When drawing a peak drug level, it is important to accurately record the time of specimen collection. In this scenario, the specimen was drawn 10 minutes late due to unavoidable circumstances. To ensure accurate interpretation of the drug level, it is necessary to record the actual time of specimen collection. This information will be important for the healthcare provider to properly interpret the drug level and make appropriate decisions regarding medication dosages or adjustments.

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23. Forensic toxicology is corncerned with

Explanation

Forensic toxicology is a branch of science that deals with the analysis of toxins and their effects on the human body in the context of legal matters. It involves the identification and quantification of toxins in biological samples and the interpretation of the results to determine the possible role of toxins in criminal investigations or legal cases. The focus is on deliberate toxin exposure and its potential legal consequences, rather than accidental contact or treatment for toxin effects.

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24. TB test administration involves:

Explanation

The correct answer is injecting the antigen just under the skin. This is because the TB test, also known as the Mantoux test, involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin antigen just beneath the skin. This allows for the body's immune response to be assessed by checking for a reaction in 12 to 24 hours. Applying pressure after injection and cleaning the site with povidone-iodine are not specific steps involved in TB test administration.

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25. Which of the following tests is collected from patients with FUO to rule out septicemia?

Explanation

Blood cultures are collected from patients with FUO (Fever of Unknown Origin) to rule out septicemia, which is a serious bloodstream infection. Collecting blood cultures times two increases the chances of detecting any bacteria or fungi that may be causing the infection. By culturing the blood, healthcare providers can identify the specific pathogen responsible for the septicemia and guide appropriate treatment. Nasopharyngeal, urine, wound, and skin cultures are not specifically used to rule out septicemia, although they may be useful in diagnosing other types of infections.

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26. In using a cell-salvagine procedure during surgery, what analyte must be evaluated before the patient's blood can be reinfused?

Explanation

During a cell-salvage procedure, the patient's blood is collected, processed, and then reinfused back into their body. Before the blood can be reinfused, it is important to evaluate the level of free hemoglobin in the blood. Free hemoglobin can be released into the bloodstream during surgery and can cause complications such as kidney damage. By evaluating the level of free hemoglobin, medical professionals can ensure that it is within a safe range before reinfusing the blood back into the patient.

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27. Point-of-care detection of group a strep normally requires a:

Explanation

Group A strep, also known as Streptococcus pyogenes, is a bacterium that commonly causes infections in the throat and tonsils, such as strep throat. To detect the presence of group A strep, a throat swab is typically required. This involves using a cotton swab to collect a sample from the back of the throat, where the bacteria are most likely to be present. This sample can then be analyzed in a laboratory to identify the presence of group A strep. Blood samples, nasal collections, and urine specimens are not typically used for the detection of group A strep.

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28. A bleeding time (BT) test assesses the functioning of which of the following cellular elements?

Explanation

A bleeding time (BT) test assesses the functioning of thrombocytes, also known as platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. By measuring the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a small incision, the BT test can provide information about the platelet count and their ability to form clots. This test is commonly used to evaluate bleeding disorders or monitor the effectiveness of certain medications that affect platelet function.

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29. The most common reason for glucose monitoring through POCT is to:

Explanation

Glucose monitoring through POCT (Point-of-Care Testing) is commonly done to monitor glucose levels for diabetic care. This is because individuals with diabetes need to regularly monitor their blood glucose levels to manage their condition effectively. By monitoring glucose levels, they can make necessary adjustments to their diet, exercise, and medication to keep their blood sugar within a target range. This helps prevent complications and maintain overall health. Monitoring sporadic glucose in the urine, diagnosing glucose metabolism problems, and controlling medication-induced mood swings are not the primary reasons for glucose monitoring through POCT.

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30. Which of the following is a skin test for tuberculosis exposure?

Explanation

PPD stands for purified protein derivative, which is a substance used in a skin test called the Mantoux test to determine if a person has been exposed to tuberculosis. A small amount of PPD is injected just under the skin, and if the person has been exposed to tuberculosis, a raised bump will appear at the injection site within 48 to 72 hours. This test helps to identify individuals who have been infected with the bacteria that cause tuberculosis, even if they do not have active symptoms of the disease. Cocci, Histo, and Schick are not related to tuberculosis exposure or testing.

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31. A phlebotomist arrives to collect a 2-hour postprandial glucose specimen on an inpatient and discovers that 2 hours have not elapsed since the patient's last meal. What should the phlebotomist do?

Explanation

The phlebotomist should ask the patient's nurse to verify the correct collection time. This is important because the accuracy of the postprandial glucose test relies on the blood sample being collected exactly 2 hours after the patient's last meal. By confirming the correct collection time with the nurse, the phlebotomist ensures that the test results are reliable and accurate.

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32. Patient preparation before a GTT involves:

Explanation

The correct answer is eating meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate 3 days prior. This is because the GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test) is a test used to diagnose diabetes or gestational diabetes. By consuming meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate, it helps to standardize the amount of glucose in the body before the test. This allows for accurate measurement of how the body processes and handles glucose. The other options, such as exercising or fasting, may have an impact on glucose levels but are not specifically mentioned as part of the patient preparation for a GTT.

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33. Which of the following tests is collected using special skin decontamination procedures?

Explanation

A set of blood cultures is collected using special skin decontamination procedures. This is because blood cultures are used to detect the presence of bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream. To ensure accurate results and prevent contamination, the skin must be properly cleaned and disinfected before collecting the blood samples for culture. This involves using specific antiseptic solutions and techniques to eliminate any potential sources of contamination on the skin surface.

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34. Which one of the following statements about autologous donations is untrue?

Explanation

Unused autologous units may not be used by other patients because autologous donations are specifically collected for a particular patient, usually in preparation for a planned surgery. These units are not suitable for use by other patients due to the risk of incompatibility and potential transmission of diseases. Autologous donations are collected up to 72 hours before surgery with a written order from the physician to ensure that the patient's own blood is available for transfusion if needed during the surgery.

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35. A site for blood culture collection can typically be cleaned with which of the following?

Explanation

Chlorhexidine gluconate is typically used to clean the site for blood culture collection. It is a common antiseptic that is effective against a wide range of microorganisms. It is often preferred over hydrogen peroxide and sodium hypochlorite because it has a longer-lasting antimicrobial effect and is less likely to cause tissue damage or irritation. Therefore, chlorhexidine gluconate is the recommended choice for cleaning the site before blood culture collection.

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36. Some individuals lack the necessary mucosal enzyme to convert which of the following sugars so that it can be digested?

Explanation

Lactose is a sugar found in milk and dairy products. In order to be digested, lactose needs to be broken down into its component sugars, glucose and galactose, by an enzyme called lactase. However, some individuals lack the necessary mucosal enzyme, lactase, to break down lactose. This condition is known as lactose intolerance, and it can cause digestive symptoms such as bloating, gas, and diarrhea when lactose is consumed. Therefore, individuals who lack the necessary mucosal enzyme are unable to digest lactose properly.

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37. Which of the following is one of the most common beside or POCT tests?

Explanation

Glucose is one of the most common beside or POCT tests because it is a vital indicator of a person's blood sugar levels. Glucose tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as diabetes. They are also important in assessing overall health and detecting potential complications. Monitoring glucose levels helps individuals manage their diet, medication, and lifestyle choices to maintain optimal health.

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38. At what inervals is the blood blotted during a bleeding-time test?

Explanation

During a bleeding-time test, the blood is blotted at 30-second intervals. This means that after a small incision is made, a piece of filter paper is placed on the wound every 30 seconds to absorb the blood. The purpose of this test is to assess the blood's ability to clot and determine if there are any abnormalities in the clotting process. By blotting the blood at regular intervals, healthcare professionals can monitor the time it takes for the bleeding to stop, which can provide valuable information about a person's bleeding tendencies and overall clotting function.

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39. In performing the bleeding-time test, a sphygmomanometer is inflated to:

Explanation

The correct answer is 40 mm Hg. The bleeding-time test is used to evaluate platelet function and assess the ability of blood to clot. By inflating the sphygmomanometer to 40 mm Hg, an appropriate amount of pressure is applied to the site of the incision to allow for the formation of a platelet plug and subsequent clotting. Lower pressures may not provide enough pressure to initiate clotting, while higher pressures may cause excessive clotting and skew the results of the test. Therefore, 40 mm Hg is the optimal pressure for performing the bleeding-time test.

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40. Which type of additive is best for collecting an etha- nol specimen?

Explanation

Sodium fluoride is the best additive for collecting an ethanol specimen. This is because sodium fluoride acts as a preservative and inhibits the growth of microorganisms in the specimen. It also prevents the breakdown of ethanol by inhibiting the enzyme that metabolizes it. This ensures that the ethanol levels in the specimen remain stable and accurate for testing purposes.

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41. To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that you:

Explanation

To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested to draw the blood by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system. This method ensures that there is no cross-contamination from other tubes or substances that may interfere with the trace-element analysis. Using a separate syringe or evacuated tube system minimizes the risk of introducing any contaminants and ensures accurate results for the trace-element collection.

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42. Potassium is least likely to play a major role in:

Explanation

Potassium plays a major role in muscle function and nerve conduction, as it is involved in the generation and transmission of electrical impulses. It also contributes to osmotic pressure, which helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body. However, potassium does not play a direct role in transporting hemoglobin (Hgb), which is primarily carried out by red blood cells. Therefore, it is least likely to play a major role in transporting Hgb.

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43. This test is also referrred to as packed cell volume

Explanation

HCT stands for hematocrit, which is a test that measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. It is also commonly referred to as packed cell volume. The test is used to evaluate the overall health of a person's blood and can help diagnose conditions such as anemia or dehydration. By measuring the proportion of red blood cells, HCT provides valuable information about the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can aid in the diagnosis and monitoring of various medical conditions.

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44. A transfusion of incompatible blood is often fatal because it:

Explanation

A transfusion of incompatible blood is often fatal because it causes lysis, or rupturing, of red blood cells (rbc's) within the vascular system. When incompatible blood is transfused, the recipient's immune system recognizes the foreign blood cells as invaders and attacks them. This immune response leads to the destruction of the red blood cells, causing their rupture and release of their contents into the bloodstream. This can result in a cascade of harmful effects, including organ damage, clotting disorders, and potentially death.

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45. Which BC is inoculated first when the specimenhas been collected by needle and syringe?

Explanation

When a specimen has been collected by needle and syringe, the anaerobic vial is inoculated first. This is because the anaerobic vial is specifically designed to create an environment without oxygen, which is necessary for the growth of certain types of bacteria. By inoculating the specimen into the anaerobic vial first, it ensures that the bacteria that require an oxygen-free environment have the best chance of growing and being detected in the laboratory analysis.

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46. Which of the following are coagulation tests that can be monitored using a POC instrument?

Explanation

The International Normalized Ratio (INR) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are both coagulation tests that can be monitored using a Point-of-Care (POC) instrument. INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, while PTT is used to assess the overall functioning of the coagulation cascade. These tests are commonly performed in clinical settings to evaluate a patient's clotting ability and to monitor the effects of medication or disease on the coagulation system.

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47. Which of the following pieces of equipment can be eliminated from a list needed for a bleeding-time test?

Explanation

The vinyl tourniquet can be eliminated from the list needed for a bleeding-time test because it is not necessary for the procedure. A bleeding-time test measures the time it takes for a small puncture wound to stop bleeding, and the vinyl tourniquet is not used in this process. The other items on the list, such as the butterfly bandage, incision template, and small stopwatch, are all essential for performing the test accurately.

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48. The Siemens Patient Identification Check-Blood Administration system is a:

Explanation

The Siemens Patient Identification Check-Blood Administration system is a portable bar-code scanning system for positive patient ID. This system allows healthcare providers to accurately identify patients by scanning their barcodes, ensuring that the right medication or treatment is given to the right patient. It helps prevent medication errors and improves patient safety by reducing the risk of administering medication to the wrong patient.

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49. An uncorrected imbalance of this analyte in a patient can quickly lead to death.

Explanation

An uncorrected imbalance of potassium in a patient can quickly lead to death. Potassium is an essential electrolyte that plays a crucial role in maintaining proper functioning of the heart, muscles, and nerves. Imbalances in potassium levels can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to monitor and correct potassium imbalances promptly to prevent fatal consequences.

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50. ARD or FAN blood culture bottles:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Remove any antibiotics that are in the blood." ARD or FAN blood culture bottles are specifically designed to remove any antibiotics that may be present in the blood sample. This is important because antibiotics can inhibit the growth of bacteria, which can lead to false-negative results in blood culture tests. By removing antibiotics, the bottles ensure that any bacteria present in the blood can grow and be detected accurately.

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51. The purpose of TDM is to:

Explanation

The purpose of TDM (Therapeutic Drug Monitoring) is to determine and maintain a beneficial drug dosage. TDM involves measuring drug concentrations in a patient's blood or other biological samples to ensure that the drug is present at therapeutic levels. By monitoring drug levels, healthcare professionals can adjust the dosage to optimize effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. It is an important tool in personalized medicine, as individual patients may metabolize drugs differently and require individualized dosing regimens. TDM is not used to maintain peak or trough levels of drugs, nor is it used for screening for illegal drug use.

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52. When does a blood glucose level in normal individuals typically peak after glucose ingestion?

Explanation

After glucose ingestion, the blood glucose level in normal individuals typically peaks in about half an hour to one hour. This is because the body rapidly absorbs and processes the glucose, causing a spike in blood sugar levels. After this peak, the body gradually metabolizes the glucose, bringing the blood sugar levels back to normal.

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53. Which one of the donor unit collection principles is untrue?

Explanation

The statement "Additives EDTA and sodium fluoride are contained in the collection bag" is untrue. These additives are typically contained in the collection tube, not in the collection bag. The collection bag is used to collect and store the blood, while the collection tube is used to add additives and preserve the blood sample.

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54. Which test requires the collection of multiple specimens?

Explanation

The test that requires the collection of multiple specimens is GTT. GTT stands for Glucose Tolerance Test, which is used to diagnose diabetes or gestational diabetes. During this test, multiple blood samples are collected at different time intervals to measure the body's ability to process glucose.

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55. Which of the following should be removed from a list of drugs of abuse?

Explanation

Phenobarbital should be removed from a list of drugs of abuse because it is not typically considered a drug of abuse. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate medication that is primarily used as an anticonvulsant and sedative. It has legitimate medical uses and is not commonly abused or sought after for recreational purposes. On the other hand, drugs like amphetamines, cannabinoids, and "crack" and "ice" are known to be drugs of abuse and are often used recreationally for their psychoactive effects.

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56. Of all of the following, which tubes should be eliminated for use in collecting specimens for a blood bank?

Explanation

The large gel-barrier tube should be eliminated for use in collecting specimens for a blood bank because it contains a gel barrier that separates the cells from the serum or plasma. This gel can interfere with the accuracy of certain blood bank tests, such as crossmatching and antibody screening. Therefore, it is not suitable for collecting specimens for a blood bank.

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57. Which one of the following tests could be collected using a tube other than a trace element free tube?

Explanation

Sodium is the correct answer because it is not a trace element and can be collected using a regular tube, unlike copper, lead, and zinc which are trace elements and require a trace element free tube to avoid contamination.

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58. False-positive results of lactose tolerance tests have been found in all of the following conditions other than.

Explanation

False-positive results of lactose tolerance tests have been found in congenital cystic fibrosis, patients with flat GTT's, and slow gastric emptying. However, male multiple myeloma is not associated with false-positive results of lactose tolerance tests.

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59. When does the timing of specimen collection begin during a GTT

Explanation

The timing of specimen collection during a GTT begins when the patient has finished the glucose beverage. This is because the glucose beverage needs to be consumed first in order to measure the body's response to the glucose load. After the patient finishes the beverage, blood samples are taken at specific intervals to measure the glucose levels and assess the body's ability to regulate blood sugar.

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60. Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as a treatment

Explanation

Hemochromatosis is a condition where there is an excessive accumulation of iron in the body. This excess iron can cause damage to various organs and tissues. Treatment for hemochromatosis involves the removal of blood from the patient, known as therapeutic phlebotomy, in order to reduce the iron levels in the body. Therefore, a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient with hemochromatosis as a treatment for the condition.

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61. What is the recommended disinfectant for blood culture sites in infants 2 months and older?

Explanation

Chlorhexidine gluconate is the recommended disinfectant for blood culture sites in infants 2 months and older. Chlorhexidine gluconate has broad-spectrum antimicrobial properties and is effective against a wide range of bacteria, fungi, and viruses. It is known to have a longer-lasting effect compared to other disinfectants, making it suitable for use in blood culture sites. Isopropyl alcohol swab is commonly used for skin disinfection but may not provide sufficient antimicrobial activity for blood culture sites. Benzalkonium chloride and povidone-iodine swabs are not recommended for blood culture sites in infants due to potential toxicity and interference with culture results.

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62. Below-normal blood pH is referred to as:

Explanation

Blood acidosis refers to a condition where the blood pH is below the normal range. It occurs when there is an excess of acid or a decrease in the levels of bicarbonate in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as respiratory or metabolic disorders. Blood alkalosis, on the other hand, refers to a condition where the blood pH is above the normal range. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia are conditions involving low levels of potassium and sodium in the blood, respectively, and are not directly related to blood pH.

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63. Which point-of-care blood analyzer uses a microcuvette instead of a test strip?

Explanation

The HemoCue HB201 + is a point-of-care blood analyzer that uses a microcuvette instead of a test strip. This means that instead of placing a test strip into the analyzer, a small cuvette is used to hold the blood sample for analysis. This allows for more accurate and precise measurements of various blood parameters.

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64. The correct order in collecting a blood culture is:

Explanation

The correct order in collecting a blood culture is to first select the equipment needed for the procedure. Then, perform a friction scrub to clean the area where the venipuncture will be performed. Next, cleanse the bottle tops to ensure they are free of any contaminants. Finally, perform the venipuncture to collect the blood sample. This order ensures that the equipment is ready, the skin is clean, and the bottle tops are sterile before the blood is collected.

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65. Which of the following is not a POCT analyzer?

Explanation

The ABL 80, Coagucheck, and GEM 4000 are all examples of POCT (Point-of-Care Testing) analyzers, which are portable devices used for rapid testing and analysis of patient samples at the point of care. However, BactALERT is not a POCT analyzer. BactALERT is a microbial detection system used in clinical laboratories to detect and monitor the growth of bacteria and fungi in blood culture samples. It is not designed for immediate testing and analysis at the point of care like the other options.

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66. How much diluted antigen is injected when a ppd test is performed

Explanation

In a ppd test, 0.1 mL of diluted antigen is injected. This test is used to determine if a person has been exposed to tuberculosis. The antigen is diluted to reduce the risk of a severe reaction. By injecting 0.1 mL of the diluted antigen, healthcare professionals can assess the body's immune response to the tuberculosis bacteria.

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67. Which type of specimen may require collection of a discard tube before the test specimen is collected?

Explanation

In coagulation testing, it is important to collect a discard tube before collecting the test specimen. This is done to ensure that the sample collected is free from any contaminants or substances that may interfere with the coagulation process. The discard tube helps to remove any residual anticoagulants or substances that could affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, coagulation testing may require the collection of a discard tube before collecting the test specimen.

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68. Which test is ued as a screening test for glucose metabolism problems?

Explanation

The 2-hour PP test is used as a screening test for glucose metabolism problems. This test measures the blood glucose levels 2 hours after consuming a glucose-rich drink. It helps to identify individuals who may have impaired glucose tolerance or gestational diabetes. By measuring the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels, this test can detect early signs of glucose metabolism problems and guide further diagnostic and treatment options.

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69. Which of the following tests would not be subject to therapeutic drug monitoring?

Explanation

Therapeutic drug monitoring involves measuring drug levels in the blood to ensure that they are within the therapeutic range. This is typically done for drugs that have a narrow therapeutic index or a high risk of toxicity. In the given options, phenylalanine is not a drug that is commonly monitored in therapeutic drug monitoring. Phenylalanine is an amino acid and is not typically used as a therapeutic drug. Therefore, it would not be subject to therapeutic drug monitoring.

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70. A trough drug level is collected:

Explanation

The trough drug level is collected immediately before the next scheduled drug dose is given because this is the point at which the drug concentration is at its lowest in the patient's bloodstream. By measuring the trough level, healthcare providers can ensure that the drug is being cleared from the body properly and that the next dose will not lead to toxic levels. Collecting the trough level at this specific time allows for accurate monitoring and adjustment of the drug dosage if necessary.

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71. This test can determine if an individual has developed antibodies to a particular antigen.

Explanation

A skin test can determine if an individual has developed antibodies to a particular antigen. This is because during a skin test, a small amount of the antigen is injected into the skin, and if the person has developed antibodies against that antigen, they will have a localized immune response at the injection site, such as redness or swelling. This reaction indicates that the person has been exposed to the antigen before and has developed antibodies against it.

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72. Timing of collection is most critical for drugs with short half-lives, such as:

Explanation

Drugs with short half-lives have a rapid rate of elimination from the body, meaning they are metabolized and excreted quickly. Therefore, the timing of collection is crucial for these drugs to ensure accurate measurement of their concentration in the blood. Gentamicin is an antibiotic with a short half-life, so it is important to collect blood samples at specific times to monitor its levels and ensure effective dosing. This is particularly important to avoid toxicity or subtherapeutic levels that could lead to treatment failure.

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73. Which test ypically has the shortest TAT if performed by POCT?

Explanation

BUN stands for Blood Urea Nitrogen, which is a test that measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from urea, a waste product of protein metabolism. This test is commonly performed using Point-of-Care Testing (POCT), which allows for rapid results at the bedside or in a clinic setting. Since BUN is a simple and straightforward test, it typically has a shorter Turnaround Time (TAT) compared to other tests like DNA, GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test), or PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) which may require more complex procedures or laboratory processing.

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74. Ionized calcium plays a critical role in all of the following but one.

Explanation

Glycosylation is the process of attaching sugar molecules to proteins or lipids, and it is not directly influenced by ionized calcium levels. On the other hand, ionized calcium is essential for blood clotting, cardiac function, and nerve impulse transmission. Calcium ions are necessary for the activation of clotting factors, the contraction of cardiac muscles, and the release of neurotransmitters for nerve impulses. Therefore, ionized calcium is involved in all of these processes, except glycosylation.

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75. Which one of the following analytes is undetectabl ein urine when a urine dipstick is used?

Explanation

Thrombin is undetectable in urine when a urine dipstick is used because thrombin is a protein involved in the blood clotting process and is not normally present in urine. Urine dipsticks primarily detect the presence of certain substances such as bilirubin, glucose, and leukocytes, which can indicate various health conditions. Thrombin is not a substance that is typically measured or detected in urine analysis.

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76. Which of the following must remain consistent throughout an oral gluucose tolerance test (GTT)?

Explanation

During an oral glucose tolerance test (GTT), the blood specimen source must remain consistent. This means that the blood samples should be collected from the same source, such as a vein or a finger prick, throughout the test. Consistency in the blood specimen source is important to ensure accurate and reliable results, as different sources may have variations in glucose levels. Therefore, maintaining the same blood specimen source throughout the GTT is crucial for obtaining consistent and comparable measurements.

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77. In reading a patient's tuberculin (TB) test, there is an area induration and erythema that measures 7 mm in diameter. The result of the test is:

Explanation

An induration and erythema measuring 7 mm in diameter in a patient's tuberculin (TB) test result is considered doubtful. This means that the test result is inconclusive and further testing or evaluation may be required to determine the presence or absence of tuberculosis infection.

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78. Which of the following can be used to clean a site before a blood alcohol specimen is collected?

Explanation

Zephiran chloride can be used to clean a site before a blood alcohol specimen is collected. Zephiran chloride is a disinfectant that is commonly used in healthcare settings. It has antimicrobial properties and can effectively kill bacteria and other microorganisms on the skin. Cleaning the site with Zephiran chloride helps to reduce the risk of contamination and ensures that the blood alcohol specimen is not contaminated with any external substances. Diluted methanol, isopropyl alcohol, and tincture of iodine are not typically used for cleaning a site before collecting a blood alcohol specimen.

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79. The CPD additive in a donor unit of blood is least likely to:

Explanation

The CPD additive in a donor unit of blood is least likely to control bacterial contamination. While CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clotting, it does not have antibacterial properties. Controlling bacterial contamination is typically achieved through other measures such as proper sterilization techniques and testing procedures.

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80. B-Type natriuretic peptide is a cardiac:

Explanation

B-Type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone produced by the heart. It is released in response to increased pressure and stretching of heart muscle cells. BNP helps to regulate blood pressure and fluid balance by promoting vasodilation and increasing the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys. It is commonly used as a biomarker for diagnosing and monitoring heart failure.

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81. Why would blood cultures be collected with an antimicrobial adsorbing resin?

Explanation

Blood cultures are collected with an antimicrobial adsorbing resin when the patient is taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic. This is because broad-spectrum antibiotics can suppress the growth of bacteria in blood cultures, making it difficult to detect and identify the specific bacteria causing the infection. By using an antimicrobial adsorbing resin, the antibiotic is removed from the blood sample, allowing for accurate identification of the bacteria causing the infection.

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82. Which one of the following is an unlikely NIDA patient collection requirement for urine drug screens?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courier." This requirement is unlikely because the chain of custody is typically followed during the collection process, which ensures that the specimen is properly handled and documented from the time it is collected by the proctor to the time it is received by the courier. The other options are all common requirements for urine drug screens, such as having a proctor present during collection, following chain of custody procedures, and transporting the specimen in a locked container to maintain its integrity.

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83. This point of care testing instructment has recently been recognized as an accurate predictor of developing diabetic complications.

Explanation

The DCA Vantage is a point of care testing instrument that has recently been recognized as an accurate predictor of developing diabetic complications. This suggests that the DCA Vantage can effectively detect early signs of complications related to diabetes, allowing for timely intervention and management.

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84. This test is used to evaluate long-term effectiveness of siabetes therapy.

Explanation

Hemoglobin ALC is a test used to evaluate the long-term effectiveness of diabetes therapy. It measures the average blood sugar levels over a period of 2-3 months, providing an indication of how well the diabetes is being managed. This test is important in assessing the overall control of blood sugar and determining if adjustments need to be made to the therapy plan. The other options mentioned, such as two-hour postprandial, glucose tolerance, and random glucose, are also tests used in diabetes management but do not specifically evaluate long-term effectiveness.

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85. Which of the following is a protein that is specific to heart muscle?

Explanation

TNT, also known as troponin T, is a protein that is specific to heart muscle. It is a marker used in diagnosing heart attacks and other heart-related conditions. ALT, BNP, and LDL are not specific to heart muscle and have different functions in the body.

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86. Which of the following tests is used to monitor heparin therapy?

Explanation

ACT, or activated clotting time, is a test used to monitor heparin therapy. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. ACT measures the time it takes for blood to clot in the presence of heparin. By monitoring ACT levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients are receiving the appropriate dose of heparin to prevent clotting without increasing the risk of bleeding. This test is commonly used during cardiac procedures or surgeries where heparin is administered to prevent clotting in the blood vessels.

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87. Of the following, which one is least likely to prolong a bleeding-time test?

Explanation

Allowing the pressure on a BP cuff to drop is least likely to prolong a bleeding-time test because this action does not directly affect the ability of blood to clot. The other options, such as an abnormally low post-op platelet count, recent ingestion of aspirin, and touching the wound with the filter paper, can all interfere with the clotting process and potentially prolong the bleeding-time test.

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88. Which point-of-care test helps a physician detect low-grade inflammation even in asymptomatic individuals?

Explanation

CRP stands for C-reactive protein, which is a marker of inflammation in the body. This point-of-care test helps physicians detect low-grade inflammation, even in individuals who do not show any symptoms. By measuring the levels of CRP in the blood, physicians can identify inflammation that may be an early sign of various conditions such as infections, autoimmune diseases, or cardiovascular diseases. Therefore, CRP is the correct answer for the given question.

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89. The POC instrument Verify Now does platelet testing to:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Determine response to aspirin therapy." The Verify Now instrument is used for platelet testing, specifically to assess a patient's response to aspirin therapy. This test helps determine if the patient is receiving an adequate antiplatelet effect from aspirin, which is commonly used to prevent blood clot formation. By measuring platelet function, the Verify Now instrument can provide valuable information about the effectiveness of aspirin therapy in inhibiting platelet aggregation. This information is important for managing patients at risk for cardiovascular events.

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90. This is an abbreviation for a test that evaluates phatelet plug formation in the capillaries.

Explanation

BT is the correct answer because it stands for Bleeding Time, which is a test used to evaluate the ability of platelets to form a plug in the capillaries. This test measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a small incision is made on the skin. By assessing the bleeding time, healthcare professionals can determine if a patient has any platelet function abnormalities or disorders that may affect their ability to form blood clots.

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Increased blood glucose is called:
The hormone detected in urine pregnacny testing is:
Which specimen requires esspceially strict identification and labeling...
Which type of specimen may require colection of a discard tube before...
A typical unit of donated blood contrains approximately:
Which one of the following should be deleted from the list of those...
If an assumed parent in a paternity case cannot be excluded by abo...
Which type of test is performed to determine the probability that a...
Which of the following activities has no effect on glucose tolerance...
Erythema means:
A parient undergoing a GTT vomits within 30 minutes of drinking the...
All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have which of the...
Eligibility requirements for donating blood include:
The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is:
Which of the following specimens may require chain-of-custody...
Which specimen tubes must contain a 9-to-1 ratio of blood to...
Donor units of blood are typically collected using needles that are:
This test detects occult blood.
The definition of toxicology is:
Blood gases can be monitored using the:
Septicemia is:
A peak drug level has been ordered for 0900 hours. You draw the...
Forensic toxicology is corncerned with
TB test administration involves:
Which of the following tests is collected from patients with FUO to...
In using a cell-salvagine procedure during surgery, what analyte must...
Point-of-care detection of group a strep normally requires a:
A bleeding time (BT) test assesses the functioning of which of the...
The most common reason for glucose monitoring through POCT is to:
Which of the following is a skin test for tuberculosis exposure?
A phlebotomist arrives to collect a 2-hour postprandial glucose...
Patient preparation before a GTT involves:
Which of the following tests is collected using special skin...
Which one of the following statements about autologous donations is...
A site for blood culture collection can typically be cleaned with...
Some individuals lack the necessary mucosal enzyme to convert which of...
Which of the following is one of the most common beside or POCT tests?
At what inervals is the blood blotted during a bleeding-time test?
In performing the bleeding-time test, a sphygmomanometer is inflated...
Which type of additive is best for collecting an etha- nol specimen?
To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element...
Potassium is least likely to play a major role in:
This test is also referrred to as packed cell volume
A transfusion of incompatible blood is often fatal because it:
Which BC is inoculated first when the specimenhas been collected by...
Which of the following are coagulation tests that can be monitored...
Which of the following pieces of equipment can be eliminated from a...
The Siemens Patient Identification Check-Blood Administration system...
An uncorrected imbalance of this analyte in a patient can quickly lead...
ARD or FAN blood culture bottles:
The purpose of TDM is to:
When does a blood glucose level in normal individuals typically peak...
Which one of the donor unit collection principles is untrue?
Which test requires the collection of multiple specimens?
Which of the following should be removed from a list of drugs of...
Of all of the following, which tubes should be eliminated for use in...
Which one of the following tests could be collected using a tube other...
False-positive results of lactose tolerance tests have been found in...
When does the timing of specimen collection begin during a GTT
Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a...
What is the recommended disinfectant for blood culture sites in...
Below-normal blood pH is referred to as:
Which point-of-care blood analyzer uses a microcuvette instead of a...
The correct order in collecting a blood culture is:
Which of the following is not a POCT analyzer?
How much diluted antigen is injected when a ppd test is performed
Which type of specimen may require collection of a discard tube before...
Which test is ued as a screening test for glucose metabolism problems?
Which of the following tests would not be subject to therapeutic drug...
A trough drug level is collected:
This test can determine if an individual has developed antibodies to a...
Timing of collection is most critical for drugs with short half-lives,...
Which test ypically has the shortest TAT if performed by POCT?
Ionized calcium plays a critical role in all of the following but one.
Which one of the following analytes is undetectabl ein urine when a...
Which of the following must remain consistent throughout an oral...
In reading a patient's tuberculin (TB) test, there is an area...
Which of the following can be used to clean a site before a blood...
The CPD additive in a donor unit of blood is least likely to:
B-Type natriuretic peptide is a cardiac:
Why would blood cultures be collected with an antimicrobial adsorbing...
Which one of the following is an unlikely NIDA patient collection...
This point of care testing instructment has recently been recognized...
This test is used to evaluate long-term effectiveness of siabetes...
Which of the following is a protein that is specific to heart muscle?
Which of the following tests is used to monitor heparin therapy?
Of the following, which one is least likely to prolong a bleeding-time...
Which point-of-care test helps a physician detect low-grade...
The POC instrument Verify Now does platelet testing to:
This is an abbreviation for a test that evaluates phatelet plug...
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