Test Your Knowledge CDC

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 85

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Study for CDC USAF 2T271 


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
    • A. 

      Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.

    • B. 

      Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.

    • C. 

      Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule.

    • D. 

      Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in.

  • 2. 
    (001) Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?  
    • A. 

      Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties.

    • B. 

      Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.

    • C. 

      Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day’s activities.

    • D. 

      Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals.

  • 3. 
    (001) Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?
    • A. 

      Knowing your people and the work center’s current and future needs.

    • B. 

      Communicating your expectations to the work crews.

    • C. 

      Assigning them to the same duties every day.

    • D. 

      Considering their safety and security.

  • 4. 
    (002) Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      45.

  • 5. 
    (002) It is important for you and your subordinates to accurately complete the workload documents for your work center, such as the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, because
    • A. 

      They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.

    • B. 

      The work center superintendent reviews them daily and asks questions about the missions, which has a direct impact on your performance report.

    • C. 

      Capturing aircraft delays is critical to streamlining work center processes, which has a direct impact on which type of shift you work.

    • D. 

      They are inspected during unit compliance and operational readiness inspections, which has a direct impact on your pass or failure.

  • 6. 
    (002) If your unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo in July, what number would you enter in the appropriate block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
    • A. 

      20,000.

    • B. 

      20K.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      2.

  • 7. 
    (002) Which type of manpower authorizations do you use for preparing the work center data on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, and from which document do you take that data?
    • A. 

      Funded; Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    • B. 

      Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

    • C. 

      Unfunded; UPMR.

    • D. 

      Unfunded; UMD.

  • 8. 
    (002) If it takes your work center personnel over 30 minutes to drive to the C–130 parking area for each K-loader load, which section would you enter this information on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
    • A. 

      Section XII, Remarks.

    • B. 

      Section III, General Information.

    • C. 

      Section IV, Aircraft Handled by Type.

    • D. 

      You would not enter this information on the report.

  • 9. 
    (003.) When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to
    • A. 

      Assess mission readiness for use on enlisted performance reports.

    • B. 

      Assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.

    • C. 

      Stratify key personnel within each unit to professionally develop lower-ranking individuals.

    • D. 

      Stratify key personnel within each unit for whom to submit annual and quarterly awards packages.

  • 10. 
    (003.) If a commander directs a self-inspection, when may he or she do so?
    • A. 

      Every six months.

    • B. 

      Every quarter.

    • C. 

      At any time.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 11. 
    (003.) If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, after direction from Headquarters Air Mobility Command, the unit will
    • A. 

      Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation

    • B. 

      Notify the major command (MAJCOM) commander of the oversight and reschedule the inspection for a later date.

    • C. 

      Conduct a self-inspection on all programs and return the results through the numbered Air Force.

    • D. 

      Notify the Wing commander of the oversight and request an inspection through the MAJCOM.

  • 12. 
    (003.) How often will you accomplish self-inspection checklists if assigned to an active duty and an Air National Guard (ANG) unit, respectively?
    • A. 

      Every quarter/annually.

    • B. 

      Every six months/annually.

    • C. 

      Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.

    • D. 

      Every six months, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.

  • 13. 
    (004) Which is not a level of war?
    • A. 

      Tactical.

    • B. 

      Strategic.

    • C. 

      Offensive.

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 14. 
    (004) Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?
    • A. 

      Tactical only.

    • B. 

      Tactical and strategic only.

    • C. 

      Strategic, offensive, and tactical.

    • D. 

      Strategic, operational, and tactical.

  • 15. 
    (004) Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?
    • A. 

      Supply.

    • B. 

      Health Service Support.

    • C. 

      Deployment and distribution.

    • D. 

      Operational contract support.

  • 16. 
    (004) Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental US (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?
    • A. 

      Tactical.

    • B. 

      Theater.

    • C. 

      Strategic.

    • D. 

      Civil Support.

  • 17. 
    (004) How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC)?
    • A. 

      11 months before the calendar year being reported.

    • B. 

      23 months before the calendar year being reported.

    • C. 

      11 months before the fiscal year being reported.

    • D. 

      23 months before the fiscal year being reported.

  • 18. 
    (005) If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?
    • A. 

      Operation order (OPORD).

    • B. 

      Operational Plan (OPLAN).

    • C. 

      Concept Plan (CONPLAN).

    • D. 

      Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).

  • 19. 
    (005) Which type of plan’s extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?
    • A. 

      Operational Plan (OPLAN).

    • B. 

      Concept Plan (CONPLAN).

    • C. 

      Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).

    • D. 

      Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).

  • 20. 
    (005) What is the objective of concept planning?
    • A. 

      Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation.

    • B. 

      Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).

    • C. 

      Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.

    • D. 

      Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes.

  • 21. 
    (005) Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it’s necessary for an operation?
    • A. 

      Operation order (OPORD).

    • B. 

      Concept Plan (CONPLAN).

    • C. 

      Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).

    • D. 

      Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).

  • 22. 
    (005) How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?
    • A. 

      Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.

    • B. 

      They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.

    • C. 

      Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.

    • D. 

      Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.

  • 23. 
    (005) What is the Air Force’s war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?
    • A. 

      Geographic Location File (GEOFILE).

    • B. 

      Time-phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).

    • C. 

      Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).

    • D. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

  • 24. 
    (005) The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to either
    • A. 

      Unit type code and contains all of the OPLANs and CONPLANs associated with the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).

    • B. 

      Cargo category code contained within the type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file and contains detailed OPLAN and CONPLAN data.

    • C. 

      An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.

    • D. 

      National Air Mobility System (NAMS) and contains all of the data used to aggregate cargo category codes with the OPLAN or CONPLAN.

  • 25. 
    (006) If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for
    • A. 

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.

    • B. 

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.

    • C. 

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.

    • D. 

      Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.

  • 26. 
    (006) If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?
    • A. 

      Initial.

    • B. 

      Refresher.

    • C. 

      Weak area.

    • D. 

      New procedure.

  • 27. 
    (007) Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
    • A. 

      Provide data critical to crisis planning.

    • B. 

      Provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes.

    • C. 

      Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.

    • D. 

      Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war.

  • 28. 
    (007) If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every
    • A. 

      30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation.

    • B. 

      30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level).

    • C. 

      90 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall C-level.

    • D. 

      90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation.

  • 29. 
    (007) Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?
    • A. 

      AF Form 632.

    • B. 

      AF Form 623.

    • C. 

      AF Form 732.

    • D. 

      AF Form 723.

  • 30. 
    (007) If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
    • A. 

      C–1.

    • B. 

      C–2.

    • C. 

      C–3.

    • D. 

      C–4.

  • 31. 
    (007) If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
    • A. 

      C–1.

    • B. 

      C–2.

    • C. 

      C–3.

    • D. 

      C–4.

  • 32. 
    (007) If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to
    • A. 

      Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.

    • B. 

      Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings.

    • C. 

      Smooth AEF execution.

    • D. 

      Ensure a solid C-level.

  • 33. 
    (007) If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to
    • A. 

      Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support.

    • B. 

      Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.

    • C. 

      Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected.

    • D. 

      Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies.

  • 34. 
    (008) What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
    • A. 

      ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.

    • B. 

      IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP.

    • C. 

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages.

    • D. 

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls.

  • 35. 
    (008) Which of the following is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
    • A. 

      Assesses the ability to support the operation.

    • B. 

      Allocates resources previously identified in part 1.

    • C. 

      Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages.

    • D. 

      Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.

  • 36. 
    (008) When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), what crucial element in each step of the process must you and the installation deployment officer always consider?
    • A. 

      Operational risk management (ORM).

    • B. 

      Infrastructure.

    • C. 

      Flexibility.

    • D. 

      Clarity.

  • 37. 
    (009) What is the primary purpose of support agreements?
    • A. 

      Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.

    • B. 

      Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy.

    • C. 

      Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation.

    • D. 

      Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces.

  • 38. 
    (009) If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, which type of support agreement is required?
    • A. 

      Intragovernmental.

    • B. 

      Intergovernmental.

    • C. 

      Intraservice.

    • D. 

      Interservice.

  • 39. 
    (009) If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?
    • A. 

      Intragovernmental.

    • B. 

      Intergovernmental.

    • C. 

      Intraservice.

    • D. 

      Interservice.

  • 40. 
    (009) If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, on which form would that arrangement need to be documented?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1144.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1144.

    • C. 

      DD Form 4411.

    • D. 

      AF Form 4411.

  • 41. 
    (009) When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which of the following documents?
    • A. 

      Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA).

    • B. 

      Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).

    • C. 

      Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA.

    • D. 

      ISP or an MOU.

  • 42. 
    (010) If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?
    • A. 

      The installation will fund these requirements.

    • B. 

      The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.

    • C. 

      The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned.

    • D. 

      SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee.

  • 43. 
    010) A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because
    • A. 

      Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around.

    • B. 

      If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.

    • C. 

      Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.

    • D. 

      Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual’s contract before performing augmentation duties.

  • 44. 
    (011) Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
    • A. 

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

    • B. 

      Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS).

    • C. 

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    • D. 

      AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107.

  • 45. 
    (011) A “1” under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) indicates the
    • A. 

      Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC).

    • B. 

      Number of positions that exist for the specified grade.

    • C. 

      Specified position is unfunded for that quarter.

    • D. 

      Specified position is funded for that quarter.

  • 46. 
    (012) When performing a joint inspection (JI), you annotate the “start time” block on DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by entering the
    • A. 

      Greenwich Meantime the JI is scheduled to start.

    • B. 

      Greenwich Meantime the JI actually started.

    • C. 

      Local time the JI is scheduled to start.

    • D. 

      Local time the JI actually started.

  • 47. 
    (012) When performing a joint inspection (JI), how will you annotate the DD Form 2133 if an item on the list is satisfactory?
    • A. 

      An “X.”

    • B. 

      Circle it.

    • C. 

      A check mark.

    • D. 

      Leave it blank.

  • 48. 
    (012) During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure that
    • A. 

      You verify the material inside the cart is, in fact, nitrogen.

    • B. 

      Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.

    • C. 

      You release the valves on the left side of the cart so the nitrogen does not expand in flight.

    • D. 

      Valve stems on the pressure panel are serviceable and caps are present and properly installed.

  • 49. 
    012) During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark an internal slingable unit (ISU) as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure the cargo within it is secured and restrained
    • A. 

      To prevent movement and damage during flight.

    • B. 

      With three 2 x 4 wooden beams spanning the width of the ISU.

    • C. 

      To allow room for hazardous materials to expand and reduce during flight.

    • D. 

      With ¼-inch nylon rope to secure all hazardous materials to the doors to prevent opening.

  • 50. 
    (006) If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for
    • A. 

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.

    • B. 

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.

    • C. 

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.

    • D. 

      Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.