CDC A3m071 Services Craftsman - Volume 1. Services General

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    ​​1. Who is responsible for writing the work center master training plan?

    • A.

      Supervisor

    • B.

      Flight Chief

    • C.

      Unti training manager (UTM)

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM) training manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for writing the work center master training plan. This is because the supervisor is in charge of overseeing the work center and ensuring that the employees are properly trained and equipped to perform their duties. They are familiar with the specific needs and requirements of the work center and can tailor the training plan accordingly. The supervisor has the authority and knowledge to identify the necessary training areas and develop a comprehensive plan to address them.

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  • 2. 

    What is the first step in developing the work center master training plan (MTP)?

    • A.

      Develop lesson guides and task breakdowns.

    • B.

      Develop training objective.

    • C.

      Develop master task list.

    • D.

      Determine training needs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop master task list.
    Explanation
    The first step in developing the work center master training plan (MTP) is to develop a master task list. This involves identifying all the tasks that need to be performed within the work center and listing them in a comprehensive manner. This step is crucial as it provides a clear understanding of the scope of work and helps in determining the training needs for each task. Once the master task list is developed, it becomes easier to proceed with the other steps of developing the MTP, such as developing training objectives, lesson guides, and task breakdowns.

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  • 3. 

    What document helps conduct effective, standardized training throughout the Services (SV) career field?

    • A.

      Job qualification standard (JQS).

    • B.

      Services Training Aids (STA).

    • C.

      Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

    • D.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Services Training Aids (STA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This document is designed to provide standardized training and education for individuals in the Services career field. It outlines the required training, knowledge, and skills needed for each job within the field, ensuring that all personnel receive consistent and effective training. The CFETP serves as a guide for both individuals seeking career progression and supervisors responsible for training and development.

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  • 4. 

    Who determines what the trainee must accomplish before considered trained?

    • A.

      Training manager.

    • B.

      Facility manager.

    • C.

      Certifying official.

    • D.

      Approving official.

    Correct Answer
    C. Certifying official.
    Explanation
    The certifying official is responsible for determining what the trainee must accomplish before being considered trained. This individual has the authority to assess the trainee's skills and knowledge and make a judgment on their readiness to be certified as trained. The certifying official may have specific criteria or standards that need to be met in order for the trainee to be deemed trained.

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  • 5. 

    What are the inclusive dates for awards packages?

    • A.

      1 Jan - 30 Dec.

    • B.

      1 Oct - 30 Sep.

    • C.

      1 May - 30 Dec.

    • D.

      1 Oct - 1 Apr.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 Oct - 30 Sep.
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for awards packages are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that any awards given or considered for during this time period are included in the awards packages.

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  • 6. 

    What is the maximum number of lines allowed on an AF 1206 nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      32

    Correct Answer
    B. 16
    Explanation
    The maximum number of lines allowed on an AF 1206 nomination package for the John L. Hennessy Trophy is 16.

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  • 7. 

    Nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy need concurrence from whom?

    • A.

      Squadron Commander

    • B.

      Group Commander

    • C.

      Installation Commander

    • D.

      Major Command (MAJCOM) Commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation Commander
    Explanation
    Nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy need concurrence from the Installation Commander. This means that the nomination packages must be approved or agreed upon by the Installation Commander before they can be considered for the John L. Hennessy Trophy. The Installation Commander holds the authority to review and endorse the nomination packages, ensuring that they meet the necessary criteria and standards for the award.

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  • 8. 

    How many types manpower do the Air Force (AF) rely on to do its mission?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    C. Three
    Explanation
    The Air Force relies on three types of manpower to accomplish its mission. This suggests that there are three distinct categories or groups of personnel that contribute to the operations and tasks of the Air Force. Without further information, it is unclear what these types of manpower specifically refer to, but it implies that there are different roles or specialties within the Air Force that work together to achieve their objectives.

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  • 9. 

    What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocation into a finite structure of authorizations by work center?

    • A.

      Unit authorization file.

    • B.

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

    • C.

      Unit personnel management roster.

    • D.

      Alpha roster.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit manpower document (UMD).
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocation into a finite structure of authorizations by work center. It provides information on the number of personnel assigned to each work center within a unit and helps in managing and tracking manpower resources effectively. The other options (Unit authorization file, Unit personnel management roster, and Alpha roster) do not specifically refer to a document that reflects the distribution of manpower allocation into a finite structure of authorizations by work center.

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  • 10. 

    What is the primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?

    • A.

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

    • B.

      Authorized manning document (AMD).

    • C.

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).

    • D.

      Unit manning and personnel management roster (UMPMR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manpower document (UMD).
    Explanation
    The primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the specific positions and manpower requirements for a unit, including the authorized number of personnel for each position. It serves as a reference for determining the staffing needs and ensuring that the unit is adequately manned to fulfill its mission. The UMD is an essential tool for unit leaders and personnel managers in managing and organizing the workforce effectively.

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  • 11. 

    What tool is used by unit commanders to fine-tune their organizations?

    • A.

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

    • B.

      Authorization Change Request (ACR).

    • C.

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).

    • D.

      Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
    Explanation
    The Authorization Change Request (ACR) is the tool used by unit commanders to fine-tune their organizations. This document allows commanders to request changes to their unit's authorized personnel levels, such as requesting additional personnel or changes in positions. By submitting an ACR, commanders can ensure that their unit is properly staffed and organized to meet their operational needs. The other options listed, such as the Unit Manpower Document (UMD), Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR), and Deployment Requirements Manning Document (DRMD), are not specifically designed for fine-tuning organizations like the ACR.

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  • 12. 

    Who authorizes the activation of the Air Reserve Component (ACR) units?

    • A.

      Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).

    • B.

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • C.

      Headquarters Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES).

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
    Explanation
    The Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) authorizes the activation of the Air Reserve Component (ACR) units. This means that the SAF has the authority to activate and deploy these units as needed. The other options, such as Air Combat Command (ACC), Headquarters Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES), and Air Education and Training Command (AETC), do not have the authority to activate these units.

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  • 13. 

    How many days annually can the Air Force (AF) use non-extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airmen Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-days to meets short-term needs?

    • A.

      89

    • B.

      139

    • C.

      179

    • D.

      365

    Correct Answer
    B. 139
    Explanation
    The Air Force can use non-extended active duty officers and Airmen Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-days for 139 days annually to meet short-term needs. This means that for 139 days in a year, the Air Force can utilize these personnel to address any immediate requirements or tasks.

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  • 14. 

    Who approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)?

    • A.

      Comptroller Commander.

    • B.

      Installation Commander.

    • C.

      Contracting Commander.

    • D.

      Force Support Commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Installation Commander.
    Explanation
    The Installation Commander approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA). This individual is responsible for overseeing and making decisions regarding the operations and activities within the installation. As such, they have the authority to approve agreements, including MOAs, that involve NAFIs. The Comptroller Commander is typically responsible for financial management, the Contracting Commander oversees procurement and contracting processes, and the Force Support Commander is in charge of providing support services to military personnel and their families. However, in this case, it is the Installation Commander who has the authority to approve the NAFI MOA.

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  • 15. 

    What allows continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?

    • A.

      Air Force Reserve (AFR) backfills.

    • B.

      National Guard Backfills.

    • C.

      Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA).

    • D.

      Non-strategic source MOAs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA).
    Explanation
    Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower. This means that even if there is a shortage of APF manpower, the organization can still carry out its activities by utilizing resources and support from strategic source MOAs. These agreements provide a framework for collaboration and resource sharing between different entities, ensuring that essential functions can be maintained even in challenging circumstances.

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  • 16. 

    What is the primary purpose of the temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?

    • A.

      Sustainment.

    • B.

      Dollar savings.

    • C.

      Manpower makeup during deployments.

    • D.

      Manpower makeup during short periods of appropriated funds (APF) manpower shortfalls.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustainment.
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA) is to ensure sustainment. This means that the T-MOA is designed to maintain or support the existing level of resources, capabilities, or operations. It is likely used to address any temporary or short-term needs in order to sustain the overall mission or objectives.

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  • 17. 

    A regular nonappropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours a week?

    • A.

      10 to 15.

    • B.

      15 to 20.

    • C.

      20 to 40.

    • D.

      Over 40.

    Correct Answer
    C. 20 to 40.
    Explanation
    A regular nonappropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed 20 to 40 hours a week. This means that their work schedule will fall within this range and they can expect to work at least 20 hours but no more than 40 hours in a week.

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  • 18. 

    What is key to classifying a position description?

    • A.

      Developing a detailed position description (PD).

    • B.

      Developing a limited PD.

    • C.

      Describes the functional location.

    • D.

      Describes the functional purpose.

    Correct Answer
    A. Developing a detailed position description (PD).
    Explanation
    Developing a detailed position description (PD) is the key to classifying a position description. A detailed PD provides comprehensive information about the responsibilities, duties, and requirements of a particular position. It includes specific details about the functional purpose and location, enabling accurate classification and understanding of the position. A limited PD may not provide enough information for proper classification, while descriptions of functional location or purpose alone do not encompass all the necessary details for classification.

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  • 19. 

    Who determines and implement the appropriate media mix to support force support squadron (FSS) activities?

    • A.

      Customer.

    • B.

      Activity manager.

    • C.

      Marketing manager.

    • D.

      Flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Marketing manager.
    Explanation
    The marketing manager is responsible for determining and implementing the appropriate media mix to support force support squadron (FSS) activities. This role involves understanding the target audience and their preferences, identifying the most effective channels to reach them, and developing a strategic plan to promote FSS activities. The marketing manager will also coordinate with other team members to ensure consistent messaging and branding across different media platforms.

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  • 20. 

    What restrictions apply when buying advertising space?

    • A.

      Advertising for tobacco products.

    • B.

      Advertising for special programs.

    • C.

      Advertising for limited sale items.

    • D.

      Advertising for lunch meal menus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Advertising for tobacco products.
    Explanation
    When buying advertising space, there are several restrictions that may apply. One of these restrictions is advertising for tobacco products. This is because tobacco advertising is heavily regulated in many countries due to the harmful effects of smoking and the need to protect public health. Governments often impose strict limitations on the promotion of tobacco products to reduce smoking rates and discourage tobacco use. Therefore, buying advertising space for tobacco products may be subject to legal restrictions and limitations.

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  • 21. 

    Who approves distribution of publications before it is released to the publisher?

    • A.

      Public affairs office.

    • B.

      Legal office.

    • C.

      Marketing office.

    • D.

      Safety office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Public affairs office.
    Explanation
    The public affairs office is responsible for approving the distribution of publications before they are released to the publisher. This office ensures that the content aligns with the organization's messaging and objectives, and that it complies with any legal or regulatory requirements. They also oversee the dissemination of information to the public and manage the organization's public image.

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  • 22. 

    Which funds are used to support day-to-day operations?

    • A.

      Operation and maintenance (O&M).

    • B.

      Nonappropriated.

    • C.

      Procurement.

    • D.

      Fallout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation and maintenance (O&M).
    Explanation
    Operation and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to support day-to-day operations. These funds cover the costs associated with running and maintaining a facility or organization, such as salaries, utilities, repairs, and general operational expenses. Nonappropriated funds are generated from activities that are not funded by taxpayer dollars, procurement funds are used for purchasing goods and services, and fallout funds typically refer to funds set aside for emergencies or unexpected events. Therefore, the correct answer is operation and maintenance (O&M).

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  • 23. 

    Which funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?

    • A.

      Operation and Maintenance (O&M).

    • B.

      Nonappropriated.

    • C.

      Procurement.

    • D.

      Fallout.

    Correct Answer
    D. Fallout.
    Explanation
    The funds from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress are known as "Fallout" funds. These funds are allocated for specific purposes that were not originally included in the regular budget. Supplemental appropriations are additional funds provided by Congress to address unforeseen events or emergencies, such as natural disasters or military operations. The term "Fallout" in this context refers to the aftermath or consequences of these events, and the funds are used to cover the associated costs.

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  • 24. 

    Which funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?

    • A.

      Operation and Maintenance (O&M).

    • B.

      Nonappropriated.

    • C.

      Procurement.

    • D.

      Fallout.

    Correct Answer
    B. Nonappropriated.
    Explanation
    Nonappropriated funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation. These funds are generated through activities such as sales, fees, and charges for goods and services provided by government entities. Unlike appropriated funds, which are allocated by Congress for specific purposes, nonappropriated funds are generated by the government itself and can be used for a broader range of activities and initiatives.

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  • 25. 

    How often does the force support squadron (FSS) update their budgets?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly
    Explanation
    The force support squadron (FSS) updates their budgets quarterly. This means that they review and revise their financial plans every three months. This frequency allows them to stay up-to-date with any changes or adjustments that may be needed in their budgeting process. It also ensures that they have accurate and current financial information to make informed decisions and allocate resources effectively.

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  • 26. 

    Who prepares income and expense (I&E) budgets?

    • A.

      Contracting officer.

    • B.

      Finance Officer.

    • C.

      Resource manager (RM).

    • D.

      Activity manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Activity manager.
    Explanation
    The activity manager is responsible for preparing income and expense (I&E) budgets. They have a thorough understanding of the specific activities and requirements of the project or program, allowing them to accurately estimate the income and expenses associated with it. The activity manager collaborates with other stakeholders to gather necessary information and ensure that the budget aligns with the overall goals and objectives. This role requires financial knowledge and the ability to make informed decisions to effectively manage resources and achieve financial targets.

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  • 27. 

    Who prioritized consolidated nonappropriated requirement budgets (NRB)? 

    • A.

      Squadron commander.

    • B.

      Flight commander.

    • C.

      Resource manager (RM).

    • D.

      Activity manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commander.
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for prioritizing consolidated nonappropriated requirement budgets (NRB). This means that they are in charge of determining which budget items are most important and should receive funding. The flight commander, resource manager, and activity manager may have input and play a role in the budgeting process, but ultimately it is the squadron commander who makes the final decisions on prioritization.

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  • 28. 

    What should you do when a piece of equipment is purchased?

    • A.

      Delete the line item from your budget.

    • B.

      Deduct the actual cost of the line item on your budget.

    • C.

      Annotate the actual cost of the time on your budget.

    • D.

      Program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan.

    Correct Answer
    D. Program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan.
    Explanation
    When a piece of equipment is purchased, it is important to program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan. This means that you should include the cost of replacing the equipment in your long-term budget and plan for it accordingly. This ensures that you are prepared for the eventual replacement of the equipment and can allocate the necessary funds for it in the future. Simply deleting the line item from your budget or deducting the actual cost of the line item does not account for the need to replace the equipment in the long term.

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  • 29. 

    Which budget should be completed before developing a five-year financial plan?

    • A.

      Quarterly.

    • B.

      Semi-annual.

    • C.

      Annual.

    • D.

      Two-year.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is annual because a five-year financial plan is a long-term plan that outlines the financial goals and strategies for the next five years. To develop an accurate and comprehensive plan, it is necessary to have a clear understanding of the annual budget for each year within the five-year period. The annual budget provides the necessary financial data and projections that can be used to create a realistic and achievable five-year financial plan. Quarterly, semi-annual, and two-year budgets do not provide the same level of detail and accuracy needed for long-term planning.

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  • 30. 

    Which funding support category funds mission sustaining programs?

    • A.

      D

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    D. A
    Explanation
    Category A funds mission sustaining programs.

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  • 31. 

    Which funding support category funds revenue generating programs?

    • A.

      D

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    Category C funds revenue generating programs.

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  • 32. 

    At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets?

    • A.

      Facility manager.

    • B.

      Squadron director.

    • C.

      Squadron commander.

    • D.

      Resource manager (RM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Resource manager (RM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Resource manager (RM). The resource manager is responsible for managing all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets at the base level. They are in charge of overseeing the financial operations, budgeting, and resource allocation for the squadron or facility. The resource manager ensures that NAF assets are properly accounted for and utilized in accordance with regulations and policies. They play a crucial role in maintaining the financial stability and efficiency of the organization.

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  • 33. 

    Which Air Force form is used as a control register to track equipment transactions?

    • A.

      126

    • B.

      254

    • C.

      988

    • D.

      1297

    Correct Answer
    A. 126
    Explanation
    Air Force form 126 is used as a control register to track equipment transactions.

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  • 34. 

    Which Air Force form is used when turning-in equipment items?

    • A.

      126

    • B.

      1297

    • C.

      2005

    • D.

      3005

    Correct Answer
    C. 2005
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2005 because it is the only option that is an Air Force form number. The other options (126, 1297, and 3005) do not correspond to any known Air Force forms. Therefore, the form used when turning-in equipment items in the Air Force is 2005.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for providing operating instructions for transporting, storing, and using all property within the force support squadron (FSS)?

    • A.

      Facility manager.

    • B.

      Nonappropriated accountant.

    • C.

      Resource manager (RM).

    • D.

      Squadron commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource manager (RM).
    Explanation
    The resource manager (RM) is responsible for providing operating instructions for transporting, storing, and using all property within the force support squadron (FSS). As the RM, they oversee the management and allocation of resources, ensuring that all property is properly handled and utilized within the squadron. This includes providing instructions on how to transport, store, and use the property effectively and safely. The facility manager is responsible for the maintenance and upkeep of facilities, the nonappropriated accountant handles financial matters, and the squadron commander is in charge of overall squadron operations.

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  • 36. 

    When safeguarding resources, how many steps are involved in the controlling process?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Four

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Two

    Correct Answer
    D. Two
    Explanation
    The controlling process involves two steps when safeguarding resources. This suggests that there are two specific actions or procedures that need to be followed in order to effectively protect and manage resources.

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  • 37. 

    At what level within the Air Force (AF) must internal controls be established to ensure proper use of all resources?

    • A.

      Operational.

    • B.

      Administrative.

    • C.

      Tactical.

    • D.

      All levels.

    Correct Answer
    D. All levels.
    Explanation
    Internal controls must be established at all levels within the Air Force to ensure the proper use of all resources. This means that every level, from operational to administrative to tactical, must have systems and processes in place to monitor and regulate the use of resources. By implementing internal controls at all levels, the Air Force can ensure accountability, prevent fraud or misuse of resources, and maintain efficient and effective operations.

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  • 38. 

    Who is responsible for administering the internal management control program (IMCP) within the force support squadron (FSS)?

    • A.

      Group commander.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Resource manager (RM).

    • D.

      Facility manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource manager (RM).
    Explanation
    The resource manager (RM) is responsible for administering the internal management control program (IMCP) within the force support squadron (FSS). The RM is in charge of managing and allocating resources within the squadron, including overseeing the IMCP. They ensure that the squadron's internal controls are in place and functioning effectively, helping to identify and mitigate any risks or deficiencies. The group commander and squadron commander may have overall authority within the FSS, but the specific responsibility for the IMCP lies with the resource manager.

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  • 39. 

    Who approves fund storage limits?

    • A.

      Installation commander.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Resource manager (RM).

    • D.

      Activity manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for approving fund storage limits. As the highest-ranking official at the installation, they have the authority to make decisions regarding financial matters and ensure that funds are stored in a way that aligns with regulations and guidelines. The installation commander's approval is necessary to establish the limits for fund storage, ensuring accountability and proper management of funds within the organization.

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  • 40. 

    What type of loss is it when someone fails to exercise even a slight degree of care or acts in a manner that is an extreme departure from the course of action expected of a reasonable person with all circumstances considered to prevent a loss?

    • A.

      Simple negligence.

    • B.

      Willful misconduct.

    • C.

      Gross negligence.

    • D.

      Proximate cause.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gross negligence.
    Explanation
    Gross negligence refers to the failure to exercise even a slight degree of care or acting in a manner that is an extreme departure from what a reasonable person would do to prevent a loss. It goes beyond simple negligence and implies a reckless disregard for the safety and well-being of others. Willful misconduct, on the other hand, refers to intentionally harmful actions, while proximate cause refers to the legal concept of a direct cause-and-effect relationship between an action and a loss. Therefore, the best fit for the given scenario is gross negligence.

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  • 41. 

    Who conducts an informal review in losses up to and including $50?

    • A.

      Squadron commander.

    • B.

      Nonappropriated fund (NAF) custodian.

    • C.

      Resource manager (RM).

    • D.

      Activity manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource manager (RM).
    Explanation
    The resource manager (RM) conducts an informal review in losses up to and including $50. This means that the RM is responsible for reviewing and addressing any losses or discrepancies in resources or funds up to the specified amount. They are tasked with managing and overseeing the allocation and utilization of resources within an organization, ensuring that they are used effectively and efficiently. Conducting informal reviews helps the RM identify any issues or irregularities in the allocation or use of resources, allowing them to take appropriate action to rectify the situation.

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  • 42. 

    Who appoints an individual to conduct an inquiry for losses over $250, up to and including $1,000, and for loss of $250 or less that appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct?

    • A.

      Installation commander.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Resource manager (RM).

    • D.

      Activity manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron commander.
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for appointing an individual to conduct an inquiry for losses over $250, up to and including $1,000, and for loss of $250 or less that appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct. The installation commander, resource manager (RM), and activity manager do not have the authority to make this appointment.

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  • 43. 

    Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur in Air Force (AF) installations?

    • A.

      AF

    • B.

      Contractor

    • C.

      Employees

    • D.

      Facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. AF
    Explanation
    The Air Force (AF) must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur in AF installations because they are responsible for maintaining a fair and unbiased environment for all parties involved. As the governing body, the AF should not favor any specific group, whether it be the contractor, employees, or facility manager, and instead ensure that the dispute resolution process is conducted in a neutral and impartial manner.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of contract is awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?

    • A.

      Unique skill.

    • B.

      On-call service.

    • C.

      One-time service.

    • D.

      Individual service.

    Correct Answer
    D. Individual service.
    Explanation
    Individual service contracts are awarded to specified individuals who possess unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract is tailored to the specific needs and requirements of the individual, recognizing their specialized expertise and abilities. It allows NAFI to engage individuals with the necessary qualifications to carry out the desired service effectively.

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  • 45. 

    In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?

    • A.

      When the contract is less than one year.

    • B.

      When the service will only e provided one time.

    • C.

      When the contract will be paid on a per job basis.

    • D.

      For services that the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position.

    Correct Answer
    D. For services that the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position.
    Explanation
    Individual service contracts are not used when the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position. This means that if the individual is already required to provide services to NAFI as part of their job, a separate individual service contract is not necessary.

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  • 46. 

    What type contract is negotiated for services that do not require unique skills?

    • A.

      General.

    • B.

      Open-ended.

    • C.

      Individual service.

    • D.

      Nonpersonal service.

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonpersonal service.
    Explanation
    Nonpersonal service contracts are negotiated for services that do not require unique skills. These contracts are typically used when the services needed can be performed by any qualified individual or company and do not require specialized expertise. Unlike individual service contracts, which are negotiated for services that require unique skills, nonpersonal service contracts are more general in nature and can be fulfilled by multiple providers. Open-ended contracts, on the other hand, refer to contracts that do not have a set duration or end date.

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  • 47. 

    What type contracts are approved at one level above the commander?

    • A.

      Concessionaire.

    • B.

      Mess attendant.

    • C.

      Individual service.

    • D.

      Nonpersonal service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Concessionaire.
    Explanation
    Contracts with concessionaires are approved at one level above the commander. A concessionaire is a person or company that is granted a contract to operate a business or provide a service on military installations. This type of contract involves the leasing or licensing of facilities or land for commercial purposes, such as operating a restaurant or retail store. The approval at a higher level ensures that the terms and conditions of the contract are in line with the commander's objectives and comply with relevant regulations and policies.

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  • 48. 

    The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called?

    • A.

      Concessionaire.

    • B.

      Incentive.

    • C.

      Individual service.

    • D.

      Nonpersonal service.

    Correct Answer
    B. Incentive.
    Explanation
    Incentive contracts are designed to motivate contractors by providing them with additional rewards or incentives for meeting or exceeding performance targets. These contracts typically include performance-based bonuses or profit-sharing arrangements, which encourage contractors to perform at their best. By linking compensation to performance, incentive contracts aim to align the interests of the contractor with the goals of the project or organization.

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  • 49. 

    After how many days should major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    When developing a contract contingency clause, major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases should be prepared to expand their operations after 30 days. This means that they should have plans and resources in place to increase their operational capacity within this timeframe in case of any unforeseen circumstances or emergencies.

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  • 50. 

    After quality assurance personnel (QAP) has received all training, what document should they be familiar with?

    • A.

      Master fixed asset listing (MFAL).

    • B.

      Life-of-the-fund (LOF) file.

    • C.

      Service delivery summary (SDS).

    • D.

      Position description.

    Correct Answer
    C. Service delivery summary (SDS).
    Explanation
    After quality assurance personnel (QAP) have received all training, they should be familiar with the Service Delivery Summary (SDS). The SDS is a document that provides a summary of the services delivered by an organization. It includes information about the type of services, the quantity, and the quality of services provided. Familiarity with the SDS is important for QAPs as it allows them to understand the scope and nature of the services being delivered, which is crucial for their role in ensuring quality assurance and compliance.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 16, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Rotnribbitt
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